AH1 exam 3 Chapt 59

34. A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a hemodynamic monitoring system in place. For what complications should the nurse assess? Select all that apply. A) Pneumothorax B) Infection C) Atelectasis D) Bronchospasm E) Air embolism

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Complications from use of hemodynamic monitoring systems are uncommon, but can include pneumothorax, infection, and air embolism. Complications of hemodynamic monitoring systems do not include atelectasis or bronchospasm.

A patient with a complex cardiac history is scheduled for transthoracic echocardiography. What should the nurse teach the patient in anticipation of this diagnostic procedure? A) The test is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the patients body. B) The patients pain will be managed aggressively during the procedure. C) The test will provide a detailed profile of the hearts electrical activity. D) The patient will remain on bed rest for 1 to 2 hours after the test.

Ans: The test is noninvasive, and nothing will be inserted into the patient's body. Feedback: Before transthoracic echocardiography, the nurse informs the patient about the test, explaining that it is painless. The test does not evaluate electrophysiology and bed rest is unnecessary after the procedure.

The nurse is caring for an acutely ill patient who has central venous pressure monitoring in place. What intervention should be included in the care plan of a patient with CVP in place? A) Apply antibiotic ointment to the insertion site twice daily. B) Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled. C) Perform passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent venous stasis. D) Aspirate blood from the device once daily to test pH.

B) Change the site dressing whenever it becomes visibly soiled.

The nurse's assessment of an older adult client reveals the following data: Lying BP 144/82 mm Hg; sitting BP 121/69 mm Hg; standing BP 98/56 mm Hg. The nurse should consequently identify what nursing diagnosis in the patient's plan of care? A) Risk for ineffective breathing pattern related to hypotension B) Risk for falls related to orthostatic hypotension C) Risk for ineffective role performance related to hypotension D) Risk for imbalanced fluid balance related to hemodynamic variability

B) Risk for falls related to orthostatic hypotension

A resident of a long-term care facility has complained to the nurse of chest pain. What aspect of the resident's pain would be most suggestive of angina as the cause? A) The pain is worse when the resident inhales deeply. B) The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion. C) The pain is worse when the resident coughs. D) The pain is most severe when the resident moves his upper body.

B) The pain occurs immediately following physical exertion.

clinic nurse is providing preprocedure education for a man who will undergo a vasectomy. Which of the following measures will enhance healing and comfort? Select all that apply. A) Abstaining from sexual intercourse for at least 14 days postprocedure B) Wearing a scrotal support garment C) Using sitz baths D) Applying a heating pad intermittently E) Staying on bed rest for 48 to 72 hours postprocedure

B) Wearing a scrotal support garment C) Using sitz baths

A nurse is preparing a patient for scheduled transesophageal echocardiography. What action should the nurse perform? A) Instruct the patient to drink 1 liter of water before the test. B) Administer IV benzodiazepines and opioids. C) Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the procedure. D) Inform the patient that an access line will be initiated in her femoral artery

C) Inform the patient that she will remain on bed rest following the procedure. During the recovery period, the patient must maintain bed rest with the head of the bed elevated to 45 degrees. The patient must be NPO 6 hours preprocedure. The patient is sedated to make him or her comfortable, but will not be heavily sedated, and opioids are not necessary. Also, the patient will have a peripheral IV line initiated preprocedure.

A patient is brought into the ED by family members who tell the nurse the patient grabbed his chest and complained of substernal chest pain. The care team recognizes the need to monitor the patients cardiac function closely while interventions are performed. What form of monitoring should the nurse anticipate? A) Left-sided heart catheterization B) Cardiac telemetry C) Transesophageal echocardiography D) Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring

D) Hardwire continuous ECG monitoring

A critically ill patient is admitted to the ICU. The physician decides to use intra-arterial pressure monitoring. After this intervention is performed, what assessment should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A) Fluctuations in core body temperature B) Signs and symptoms of esophageal varices C) Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome D) Perfusion distal to the insertion site

D) Perfusion distal to the insertion site

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has been experiencing bradycardia after cardiovascular surgery. The nurse knows that the heart rate is determined by myocardial cells with the fastest inherent firing rate. Under normal circumstances where are these cells located? A) SA node B) AV node C) Bundle of His D) Purkinje cells

SA node

The nurse is conducting patient teaching about cholesterol levels. When discussing the patients elevated LDL and lowered HDL levels, the patient shows an understanding of the significance of these levels by stating what? A) Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease. B) Increased LDL has the potential to decrease my risk of heart disease. C) The decreased HDL level will increase the amount of cholesterol moved away from the artery walls. D) The increased LDL will decrease the amount of cholesterol deposited on the artery walls.

A. "Increased LDL and decreased HDL increase my risk of coronary artery disease."

A nurse is providing care for a patient who has recently been admitted to the postsurgical unit from PACU following a transuretheral resection of the prostate. The nurse is aware of the nursing diagnosis of Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume. In order to assess for this risk, the nurse should prioritize what action? A) Closely monitoring the input and output of the bladder irrigation system B) Administering parenteral nutrition and fluids as ordered C) Monitoring the patients level of consciousness and skin turgor D) Scanning the patients bladder for retention every 2 hours

Ans: A Feedback: Continuous bladder irrigation effectively reduces the risk of clots in the GU tract but also creates a risk for fluid volume excess if it becomes occluded. The nurse must carefully compare input and output, and ensure that these are in balance. Parenteral nutrition is unnecessary after prostate surgery and skin turgor is not an accurate indicator of fluid status. Frequent bladder scanning is not required when a urinary catheter is in situ.

