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A (n) ______ is usually associated with extensive tissue damage. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

A 28-year-old male was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during an altercation. He is conscious and alert and complains of severe chest pain. Your assessment reveals a large area of ecchymosis over the sternum and a rapid, irregular pulse. In addition to applying 100% oxygen, you should: A. apply an automated external defibrillator (AED) and take his blood pressure. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. determine if he has cardiac problems. D. apply bulky dressings to the sternum.

A 5-year-old boy was burned when he pulled a barbecue pit over on himself. He has partial and full-thickness burns to his anterior chest and circumferentially on both arms. What percentage of his body surface area has been burned? A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

A supracondylar or intercondylar fracture is also known as a fracture of the: A. radial head. B. distal humerus. C. proximal radius. D. olecranon process.

A young female presents with costovertebral angle tenderness. She is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Which of the following organs is MOST likely causing her pain? A. liver B. kidney C. pancreas D. gallbladder

After assisting your patient with his or her nitroglycerin, you should: A. place the patient in a recumbent position in case he or she faints. B. reassess the blood pressure within 5 minutes to detect hypotension. C. avoid further dosing if the patient complains of a severe headache. D. perform a secondary assessment before administering further doses.

Air bags decrease injury to all of the following EXCEPT: A. chest B. heart C. face D. head

Air in the abdominal cavity can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain B. diarrhea C. infection D. tissue ischemia and infarction

Air is supplied to the lungs via the: A. esophagus B. trachea C. nares D. oropharnyx

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. bradycardia. B. hypertension. C. hypotension. D. severe headache.

During transport of a 40-year-old female with acute abdominal pain, you note that she has stopped talking to you and has become extremely diaphoretic. You should: A. assess the quality of her pulse. B. repeat the primary assessment. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. begin assisting her ventilations.

Erosion of the protective layer of the stomach or duodenum secondary to overactivity of digestive juices results in: A. ileus. B. an ulcer. C. appendicitis. D. cholecystitis.

Factors that increase the risk for developing methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) include: A. prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis. B. prolonged hospitalization, especially in an intensive care unit. C. failure to be vaccinated against any strain of hepatitis. D. a history of a respiratory illness within the past 6 to 8 weeks.

Functions of the liver include: A. storage of bile, which is produced in the gallbladder. B. production of substances necessary for blood clotting. C. production of hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. D. release of amylase, which breaks down starches into sugar.

Glipizide, a non-insulin-type medication, is another name for: A. Glucophage. B. Glucotrol. C. Micronase. D. Diabinese.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem. A. endocrine B. neurologic C. cardiac D. respiratory

Most frostbitten parts are: A. soft and moist B. hard and waxy C. soft and waxy D. hard and moist

Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are MOST indicative of: A. pancreatitis. B. appendicitis. C. cholecystitis. D. gastroenteritis.

The most common sign of significant abdominal injury is: A. pain B. tachycardia C. rigidity D. distention

What does the "P" on the AVPU scale represent? A) Responsive to palpation B) Responsive to pain C) Responsive to provocation D) Responsive to palliation

When treating an open extremity fracture, you should: A. apply a splint and then dress the wound. B. dress the wound before applying a splint. C. irrigate the wound before applying a dressing. D. allow the material that secures the splint to serve as the dressing.

Which of the following is NOT a hollow organ of the abdomen? A. Stomach B. Liver C. Bladder D. Urters

Which of the following is considered a type of impact from a motor vehicle collision? A. Ejection B. Rollover C. Crush D. Peneration

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. begin ventilatory assistance. C. attach the automated external defibrillator (AED) immediately. D. apply a nonrebreathing mask.

You arrive at the home of a 50-year-old female with severe epistaxis. As you are treating her, it is MOST important to recall that: A. the patient may be significantly hypertensive. B. the patient is at risk for vomiting and aspiration. C. a detailed exam is needed to determine the cause. D. many medications interfere with blood clotting.

You should never give up on resuscitating a cold-water drowning victim because: A. when the patient is submerged in water colder than body temperature, heat is maintained in the body B. the resulting hypothermia can protect vital organs from the lack of oxygen C. the resulting hypothermia raises the metabolic rate D. all of the above

Your EMS team is performing CPR on a 60-year-old male in cardiac arrest. You connect the AED, push the analyze button, and receive a "no shock advised" message. You should: A. reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm. B. perform CPR for 2 minutes and reassess. C. determine if a palpable pulse is present. D. immediately assess the patient's airway.

Your awareness and concern for potentially serious obvious and underlying injuries is referred to as the: A. mechanism of injury. B. index of suspicion. C. scene size-up. D. general impression.

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to: a) obtain and maintain a patent airway. b) avoid contaminating yourself. c) decontaminate the patient's skin. d) move the patient to a safe area.

Your unit is dispatched to the county jail for an intoxicated inmate. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, lying supine in a jail cell. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has slow, shallow respirations. You should be MOST concerned that this patient: a) might become violent. b) may vomit and aspirate. c) may experience a seizure. d) is severely hypoglycemic.

____ is the measure of the amount of air that's moved into & out of the lungs in one breath. A) Residual volume B) Tidal volume C) Vital capacity D) Minute volume

_____ impacts are probably the number one cause of death associated with motor vehicle collisions. A. Frontal B. Lateral C. Rear-end D. Rollover

______ burns cause intense pain. A. First-degree B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

_______ are held together in a tough fibrous structure known as a capsule. A. Tendons B. Joints C. Ligaments D. Bones

_______ develops when the heart muscle can no longer generate enough pressure to circulate the blood to all organs. A. Pump failure B. Cardiogenic shock C. A myocardial infarction D. Congestive heart failure

________ is the circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells current need for oxygen nutrients and waste removal A. Anatomy B. Perfusion C. Physiology D. Conduction

_________ is the body's reaction to an irritation of water entering the lower respiratory tract. A. bronchoconstriction B. laryngospasm C. esophageal spasms D. swelling in the oropharynx

___________ is defined as overbreathing to the point that the level of arterial carbon dioxide fails below normal. A. Reactive air syndrome B. Hyperventilation C. Tachycardia D. Pleural effusion

"Why did you call for EMS today?" helps to determine the: A. chief complaint. B. past medical history. C. medications. D. provocation of pain.

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12′ from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain? A. Energy transmission to the spine B. Secondary fall after the initial impact C. Direct trauma to the spinal column D. Lateral impact to the spine

A 29-year-old male has an anterior nosebleed after he was accidentally elbowed in the nose. His is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. The MOST appropriate care for this patient includes: A. leaning him forward and pinching his nostrils together. B. packing the nasopharynx with moist, sterile dressings. C. applying a gauze pad in between his lower lip and gum. D. placing him supine and pinching his nostrils together.

A 29-year-old male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is: A. 13. B. 10. C. 12. D. 14.

A 30-year-old woman with a history of alcoholism presents with severe upper abdominal pain and is vomiting large amounts of bright red blood. Her skin is cool, pale, and clammy; her heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak; and her blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. protect her airway from aspiration. B. keep her supine and elevate her legs. C. rapidly transport her to the hospital. D. give her high-flow supplemental oxygen.

A 31-year-old male fell and landed on his left elbow. Your assessment reveals that the elbow is grossly deformed, his forearm is cool and pale, and the distal pulse on the side of the injury is barely palpable. His vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries. Your transport time to the closest appropriate hospital is approximately 15 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position found and transport. B. gently manipulate the elbow to improve circulation. C. gently straighten the elbow and apply an air splint. D. apply a heat pack to the elbow to reduce swelling.

A 33-year-old female presents with lower abdominal quadrant pain. She is conscious and alert, but in moderate pain. While your partner is asking her questions about her medical history, you take her vital signs. When you assess her radial pulse, you are unable to locate it. You should: A. assess the rate, regularity, and quality of her carotid pulse. B. immediately take her blood pressure to see if she is hypotensive. C. advise your partner that the patient's blood pressure is low. D. conclude that she is perfusing adequately since she is conscious.

A 37-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: A. asthma. B. heart disease. C. hypertension. D. allergic reactions.

A 38-year-old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A. begin CPR and apply the AED. B. begin CPR and transport at once. C. assess for entry and exit wounds. D. fully immobilize his spinal column.

A 70-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. When you arrive, you find him leaning over a basin, which contains an impressive amount of blood. He has a history of coronary artery disease, diabetes, and migraine headaches. His BP is 180/100 and his heart rate is 100 beats/min. Which of the following is the MOST likely contributing factor to his nosebleed? A. His blood pressure B. His history of diabetes C. The fact that he is elderly D. His heart rate of 100 beats/min

A _______ is a stretching or tearing of the muscle. A. strain B. sprain C. torn ligament D. split

A blood pressure cuff that's too large for the patient: A) May result in a falsely low reading B) May result in a falsely high reading C) Will not affect the reading D) Should be used in patients with arm pain

A flail chest occurs when: A. a segment of the chest wall is detached from the thoracic cage. B. more than three ribs are fractured on the same side of the chest. C. multiple ribs are fractured on both sides of the thoracic cage. D. a segment of fractured ribs bulges during the inhalation phase.

A generalized seizure is characterized by: A. severe twitching of all the body's muscles. B. a blank stare and brief lapse of consciousness. C. unconsciousness for greater than 30 minutes. D. a core body temperature of greater than 103°F (40°C).

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: A. with the bevel facing the septum if inserted into the right nare. B. into the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum. C. with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare. D. into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose.

A pneumothorax is a partial or complete accumulation of air in the: A. plueral space. B. alveoli. C. abdomen. D. subcutaneous tissue.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the first collision? A. The bike hitting the car. B. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car. C. The bike rider's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. D. The bike rider striking the pavement.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to: A. take standard precautions. B. contact medical control. C. notify law enforcement. D. quickly access the patient.

Air bags are designed to: A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries. B. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma. C. be used with or without a shoulder harness. D. prevent a second collision inside the car.

All of the following are hollow abdominal organs, EXCEPT for the: A. liver. B. bladder. C. ureters. D. stomach.

Always consider ___________ in patients who were eating just before becoming short of breath. A. upper airway obstruction B. anaphylaxis C. lower airway obstruction D. bronchoconstriction

An absence seizure is also referred to as a: A. petit mal seizure. B. grand mal seizure. C. total body seizure. D. generalized motor seizure.

An acute myocardial infarction (AMI) occurs when: A. myocardial tissue dies secondary to an absence of oxygen. B. the heart muscle progressively weakens and dysfunctions. C. coronary artery dilation decreases blood flow to the heart. D. the entire left ventricle is damaged and cannot pump blood.

An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. You assess her level of consciousness as unresponsive using the AVPU scale. Your initial care should focus on: A. airway, breathing, and circulation. B. gathering medical history data. C. obtaining baseline vital signs. D. providing immediate transport.

An indicator of an expanding intracranial hematoma or rapidly progressing brain swelling is: A. a rapid deterioration of neurologic signs. B. a progressively lowering blood pressure. C. an acute increase in the patient's pulse rate. D. acute unilateral paralysis following the injury.

Because solid organs have a rich supply of blood, any injury can result in major: A. hemorrhaging B. damage C. pain D. guarding

Burns associated with lightning strikes are typically: A. superficial. B. third-degree. C. full-thickness. D. partial-thickness.

Common causes of acute psychotic behavior include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Alzheimer's disease. B. Intense stress. C. mind-altering substance use. D. schizophrenia.

Common side effects of epinephrine include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. drowsiness. B. tachycardia. C. headache. D. dizziness.

Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. combative behavior. C. CSF leakage from the ears. D. decreased sensory function.

Coral snake venom is a powerful toxin that causes __________ of the nervous system. A. paralysis B. hyperactivity C. hypoactivity D. hemiparesis

Covering a patient's _________ will significantly minimize radiation heat loss. A. head B. chest C. abdomen D. extremities

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: A. decreased blood oxygen. B. venous vasoconstriction. C. increased blood oxygen. D. peripheral vasodilation.

Damage to the body that resulted from a pressure wave generated by an explosion is found in what type of blast: A. primary B. secondary C. tertiary D. miscellaneous

Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: A. swelling. B. guarding. C. crepitus. D. ecchymosis.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the: A. right atrium. B. right ventricle. C. left atrium. D. left ventricle.

Distension of the abdomen is gauged by: A. visualization B. auscultaion C. palpation D. the patients complaint of pain around the umbilicus.

During the primary assessment, circulation is evaluated by assessing: A. pulse quality, external bleeding, and skin condition. B. skin quality, blood pressure, and capillary refill. C. blood pressure, pulse rate, and external bleeding. D. external bleeding, skin condition, and capillary refill.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: A. shortness of breath or difficulty breathing. B. a complete cessation of respiratory effort. C. a marked increase in the exhalation phase. D. labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) monitoring is clearly indicated for patients who present with: A. respiratory distress. B. high blood pressure. C. a headache. D. abdominal pain.

Following a stab wound to the left anterior chest, a 25-year-old male presents with a decreased level of consciousness and signs of shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings should increase your index of suspicion for a cardiac tamponade? A. engorged jugular veins B. widening pulse pressure C. diminished breath sounds D. a rapid, irregular pulse

Following blunt abdominal trauma, a 30-year-old male complains of referred pain to the left shoulder. This finding is called the: A. Kehr sign. B. Cullen sign. C. Grey Turner sign. D. Brudzinski sign.

