Airport Ops, ATC and Federal Aviation Regulations
The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
080° and 260° magnetic
When operating an airplane within Class D airspace under special VFR, the flight visibility is required to be at least
1 SM
What are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements at an airport in Class G airspace when conducting takeoffs and landings at night?
1 SM visibility and clear of clouds if remaining within 1/2 mile of the airport
While in Class G airspace under day VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and less than 10,000 feet MSL?
1 Sm
While in Class G airspace in VFR conditions, what minimum distance from clouds should be maintained when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
1,000 feet below; 1,000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal.
A series of continuous red lights in the runway centerline lighting indicates
1,000 feet of runway remaining
(Refer to Figure 47). Which altitude (box 2) is applicable to the base of the shelf area?
1,200 feet AGL
A turbine-powered or large airplane is required to enter an airport traffic pattern at an altitude of at least
1,500 feet AGL
(Refer to Figure 47). What is the radius of the shelf area (circle A)?
10 miles
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of
10 miles
The minimum visibility for VFR flight in Class E airspace increases from 3 to 5 SM beginning at an altitude of
10,000 feet MSL
When landing at an airport that does not have a tower, FSS, or UNICOM, you should broadcast your intentions on
122.9 MHz
The UNICOM frequency at airports with a control tower is
122.95
(Refer to Figure 55). On what frequency can a pilot activate the approach lights at Dallas Executive when the control tower is not in operation?
127.25
With certain exceptions, Class E airspace extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but does not include,
18,000 feet MSL.
Within the contiguous United States, the floor of Class A airspace is
18,000 feet MSL.
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
2,000 feet
Normally, the vertical limits of Class D airspace extend up to and including how many feet above the surface?
2,500 feet
(Refer to Figure 47). What is the normal radius of the outer area (area B)?
20 NM
(Refer to Figure 55). At what time of day does the tower shut down at Dallas Executive?
2100 local
When operating VFR in Class B airspace, what are the visibility and cloud clearance requirements?
3 SM visibility and clear of clouds
The visual glidepath of a 2-bar VASI provides safe obstruction clearance within plus or minus 10° of the extended runway centerline and to a distance of how many miles from the runway threshold?
4 NM
(Refer to Figure 47). Class C airspace usually extends up to
4,000 feet above airport
(Refer to Figure 47). Which altitude (box 1) is applicable to the vertical extent of the surface and shelf areas of this Class C airspace?
4,000 feet above airport
While in Class E airspace in VFR conditions, what in-flight visibility is required when flying more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL?
5 SM
Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?
5 SM
An airport has pilot controlled lighting but runways without approach lights. How many times should you key your microphone to turn on the MIRL at medium intensity?
5 clicks
(Refer to Figure 47). What is the radius of the surface area (circle C)?
5 miles
(Refer to Figure 55). What is the elevation of the Maverick VORTAC?
540 feet MSL
Due to the effects of wake turbulence, what minimum separation does ATC provide for a small aircraft landing behind a heavy jet?
6 miles
In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately?
7500
What is the hijack code?
7500
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications?
7600
Which transponder code should the pilot of a civilian aircraft never use?
7777
The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of
An emergency
What must a pilot do or be aware of when transitioning an Alert Area?
Be aware that the area may contain unusual aeronautical activity or high volume of pilot training
When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?
Beyond the jet's touchdown point.
Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the
Chart Supplement
You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 mi. east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.
In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited?
Class A
To operate an aircraft within Class C airspace from a satellite airport without an operating control tower, a pilot must
Contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
What is the purpose of the yellow demarcation bar marking?
Delineates runway with a displaced threshold from a blast pad, stopway or taxiway that precedes the runway
What is the purpose of the runway hold position sign?
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway
What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign
Denotes intersecting runways.
What does a destination sign identify?
Direction to takeoff runways
ATC advises traffic 12 o'clock. This advisory is relative to your
Ground track
What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay?
Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operational need
What is the purpose for the runway hold position markings on the taxiway?
Holds aircraft short of the runway
If a military training route has flights operating at or below 1,500 feet AGL, it will be designated by
IR or VR and a four digit number
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to take-off runways
What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
Which indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?