A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following? A) Pelvic floor exercises B) Intermittent urinary catheterization C) Reduced physical activity D) Active range of motion exercises

Ans: A Feedback: Pelvic floor muscles can promote the resumption of normal urinary function following prostate surgery. Catheterization is normally unnecessary, and it carries numerous risks of adverse effects. Increasing or decreasing physical activity is unlikely to influence urinary function.

A public health nurse is teaching a health class for the male students at the local high school. The nurse is teaching the boys to perform monthly testicular self-examinations. What point would be appropriate to emphasize? A) Testicular cancer is a highly curable type of cancer. B) Testicular cancer is very difficult to diagnose. C) Testicular cancer is the number one cause of cancer deaths in males. D) Testicular cancer is more common in older men.

Ans: A Feedback: Testicular cancer is highly curable, particularly when its treated in its early stage. Self-examination allows early detection and facilitates the early initiation of treatment. The highest mortality rates from cancer among men are with lung cancer. Testicular cancer is found more commonly in younger men

A 29-year-old patient has just been told that he has testicular cancer and needs to have surgery. During a presurgical appointment, the patient admits to feeling devastated that he requires surgery, stating that it will leave him emasculated and a shell of a man. The nurse should identify what nursing diagnosis when planning the patients subsequent care? A) Disturbed Body Image Related to Effects of Surgery B) Spiritual Distress Related to Effects of Cancer Surgery C) Social Isolation Related to Effects of Surgery D) Risk for Loneliness Related to Change in Self-Concept

Ans: A Feedback: The patient's statements specifically address his perception of his body as it relates to his identity. Consequently, a nursing diagnosis of Disturbed Body Image is likely appropriate. This patient is at risk for social isolation and loneliness, but there's no indication in the scenario that these diagnoses are present. There is no indication of spiritual element to the patient's concerns.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with angina who is scheduled for cardiac catheterization. The patient is anxious and asks the reason for this test. What is the best response? A) Cardiac catheterization is usually done to assess how blocked or open a patients coronary arteries are. B) Cardiac catheterization is most commonly done to detect how efficiently a patients heart muscle contracts. C) Cardiac catheterization is usually done to evaluate cardiovascular response to stress. D) Cardiac catheterization is most commonly done to evaluate cardiac electrical activity.

Ans: A Feedback: Cardiac catheterization is usually used to assess coronary artery patency to determine if revascularization procedures are necessary. A thallium stress test shows myocardial ischemia after stress. An ECG shows the electrical activity of the heart.

A 22-year-old male is being discharged home after surgery for testicular cancer. The patient is scheduled to begin chemotherapy in 2 weeks. The patient tells the nurse that he doesnt think he can take weeks or months of chemotherapy, stating that he has researched the adverse effects online. What is the most appropriate nursing action for this patient at this time? A) Provide empathy and encouragement in an effort to foster a positive outlook. B) Tell the patient it is his decision whether to accept or reject chemotherapy. C) Report the patients statement to members of his support system. D) Refer the patient to social work.

Ans: A Feedback: Patients may be required to endure a long course of therapy and will need encouragement to maintain a positive attitude. It is certainly the patients ultimate decision to accept or reject chemotherapy, but the nurse should focus on promoting a positive outlook. It would be a violation of confidentiality to report the patients statement to members of his support system and there is no obvious need for a social work referral.

A patient's declining cardiac status has been attributed to decreased cardiac action potential. Interventions will be aimed at restoring what aspect of cardiac physiology? A) The cycle of depolarization and repolarization B) The time it takes from the firing of the SA node to the contraction of the ventricles C) The time between the contraction of the atria and the contraction of the ventricles D) The cycle of the firing of the AV node and the contraction of the myocardium

Ans: A Feedback: This exchange of ions creates a positively charged intracellular space and a negatively charged extracellular space that characterizes the period known as depolarization. Once depolarization is complete, the exchange of ions reverts to its resting state; this period is known as repolarization. The repeated cycle of depolarization and repolarization is called the cardiac action potential.

A patient has just returned to the floor following a transurethral resection of the prostate. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter has been inserted for continuous bladder irrigation. What, in addition to balloon inflation, are the functions of the three lumens? A) Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution B) Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution C) Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution D) Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage

Ans: A Feedback: For continuous bladder irrigation, a triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted. The three lumens provide for balloon inflation and continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

A 35-year-old man is seen in the clinic because he is experiencing recurring episodes of urinary frequency, dysuria, and fever. The nurse should recognize the possibility of what health problem? A) Chronic bacterial prostatitis B) Orchitis C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia D) Urolithiasis

Ans: A Feedback: Prostatitis is an inflammation of the prostate gland that is often associated with lower urinary tract symptoms and symptoms of sexual discomfort and dysfunction. Symptoms are usually mild, consisting of frequency, dysuria, and occasionally urethral discharge. Urinary incontinence and retention occur with benign prostatic hyperplasia or hypertrophy. The patient may experience nocturia, urgency, decrease in volume and force of urinary stream. Urolithiasis is characterized by excruciating pain. Orchitis does not cause urinary symptoms

The nurse is calculating a cardiac patients pulse pressure. If the patients blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg, what is the patients pulse pressure? A) 46 mm Hg B) 99 mm Hg C) 198 mm Hg D) 76 mm Hg

Ans: A Feedback: Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. In this case, this value is 46 mm Hg.