The largest organ in the abdomen is the: A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. kidneys

The solid organs of the urinary system include the: A. kidneys B. ureters C. bladder D. urethra

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. diaphragm. B. anterior rib cage. C. intercostal margin. D. costovertebral angle.

To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back your glove and place the back of your hand on the patient's: A. abdomen, underneath clothing B. forehead C. forearm, on the inside of the wrist D. neck, at the area where you check the carotid pulse

Urticaria is the medical term for: A. hives. B. burning. C. swelling. D. a wheal.

When assessing a conscious patient with an MOI that suggests spinal injury, you should: A. determine if the strength in all extremities is equal. B. rule out a spinal injury if the patient denies neck pain. C. defer spinal immobilization if the patient is ambulatory. D. ask the patient to move his or her head to assess for pain.

When assessing a patient with an infectious disease, what is the first action you should perform? A. Size up the scene and take standard precautions. B. Obtain a SAMPLE history. C. Hand the patient off to a paramedic. D. Cover your mouth and nose with your hand.

When caring for a patient with a possible fracture of the scapula, the EMT should: A. carefully assess the patient for breathing problems. B. apply rigid board splints across the chest and back. C. assume that minimal force was applied to the back. D. recognize that scapular fractures are life threatening.

When caring for a patient with documented hypoglycemia, you should be MOST alert for: A. a seizure. B. an acute stroke. C. respiratory distress. D. a febrile convulsion.

When given to patients with cardiac-related chest pain, nitroglycerin: A. relaxes the walls of the coronary arteries. B. increases myocardial contraction force. C. increases blood return to the right atrium. D. constricts the veins throughout the body.

Which of the following diseases is potentially life threatening and is thought to be transmitted by close person-to-person contact? A. SARS B. Croup C. Diphtheria D. Epiglottitis

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor to consider when assessing a suicidal patient? A. Does the patient appear to be well groomed? B. Is the environment unsafe? C. Is there an imminent threat to the patient or others? D. Is there evidence of self-destructive behavior?

Which of the following is an example of a brand (trade) name of a drug? A. Tylenol B. ibuprofen C. furosemide D. nitroglycerin

Which of the following is not a sign of abnormal breathing? a. warm, dry skin b. speaking in two- or three-word sentences c. unequal breath sounds d. skin pulling in around the ribs during inspiration

Which of the following joints allows no motion? A. skull sutures B. sacroiliac joint C. shoulder joint D. sternoclavicular joint

Which of the following mechanisms of injury would MOST likely cause a crushing injury of the larynx and/or trachea? A. Attempted suicide by hanging B. Gunshot wound to the lateral neck C. Car crash involving lateral impact D. Patient whose head hits the windshield

Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. trachea C. vena cavae D. esophagus

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely if injured? A. liver B. stomach C. appendix D. gallbladder

Which of the following organs would be the MOST likely to bleed profusely if severely injured? A. Liver B. Kidney C. Stomach D. Gallbladder

Which of the following should NOT be used as an occlusive dressing? A. Gauze pads B. Vaseline gauze C. Aluminum foil D. Plastic

Which of the following skull fractures would be the LEAST likely to present with palpable deformity or other outward signs? A. linear B. basilar C. open D. compressed

Which of the following splinting devices would be MOST appropriate to use for a patient who has an open fracture of the forearm with external bleeding? A. air splint B. vacuum splint C. sling and swathe D. cardboard splint

Which of the following statements regarding rape is correct? A. Rape is a legal diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. B. Only a licensed physician can make a diagnosis of rape. C. The EMT should try to determine if rape occurred. D. Rape causes more physical harm than emotional harm.

Which of the following statements regarding the AED and defibrillation is correct? A. The AED will not analyze the rhythm of a moving patient. B. Defibrillation is the first link in the American Heart Association chain of survival. C. The AED will shock any rhythm not accompanied by a pulse. D. CPR should be performed for 5 minutes before using the AED.

Which of the following statements regarding the brown recluse spider is false? A. it is larger than the black widow spider B. it lives mostly in the southern and central parts of the country C. venom is not neurotoxic D. bites rarely cause systemic signs and symptoms

While jogging, a 19-year-old male experienced an acute onset of shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. Your assessment reveals that he has diminished breath sounds over the left side of the chest. You should: A. administer oxygen and transport to the hospital. B. immediately perform a rapid head-to-toe exam. C. recognize that he needs a needle decompression. D. circumferentially tape a dressing around his chest.

Whiplash injuries are MOST common following _________ impacts. A. rear-end B. rollover C. frontal D. lateral

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. The government publication listing all drugs in the United States is called the: A) United States Pharmacopeia B) Department of Transportation Reference Guide C) US Pharmacology D) Nursing Drug Reference

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. In addition to the patient's presentation, which of the following would NOT be an additional expected sign or symptom? A. Diarrhea B. Hematuria C. Nausea D. Vomiting

You should not use tweezers or forceps to remove an embedded stinger because: A. squeezing may cause the stinger to inject more venom into the wound. B. the stinger may break off in the wound. C. the tweezers are not sterile and may cause infection. D. removing the stinger may cause bleeding.

52. Upon arriving at the residence of an elderly female who apparently fainted, you find the patient lying supine on her living room floor. She is not moving and her eyes are closed. A neighbor tells you that she found the patient this way, but did not move her. When you gently tap the patient, she does not respond. You should: A. suction her airway, apply a cervical collar, administer high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and perform a rapid assessment. B. open her airway with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver, insert an oral or nasal airway, and assess her blood glucose level to rule out hypoglycemia. C. direct your partner to manually stabilize her head while you quickly visualize her chest for signs of breathing. D. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device while your partner auscultates her lung sounds to ensure adequate positive-pressure ventilation.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1238

14. The term primigravida refers to a woman who: A. has never been pregnant. B. has had only one live birth. C. is pregnant for the first time. D. has had more than one live baby.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

15. Which of the following occurs during true labor? A. Uterine contractions decrease in intensity. B. The uterus becomes very soft and movable. C. Uterine contractions become more regular. D. Uterine contractions last about 10 seconds.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

8. Which of the following statements regarding a pediatric patient's anatomy is correct? A. The tracheal rings of a child are more rigid than an adult's. B. A child's tongue is proportionately smaller than an adult's. C. Children have a larger, rounder occiput compared to adults. D. The child's epiglottis is less floppy and smaller than an adult's.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153-1154

38. The secondary assessment of a sick or injured child: A. is a rapid head-to-toe exam to detect life threats. B. should be performed, regardless of the circumstances. C. may not be possible if the child's condition is critical. D. is most appropriate when your transport time is short.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1166

41. Early signs of respiratory distress in the child include: A. cyanosis. B. bradycardia. C. restlessness. D. decreased LOC.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

55. If a nasopharyngeal airway is too long, it may: A. result in tachycardia. B. push the tongue anteriorly. C. stimulate the vagus nerve. D. become obstructed by mucus.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

62. In contrast to adults, deterioration to cardiac arrest in infants and children is usually associated with: A. irritability of the left ventricle. B. a sudden ventricular arrhythmia. C. severe hypoxia and bradycardia. D. acute hypoxia and tachycardia.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

78. The MOST common cause of dehydration in pediatric patients is: A. high fever. B. internal blood loss. C. vomiting and diarrhea. D. refusal to drink fluids.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

103. Which of the following is NOT a known risk factor of SIDS? A. mother younger than 20 years B. low birth weight C. putting a baby to sleep on his or her back D. mother smoked during pregnancy

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

9. Because of the complexity of the older patient and the vagueness of his or her complaint, you should: A. limit your physical examination to the area of pain or injury. B. rely exclusively on family members for the medical history. C. attempt to differentiate between chronic and acute problems. D. perform a rapid assessment on all geriatric patients you treat.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218

34. Immediate transport is indicated for a child when he or she: A. is experiencing mild to moderate pain. B. falls from a height greater than 5′. C. has a possible closed fracture of the radius. D. has a history suggestive of a serious illness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164

79. An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: A. excessive tearing. B. moist oral mucosa. C. bulging fontanelles. D. absent urine output.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

11. Pregnant women are advised to take iron supplements, such as prenatal vitamins, because: A. iron makes the blood clot faster, which protects the mother from excessive bleeding during delivery. B. the blood naturally thins during pregnancy, which predisposes the mother to severe bleeding. C. white blood cells decrease during pregnancy, which increases the mother's risk of an infection. D. pregnancy causes a decreased number of red blood cells, which predisposes the mother to anemia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

13. A service dog is easily identified by its: A. size. B. breed. C. color. D. harness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

34. When caring for a morbidly obese patient, you should: A. leave him or her in a supine position, as this often facilitates breathing. B. ask the patient if he or she knows what led to his or her obesity problem. C. call for ALS backup because obese patients are at high risk for heart attack. D. establish his or her chief complaint and then communicate your plan to help.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with multiple large bruises to her chest and abdomen that she experienced during an assault. She is conscious but restless, and her skin is cool and pale. You should be MOST concerned with: A. performing a detailed secondary assessment to locate all of her injuries. B. assessing the bruises that overlie major organs in the chest and abdomen. C. the fact that her clinical signs could indicate that she is bleeding internally. D. obtaining a complete set of vital signs to rule out the possibility of shock.

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Medications most EMTs carry in the ambulance that would pertain to this call include: A) insulin, oxygen, & oral glucose B) nitroglycerin, oxygen, & oral glucose C) activated charcoal, oxygen, & oral glucose D) none of the above

You are treating a 40-year-old male with a documented blood sugar reading of 300 mg/dL. The patient is semiconscious and breathing shallowly, and is receiving assisted ventilation from your partner. You should recognize that definitive treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen. B. glucagon. C. insulin. D. dextrose.

"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" is: A. Newton's first law. B. Newton's second law. C. Newton's third law. D. a false statement.

Distraction injuries of the spine are MOST commonly the result of: A. falls. B. diving. C. hangings. D. compression.

During your rapid secondary assessment of a 30-year-old male who fell 25′, you note crepitus when palpating his pelvis. Your partner advises you that the patient's blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 120 beats/min and weak. After completing your assessment, you should: A. defer spinal immobilization and transport to a trauma center. B. perform a focused physical exam with emphasis on the pelvis. C. stabilize the pelvis with a pelvic binder and protect the spine. D. log roll the patient onto a long backboard and transport at once

Each cell of the body combines nutrients and oxygen and produces energy and waste products through a process called: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. metabolism. D. oxygenation.

Even when seatbelts are worn properly and the airbags deploy, injury may occur to the: A. chest. B. extremities. C. iliac crests. D. lower ribcage.

Fractures are almost always associated with _______ of the surrounding soft tissue. A. laceration B. crepitus C. ecchymosis D. swelling

Geriatric patients, newborns, and infants are especially prone to hyperthermia because they: A. have relatively smaller heads. B. have less body fat. C. exhibit poor thermoregulation. D. have smaller body surface areas.

Hemoglobin is: A. the fluid portion of the blood that transports cells throughout the body. B. essential for the formation of clots, such as when vessel damage occurs. C. found within the red blood cells and is responsible for carrying oxygen. D. a key component of the blood and is produced in response to an infection.

Hypoperfusion is another name for: A. hypoxemia. B. cyanosis. C. shock. D. cellular death.

Hypotension, hypoventilation, and pinpoint pupils would be expected following an overdose of: a) crack cocaine. b) ecstasy. c) oxycodone (Percocet). d) amphetamine sulfate (Benzedrine).

If a "frequent flier" calls 9-1-1 because of a suspected head injury, you should NEVER: A. take the call seriously; don't waste your time or resources on such a caller. B. perform a primary assessment; he called for a head injury last week, and it wasn't serious. C. assume you know what the problem is; every case is different, and you don't want to miss a potentially serious problem. D. treat the patient with respect; he is probably lying.

In-line _______ is the act of exerting a pulling force on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment. A. stabilization B. immobilization C. traction D. direction

Ketone production is the result of: A. acidosis when blood glucose levels are low. B. blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL. C. fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable. D. rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane.

Lacerations to the scalp: A. bleed minimally because the scalp has few vessels. B. uncommonly cause hypovolemic shock in children. C. may be an indicator of deeper, more serious injuries. D. are most commonly associated with skull fractures.

Left untreated, _____ can lead to premature birth or low birth weight in pregnant women. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. bacterial vaginosis D. vaginal bleeding

Medium-velocity penetrating injuries may be caused by a: A. knife. B. military assault rifle. C. handgun. D. sling-shot.

Never assume that a(n) __________, pulseless patient is dead. A. apneic B. cyanotic C. cold D. hypothermic

On inhalation, which of the following does NOT occur? A. the intercostal muscles contract, elevating the rib cage B. the diaphragm contracts C. the pressure inside the chest increases D. air enters through the nose and mouth

Patients who are being treated with penicillin for a syphilis infection are considered: A. communicable for the rest of their life. B. noncommunicable in about 4 weeks. C. noncommunicable within 28 to 48 hours. D. noncommunicable right from the initial infection.