If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to pink to white
You are preflight planning in the morning before an afternoon flight. Where would you find information regarding an "Airport surface hot spot?"
In the Chart Supplements U.S.
When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign?
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
What is the purpose of the taxiway ending marker sign?
Indicates taxiway does not continue beyond intersection.
(Refer to Figure 54). Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
Left-hand traffic on Rwy 35 or right-hand traffic on Rwy 27
An airplane may be operated in uncontrolled airspace at night below 1,200 feet above the surface under the following conditions
Less than 3 miles but more than 1 mile visibility in an airport traffic pattern and within one-half mile of the runway.
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
A slightly low indication on a PAPI glidepath is indicated by
One white light and three red lights
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
Outward, upward, and around each tip
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has
Received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
Which is true regarding VFR operations in Class B airspace?
Solo student pilots are authorized to fly in Class B airspace if they meet certain requirements
What minimum pilot certificate will permit a pilot to enter all Class B airspace?
Student Pilot Certificate with an appropriate logbook endorsement
Which technique should a student be taught to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight-and-level flight?
Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.
What does a series of arrows painted on the approach end of a runway signify?
That portion of the runway is not suitable for landing
What is the correct departure procedure at a noncontrolled airport?
The FAA-approved departure procedure for that airport
When a control tower, located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
When on the upper glidepath of a 3-bar VASI, what would be the colors of the lights?
The near and middle bars are white and the upper bar is red.
(Refer to Figure 55). Select the correct statement concerning Dallas Love Field
The runway gradient for Rwy 18 is less than .3 percent.
What effect would a crosswind of 5 knots or less have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large aircraft that had just taken off?
The upwind vortex would tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex
What minimum avionics equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
Two-way communications, a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability, and ADS-B Out equipment.
Which equipment is required when operating an aircraft within Class B airspace?
Two-way radio communications, a transponder with encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out equipment
When are ATIS broadcasts updated?
Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values
Which statement is true regarding wingtip vortices?
Vortices generated by helicopters in forward flight are similar to those generated by fixed wing aircraft
You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.
A military airfield can be identified by
a green and dual peaked white rotating beacon
Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
above the flight path of the large aircraft.
Nonperson may operate an airplane within Class D and E airspace between sunset and sunrise under special VFR unless the
airplane is equipped for instrument flight
All operations within Class C airspace must be in
an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability
Regulations stipulate that, at an airport located within Class E airspace and at which ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs and landings of airplanes under special VFR are
authorized if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM
The most effective technique to use for detecting other aircraft at night is to
avoid staring directly at the point where another aircraft is suspected to be flying
During a takeoff made behind a departing large jet airplane, the pilot can minimize the hazard of wingtip vortices by
being airborne prior to reaching the jet's flightpath until able to turn clear of its wake
Most midair collision accidents occur during
clear days in the vicinity of navigational aids
To avoid landing at the wrong airport or runway, pilots should
consult airport diagrams and Chart Supplements.
A warning area is airspace of defined dimensions established
from three nautical miles outward from the coast of the U.S.
(Refer to Figure 54) The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic pattern is
left-hand for Rwy 17 and right-hand for Rwy 35
The "No Entry" sign identifies
paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited
Flight through a military operations area (MOA) is
permitted anytime, but caution should be exercised because of military activity
A military operations area (MOA) is airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic
When operating VFR in a military operations area (MOA), a pilot
should exercise extreme caution when military activity is being conducted
Class E airspace within the contiguous United States extends upward from either 700 feet or 1,200 feet AGL to, but not including,
the base of the overlying controlled airspace
The "ILS critical area boundary" sign identifies
the edge of the ILS critical area
An airport without a control tower lies within the controlled airspace of an airport with an operating tower. According to regulations, two-way radio communications with ATC are required for landing clearance at
the tower-controlled airport only, as well as to fly through the area
The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
A slightly below glidepath indication on a 2-bar VASI glidepath is indicated by
two red lights over two more red lights
The vertical limit of Class D airspace will normally be designated
up to, and including, 2,500 feet AGL