To decrease glandular cellular activity and prostate size, an 83-year-old patient has been prescribed finasteride (Proscar). When performing patient education with this patient, the nurse should be sure to tell the patient what? A) Report the planned use of dietary supplements to the physician. B) Decrease the intake of fluids to prevent urinary retention. C) Abstain from sexual activity for 2 weeks following the initiation of treatment. D) Anticipate a temporary worsening of urinary retention before symptoms subside

Ans: A Feedback: Some herbal supplements are contraindicated with Proscar, thus their planned use should be discussed with the physician or pharmacist. The patient should maintain normal fluid intake. There is no need to abstain from sexual activity and a worsening of urinary retention is not anticipated.

A nurse is describing the process by which blood is ejected into circulation as the chambers of the heart become smaller. The instructor categorizes this action of the heart as what? A) Systole B) Diastole C) Repolarization D) Ejection fraction

Ans: A Feedback: Systole is the action of the chambers of the heart becoming smaller and ejecting blood. This action of the heart is not diastole (relaxations), ejection fraction (the amount of blood expelled), or repolarization (electrical charging).

A nurse is teaching a 53-year-old man about prostate cancer. What information should the nurse provide to best facilitate the early identification of prostate cancer? A) Have a digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) test done yearly. B) Have a transrectal ultrasound every 5 years. C) Perform monthly testicular self-examinations, especially after age 60. D) Have a complete blood count (CBC), blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine assessment performed annually.

Ans: A Feedback: The incidence of prostate cancer increases after age 50. The digital rectal examination, which identifies enlargement or irregularity of the prostate, and the PSA test, a tumor marker for prostate cancer, are effective diagnostic measures that should be done yearly. Testicular self-examinations wont identify changes in the prostate gland due to its location in the body. A transrectal ultrasound and CBC with BUN and creatinine assessment are usually done after diagnosis to identify the extent of disease and potential metastases.

A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response? A) A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. B) HNPCC is a mutation of two genes that causes prostate cancer in men and it is autosomal dominant. C) Studies have shown that the presence of the TP53 gene strongly influences the incidence of prostate cancer. D) Recent research has demonstrated that prostate cancer is the result of lifestyle factors and that genetics are unrelated.

Ans: A Feedback: A number of studies have identified an association of BRCA-2 mutation with an increased risk of prostate cancer. HPNCC is a form of colon cancer. The TP53 gene is associated with breast cancer.

A patient who is postoperative day 12 and recovering at home following a laparoscopic prostatectomy has reported that he is experiencing occasional dribbling of urine. How should the nurse best respond to this patients concern? A) Inform the patient that urinary control is likely to return gradually. B) Arrange for the patient to be assessed by his urologist. C) Facilitate the insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter by the home care nurse. D) Teach the patient to perform intermittent self-catheterization.

Ans: A Feedback: It is important that the patient know that regaining urinary control is a gradual process; he may continue to dribble after being discharged from the hospital, but this should gradually diminish (usually within 1 year). At this point, medical follow-up is likely not necessary. There is no need to perform urinary catheterization.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery pressure monitoring system. The nurse is aware that pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is used to assess left ventricular function. What is an additional function of pulmonary artery pressure monitoring systems? A) To assess the patients response to fluid and drug administration B) To obtain specimens for arterial blood gas measurements C) To dislodge pulmonary emboli D) To diagnose the etiology of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

Ans: A Feedback: Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring is an important tool used in critical care for assessing left ventricular function (cardiac output), diagnosing the etiology of shock, and evaluating the patients response to medical interventions, such as fluid administration and vasoactive medications. Pulmonary artery monitoring is preferred for the patient with heart failure over central venous pressure monitoring. Arterial catheters are useful when arterial blood gas measurements and blood samples need to be obtained frequently. Neither intervention is used to clear pulmonary emboli.

The physician has placed a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring line in an acutely ill patient so right ventricular function and venous blood return can be closely monitored. The results show decreased CVP. What does this indicate? A) Possible hypovolemia B) Possible myocardial infarction (MI) C) Left-sided heart failure D) Aortic valve regurgitation

Ans: A Feedback: Hypovolemia may cause a decreased CVP. MI, valve regurgitation and heart failure are less likely causes of decreased CVP.

A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated? A) Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum B) Circumcision C) Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks D) Administration of vardenafil

Ans: B Feedback: Circumcision is usually indicated after the inflammation and edema subside. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum is indicated in priapism; abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks is not indicated. Vardenafil is Levitra and would not be used for paraphimosis

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a history of heart disease. What factor should the nurse identify as possibly contributing to a decrease in cardiac output? A) A change in position from standing to sitting B) A heart rate of 54 bpm C) A pulse oximetry reading of 94% D) An increase in preload related to ambulation

Ans: A heart rate of 54 bpm Feedback: Cardiac output is computed by multiplying the stroke volume by the heart rate. Cardiac output can be affected by changes in either stroke volume or heart rate, such as a rate of 54 bpm. An increase in preload will lead to an increase in stroke volume. A pulse oximetry reading of 94% does not indicate hypoxemia, as hypoxia can decrease contractility. Transitioning from standing to sitting would more likely increase rather than decrease cardiac output.

The student nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a patient being discharged status post MI. What should the student include in the teaching plan? (Mark all that apply.) A) Need for careful monitoring for cardiac symptoms B) Need for carefully regulated exercise C) Need for dietary modifications D) Need for early resumption of prediagnosis activity E) Need for increased fluid intake

Ans: A, B, C Feedback: Dietary modifications, exercise, weight loss, and careful monitoring are important strategies for managing three major cardiovascular risk factors: hyperlipidemia, hypertension, and diabetes. There is no need to increase fluid intake and activity should be slowly and deliberately increased.