Patients with acute abdominal pain should not be given anything to eat or drink because: A. it will create referred pain and obscure the diagnosis. B. food will rapidly travel through the digestive system. C. substances in the stomach increase the risk of aspiration. D. digestion prevents accurate auscultation of bowel sounds.

Rapid deceleration of the head, such as when it impacts the windshield, causes: A. primary impact to the posterior aspect of the brain, resulting in compression injuries, bruising, or torn blood vessels. B. stretching or tearing of the anterior aspect of the brain and compression injuries or bruising to the posterior aspect of the brain. C. compression injuries or bruising to the anterior portion of the brain and stretching or tearing to the posterior portion of the brain. D. compression injuries and contusions to the anterior, posterior, and lateral aspects of the brain.

Signs and symptoms of severe systemic hypothermia include all of the following except: A. weak pulse B. coma C. shivering D. very slow respirations

Signs and symptoms of sprains include all of the following EXCEPT: A. point tenderness. B. pain preventing the patient from moving or using the limb normally. C. marked deformity. D. instability of the joint indicated by increased motion.

Signs of injury to the kidney may include any of the following EXCEPT: A. bruises or lacerations on the overlying skin B. shock C. increased urgency of urination D. hematuria

Signs of late heatstroke include: A. hot, moist skin. B. nausea and vomiting. C. a weak, rapid pulse. D. a change in behavior.

The Golden Period refers to the first 60 minutes after: A. medical help arrives on scene. B. transport begins. C. the injury occurs. D. 9-1-1 is called.

The MOST appropriate way to dress and bandage an open abdominal wound with a loop of bowel protruding from it is to: A. cover the wound with a dry, sterile dressing and apply firm pressure. B. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and apply firm pressure. C. apply a moist, sterile dressing to the wound and secure with an occlusive dressing. D. carefully replace the protruding bowel into the abdomen and cover the wound.

The cervical spine is composed of _____ vertebrae. A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

The characteristic appearance of blue lips and/or fingertips seen in hypothermia is the result of: A. lack of oxygen in venous blood B. frostbite C. blood vessels constricting D. bruising

The dosage of epinephrine in an adult EpiPen is: A. 0.10 mg. B. 0.15 mg. C. 0.30 mg. D. 0.50 mg.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the: A. bundle of His. B. coronary sinus. C. sinoatrial (SA) node. D. atrioventricular (AV) node.

The first sign of hypovolemic shock is change in A. Respiration B. Heart rate C. Mental status D. Blood pressure

The first step in assessing a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. take vital signs. B. restrain the patient. C. ensure your safety. D. obtain proper consent.

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: A. iliac arteries. B. brachial arteries. C. carotid arteries. D. subclavian arteries.

The hormone responsible for the actions of the sympathetic nervous system is: A. insulin. B. thyroxine. C. epinephrine. D. aldosterone.

The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically: A. 1 to 2 weeks. B. 5 to 10 weeks. C. 4 to 12 weeks. D. 1 to 10 weeks.

The jaw-thrust maneuver is used to open the airway of patients with suspected: A. mandibular fractures. B. upper airway swelling. C. cervical spine injuries. D. copious oral secretions.

The left cerebral hemisphere controls: A. the right side of the face. B. heart rate and pupil reaction. C. the right side of the body. D. breathing and blood pressure.

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it: A. pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated. B. uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart. C. pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation. D. receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

The lower jawbone is called the: A. zygoma. B. maxillae. C. mandible. D. mastoid.

The main legal risk in using the AED is: A. negligence on the part of the manufacturer. B. failure of the AED's internal computer chip. C. failing to deliver a shock when one is needed. D. not assessing for a pulse after a shock is delivered.

The major side effect associated with ingestion of activated charcoal is: a) abdominal pain. b) headache. c) black stools. d) ringing in the ears.

The most important aspect of the scene size-up is: A. determining the number of patients. B. calling for additional resources. C. ensuring scene safety. D. determining the nature of illness.

To assess a patient's general temperature, pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his or her skin at the: A. neck. B. chest. C. abdomen. D. forehead.

When caring for a patient with signs of a pneumothorax, your MOST immediate concern should be: A. hypovolemia. B. intrathoracic bleeding. C. ventilatory inadequacy. D. associated myocardial injury.

When caring for patients who have fallen, you must identify the _______ and the mechanism of injury so that you will not overlook associated injuries. A. site of injury B. height of fall C. point of contact D. twisting forces

When immobilizing a seated patient with a short backboard or vest-style immobilization device, you should apply a cervical collar: A. after the torso has been adequately secured. B. after moving the patient to a long backboard. C. after assessing distal neurovascular functions. D. before manually stabilizing the patient's head.

Which of the following is NOT a possible cause of airway obstruction? A. relaxation of the tongue B. aspirated vomitus C. shallow breathing D. foreign objects

Which of the following is NOT a sign of a possible facial fracture? A. Bleeding in the mouth B. Absent or loose teeth C. Bleeding from the forehead D. Loose and/or moveable bone fragments

A 4-year-old male ingested an unknown quantity of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The child's mother states that the ingestion occurred approximately 20 minutes ago. The child is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. After contacting medical control, you should: a) transport the child for definitive care. b) induce vomiting with syrup of ipecac. c) give the child cold milk to absorb the Tylenol. d) administer up to 25 g of activated charcoal.

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction and he tells you that he does. You should: A. administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure. B. avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once. C. recall that erectile dysfunction drugs can cause hypertension if given with nitroglycerin. D. ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

A 66-year-old male presents with dark red rectal bleeding and abdominal pain. He is conscious and alert; however, his skin is cool and clammy and his heart rate is elevated. Further assessment reveals that his blood pressure is 112/60 mm Hg. Which of the following questions would be MOST pertinent to ask him? A. What does your blood pressure normally run? B. Do you take any over-the-counter medications? C. Has blood soaked through your undergarments? D. Have you experienced recent abdominal trauma?

A 75-year-old male with type 1 diabetes presents with chest pain and a general feeling of weakness. He tells you that he took his insulin today and ate a regular meal approximately 2 hours ago. You should treat this patient as though he is experiencing: A. hypoglycemia. B. an acute stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. a heart attack.

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: A. falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading. B. falsely low systolic and diastolic reading. C. falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading. D. falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

A partial-thickness burn involves the outer layer of skin and a portion of the: A. epidermis. B. fatty layer. C. muscle fascia. D. dermal layer.

A patient complaining of chest tightness, coughing up blood, and subcutaneous emphysema following an explosion may be suffering from a: A. myocardial blast injury. B. ruptured tympanic membrane. C. ruptured peritoneal cavity. D. pulmonary blast injury.

A patient with an altered mental status is: A. completely unresponsive to all forms of stimuli. B. typically alert but is confused as to preceding events. C. usually able to be aroused with a painful stimulus. D. not thinking clearly or is incapable of being aroused.

Common signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency include: A. pallor, cool skin, and a temporary loss of hearing. B. syncope, a weak pulse, and bleeding from the ears. C. tachycardia, pain behind the eyes, and weakness. D. a bounding pulse, a severe headache, and dizziness.

From a mental health standpoint, an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior is a matter of concern if it lasts for at least: A. 1 week. B. 2 weeks. C. 3 weeks. D. 1 month.

How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? A. orally B. inhaled C. injected D. sublingually

Hypoxia is MOST accurately defined as: A. low venous oxygen levels. B. a decrease in arterial oxygen levels. C. an increase in carbon dioxide in the blood. D. inadequate oxygen to the tissues and cells.

If one or more occupants in the same vehicle are killed in a crash, the EMT should: A. rapidly assess only the survivors who have experienced obvious trauma. B. transport the survivors only if they have injuries or complain of pain. C. allow the survivors to refuse transport if they have no obvious injuries. D. suspect that all living occupants experienced the same serious trauma.

If ventilation is impaired, carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream will increase. This condition is called: A. acidosis. B. hypoxia. C. hypoxemia. D. hypercarbia.

If your medical patient is not in critical condition, how long should you spend on scene? A. 10 minutes or less B. 30 minutes C. 2 hours D. However long it takes to gather as much information as possible

Infected pouches in the lining of the colon are associated with: A. Cholecystitis B. Cystitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Diverticulitis

Possible causes of vaginal bleeding include all of the following EXCEPT: A. ectopic pregnancy. B. cervical polyps. C. vaginal trauma. D. peptic ulcer.

Prior to defibrillating a patient with an AED, it is MOST important that you: A. properly position the defibrillation pads. B. perform up to 5 minutes of effective CPR. C. confirm that the patient is in cardiac arrest. D. ensure that no one is touching the patient.

Signs of agitated delirium include: A. pallor, hypotension, and constricted pupils. B. subdued behavior, crying, and suicidal thoughts. C. slurred speech, bradycardia, and a high fever. D. diaphoresis, tachycardia, and hallucinations.

Solutions may be given: A) orally B) intramuscularly C) rectally D) all of the above

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to PID if left untreated? A. genital herpes B. ovarian cysts C. ectopic pregnancy D. chlamydia

Which of the following head injuries would cause the patient's condition to deteriorate MOST rapidly? A. cerebral contusion B. subdural hematoma C. cerebral concussion D. epidural hematoma

Which of the following is NOT part of the male reproductive system? A. Epididymis B. Prostate gland C. Seminal vesicles D. Fallopian tubes

Which of the following is not considered one of the "6 Ps" of the musculoskeletal assessment? A. Pain B. Pulselessness C. Pressure D. Peristalsis

Which of the following is of LEAST importance when initially assessing the severity of a burn? A. area(s) burned B. age of the patient C. past medical history D. known drug allergies

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum? A. lungs B. larynx C. bronchioles D. esophagus

Which of the following would MOST likely result from the third collision in the "three-collision" effect that occurs during a high-speed, frontal impact motor vehicle crash? A. Extensive damage to the automobile B. Flail chest and lower extremity fractures C. Massive external trauma with severe bleeding D. Aortic rupture or compression injury to the brain

Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Caved-in passenger door B. Collapsed dashboard C. Intrathoracic hemorrhage D. Deformed steering wheel

You respond to a 17-year-old football player who was hit by numerous opponents and while walking off the field became unconscious. He's currently unconscious. You take c-spine control & start your assessment. You know that in the treatment of shock you must: A. secure & maintain an airway. B. provide respiratory support. C. assist ventilations. D. all of the above.

You respond to a 68 year old man who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. He is unresponsive, and as you approach you notice he is not breathing. He was unrestrained and has massive facial injuries. When you check his airway, it is obstructed. Which of the following is NOT likely to cause an upper airway obstruction in a patient with facial trauma? A. Heavy bleeding B. Loosened teeth or dentures C. Soft-tissue swelling D. Inflamed tonsils

You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a 29 year old woman who is complaining of chest pain. Her chest struck the steering wheel. Her airway is open, she is breathing at 24 breaths/min, and she is coughing up blood. Her pulse is 130 beats/min, rapid and weak, her blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg. You notice cyanosis around the lips and note that her fingers are also blue. When you expose the chest, she tells you it hurts and points to a bruised spot. Which of the following is a symptom? A. Cyanosis around the lips or fingertips B. Rapid, weak pulse C. Hemoptysis D. Pain at the site of injury

You respond to a residence for a 40-year-old female who was assaulted by her husband; the scene has been secured by law enforcement. Upon your arrival, you find the patient lying supine on the floor in the kitchen. She is semiconscious with severely labored breathing. Further assessment reveals a large bruise to the left anterior chest, jugular venous distention, and unilaterally absent breath sounds. As your partner is supporting her ventilations, you should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. obtain a set of baseline vital signs. C. perform a focused secondary exam. D. immediately request ALS support.

Your assessment of the patient experiencing an allergic reaction should include evaluations of the: A. respiratory system. B. circulatory system. C. skin. D. all of the above.

_______ is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics. A. Meningitis B. Tuberculosis C. Hepatitis C D. MRSA

28. Drawing in of the muscles between the ribs or of the sternum during inspiration is called: A. tenting. B. retracting. C. hyperpnea. D. accessory muscle use.

"I think she's drunk!" A bystander yells as you & your partner arrive on the scene of an unknown medical aid. You observe an approximately 45-year-old woman stumbling between several cars in the parking lot of a grocery store. As you catch up to the woman you ask her clearly if she is diabetic. She nods clumsily & leans against one of the cars. You test her blood glucose & obtain a reading of 49 mg/dL. What should you do? A) Administer glucose gel orally B) Ask the bystanders if anyone knows her medical history C) Restrain her onto the gurney to keep her from hurting herself or others D) Request an ALS response so glucose can be administered intravenously

A 19-year-old male complains of "not feeling right." His insulin and a syringe are on a nearby table. The patient says he thinks he took his insulin and cannot remember whether he ate. He is also unable to tell you the time or what day it is. The glucometer reads "error" after several attempts to assess his blood glucose level. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. contact medical control and administer oral glucose. B. assist him with his insulin injection and reassess him. C. request a paramedic ambulance to administer IV glucose. D. transport only with close, continuous monitoring en route.