When hemodynamic monitoring is ordered for a patient, a catheter is inserted into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. When assessing a patient who has such a device in place, the nurse should check which of the following components? Select all that apply. A) A transducer B) A flush system C) A leveler D) A pressure bag E) An oscillator

Ans: A, B, D Feedback: To perform hemodynamic monitoring, a CVP, pulmonary artery, or arterial catheter is introduced into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. It is connected to a pressure monitoring system that has several components. Included among these are a transducer, a flush system, and a pressure bag. A pressure monitoring system does not have a leveler or an oscillator.

The nurse is leading a workshop on sexual health for men. The nurse should teach participants that organic causes of erectile dysfunction include what? Select all that apply. A) Diabetes B) Testosterone deficiency C) Anxiety D) Depression E) Parkinsonism

Ans: A, B, E Feedback: Organic causes of ED include cardiovascular disease, endocrine disease (diabetes, pituitary tumors, testosterone deficiency, hyperthyroidism, and hypothyroidism), cirrhosis, chronic renal failure, genitourinary conditions (radical pelvic surgery), hematologic conditions (Hodgkin disease, leukemia), neurologic disorders (neuropathies, parkinsonism, spinal cord injury, multiple sclerosis), trauma to the pelvic or genital area, alcohol, smoking, medications, and drug abuse. Anxiety and depression are considered to be psychogenic causes.

The patient has a homocysteine level ordered. What aspects of this test should inform the nurse's care? Select all that apply. A) A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing the blood sample. B) Recent inactivity can depress homocysteine levels. C) Genetic factors can elevate homocysteine levels. D) A diet low in folic acid elevates homocysteine levels. E) An ECG should be performed immediately before drawing a sample.

Ans: A, C, D Feedback: Genetic factors and a diet low in folic acid, vitamin B6, and vitamin B12 are associated with elevated homocysteine levels. A 12-hour fast is necessary before drawing a blood sample for an accurate serum measurement. An ECG is unnecessary and recent inactivity does not influence the results of the test.

A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply. A) Phimosis B) Priapism C) Herpes simplex infection D) Increasing age E) Lack of circumcision

Ans: A, D, E Feedback: Several risk factors for penile cancer have been identified, including lack of circumcision, poor genital hygiene, phimosis, HPV, smoking, ultraviolet light treatment of psoriasis on the penis, increasing age (two-thirds of cases occur in men older than 65 years of age), lichen sclerosus, and balanitis xerotica obliterans. Priapism and HSV are not known risk factors.

The nurse working on a cardiac care unit is caring for a patient whose stroke volume has increased. The nurse is aware that afterload influences a patients stroke volume. The nurse recognizes that afterload is increased when there is what? A) Arterial vasoconstriction B) Venous vasoconstriction C) Arterial vasodilation D) Venous vasodilation

Ans: Arterial vasoconstriction Feedback: Arterial vasoconstriction increases the systemic vascular resistance, which increases the afterload. Venous vasoconstriction decreases preload thereby decreasing stroke volume. Venous vasodilation increases preload.

29. A patient has returned to the floor from the PACU after undergoing a suprapubic prostatectomy. The nurse notes significant urine leakage around the suprapubic tube. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Cleanse the skin surrounding the suprapubic tube. B) Inform the urologist of this finding. C) Remove the suprapubic tube and apply a wet-to-dry dressing. D) Administer antispasmodic drugs as ordered.

Ans: B Feedback: The physician should be informed if there is significant leakage around a suprapubic catheter. Cleansing the skin is appropriate but does not resolve the problem. Removing the suprapubic tube is contraindicated because it is unsafe. Administering drugs will not stop the leakage of urine around the tube.

During a shift assessment, the nurse is identifying the client's point of maximum impulse (PMI). Where will the nurse best palpate the PMI? A) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the level of the nipple B) Left midclavicular line of the chest at the fifth intercostal space C) Midline between the xiphoid process and the left nipple D) Two to three centimeters to the left of the sternum

Ans: B Feedback: The left ventricle is responsible for the apical beat or the point of maximum impulse, which is normally palpated in the left midclavicular line of the chest wall at the fifth intercostal space.

A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurses response? A) Erectile dysfunction is common after prostatectomy as a result of hormonal changes. B) All prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction. C) Erectile dysfunction after prostatectomy is expected, but normally resolves within several months. D) Modern surgical techniques have eliminated the risk of erectile dysfunction following prostatectomy.

Ans: B Feedback: All prostatectomies carry a risk of impotence because of potential damage to the pudendal nerves. If this damage occurs, the effects are permanent. Hormonal changes do not affect sexual functioning after prostatectomy.

The nurse is doing discharge teaching with a patient who has coronary artery disease. The patient asks why he has to take an aspirin every day if he doesnt have any pain. What would be the nurses best response A) Taking an aspirin every day is an easy way to help restore the normal function of your heart. B) An aspirin a day can help prevent some of the blockages that can cause chest pain or heart attacks. C) Taking an aspirin every day is a simple way to make your blood penetrate your heart more freely. D) An aspirin a day eventually helps your blood carry more oxygen that it would otherwise

Ans: B Feedback: An aspirin a day is a common nonprescription medication that improves outcomes in patients with CAD due to its antiplatelet action. It does not affect oxygen carrying capacity or perfusion. Aspirin does not restore cardiac function

31. The physician has ordered a high-sensitivity C-reactive protein (hs-CRP) drawn on a patient. The results of this test will allow the nurse to evaluate the role of what process that is implicated in the development of atherosclerosis? A) Immunosuppression B) Inflammation C) Infection D) Hemostasis

Ans: B Feedback: High-sensitivity CRP is a protein produced by the liver in response to systemic inflammation. Inflammation is thought to play a role in the development and progression of atherosclerosis.

The physical therapist notifies the nurse that a patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiences a much greater-than-average increase in heart rate during physical therapy. The nurse recognizes that an increase in heart rate in a patient with CAD may result in what? A) Development of an atrial-septal defect B) Myocardial ischemia C) Formation of a pulmonary embolism D) Release of potassium ions from cardiac cells

Ans: B Feedback: Unlike other arteries, the coronary arteries are perfused during diastole. An increase in heart rate shortens diastole and can decrease myocardial perfusion. Patients, particularly those with CAD, can develop myocardial ischemia. An increase in heart rate will not usually result in a pulmonary embolism or create electrolyte imbalances. Atrial-septal defects are congenital.

A 55-year-old man presents at the clinic complaining of erectile dysfunction. The patient has a history of diabetes. The physician orders tadalafil (Cialis) to be taken 1 hour before sexual intercourse. The nurse reviews the patients history prior to instructing the patient on the use of this medication. What disorder will contraindicate the use of tadalafil (Cialis)? A) Cataracts B) Retinopathy C) Hypotension D) Diabetic nephropathy

Ans: B Feedback: Patients with cataracts, hypotension, or nephropathy will be allowed to take tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) if needed. However, tadalafil (Cialis) and sildenafil (Viagra) are usually contraindicated with diabetic retinopathy

4. A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication? A) Sexual stimulation is not needed to obtain an erection. B) The drug should be taken 1 hour prior to intercourse. C) Facial flushing or headache should be reported to the physician immediately. D) The drug has the potential to cause permanent visual changes.

Ans: B Feedback: The patient must have sexual stimulation to create the erection, and the drug should be taken 1 hour before intercourse. Facial flushing, mild headache, indigestion, and running nose are common side effects of Viagra and do not normally warrant reporting to the physician. Some visual disturbances may occur, but these are transient.

A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction? A) The patient has been treated for a UTI twice in the past year. B) The patient has a history of hypertension. C) The patient is 66 years old. D) The patient leads a sedentary lifestyle.

Ans: B Feedback: Past history of infection and lack of exercise do not contribute to impotence. With advancing age, sexual function and libido and potency decrease somewhat, but this is not the primary reason for impotence. Vascular problems cause about half the cases of impotence in men older than 50 years; hypertension is a major cause of such problems

A 75-year-old male patient is being treated for phimosis. When planning this patients care, what health promotion activity is most directly related to the etiology of the patients health problem? A) Teaching the patient about safer sexual practices B) Teaching the patient about the importance of hygiene C) Teaching the patient about the safe use of PDE-5 inhibitors D) Teaching the patient to perform testicular self-examination

Ans: B Feedback: Poor hygiene often contributes to cases of phimosis. This health problem is unrelated to sexual practices, the use of PDE-5 inhibitors, or testicular self-examination

A 35-year-old father of three tells the nurse that he wants information on a vasectomy. What would the nurse tell him about ejaculate after a vasectomy? A) There will be no ejaculate after a vasectomy, though the patients potential for orgasm is unaffected. B) There is no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate even though it contains no sperm. C) There is a marked decrease in the amount of ejaculate after vasectomy, though this does not affect sexual satisfaction. D) There is no change in the quantity of ejaculate after vasectomy, but the viscosity is somewhat increased.

Ans: B Feedback: Seminal fluid is manufactured predominantly in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which are unaffected by vasectomy, thus no noticeable decrease in the amount of ejaculate occurs (volume decreases approximately 3%), even though it contains no spermatozoa. The viscosity of ejaculate does not change.

A physician explains to the patient that he has an inflammation of the Cowper glands. Where are the Cowper glands located? A) Within the epididymis B) Below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra C) On the inner epithelium lining the scrotum, lateral to the testes D) Medial to the vas deferens

Ans: B Below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra Feedback: Cowper glands lie below the prostate, within the posterior aspect of the urethra. This gland empties its secretions into the urethra during ejaculation, providing lubrication. The Cowper glands do not lie within the epididymis, within the scrotum, or alongside the vas deferens.

12. The critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring system. The nurse notes that the patient's CVP is increasing. Of what may this indicate? A) Psychosocial stress B) Hypervolemia C) Dislodgment of the catheter D) Hypomagnesemia

Ans: B Feedback: CVP is a useful hemodynamic parameter to observe when managing an unstable patients fluid volume status. An increasing pressure may be caused by hypervolemia or by a condition, such as heart failure, that results in decreased myocardial contractility. Stress, dislodgement of the catheter, and low magnesium levels would not typically result in increased CVP.

The critical care nurse is caring for a patient who has had an MI. The nurse should expect to assist with establishing what hemodynamic monitoring procedure to assess the patients left ventricular function? A) Central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring B) Pulmonary artery pressure monitoring (PAPM) C) Systemic arterial pressure monitoring (SAPM) D) Arterial blood gases (ABG

Ans: B Feedback: PAPM is used to assess left ventricular function. CVP is used to assess right ventricular function; SAPM is used for continual assessment of BP. ABG are used to assess for acidic and alkalotic levels in the blood.