A 19-year-old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? A. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred during a critical portion of the cardiac cycle B. asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C. fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and led to a cardiac dysrhythmia D. collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest

A 21-year-old male was thrown over the handlebars of his motorcycle when he rear-ended a car that was stopped at a red light. He was wearing a helmet, which he removed prior to your arrival. He is conscious, but restless, and has closed deformities to both of his femurs. His skin is pale, his heart rate is rapid and weak, and his respirations are rapid and shallow. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen and protecting his spine, you should: A. bind his legs together on the backboard, keep him warm, and transport without delay. B. apply traction splints to both of his legs, keep him warm, and transport without delay. C. splint each of his deformed femurs with long board splints and transport immediately. D. apply the PASG to stabilize his femurs and transport at once.

A 22-year-old male was attacked by a rival gang and has a large knife impaled in the center of his chest. Your assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: A. carefully remove the knife, control any bleeding, begin CPR, and transport. B. stabilize the knife in place, provide rescue breathing, and transport at once. C. remove the knife and control any bleeding, apply the AED, and analyze his rhythm. D. begin CPR, control any external bleeding, and transport rapidly to a trauma center.

A 22-year-old male was kicked in the abdomen multiple times during an attack by a gang. He is conscious but restless and his pulse is rapid. Your assessment reveals a large area of bruising to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. preparing for immediate transport. B. applying oxygen via nasal cannula. C. performing a focused physical exam. D. a detailed assessment of his abdomen.

A 22-year-old male was walking on the beach and had sand blown into his eyes. He complains of pain and decreased vision to his right eye. Treatment should include: A. irrigating his right eye laterally. B. flushing his eye starting laterally. C. irrigating both eyes simultaneously. D. covering both eyes and transporting.

A 22-year-old male with a history of clinical depression called 9-1-1 and stated that he has attempted to kill himself. Your unit and law enforcement officers arrive at the scene simultaneously. You find the patient lying supine on the living room floor. He is unconscious and cyanotic. An empty bottle of hydromorphone (Dilaudid) is found on an adjacent table. You should: A. open the patient's airway and assess his respirations. B. ask the police to handcuff the patient for safety purposes. C. wait for the police to examine him before providing care. D. provide care after determining what Dilaudid is used for.

A 28-year-old female patient is found to be responsive to verbal stimuli only. Her roommate states that she was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes and has had difficulty controlling her blood sugar level. She further tells you that the patient has been urinating excessively and has progressively worsened over the last 24 to 36 hours. On the basis of this patient's clinical presentation, you should suspect that she: A. is significantly hyperglycemic. B. has a low blood glucose level. C. has a urinary tract infection. D. has overdosed on her insulin.

A 30-year-old female presents with severe acute pain to the left upper quadrant of her abdomen. During your assessment, she tells you that she has sickle cell disease. You should suspect that: A. her spleen is enlarged because of red blood cell engorgement. B. the pain in her abdomen is referred pain from an enlarged liver. C. she has gastrointestinal bleeding due to large blood vessel rupture. D. she is experiencing an aplastic crisis and needs a blood transfusion.

A 30-year-old male, who has been playing softball all day in a hot environment, complains of weakness and nausea shortly after experiencing a syncopal episode. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. giving a salt-containing solution by mouth. B. moving him to a cooler environment at once. C. administering oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. D. placing him in a supine position and elevating his legs.

A 37-year-old male was pinned between a flatbed truck and a loading dock. On exam, you find bruising to the chest, distended neck veins, bilaterally diminished breath sounds, and bilateral scleral hemorrhaging. You should: A. aggressively manage his airway. B. request a paramedic ambulance. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. suspect a severe hemopneumothorax.

A 38 year old male was electrocuted while attempting to wire a house. Your assessment reveals that he is unresponsive , pulse less and apneic. A coworker has shut off the power to the house. You should: A. begin CPR and apply the AED B. assess for entry and exit wounds C. begin CPR and transport at once D. fully immobilize his spinal column

A 38-year-old male with a history of schizophrenia is reported by neighbors to be screaming and throwing things in his house. You are familiar with the patient and have cared for him in the past for unrelated problems. Law enforcement officers escort you into the residence when you arrive. The patient tells you that he sees vampires and is attempting to ward them off by screaming and throwing things at them. He has several large lacerations to his forearms that are actively bleeding. The MOST appropriate way to manage this situation is to: A. restrain the patient with appropriate force in order to treat his injuries. B. try to gain the patient's trust by telling him that you see the vampires too. C. request that the police officers arrest him and take him to the hospital. D. approach the patient and calm him by placing your hand on his shoulder.

A 39-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the groin during an altercation at a bar. As you approach the patient, you note that he is conscious, is screaming in pain, and is attempting to control the bleeding, which is bright red and spurting from his groin area. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. ensure that his airway is patent. D. elevate his legs and keep him warm.

A 40-year-old man, who was the unrestrained driver of a car that hit a tree at a high rate of speed, struck the steering wheel with his chest. He has a large bruise over the sternum and an irregular pulse rate of 120 beats/min. You should be MOST concerned that he: A. has injured his myocardium. B. has a collapsed lung and severe hypoxia. C. has extensive bleeding into the pericardial sac. D. is at extremely high risk for ventricular fibrillation.

A 45-year-old convenience store clerk was shot in the right anterior chest during a robbery. Your assessment reveals that the wound has blood bubbling from it every time the patient breathes. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. prevent air from entering the wound. B. cover the wound with a bulky dressing. C. assess the patient's back for an exit wound. D. transport promptly to the closest trauma center.

A 48-year-old male was stung on the leg by a jellyfish while swimming in the ocean. He is conscious and alert, but complains of intense pain at the wound site. Specific treatment for this patient includes: A. irrigating the wound with vinegar and immersing his leg in hot water. B. pulling the nematocysts out with tweezers and bandaging the wound. C. immersing his leg in fresh cold water and scraping away the stingers. D. applying a chemical ice pack to the wound and encouraging movement.

A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should: A. determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card. B. wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions. C. ask law enforcement officials if they are familiar with the patient. D. defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.

A 51-year-old female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: A. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases. C. perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment. D. assist her breathing with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen.

A 52-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her face when her truck collided with another vehicle. She has obvious swelling to her face and several dislodged teeth. A visual exam of her mouth reveals minimal bleeding. She is conscious and alert with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg, a pulse of 110 beats/min, and respirations of 22 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen, immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, suction as needed, and transport. B. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device, immobilize her spine, suction her oropharynx for 30 seconds, and transport. C. fully immobilize her spine, attempt to locate the dislodged teeth, tilt the backboard to the left side, and transport. D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, suction her airway as needed, disregard the dislodged teeth, and transport.

A 54-year-old male experienced an avulsion to his penis when his foreskin got caught in the zipper of his pants. He was able to unzip his pants and remove the foreskin prior to your arrival. Your assessment reveals that he is in severe pain and that the avulsion is bleeding moderately. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying direct pressure with a dry, sterile dressing. B. covering the avulsion with moist, sterile dressings. C. requesting a paramedic to administer pain medication. D. administering 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should: A. administer oxygen, give her 324 mg aspirin, and assess her further. B. obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice. C. give her 100% oxygen, attach the AED, and transport immediately. D. give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is warm and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing: A. septic shock. B. pump failure. C. a local infection. D. decompensated shock.

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: A. contact medical control if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration. B. ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient. C. avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe. D. begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg.

A 78-year-old female presents with an acute change in her behavior. The patient's son tells you that his mother has type 2 diabetes and was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease 6 months ago. The patient's speech is slurred and she is not alert to her surroundings. You should: A. inquire about the possibility of head trauma. B. conclude that the patient's blood sugar is high. C. allow the patient to refuse transport if she wishes. D. transport the patient to a psychiatric facility.

A comprehensive regional resource capable of providing every aspect of trauma care from prevention through rehabilitation is the definition of a _____ trauma center. A. Level I B Level II C. Level III D. Level IV

A construction worker fell approximately 30′ and landed in a pile of steel rods. Your assessment reveals that he is pulseless and apneic and has a 10″ steel rod impaled in his left leg. You should: A. control the bleeding, begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), stabilize the steel rod, immobilize his spine, and transport immediately. B. remove the steel rod, control the bleeding, apply an automated external defibrillator (AED), begin CPR, and transport to a trauma center. C. stabilize the steel rod, control the bleeding, begin CPR, and rapidly transport to a trauma center. D. control the bleeding, carefully remove the steel rod, begin CPR, and transport as soon as possible.

A hemia that returns to its proper body cavity is said to be: A. reducible B. extractable C. incarcerated D. replaceable

A hypnotic drug is one that: a) induces sleep. b) prevents amnesia. c) increases the pulse. d) increases the senses.

A patient who cannot remember the events that preceded his or her head injury is experiencing: A. retrograde amnesia. B. anterograde amnesia. C. perigrade amnesia. D. posttraumatic amnesia.

A patient with blunt trauma who is holding the lateral side of his chest and has rapid and shallow respirations is most likely suffering from: A. rib fractures B. a sternal fracture C. a pneumothorax D. a pulmonary contusion

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: A. without assistance. B. without difficulty. C. at a normal rate. D. with shallow depth.

A patient without a history of seizures experiences a sudden convulsion. The LEAST likely cause of this seizure is: A. epilepsy. B. a brain tumor. C. a serious infection. D. intracranial bleeding.

A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: A. date and event. B. event and person. C. person and place. D. time and place.

A person who routinely misuses a substance and requires increasing amounts to achieve the same effect is experiencing a(n): a) tolerance. b) addiction. c) dependence. d) withdrawal.

A person's ability to shiver is lost when his or her body temperature falls below: A. 90°F (32°C). B. 92°F (33°C). C. 94°F (34°C). D. 95°F (35°C).

A sign of kidney damage following blunt trauma is: A. hematuria. B. hemoptysis. C. hematemesis. D. hematochezia.

A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: A. exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect B. excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis C. blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall D. abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy

A spontaneous pneumothorax would MOST likely occur as the result of: A. exertion of a person with a congenital lung defect. B. excessive coughing in a patient with pneumonitis. C. abnormally slow breathing in a patient with pleurisy. D. blunt or penetrating trauma to the anterior chest wall.

A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: A. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. B. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. C. the patient complains of severe neck or back pain. D. the helmet is equipped with a full face shield or visor.

A utility worker was trimming branches and was electrocuted when he accidentally cut a high-power line. He fell approximately 20′ and is lying unconscious on the ground; the power line is lying across his chest. You should: A. rapidly assess the patient after ensuring that the power line is not live. B. apply insulated gloves and assume manual control of his c-spine. C. quickly but carefully move the patient away from the power line. D. manually stabilize his head as your partner assesses for breathing.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What will rate your index of suspicion for this collision? A. The mechanism of injury B. The type of bike C. How loudly he's crying D. A quick visual assessment

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head. You should? A. apply direct pressure to her arm wound B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen C. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye D. carefully remove the glass from her eye

A(n) _______ fracture is an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the shaft of a bone but many still cause severe angulation. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal

A(n) _______ fractures the bone at the point of impact. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury

According to the Association of Air Medical Services (AAMS), you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: A. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. B. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. D. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.

According to the rule of palm method for estimating the extent of a patient's burns, the palm of the patient's hand is equal to _____ of his or her total BSA. A. 1% B. 2% C. 4% D. 6%

Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: A. distention. B. referred pain. C. diffuse bruising. D. nausea or vomiting.

Activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested: a) acids or alkalis. b) acetaminophen (Tylenol). c) steroid drugs. d) ibuprofen.

All of the following body structures are lined with mucous membranes, EXCEPT for the: A. lips. B. nose. C. anus. D. mouth.

All open wounds are assumed to be _____ and present a risk of infection. A. contaminated B. life-threatening C. minimal D. extensive

An acute spasm of the smaller airways associated with excessive mucus production and swelling is characteristic of: A. asthma. B. chronic bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS).

An epidural hematoma is MOST accurately defined as: A. bleeding between the skull and dura mater. B. bleeding between the dura mater and brain. C. venous lacerations that occur within the brain. D. an injury caused by a damaged cerebral artery.

An important aspect in the treatment of a patient with severe abdominal pain is to: A. provide emotional support en route to the hospital. B. administer analgesic medications to alleviate pain. C. encourage the patient to remain in a supine position. D. give 100% oxygen only if signs of shock are present.

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small harmful organisms within the body. B. any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional. C. a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms. D. the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

An injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score? A. opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain B. opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion C. eyes remain closed, makes incomprehensible sounds, exhibits abnormal extension D. opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain

An insufficient concentration of _______ in the blood can produce shock as rapidly as vascular causes. A. oxygen B. hormones C. epinephrine D. histamine

An overdose on acetaminophen, the active ingredient in Tylenol, will MOST likely cause: a) liver failure. b) central nervous system (CNS) depression. c) kidney failure. d) gastric ulcers.

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: A. requires cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). B. begins to vomit. C. regains consciousness. D. has increased tidal volume.

An unrestrained driver collided with a bridge pillar. Upon inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you note that the lower dashboard is crushed. During your assessment of the patient, you will MOST likely encounter: A. trauma to the pelvis. B. blunt abdominal trauma. C. a severe closed head injury. D. penetrating thoracic trauma.