While auscultating a patients heart sounds, the nurse hears an extra heart sound immediately after the second heart sound (S2). An audible S3 would be considered an expected finding in what patient? A) An older adult B) A 20-year-old patient C) A patient who has undergone valve replacement D) A patient who takes a beta-adrenergic blocker

Ans: B Feedback: S3 represents a normal finding in children and adults up to 35 or 40 years of age. In these cases, it is called a physiologic S3 . It is an abnormal finding in a patient with an artificial valve, an older adult, or a patient who takes a beta blocker.

The nurse is relating the deficits in a patient's synchronization of the atrial and ventricular events to his diagnosis. What are the physiologic characteristics of the nodal and Purkinje cells that provide this synchronization? Select all that apply. A) Loop connectivity B) Excitability C) Automaticity D) Conductivity E) Independence

Ans: B, C, D Feedback: Three physiologic characteristics of two types of specialized electrical cells, the nodal cells and the Purkinje cells, provide this synchronization: automaticity, or the ability to initiate an electrical impulse; excitability, or the ability to respond to an electrical impulse; and conductivity, the ability to transmit an electrical impulse from one cell to another. Loop connectivity is a distracter for this question. Independence of the cells has nothing to do with the synchronization described in the scenario.

A nurse is caring for a 33-year-old male who has come to the clinic for a physical examination. He states that he has not had a routine physical in 5 years. During the examination, the physician finds that digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals stoney hardening in the posterior lobe of the prostate gland that is not mobile. The nurse recognizes that the observation typically indicates what? A) A normal finding B) A sign of early prostate cancer C) Evidence of a more advanced lesion D) Metastatic disease

Ans: C Feedback: Routine repeated DRE (preferably by the same examiner) is important, because early cancer may be detected as a nodule within the gland or as an extensive hardening in the posterior lobe. The more advanced lesion is stony hard and fixed. This finding is not suggestive of metastatic disease.

A nursing student is learning how to perform sexual assessments using the PLISSIT model. According to this model, the student should begin an assessment by doing which of the following? A) Briefly teaching the patient about normal sexual physiology B) Assuring the patient that what he says will be confidential C) Asking the patient if he is willing to discuss sexual functioning D) Ensuring patient privacy

Ans: C Feedback: The PLISSIT (permission, limited information, specific suggestions, intensive therapy) model of sexual assessment and intervention may be used to provide a framework for nursing interventions. By beginning with the patient's permission, the nurse establishes a patient-centered focus.

A lipid profile has been ordered for a patient who has been experiencing cardiac symptoms. When should a lipid profile be drawn in order to maximize the accuracy of results? A) As close to the end of the day as possible B) After a meal high in fat C) After a 12-hour fast D) Thirty minutes after a normal meal

Ans: C Feedback: Although cholesterol levels remain relatively constant over 24 hours, the blood specimen for the lipid profile should be obtained after a 12-hour fast.

The nurse is performing an intake assessment on a patient with a new diagnosis of coronary artery disease. What would be the most important determination to make during this intake assessment? A) Whether the patient and involved family members understand the role of genetics in the etiology of the disease B) Whether the patient and involved family members understand dietary changes and the role of nutrition C) Whether the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem and respond appropriately D) Whether the patient and involved family members understand the importance of social support and community agencies

Ans: C Feedback: During the health history, the nurse needs to determine if the patient and involved family members are able to recognize symptoms of an acute cardiac problem, such as acute coronary syndrome (ACS) or HF, and seek timely treatment for these symptoms. Each of the other listed topics is valid, but the timely and appropriate response to a cardiac emergency is paramount.

A patient has had a myocardial infarction and has been diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action. You are aware that the damage occurred where? A) Endocardium B) Pericardium C) Myocardium D) Visceral pericardium

Ans: C Feedback: The myocardium is the layer of the heart responsible for the pumping action.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has central venous pressure (CVP) monitoring in place. The nurses most recent assessment reveals that CVP is 7 mm Hg. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Arrange for continuous cardiac monitoring and reposition the patient. B) Remove the CVP catheter and apply an occlusive dressing. C) Assess the patient for fluid overload and inform the physician. D) Raise the head of the patients bed and have the patient perform deep breathing exercise, if possible

Ans: C Feedback: The normal CVP is 2 to 6 mm Hg. Many problems can cause an elevated CVP, but the most common is due to hypervolemia. Assessing the patient and informing the physician are the most prudent actions. Repositioning the patient is ineffective and removing the device is inappropriate.

A nurse is performing an admission assessment on a 40-year-old man who has been admitted for outpatient surgery on his right knee. While taking the patients family history, he states, My father died of prostate cancer at age 48. The nurse should instruct him on which of the following health promotion activities? A) The patient will need PSA levels drawn starting at age 55. B) The patient should have testing for presence of the CDH1 and STK11 genes. C) The patient should have PSA levels drawn regularly. D) The patient should limit alcohol use due to the risk of malignancy.

Ans: C feedback: PSA screening is warranted by the patients family history and should not be delayed until age 55. The CDH1 and STK11 genes do not relate to the risk for prostate cancer. Alcohol consumption by the patient should be limited. However, this is not the most important health promotion intervention.