Anaphylaxis is not always life threatening, but it typically involves: A. multiple organ systems. B. wheezing. C. urticaria. D. wheals.

Any unresponsive trauma patient should be assumed to have: A. an accompanying spinal injury. B. a history of diabetes mellitus. C. a severe intracranial hemorrhage. D. internal bleeding in the abdomen.

Areas usually affected by descent problems include: A. the lungs B. the skin C. the joints D. vision

As you approach a young male who was involved in an industrial accident, you note that his eyes are closed and that he is not moving. You can see several large contusions to his arms, a laceration to his forehead with minimal bleeding, and a closed deformity to his right leg. You should: A. open his airway and assess his breathing status. B. perform an immediate head-to-toe assessment. C. assess his pulse for rate, regularity, and quality. D. apply high-flow oxygen and assess his injuries.

Asthma is caused by a response of the: A. immune system. B. endocrine system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

At 1400 in July, the weather is 105 degrees F and very humid. You have been called for a "man down" at the park. As you arrive, you recognize him as an alcoholic who has been a "frequent flyer" with your service. It looks like he had been sitting under a tree when he fell over, unconscious. The direct transfer of heat from his body to the cold ground is called: A. conduction B. convection C. radiation D. evaporation

Bacterial vaginosis is a condition that occurs when: A. normal bacteria in the vagina are replaced by an overgrowth of other bacterial forms. B. numerous bacteria enter the uterus through the cervix and cause severe tissue damage. C. abnormal bacteria enter the vagina and cause damage without causing any symptoms. D. harmful bacteria infect and cause damage to the uterus, cervix, and fallopian tubes.

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries in the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings B. ice packs and elevation fo the patient's head C. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs D. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point

Bleeding from the nose following head trauma: A. is a sign of a skull fracture and should not be stopped. B. should be controlled by packing the nostril with gauze. C. should be assumed to be caused by a fractured septum. D. is usually due to hypertension caused by the head injury.

Bronchospasm is MOST often associated with: A. asthma. B. bronchitis. C. pneumonia. D. pneumothorax.

Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. stomach.

Burns are classified according to: A. depth and extent. B. location and pain. C. degree and location. D. extent and location.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by: A. decreased pumping force of the heart muscle. B. a profound increase in the patient's heart rate. C. hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting. D. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: A. slight elevations in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. B. slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. C. decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid. D. increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid.

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. disorder of carbohydrate metabolism. B. abnormally high blood glucose level. C. mass excretion of glucose by the kidneys. D. lack of insulin production in the pancreas.

Diarrhea is the principle symptom in: A. Gastroenteritis B. Esophagitis C. Pancreatits D. Peptic Ulcers

During your assessment of a 22 year old male who was assaulted, you note widespread contusions and abrasions to his face, chest and abdomen. His pulse is rapid and weak, and his skin is cool and clammy. You should: A. administer oxygen and prepare for rapid transport. B. conclude that he is experiencing intracranial bleeding C. perform a focused physical exam of his abdomen D. place him in a sitting position and give him oxygen

EMTs treating a patient of a sexual assault may not only be dealing with medical issues, but with _____ issues as well. A. psychological B. physiological C. educational D. sociological

Each ovary produces an ovum in alternating months and releases it into the: A. fallopian tube. B. vagina. C. cervix. D. uterus.

Early signs and symptoms of viral hepatitis include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. jaundice and abdominal pain. B. pain in the muscles and joints. C. vomiting, fever, and fatigue. D. loss of appetite and a cough.

Epinephrine is indicated for patients with an allergic reaction when: A. wheezing and hypotension are present. B. the patient is anxious and tachycardic. C. a paramedic is present at the scene. D. the reaction produces severe urticaria.

Esophageal varices MOST commonly occur in patients who: A. drink a lot of alcohol. B. have severe diabetes. C. have a history of esophagitis. D. have weak immune systems.

Evaporation, the conversion of a liquid to a gas, is a process that requires: A. energy B. circulating air C. a warmer ambient temperature D. high humidity

Excessive eating caused by cellular "hunger" is called: A. polyphagia. B. polydipsia. C. dysphasia. D. dyspepsia.

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. of the risk for airway problems. B. bleeding must be controlled early. C. the spine may be injured as well. D. swelling may mask hidden injuries.

Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. A. 1,000 B. 1,500 C. 2,000 D. 4,000

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of: A. intracranial bleeding. B. a fracture of the skull. C. spinal cord injury. D. airway compromise.

Fracture of the tibia and fibula are often associated with _______ as a result of the distorted positions of the limb following injury. A. vascular injury B. muscular injury C. tendon injury D. ligament injury

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. immobilization of the injury. B. prevention of contamination. C. protection from further injury. D. control of external hemorrhage.

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: A. adequate amounts of surfactant. B. water or blood within the alveoli. C. surfactant-destroying organisms. D. pulmonary capillary constriction.

General guidelines for managing a patient with a behavioral emergency include: A. being prepared to spend extra time with the patient. B. placing the patient between yourself and an exit. C. firmly identifying yourself as an EMS provider. D. allowing the patient to be alone if he or she wishes.

Geriatric patients are at a higher risk for heatstroke because: A. circulation to the skin is reduced. B. most geriatric patients are obese. C. their ability to sweat is enhanced. D. their ability to shiver is reduced.

Heat loss from the body through respiration occurs when: A. warm air is exhaled into the atmosphere. B. the core body temperature is greater than 98°F (37°C). C. cool air is inhaled and displaces warm air. D. air temperature is greater than body temperature.

Heroin is an example of a(n): a) opioid. b) sympathomimetic. c) hypnotic. d) cholinergic.

High air temperature reduces the body's ability to lose heat by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

How does CPAP improve oxygenation and ventilation in patients with certain respiratory problems? A. It forces the alveoli open and pushes more oxygen across the alveolar membrane. B. It pushes thick, infected pulmonary secretions into isolated areas of the lung tissue. C. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which allows more room for the lungs to expand. D. It prevents alveolar collapse by pushing air into the lungs during the inhalation phase.

Hyperventilation could be associated with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a narcotic overdose. B. a respiratory infection. C. an overdose of aspirin. D. high blood glucose levels.

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: A. plasma. B. platelets. C. whole blood. D. red blood cells.

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: A. reevaluate his or her airway status. B. auscultate his or her breath sounds. C. begin assisting his or her breathing. D. determine his or her respiratory rate.

If a patient has a cold skin temperature, he or she likely is: A. hypothermic B. hyperthermic C. hypovolemic D. hypoglycemic

If an injury distracts an EMT from assessing a more serious underlying illness, he has suffered from: A. tunnel vision. B. index of suspicion. C. virulence. D. a trauma emergency.

If bleeding continues after applying a pressure dressing should do all the following except A. Remove the dressing apply another sterile dressing B. Apply manual pressure through the dressing C. Add more gauze pads over the first dressing D. Secure both dressings tighter with a roller bandage

If you do not have the appropriate size cervical collar, you should: A. use rolled towels to immobilize the patient's head. B. place sandbags on either side of the patient's head. C. ask the patient to keep his or her head in a neutral position. D. defer cervical immobilization and apply lateral head blocks.

Immediately after giving an epinephrine injection, you should: A. properly dispose of the syringe. B. record the time and dose given. C. reassess the patient's vital signs. D. notify medical control of your action.

In a motor vehicle collision, as the passenger's head hits the windshield, the brain continues to move forward until it strikes the inside of the skull, resulting in a _____ injury. A. compression B. laceration C. lateral D. motion

In addition to ensuring his or her own safety, the EMT's responsibility when caring for a patient with a behavioral emergency is to: A. diffuse and control the situation and safely transport the patient. B. diagnose the patient's problem and provide definitive treatment. C. transport the patient directly to a specialized psychiatric facility. D. determine the underlying cause of the problem and offer advice.

In addition to external bleeding, the MOST significant risk that an open soft-tissue injury exposes a patient to is: A. infection. B. hypothermia. C. nerve damage. D. vessel damage.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. an air embolism. B. a spinal fracture. C. an ischemic stroke. D. nerve fiber damage.

In an unresponsive adult patient, the primary location to assess the pulse is the ____ artery. A) carotid B) femoral C) radial D) brachial

In anaphylactic shock, the combination of poor oxygenation and poor perfusion is a result of? A. widespread vasodialation. B. low volume. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. pump failure.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer: A. may be relatively painless. B. is typically not as severe. C. can be controlled in the field. D. often presents with acute pain.

In contrast to monophasic defibrillation, biphasic defibrillation: A. requires a lower energy setting. B. delivers all shocks at 360 joules. C. begins with 300 joules and escalates. D. is only effective for ventricular tachycardia.

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: a) are usually absorbed quickly into the body. b) react with the blood, which increases their toxicity. c) are usually fatal within 30 minutes of exposure. d) absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency.

In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: A. articular cartilage. B. synovial tendons. C. muscular fascia. D. gliding cartilage.

In nontrauma patients, an early indicator of internal bleeding is: A. dizziness upon standing. B. a rapid, thready pulse. C. a decreasing blood pressure. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

In patients with deeply pigmented skin, changes in color may be apparent only in certain areas, such as the: A. lips. B. back of the neck. C. dorsum of the hand. D. forehead and face.

In rare cases, _____ causes arthritis that may be accompanied with skin lesions and inflammation of the eyes and urethra. A. chlamydia B. gonorrhea C. PID D. vaginal bleeding

In which of the following situations would external bleeding be the MOST difficult to control? A. femoral artery laceration and a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg B. jugular vein laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 90 mm Hg C. carotid artery laceration and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg D. antecubital vein laceration and a blood pressure of 138/92 mm Hg

Insulin shock will MOST likely develop if a patient: A. takes too much of his or her prescribed insulin. B. markedly overeats and misses an insulin dose. C. eats a regular meal followed by mild exertion. D. misses one or two prescribed insulin injections.

Irritation or damage to the pleural surfaces that causes sharp chest pain during inhalation is called: A. pleurisy. B. dyspnea. C. pneumonitis. D. pneumothorax.

It is MOST important for the EMT to remember that suicidal patients may: A. be homicidal as well. B. be self-destructive. C. have a definitive plan. D. inject illicit drugs.

It is not uncommon for young females who experience their first menstrual period to: A. experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted. B. become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide. C. have a falsely positive home pregnancy test result. D. lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.

It would be MOST appropriate to perform a focused secondary assessment on a patient who: A. fainted and fell to the ground from a standing position. B. was restrained during a high-speed motor vehicle crash. C. has blood draining from the ears following a head injury. D. struck his or her head and is experiencing nausea or vomiting.

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: A. attempting to eliminate acids from the blood. B. trying to generate energy by breathing deeply. C. severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2. D. compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.

Major risk factors for AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hypoglycemia. B. hypertension. C. diabetes mellitus. D. elevated cholesterol.

Most heat stroke cases occur when the temperature is around _________ and the humidity is 80%. A. 80 degrees F B. 90 degrees F C. 100 degrees F D. 110 degrees F

Most patients with abdominal pain prefer to: A. lie on their side with their knees drawn into the abdomen. B. sit in a semi-Fowler position with their knees slightly bent. C. lie in a supine position with their knees in a flexed position. D. sit fully upright because it helps relax the abdominal muscles.

Most spinal injuries in diving incidents affect the: A. cervical spine B. thoracic spine C. lumbar spine D. sacrum/coccyx

Motion of the mandible occurs at the: A. temporomandibular joint B. mastoid process C. chin D. mandibular ankle

Neurogenic shock is caused by: A. a radical change in the size of the vascular system. B. massive vasoconstriction. C. low volume. D. fluid collecting around the spinal cord causing compression of the cord.

Neurogenic shock occurs when: A. failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. B. the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging. C. there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container. D. massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

Neurogenic shock usually results from damage to the spinal cord at the: A. cervical level. B. thoracic level. C. lumbar level. D. sacral level

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac-related chest pain by: A. dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow. B. increasing the amount of work that is placed on the myocardium. C. contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries. D. constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow.

Nitroglycerin relieves pain because its purpose is to increase blood flow by relieving the spasms or causing the arteries to: A) dilate B) constrict C) thicken D) contract

Nitroglycerin relieves the squeezing or crushing pain associated with angina by: A) dilating the arteries to increase the oxygen supply to the heart muscle B) causing the heart to contract harder and increase cardiac output C) causing the heart to beat faster to supply more oxygen to the heart D) all of the above

Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. pulse strength. B. appearance. C. level of distress. D. race and gender.

Of the following musculoskeletal injuries, which is considered to be the LEAST severe? A. nondisplaced pelvic fracture B. open fractures of a long bone C. an amputation of an extremity D. multiple closed long bone fractures

Often the most important intervention for sexual assault patient is _____ and transport to a facility with staff specially trained to deal with this scenario. A. comforting reassurance B. excellent assessment skills C. bandaging skills D. emotional sympathy

Often, the first sign of heatstroke is: A. a change in behavior B. an increase in pulse rate C. an increase in respirations D. hot, dry, flushed skin

Organic brain syndrome is MOST accurately defined as: A. a dysfunction of the brain caused by abnormal physical or physiological function. B. a change in behavior or mental status secondary to inadequate cerebral blood flow. C. a disorder that cannot be traced to the abnormal structure or function of an organ. D. bizarre behavior secondary to a chemical imbalance or disturbance in the brain.

Pain that may be perceived at a distant point on the surface of the body, such as the back or shoulder, is called: A. referred pain. B. radiating pain. C. visceral pain. D. remote pain.

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: A. radiating. B. referred. C. provoking. D. palliating.

Paradoxical chest movement is typically seen in patients with: A. a flail chest. B. a pneumothorax. C. isolated rib fractures. D. a ruptured diaphragm.

Patients develop septic shock secondary to: A. poor vessel function and severe volume loss. B. an infection that weakens cardiac contractions. C. failure of the blood vessels to adequately dilate. D. weak vessel tone due to nervous system damage.

Patients may show agitation, violence, or become a threat to themselves or others when they experience a _____ emergency. A. psychiatric B. behavioral C. function D. adjustment

Patients with generalized hypothermia are at an increased risk of a local cold injury because: A. blood is shunted away from the extremities to the body's core. B. peripheral vasodilation brings warm blood to the skin's surface. C. the major muscles of the body become rigid during hypothermia. D. the patient is usually unable to escape the cold ambient temperature.

Patients with open abdominal injures often complain of: A. pain B. nausea C. vomiting D. dyspnea

Patients with rib fractures will commonly: A. breathe rapidly and shallowly. B. take a series of deep breaths. C. prefer to lie in a supine position. D. develop a sucking chest wound.

Patients with tuberculosis pose the greatest risk for transmitting the disease when they: A. cough. B. have a fever. C. vomit. D. are bleeding.

Placing a pregnant patient in a supine position during the third trimester of pregnancy: A. may decrease the amount of blood that returns to the heart. B. often causes hypotension secondary to cardiac compression. C. results in spontaneous urinary incontinence if the bladder is full. D. is recommended if the patient has severe abdominal discomfort.

Pleural fluid is contained between the: A. visceral and parietal pleurae. B. parietal pleura and the heart. C. visceral pleura and the lung. D. parietal pleura and the chest wall.

Prompt transport of a patient with a suspected AMI is important because: A. the patient may be eligible to receive thrombolytic therapy. B. 90% of the cardiac cells will die within the first 30 minutes. C. nitroglycerin can only be given in the emergency department. D. many patients with an AMI die within 6 hours.

Pulmonary edema can develop quickly after a major: A. heart attack. B. episode of syncope. C. brain injury. D. all of the above.

Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Lyme disease are both spread through the tick's: A. saliva B. blood C. hormones D. excrement

Severe back pain may be associated with which of the following conditions? A. Abdominal aortic aneurysm B. PID C. Appendicitis D. Mittelschmerz

Shock: A. refers to a state of collapse and failure of the cardiovascular system. B. results in adequate flow of blood to the body's cells. C. creates an excess of cellular nutrients. D. all of the above.

Shortly after ascending rapidly to the surface of the water while holding his breath, a 29- year-old diver begins coughing up pink, frothy sputum and complains of dyspnea and chest pain. You should suspect and treat this patient for: A. an air embolism. B. a pneumothorax. C. pneumomediastinum. D. decompression sickness.

Significant clues to the possibility of severe injuries in motor vehicle collisions include: A. death of a passenger B. a blown out tires C. broken glass D. a deployed air bag

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who: A. have chronic hypertension. B. regularly take illegal drugs. C. have had a stroke in the past. D. are older than 40 years of age.

Signs and symptoms of agitated delirium include all of the following EXCEPT: A. hyperventilation. B. tachycardia. C. vivid hallucinations. D. dilated pupils.

Steps for assisting a patient with administering of an EpiPen include: A. taking body substance isolation precautions. B. placing the tip of the auto-injector against the medial part of the patient's thigh. C. recapping the injector before placing it in the trash. D. All of the above.

Suspect a possible injury of the urinary bladder in all of the following findings EXCEPT: A. bruising to the left upper quadrant B. blood at the urethral opening C. blood at the tip of the penis or a stain on the patient's underwear D. physical signs of trauma on the lower abdomen, pelvis or perineum

The "PID Shuffle" refers to: A. a distinctive gait when the patient walks. B. rotation of the microorganisms that cause PID. C. symptoms that come and go. D. a structural that come and go.

The AED should be used on pediatric medical patients who are at least ____ year(s) old & who have been assessed to be unresponsive, apneic, & pulseless. A) 1 B) 8 C) 9 D) 10

The Adam's apple is: A. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with an acute abdomen is: A. peritonitis. B. high fever. C. severe pain. D. internal bleeding.

The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: A. neurovascular compromise. B. internal bleeding and shock. C. ligament and cartilage damage. D. total depletion of synovial fluid.

The MOST common error associated with the use of the AED is: A. failure of the EMT to ensure the battery is charged. B. malfunction of the AED's internal computer processor. C. inappropriately placed adhesive defibrillation electrodes. D. inability of the EMT to recognize ventricular fibrillation.

The ____ is the most serious thing that the patient is concerned about, the reason why they called 9-1-1: A) chief complaint B) pertinent negatives C) severity D) past medical history

The ______ separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. A. diaphragm B. mediastinum C. xyphoid process D. inferior border of the ribs

The _________ contain(s) about 75% of the brain's total volume. A. cerebrum B. cerebellum C. brain stem D. meninges

The _________ is the best-protected part of the CNS and controls the functions of the cardiac and respiratory systems. A. brain stem B. cerebellum C. spinal cord D. cerebral cortex

The __________ cartilage is a firm ring that forms the inferior part of the larynx. A. cricoid B. thyroid C. laryngeal D. pyriform

The abdomen is divided into four: A. quadrants B. planes C. sections D. angles

The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization.

The bones in the skeleton produce _______ in the bone marrow. A. blood cells B. minerals C. electrolytes D. hormones

The brain stem normally triggers breathing by increasing respirations when: a. carbon dioxide levels increase b. oxygen levels increase c. carbon dioxide levels decrease d. nitrogen levels decrease

The brand name that a manufacturer gives to a medication is the ____ name. A) trade B) generic C) chemical D) prescription

The determination of whether a medical patient is a high-priority or low-priority transport is typically made: A. after the primary assessment has been completed. B. upon completion of a detailed secondary assessment. C. once the patient's baseline vital signs are known. D. as soon as the patient voices his or her chief complaint.

The diaphragm functions as an involuntary muscle when a person: A. sleeps. B. coughs. C. takes a deep breath. D. holds his or her breath.

The diving reflex may allow a person to survive extended periods of submersion in cold water secondary to: A. bradycardia and a slowing of the metabolic rate. B. laryngospasm that protects the lungs from water. C. tachycardia and a lowering of the blood pressure. D. increases in the metabolic rate and oxygen demand.

The effectiveness of positive-pressure ventilations when treating a head-injured patient can ONLY be determined by: A. immediate reassessment following the intervention. B. a neurosurgeon or emergency department physician. C. reassessing the patient's blood pressure after at least 10 minutes. D. noting a decrease in the heart rate during ventilations.

The energy of a moving object is called: A. kinetic energy. B. converted energy. C. potential energy. D. latent energy.

The fastest way to deliver a chemical substance is by the ____ route. A) intravenous B) oral C) sublingual D) intramuscular

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): A. allergen. B. antibody. C. histamine. D. leukotriene.

The germinal layer of the epidermis contains pigment granules that are responsible for skin: A. color. B. texture. C. moisture. D. temperature.

The hair follicles, sweat glands and sebaceous glands are found in the: A. dermis B. germinal layer C. epidermis D. subcutaneous layer

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: A. femoral arteries. B. peroneal arteries. C. anterior tibial arteries. D. posterior tibial arteries.

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. abdomen. D. legs.

The leaf-shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: A. epiglottis. B. vallecula. C. cricoid ring. D. thyroid cartilage

The major complaint of patients with abdominal injury is: A. pain B. tachycardia C. rigidity D. swelling

The mastoid process is located approximately: A. 1″ posterior to the external opening of the ear. B. ½″ anterior to the external opening of the ear. C. 1″ inferior to the external opening of the ear. D. 1″ posterior to the angle of the mandible.

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: A. brain stem. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. cerebral cortex.

The musculoskeletal system refers to the: A. bones and voluntary muscles of the body. B. nervous system's control over the muscles. C. connective tissue that supports the skeleton. D. involuntary muscles of the nervous system.

The nasal cannula is MOST appropriately used in the prehospital setting: A. when the patient cannot tolerate a nonrebreathing mask. B. if the patient's nasopharynx is obstructed by secretions. C. if long-term supplemental oxygen administration is required. D. when the patient breathes primarily through his or her mouth.

The only arteries of the body that carry deoxygenated blood are the A. Pulmonary arteries B. Coronary arteries C. Femoral arteries D. Subclavian arteries

The opening in the center of the iris, which allows light to move to the back of the eye, is called the: A. pupil. B. sclera. C. cornea. D. conjunctiva.

The optic nerve endings are located within the: A. retina. B. sclera. C. pupil. D. cornea.

The organs most severely affected by air embolism are the: A. brain and spinal cord B. brain and heart C. heart and lungs D. brain and lungs

The pectoral girdle consists of the: A. scapulae and clavicles. B. clavicles and rib cage. C. sternum and scapulae. D. acromion and clavicles.

The physical examination consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) puncture B) inspection C) palpation D) auscultation

The primary purpose for splinting a musculoskeletal injury is to: A. prevent further injury. B. maximize distal circulation. C. make the patient comfortable. D. facilitate ambulance transport.

The process in which oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged in the lungs is called: A. respiration. B. ventilation. C. metabolism. D. inhalation.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: A. external respiration. B. cellular metabolism. C. pulmonary ventilation. D. alveolar ventilation.

The purpose of defibrillation is to: A. stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells. B. cause a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient. C. improve the chance of cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) being successful in resuscitation. D. prevent asystole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation.

The purpose of the pin-indexing system that has been established for compressed gas cylinders is to: A. ensure that the correct regulator is used for the cylinder. B. help you determine what type of oxygen regulator to use. C. prevent destroying or stripping the threads on the cylinder. D. reduce the cylinder pressure to a safe and more useful range.

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: A. systolic blood pressure. B. poor general appearance. C. the mechanism of injury. D. clinical signs and symptoms.

The skin and underlying tissues of the face: A. have a rich blood supply and bleed profusely. B. swell minimally when exposed to blunt trauma. C. are well protected by the maxillae and mandible. D. contain a relatively small number of nerve fibers.

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: A. foramen magnum. B. vertebral foramen. C. foramen lamina. D. cauda equina.

The spinal cord is encased in and protected by the: A. spinal canal. B. vertebral body. C. vertebral arch. D. intervertebral disc.

The systemic veins function by: A. returning deoxygenated blood back to the heart. B. delivering oxygen-poor blood to the capillaries. C. returning oxygen-rich blood back to the left atrium. D. delivering deoxygenated blood to the capillaries.

The term "hyphema" is defined as: A. blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. B. an acute rupture of the globe of the eye. C. inflammation of the iris, cornea, and lens. D. compression of one or both optic nerves.

The two MOST common signs of anaphylaxis are: A. wheezing and widespread urticaria. B. watery eyes and localized itching. C. expiratory stridor and tachycardia. D. hypertension and swollen hands.

To effectively immobilize a fractured clavicle, you should apply a(n): A. sling and swathe. B. air splint over the entire arm. C. rigid splint to the upper arm, then a sling. D. traction splint to the arm of the injured side.

To obtain the MOST accurate reading of a patient's core body temperature, you should place a special hypothermia thermometer: A. into the patient's rectum. B. under the patient's tongue. C. behind the patient's knee. D. under the patient's armpit.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: A. corner of the mouth to the earlobe. B. center of the mouth to the posterior ear. C. corner of the mouth to the superior ear. D. angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

Typical chief complaints in patients with an infectious disease include: A. fever, rash, nausea, and difficulty breathing. B. crushing chest pain, vomiting, and weakness. C. joint pain, muscle aches, and blurred vision. D. headache, low back pain, and arm numbness.

Unstable patients should be reassessed every ___ minutes. A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: A. assess the scene for potential hazards. B. determine if you need additional help. C. request a paramedic unit for assistance. D. gain immediate access to the patient.

Upon initial contact with a patient who appears to be unconscious, you should: A. attempt to elicit a verbal response by talking to the patient. B. squeeze the trapezius muscle to see if the patient responds. C. assess breathing depth and determine the respiratory rate. D. direct your partner to apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

Weakening of the airway in patients with chronic bronchitis is the result of: A. destruction of protective mechanisms that remove foreign particles. B. loss of the lubricating substance that facilitates alveolar expansion. C. airway irritation caused by a marked decrease in mucus production. D. acute constriction of the bronchioles caused by an external irritant.