An adolescent is identified as having a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of his testes. The nurse knows that this adolescent will receive what medical diagnosis? A) Cryptorchidism B) Orchitis C) Hydrocele D) Prostatism

Ans: C Feedback: A hydrocele refers to a collection of fluid in the tunica vaginalis of the testes. Cryptorchidism is the most common congenital defect in males, characterized by failure of one or both of the testes to descend into the scrotum. Orchitis is an inflammation of the testes (testicular congestion) caused by pyogenic, viral, spirochetal, parasitic, traumatic, chemical, or unknown factors. Prostatism is an obstructive and irritative symptom complex that includes increased frequency and hesitancy in starting urination, a decrease in the volume and force of the urinary stream, acute urinary retention, and recurrent urinary tract infections.

A nurse is providing an educational event to a local mens group about prostate cancer. The nurse should cite an increased risk of prostate cancer in what ethnic group? A) Native Americans B) Caucasian Americans C) African Americans D) Asian Americans

Ans: C Feedback: African American men have a high risk of prostate cancer; furthermore, they are more than twice as likely to die from prostate cancer as men of other racial or ethnic groups.

A nurse practitioner is assessing a 55-year-old male patient who is complaining of perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, and frequency with urination. The patient states that he has pain with ejaculation. The nurse knows that the patient is exhibiting symptoms of what? A) Varicocele B) Epididymitis C) Prostatitis D) Hydrocele

Ans: C Feedback: Perineal discomfort, burning, urgency, frequency with urination, and pain with ejaculation is indicative of prostatitis. A varicocele is an abnormal dilation of the pampiniform venous plexus and the internal spermatic vein in the scrotum (the network of veins from the testis and the epididymis that constitute part of the spermatic cord). Epididymitis is an infection of the epididymis that usually descends from an infected prostate or urinary tract; it also may develop as a complication of gonorrhea. A hydrocele is a collection of fluid, generally in the tunica vaginalis of the testis, although it also may collect within the spermatic cord.

A patient has presented at the clinic with symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia. What diagnostic findings would suggest that this patient has chronic urinary retention? A) Hypertension B) Peripheral edema C) Tachycardia and other dysrhythmias D) Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Ans: D Hypertension, edema, and tachycardia would not normally be associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Azotemia is an accumulation of nitrogenous waste products, and renal failure can occur with chronic urinary retention and large residual volumes.

An uncircumcised 78-year-old male has presented at the clinic complaining that he cannot retract his foreskin over his glans. On examination, it is noted that the foreskin is very constricted. The nurse should recognize the presence of what health problem? A) Bowens disease B) Peyronies disease C) Phimosis D) Priapism

Ans: C Feedback: Phimosis is the term used to describe a condition in which the foreskin is constricted so that it cannot be retracted over the glans. Bowens disease is an in situ carcinoma of the penis. Peyronies disease is an acquired, benign condition that involves the buildup of fibrous plaques in the sheath of the corpus cavernosum. Priapism is an uncontrolled, persistent erection of the penis from either neural or vascular causes, including medications, sickle cell thrombosis, leukemic cell infiltration, spinal cord tumors, and tumor invasion of the penis or its vessels.

A nurse is assessing a patient who presented to the ED with priapism. The student nurse is aware that this condition is classified as a urologic emergency because of the potential for what? A) Urinary tract infection B) Chronic pain C) Permanent vascular damage D) Future erectile dysfunction

Ans: C Feedback: The ischemic form of priapism, which is described as nonsexual, persistent erection with little or no cavernous blood flow, must be treated promptly to prevent permanent damage to the penis. Priapism has not been indicated in the development of UTIs, chronic pain, or erectile dysfunction.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with unstable angina. The laboratory result for the initial troponin I is elevated in this patient. The nurse should recognize what implication of this assessment finding? A) This is only an accurate indicator of myocardial damage when it reaches its peak in 24 hours. B) Because the patient has a history of unstable angina, this is a poor indicator of myocardial injury. C) This is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury. D) This result indicates muscle injury, but does not specify the source

Ans: C Feedback: Troponin I, which is specific to cardiac muscle, is elevated within hours after myocardial injury. Even with a diagnosis of unstable angina, this is an accurate indicator of myocardial injury.

A patient has returned to the floor after undergoing a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). The patient has a continuous bladder irrigation system in place. The patient tells you he is experiencing bladder spasms and asks what you can do to relieve his discomfort. What is the most appropriate nursing action to relieve the discomfort of the patient? A) Apply a cold compress to the pubic area. B) Notify the urologist promptly. C) Irrigate the catheter with 30 to 50 mL of normal saline as ordered. D) Administer a smooth-muscle relaxant as ordered

Ans: D Feedback: Administering a medication that relaxes smooth muscles can help relieve bladder spasms. Neither a cold compress nor catheter irrigation will alleviate bladder spasms. In most cases, this problem can be relieved without the involvement of the urologist, who will normally order medications on a PRN basis.

A patient confides to the nurse that he cannot engage in sexual activity. The patient is 27 years old and has no apparent history of chronic illness that would contribute to erectile dysfunction. What does the nurse know will be ordered for this patient to assess his sexual functioning? A) Sperm count B) Ejaculation capacity tests C) Engorgement tests D) Nocturnal penile tumescence tests

Ans: D Feedback: Nocturnal penile tumescence tests may be conducted in a sleep laboratory to monitor changes in penile circumference during sleep using various methods to determine number, duration, rigidity, and circumference of penile erections; the results help identify whether the erectile dysfunction is caused by physiologic and/or psychological factors. A sperm count would be done if the patient was complaining of infertility. Ejaculation capacity tests and engorgement tests are not applicable for assessment in this circumstance.

A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality? A) Physical therapy B) Treatment with PDE-5 inhibitors C) Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections D) Surgery

Ans: D Feedback: Surgical removal of mature plaques is used to treat severe Peyronie's disease. There is no potential benefit to physical therapy and hydrocortisone injections are not normally used. PDE-5 inhibitors would exacerbate the problem.

A critical care nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary artery catheter in place. What does this catheter measure that is particularly important in critically ill patients? A) Pulmonary artery systolic pressure B) Right ventricular afterload C) Pulmonary artery pressure D) Left ventricular preload

Ans: D Feedback: Monitoring of the pulmonary artery diastolic and pulmonary artery wedge pressures is particularly important in critically ill patients because it is used to evaluate left ventricular filling pressures (i.e., left ventricular preload). This device does not directly measure the other listed aspects of cardiac function.

The nurse is caring for a patient who is undergoing an exercise stress test. Prior to reaching the target heart rate, the patient develops chest pain. What is the nurses most appropriate response? A) Administer sublingual nitroglycerin to allow the patient to finish the test. B) Initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation. C) Administer analgesia and slow the test. D) Stop the test and monitor the patient closely

Ans: D Feedback: Signs of myocardial ischemia would necessitate stopping the test. CPR would only be necessary if signs of cardiac or respiratory arrest were evident.

A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family? A) The patient should not be in contact with the baby after delivery. B) The patients treatment poses no risk to his daughter or her infant. C) The patients brachytherapy may be contraindicated for safety reasons. D) The patient should avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.

Ans: D Feedback: Brachytherapy involves the implantation of interstitial radioactive seeds under anesthesia. The surgeon uses ultrasound guidance to place about 80 to 100 seeds, and the patient returns home after the procedure. Exposure of others to radiation is minimal, but the patient should avoid close contact with pregnant women and infants for up to 2 months.

A public health nurse has been asked to provide a health promotion session for men at a wellness center. What should the nurse inform the participants about testicular cancer? A) It is most common among men over 55. B) It is one of the least curable solid tumors. C) It typically does not metastasize. D) It is highly responsive to treatment.

Ans: D Feedback: Testicular cancer is most common among men 15 to 35 years of age and produces a painless enlargement of the testicle. Testicular cancers metastasize early but are one of the most curable solid tumors, being highly responsive to chemotherapy.

A patient is 24 hours postoperative following prostatectomy and the urologist has ordered continuous bladder irrigation. What color of output should the nurse expect to find in the drainage bag? A) Red wine colored B) Tea colored C) Amber D) Light pink

Ans: D Feedback: The urine drainage following prostatectomy usually begins as a reddish pink, then clears to a light pink 24 hours after surgery

The nurse is caring for an 82-year-old patient. The nurse knows that changes in cardiac structure and function occur in older adults. What is a normal change expected in the aging heart of an older adult? A) Decreased left ventricular ejection time B) Decreased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle branches C) Thinning and flaccidity of the cardiac values D) Widening of the aorta

Ans: D Feedback: Changes in cardiac structure and function are clearly observable in the aging heart. Aging results in decreased elasticity and widening of the aorta, thickening and rigidity of the cardiac valves, increased connective tissue in the SA and AV nodes and bundle branches, and an increased left ventricular ejection time (prolonged systole).

A nurse is planning the postoperative care of a patient who is scheduled for radical prostatectomy. What intraoperative position will place the patient at particular risk for the development of deep vein thrombosis postoperatively? A) Fowlers position B) Prone position C) Supine position D) Lithotomy position

Ans: D Feedback: Elastic compression stockings are applied before surgery and are particularly important for prevention of deep vein thrombosis if the patient is placed in a lithotomy position during surgery. During a prostatectomy, the patient is not placed in the supine, prone, or Fowlers position

A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patients interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions? A) Penile implant B) PDE-5 inhibitors C) Physical therapy D) Psychotherapy

Ans: D Psychotherapy Feedback: Patients with erectile dysfunction from psychogenic causes are referred to a health care provider or therapist who specializes in sexual dysfunction. Because of the absence of an organic cause, medications and penile implants are not first-line treatments. Physical therapy is not normally effective in the treatment of ED.

A patient has been scheduled for cardiovascular computed tomography (CT) with contrast. To prepare the patient for this test, what action should the nurse perform? A) Keep the patient NPO for at least 6 hours prior to the test. B) Establish peripheral IV access. C) Limit the patients activity for 2 hours before the test. D) Teach the patient to perform incentive spirometry.

Ans: Establish peripheral IV access. Feedback: An IV is necessary if contrast is to be used to enhance the images of the CT. The patient does not need to fast or limit his or her activity. Incentive spirometry is not relevant to this diagnostic test.

A brain (B-type) natriuretic peptide (BNP) sample has been drawn from an older adult patient who has been experienced vital fatigue and shortness of breath. This test will allow the care team to investigate the possibility of what diagnosis? A) Pleurisy B) Heart failure C) Valve dysfunction D) Cardiomyopathy

B. Heart failure

The cardiac care nurse is reviewing the conduction system of the heart. The nurse is aware that electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the SA node and then proceeds in what sequence? A) SA node to bundle of His to AV node to Purkinje fibers B) SA node to AV node to Purkinje fibers to bundle of His C) SA node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers to AV node D) SA node to AV node to bundle of His to Purkinje fibers

d) SA node, AV node, Bundle of His, Purkinje fibers