What is the approximate blood volume of a 75-kg adult? A. 5.25 L B. 5.50 L C. 6.25 L D. 6.50 L

What is the main purpose of eye blinking? A. Clean the eye B. Prevent eye muscle atrophy C. Natural reflex to bright light D. Refocus the eye

What is the minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min? A. 5,600 mL B. 6,000 mL C. 7,400 mL D. 8,000 mL

Wheezing occurs because excessive _________ and mucus are secreted into the bronchial passages. A. fluid B. carbon dioxide C. blood D. all of the above

When a female has reached menarche: A. she is capable of becoming pregnant. B. she can no longer produce an ovum. C. she usually requires hormone therapy. D. menstrual periods become less frequent.

When activated, the sympathetic nervous system produces all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. pupillary constriction. B. increase in heart rate. C. shunting of blood to vital organs. D. dilation of the bronchiole smooth muscle.

When an electrical impulse reaches the AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: A. blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles. B. blood returning from the body can fill the atria. C. the impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers. D. the SA node can reset and generate another impulse.

When applying a bandage to hold a dressing in place, stretch the bandage tight enough to control the bleeding but not so tight as to decrease _____ to the extremity. A. blood flow B. pulses C. oxygen D. CRTs

When assessing & treating a patient who is visually impaired, it's important that you do all of the following EXCEPT: A) speak loudly into the patient's ear, because he or she can't see you B) announce yourself when entering the residence C) put items that were moved back into their previous position D) explain to the patient what is happening

When assessing a patient with abdominal pain, you should: A. palpate the abdomen in a clockwise direction beginning with the quadrant after the one the patient indicates is painful. B. ask the patient to point to the area of pain or tenderness and assess for rebound tenderness over that specific area. C. visually assess the painful area of the abdomen, but avoid palpation because this could worsen his or her condition. D. observe for abdominal guarding, which is characterized by sudden relaxation of the abdominal muscles when palpated.

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that: A. osteoporosis can cause a fracture that may have resulted in the fall. B. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury. C. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls. D. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma

When caring for a chemical burn to the eye, the EMT should: A. prevent contamination of the opposite eye. B. immediately cover the injured eye with a sterile dressing. C. avoid irrigating the eye, as this may cause further injury. D. irrigate both eyes simultaneously, even if only one eye is injured.

When caring for a female with trauma to the external genitalia, the EMT should: A. use local pressure to control bleeding. B. carefully pack the vagina to reduce bleeding. C. remove any impaled objects from the vagina. D. cover any open wounds with moist, sterile dressings.

When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an air bag that did not deploy upon impact, it is MOST important to: A. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you. B. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries. C. realize that the air bag malfunctioned at the time of impact. D. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine: A. if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress. B. approximately how much water the patient drank that day. C. if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions. D. the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin.

When obtaining medical history information from the family of a suspected stroke patient, it is MOST important to determine: A. when the patient last appeared normal. B. if there is a family history of a stroke. C. if the patient has been hospitalized before. D. the patient's overall medication compliance.

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should: A. focus on his or her chief complaint. B. examine him or her from head to toe. C. only palpate tender areas of the abdomen. D. prepare the patient for transport first.

When perfusion to the core of the body decreases: A. blood is shunted away from the skin. B. decreased cardiac contractility occurs. C. blood is diverted to the gastrointestinal tract. D. the voluntary nervous system releases hormones.

When placing a patient onto a long backboard, the EMT at the patient's _________ is in charge of all patient movements. A. head B. chest C. waist D. lower extremities

When the abdominal muscles become rigid in an effort to protect the abdomen from further irritation, this is referred to as: A. guarding D. tenderness C. rebound tenderness D. referred pain

When the body is exposed to more heat energy than it loses, __________ result(s). A. hyperthermia B. heat cramps C. heat exhaustion D. heatstroke

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: A. quadruples. B. triples. C. doubles. D. is not affected.

When there are low levels of oxygen in the blood, the lips & mucous membranes appear blue or gray. This condition is called: A) cyanosis B) pallor C) jaundice D) ashen

When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: A. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. B. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. C. above the anterior posterior iliac spines of the pelvis and below the hip joints. D. across the abdominal wall at the level of the umbilicus and against the hip joints.

Which of the following MOST accurately defines an allergic reaction? A. an exaggerated immune system response to any substance B. destruction of the immune system by an external substance C. a release of erythrocytes in response to a foreign substance D. a direct negative effect on the body by an external substance

Which of the following MOST accurately describes a simple partial seizure? A. a seizure that begins in one extremity B. a seizure that causes the patient to stare blankly C. a seizure that is not preceded by an aura D. a generalized seizure without incontinence

Which of the following MOST accurately describes the cause of an ischemic stroke? A. blockage of a cerebral artery B. acute atherosclerotic disease C. rupture of a cerebral artery D. narrowing of a carotid artery

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem? A. jugular venous distention B. palpable pain to the epigastrium C. use of the accessory muscles D. unequal breath sounds

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition? A. substance abuse B. depression C. schizophrenia D. Alzheimer's disease

Which of the following conditions is more common in women than in men? A. cystitis B. hepatitis C. pancreatitis D. cholecystitis

Which of the following conditions is the diabetic patient at an increased risk of developing? A. blindness B. depression C. alcoholism D. hepatitis B

Which of the following drugs is NOT a sedative-hypnotic? a) cocaine b) diazepam (Valium) c) secobarbital (Seconal) d) flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? A. shallow breathing B. increased tidal volume C. respirations of 20 breaths/min D. slight decrease in respiratory rate

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma? A. Deployment of the air bag B. Steering wheel deformity C. Intrusion into the vehicle D. Dismounted seats

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? A. Rapid transport to a trauma center B. Elevation of the lower extremities C. Intravenous fluid administration D. Early administration of oxygen

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker? A. a rapid heart rate B. syncope or dizziness C. heart rate less than 60 beats/min D. generalized weakness

Which of the following is NOT a pertinent negative to note during your assessment of a patient with chest trauma? A. No heart murmurs B. No associated shortness of breath C. No rapid breathing D. No areas of deformity

Which of the following is NOT considered a sign? A) dizziness B) marked deformities C) external bleeding D) wounds

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? A. poisoning B. head trauma C. brain tumor D. massive stroke

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 35-year-old patient? A. circumferential partial-thickness burn to the chest B. full-thickness burn to 5% of the body surface area (BSA) C. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. superficial burn covering 50% of the BSA

Which of the following is an early sign of pit viper envenomation? A. local swelling and ecchymosis B. general weakness and diaphoresis C. syncope and bleeding at distal sites D. signs and symptoms of hypoperfusion

Which of the following is the preferred method of assisting ventilations? a. mouth-to-mask with one-way valve b. two-person bag-mask device with reservoir and supplemental oxygen c. flow-restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device d. one-person bag-mask device with oxygen reservoir and supplemental oxygen

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries has the GREATEST risk for shock due to blood loss? A. pelvic fracture B. posterior hip dislocation C. unilateral femur fracture D. proximal humerus fracture

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? A. muscle B. heart C. liver D. kidneys

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin B. a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations C. a conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume D. an unconscious 52-year-old female with snoring respirations and cool, pale skin

Which of the following patients is in decompensated shock? A. a 20-year-old female with absent radial pulses and dilated pupils B. a 23-year-old restless male with cool, clammy skin and tachycardia C. a 28-year-old female with pale skin and rapid, shallow respirations D. a 32-year-old male with anxiety and a systolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg

Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? A. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. B. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. C. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. D. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound.

Which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence during the initial questioning of a patient who ingested a substance? a) Why was the substance ingested? b) What type of substance was taken? c) How much of the substance was taken? d) How long ago was it taken?

Which of the following scenarios is an example of a direct injury? A. A passenger fractures her patella after it strikes the dashboard. B. A skier dislocates his knee after a twisting injury to the ankle. C. A person lands on his or her feet and fractures the lumbar spine. D. A child dislocates his elbow after falling on his outstretched arm.

Which of the following sets of vital signs depicts Cushing's triad? A. Blood pressure, 190/110 mm Hg pulse, 55 beats/min respirations, 30 breaths/min B. Blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg pulse, 120 beats/min respirations, 10 breaths/min C. Blood pressure, 200/100 mm Hg pulse, 140 beats/min pulse, 140 beats/min respirations, 28 breaths/min D. Blood pressure, 80/40 mm Hg pulse, pulse 30 beats/min respirations, 32 breaths/min

Which of the following sets of vital signs is LEAST indicative of internal bleeding? A. BP, 140/90 mm Hg; pulse rate, 58 beats/min; respirations, 8 breaths/min B. BP, 100/50 mm Hg; pulse rate, 120 beats/min; respirations, 24 breaths/min C. BP, 98/60 mm Hg; pulse rate, 110 beats/min; respirations, 28 breaths/min D. BP, 102/48 mm Hg; pulse rate, 100 beats/min; respirations, 22 breaths/min

Which of the following statements about heat cramps is false? A. they only occur when it is hot outdoors B. they may be seen in well-conditioned athletes C. the exact cause of heat cramps is not well understood D. dehydration may play a role in the development of heat cramps

Which of the following statements about tuberculosis is FALSE? A. It is found in open, uncrowded living spaces. B. It can be found in crowded environments with poor ventilation. C. It is spread through the air via droplets. D. The primary infection is typically not serious.

Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the treatment of bleeding from a neck injury? A. Apply firm pressure to the carotid artery to reduce the amount of bleeding. B. Apply pressure to the bleeding site using a gloved fingertip C. Apply a sterile occlusive dressing D. Use gauze to secure the dressing in place

Which of the following statements regarding the "Adam's apple" is FALSE? A. It is inferior to the cricoid cartilage. B. It is formed by the thyroid cartilage. C. It is the uppermost part of the larynx. D. It is more prominent in men than in women.

Which of the following statements regarding assessment of the airway is TRUE? A) The body will not be supplied the necessary oxygen if the airway is not managed B) You should use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway in trauma patients C) The tongue is generally not a cause of airway obstruction D) A conscious patient who cannot speak or cry is most likely hyperventilating

Which of the following statements regarding compartment syndrome is correct? A. Compartment syndrome typically develops within 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. Compartment syndrome occurs because of increased pressure within the bone cavity. C. In most cases, compartment syndrome develops within a few minutes after an injury. D. Most cases of compartment syndrome occur following a severe fracture of the pelvis.

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. B. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. C. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. D. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity.

Which of the following statements regarding electrical burns is correct? A. Entrance wounds are small relative to the amount of internal tissue damage. B. Respiratory or cardiac arrest following an electrical burn is very uncommon. C. The exit wound caused by electrical burns is smaller than the entrance wound. D. The size of the entry and exit wounds is a reliable indicator of internal damage.

Which of the following statements regarding fire ants is correct? A. Fire ants often bite a person repeatedly. B. Fire ant bites rarely cause anaphylaxis. C. Fire ant bites typically occur on the face. D. Most people are allergic to fire ant toxin.

Which of the following statements regarding hemothorax is correct? A. It can only be treated by a surgeon B. It results from a collection of air in the pleural space C. Breath sounds tend to be equal D. It is not typically associated with shock

Which of the following statements regarding lightning strikes is correct? A. Lighting often results in a brief period of asystole that resolves spontaneously. B. The tissue damage pathway caused by lightning usually occurs through the skin. C. Victims who are struck by lightning often experience severe full-thickness burns. D. Cervical spine fractures are the most common cause of lightning-related deaths.

Which of the following statements regarding penetrating injuries is correct? A. External bleeding may be minimal but internal injuries can be extensive. B. The degree of internal injury can often be estimated by the external injury. C. It is important to distinguish between entrance and exit wounds in the field. D. The depth of a penetrating injury should be thoroughly assessed by the EMT.

Which of the following statements regarding the H1N1 virus is correct? A. It is only one type of influenza among the many other strains of influenza that exist and infect humans. B. H1N1 has caused more deaths worldwide than all of the other strains of influenza combined. C. H1N1, also known as the "swine flu," is a newly discovered strain of influenza for which no vaccine exists. D. Unlike other strains of the influenza virus, H1N1 is primarily transmitted via the fecal-oral route.

Which of the following statements regarding the treatment of an amputation is FALSE? A. You should sever any partial amputation, because this will aid in the reattachment process. B. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in a dry sterile dressing is appropriate. C. In some areas, wrapping the amputated part in dressings moistened with sterile saline is appropriate. D. After wrapping the amputated part, place it in a plastic bag.

Which of the following will MOST reliably allow you to determine the nature of a patient's illness? A. asking questions related to the chief complaint B. focusing solely on how the call is dispatched C. trending of the patient's vital signs over time D. refraining from asking open-ended questions

Which of the following would cause the greatest increase in cardiac output? A. increased heart rate and increased stroke volume B. decreased stroke volume and increased heart rate C. decreased heart rate and increased stroke volume D. decreased stroke volume and decreased heart rate

While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you not that her air bag deployed. You should: A. life the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. B. carefully assess her upper chest for seat belt-related injuries C. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center

While inspecting the interior of a wrecked automobile, you should be MOST suspicious that the driver experienced an abdominal injury if you find: A. a deformed steering wheel. B. that the airbags deployed. C. a crushed instrument panel. D. damage to the lower dashboard.

While transporting a patient, you continue to recheck the splint you applied. You know that improperly applying a splint can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. increase of distal circulation if the splint is too tight. B. delay in transport of a patient with a life-threatening injury. C. aggravation of the distal circulation. D. compression of nerves, tissues, and blood vessels.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should: A. manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly. C. load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital. D. administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-mask device. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: A. begin ventilations using the mouth-to-mask technique. B. hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations. C. continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately. D. suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations.

You and your partner are standing by at a large social event at a river resort when a frantic woman tells you that she found a young male floating face-down in the water. Nobody claims to have witnessed the event. After you and your partner enter the water and reach the patient, you should: A. move him as a unit to a supine position. B. begin ventilations with a barrier device. C. immediately secure him to a longboard. D. perform a jaw-thrust maneuver to open his airway.

You are assessing a 33-year-old male who complains of severe abdominal pain, weakness, and nausea. He tells you that he was gathering wood to build a fire when he felt a sudden, sharp pain on the back of his hand. Your assessment reveals that the patient's abdomen is rigid and painful to palpation. You should suspect: A. a black widow spider bite. B. envenomation from a pit viper. C. a brown recluse spider bite. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: A. remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport. B. immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital. C. move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay. D. ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should: A. instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can. B. immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition. C. advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption. D. allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

You are caring for a semiconscious man with left-sided paralysis. His airway is patent and his respirations are 14 breaths/min with adequate tidal volume. Treatment for this patient should include: A. oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, left lateral recumbent position, and transport. B. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, right lateral recumbent position, and transport. C. an oral airway, assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device, Fowler's position, and transport. D. oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, supine position with legs elevated 6″ to 12″, and transport.

You are dispatched to a local nursery for a 39-year-old female who is sick. When you arrive, you find the patient lying on the floor. She is semiconscious, has copious amounts of saliva coming from her mouth, and is incontinent of urine. You quickly feel her pulse and note that it is very slow. Initial management for this patient should include: a) assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device. b) performing a rapid secondary assessment. c) requesting a paramedic to give her atropine. d) thoroughly suctioning her oropharynx.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who is sick. The patient complains of a rash to her lower extremities and truncal area. Your assessment reveals a small, painful blister on her inner thigh. As your partner is taking the patient's vital signs, she states that she and her family returned from a camping trip two days ago. On the basis of this patient's presentation, you should suspect: A. Lyme disease. B. an allergic reaction. C. exposure to poison ivy. D. Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

You are dispatched to a residential neighborhood for a 6-year-old girl who was bitten by the family pet. The mother meets you at the door with the girl, who is crying uncontrollably and has blood covering the right side of her head. You look at the child and notice that her lower right ear has been completely avulsed. You control the bleeding with direct pressure and bandage the injury. You follow the blood trail back to where the incident occurred and find the avulsed part. How do you manage the avulsed tissue? A. Wrap the skin in a moist, sterile dressing; place it in a plastic bag; and keep it cool. B. Place the skin in a plastic 'biohazard' bag and dispose of it properly. C. Place the skin in a plastic bag filled with ice and transport it to the ER. D. Leave it at the scene to be disposed of later.

You are transporting a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. The patient is unstable and is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of shock. Your estimated time of arrival at the hospital is less than 10 minutes. After treating the patient appropriately, you should: A. closely monitor him and reassess him frequently. B. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment. C. begin documenting the call on the patient care form. D. forgo the hospital radio report because of his condition.

You are treating a middle-aged man with chest discomfort. He has a history of three previous heart attacks and takes nitroglycerin as needed for chest pain. You have standing orders to administer aspirin to patients with suspected cardiac-related chest pain or discomfort. While your partner is preparing to give oxygen to the patient, you should: A. confirm that the patient is not allergic to aspirin, give him the appropriate dose of aspirin, and document the time and dose given. B. contact medical control, apprise him or her of the patient's chief complaint and vital signs, and request permission to give him aspirin. C. ensure that the patient's systolic blood pressure is at least 100 mm Hg since aspirin dilates the blood vessels and can cause a drop in blood pressure. D. assist the patient in taking one of his prescribed nitroglycerin, assess his vital signs, and give him aspirin if he is still experiencing chest discomfort.

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, he notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You elevate the patient's legs, but this action has no effect. You should: A. reevaluate the rate and volume of your ventilations. B. perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for bleeding. C. increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure. D. ensure that you are delivering one breath every 3 to 5 seconds.

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-mask device. She has dentures, which are tight-fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: A. remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise. B. attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations. C. leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction. D. remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. B. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. C. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one. D. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. You should transport her: A. in a position of comfort. B. supine. C. left lateral recumbent. D. in the recovery position.

You receive a call for a 70-year-old female with respiratory distress. Her husband tells you that she has congestive heart failure; however, he does not think that she has been taking her medications as prescribed. The patient is laboring to breathe, appears tired, and has cyanosis around her lips. You should: A. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. apply a pulse oximeter and obtain vital signs. C. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. obtain a complete list of all of her medications.

You receive a call to a local gymnasium for a basketball player with a dislocated shoulder. Upon arrival, you find the patient, a 17-year-old male, sitting on the ground. He is holding his left arm in a fixed position away from his body. There is an obvious anterior bulge to the area of injury. You should: A. assess distal pulse, motor, and sensory functions. B. gently attempt to move his arm toward his body. C. place a pillow under his arm and apply a swathe. D. flex his arm at the elbow and then apply a sling.

You receive a call to a residence where a man found his wife unconscious on the couch. The patient is unresponsive, her respiratory rate is 8 breaths/min, her breathing is shallow, her heart rate is 40 beats/min, and her pulse is weak. The husband hands you an empty bottle of hydrocodone (Vicodin), which was refilled the day before. You should: a) initiate ventilatory assistance. b) contact the poison control center. c) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. d) perform a rapid head-to-toe exam.

You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was involved in a motor vehicle collision. She is alert and oriented. Her airway is open, and respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. Pulse is 94 beats/min and is strong and regular. Distal pulses are present. Her upper arm has obvious deformity. You splint the upper arm. You know that splinting will do all of the following EXCEPT: A. prevent the need for surgery. B. reduce shock. C. minimize compromised circulation. D. reduce pain.

You respond to a 19-year-old woman who was kicked in the leg by a horse. She is alert and oriented. Respirations are 20 breaths/min, regular and unlabored. Pulse is 110 beats/min and regular. Distal pulses are present. She has point tenderness at the site of the injury. You should compare the limb to: A. the opposite uninjured limb. B. one of your limbs or one of your partner's limbs. C. an injury chart. D. none of the above.

You respond to a 20 year old man who was playing basketball and suddenly developed chest pain and respiratory difficulty. He is alert and oriented and complaining of chest pain. He is breathing at 24 breaths/min. His pulse is 140 beats/min and blood pressure is 160/90 mm Hg. Upon listening to the chest, you notice diminished breath sounds on the left side. The patient is most likely suffering from a (n) A. spontaneous pneumothorax B. hemothorax C. tension pneumonthorax D. open pneumonthorax

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. The correct ventilation rate for assisting this adult patient is: a. one breath every 5-6 seconds b. one breath every 3-5 seconds c. one breath every 10-12 seconds d. there is no need to assist with ventilations for this patient

You respond to a home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. He is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. He is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. His respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his heart rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. His brain stem senses the level of ____________ in the arterial blood, causing the rapid respirations. A. carbon dioxide B. oxygen C. insulin D. none of the above

You respond to a home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. He is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. He is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. His respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his heart rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Proper management of this patient should include: A. supplemental oxygen. B. chest compressions. C. suctioning. D. all of the above

You respond to a local lake where a diver complains of difficulty breathing that occurred immediately after rapidly ascending from a depth of approximately 30′. On assessment, you note that he has cyanosis around his lips and has pink froth coming from his nose and mouth. You should: A. suction his mouth and nose, apply high-flow oxygen, position him on his left side with his head down, and contact medical control regarding transport to a recompression facility. B. place him in a semi-sitting position, suction his mouth and nose, apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, and transport to the closest emergency department. C. suction his mouth and nose, keep him supine and elevate his legs to prevent air bubbles from entering his brain, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport to a hyperbaric chamber. D. position him supine with his head elevated 30°, suction his mouth and nose, hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device, and contact medical control for further guidance.

You respond to an 18 year old man who has been assaulted with a baseball bat. He was hit in the chest. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. This condition is most likely related to: A. commotio cordis B. cardiac tamponade C. pneumonthorax D. traumatic asphyxia

You respond to the residence of a 55-year-old female with a possible allergic reaction to peanuts that she ate approximately 30 minutes ago. The patient is conscious and alert, but has diffuse urticaria and the feeling that she has a lump in her throat. As your partner applies oxygen to the patient, you should: A. ask her if she has prescribed epinephrine. B. obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs. C. ascertain if she has a family history of allergies. D. ask her when her last allergic reaction occurred.

Your primary safety concern is for: A) yourself B) your partner C) your patient D) the bystanders

52. You have just delivered a premature baby. Your assessment reveals that he is breathing adequately; however, his heart rate is 90 beats/min. You should: A. keep him warm and provide ventilatory assistance. B. begin chest compressions and reassess in 30 seconds. C. clamp and cut the umbilical cord and keep him warm. D. assess his skin color and give free-flow oxygen as needed.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1126

58. Your 22-year-old patient is in active labor. Upon visual inspection, you note that the infant's leg is protruding from the vagina. Appropriate management of this situation includes: A. placing the mother supine with her head down and pelvis elevated. B. gently pulling on the infant's leg in an attempt to facilitate delivery. C. placing the mother in a recumbent position and rapidly transporting. D. carefully attempting to push the infant's leg off of the umbilical cord.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1128

49. A child who has no recent history of illness suddenly appears cyanotic and cannot speak after playing with a small toy. You should: A. perform abdominal thrusts. B. visualize the child's airway. C. perform a blind finger sweep. D. give oxygen and transport at once.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171

50. An 8-year-old female with a history of asthma continues to experience severe respiratory distress despite being given multiple doses of her prescribed albuterol by her mother. She is conscious, but clearly restless. Her heart rate is 130 beats/min and her respiratory rate is 30 breaths/min. She is receiving high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. You should: A. be prepared to assist her ventilations, transport at once, and request an ALS intercept en route to the hospital. B. continue high-flow oxygen therapy, contact medical control, and request permission to administer more albuterol. C. begin immediate ventilation assistance and ensure that you squeeze the bag forcefully in order to open her bronchioles. D. begin chest compressions if she becomes unresponsive and her heart rate falls below 80 beats/min.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1171

13. You are dispatched to a skilled nursing care facility for an 80-year-old female with abnormal behavior. The patient is clearly confused and asks you if you are her husband. As your partner administers oxygen to the patient, you should: A. determine the patient's baseline mental status. B. inquire about a history of Alzheimer disease. C. obtain a complete list of the patient's medications. D. ask an attendant for the patient's medical records.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1219

40. A 73-year-old female experienced a syncopal episode while watching TV. She is now conscious, but is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. Your assessment reveals abdominal tenderness and a pulsating mass to the left of her umbilicus. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. an aortic aneurysm. B. acute appendicitis. C. a strangulated bowel. D. myocardial infarction.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1232

54. You are dispatched to a residence for an 80-year-old female who fell. When you arrive, you find the patient conscious, lying in a recumbent position on the floor in her living room. In addition to providing the appropriate treatment, you should ask the patient if: A. she became dizzy or fainted before falling. B. she attempted to catch herself before falling. C. a family member regularly checks up on her. D. she takes medications for Alzheimer disease.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240

4. The term "bloody show" is defined as: A. the small amount of pink-tinged mucus that is discharged from the vagina after expulsion of the mucous plug. B. mild vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 30 minutes after the onset of the second stage of the labor process. C. the normal amount of vaginal bleeding that occurs within the first 24 hours following delivery of the baby and placenta. D. any volume of blood that is expelled from the vagina after the amniotic sac has ruptured and contractions have begun.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

5. Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is correct? A. The placenta allows oxygen, carbon dioxide, and other products to transfer between the mother and fetus but does not allow blood to mix between the mother and fetus. B. The placental barrier consists of two layers of cells and allows the mother's blood that contains high concentrations of oxygen to directly mix with the blood of the fetus. C. The placenta, also referred to as the afterbirth, provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and is expelled from the vagina about 30 minutes before the baby is born. D. The placenta allows for the transfer of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the mother and fetus but prevents most medications from passing between the mother and fetus.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

20. Signs and symptoms of preeclampsia include: A. headache and edema. B. marked hypoglycemia. C. dyspnea and bradycardia. D. dysuria and constipation.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

26. Abruptio placenta occurs when: A. the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall. B. a tear in the placenta causes severe internal hemorrhage. C. the placenta affixes itself to the outer layer of the uterus. D. the placenta develops over and covers the cervical opening.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

36. During delivery, it is MOST important to position your partner at the mother's head because: A. the mother may become nauseated and vomit. B. the mother needs to be apprised of the situation. C. she may need emotional support during the delivery. D. mothers often need assisted ventilation during delivery.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

40. During delivery of the baby's head, you should suction the mouth before the nose because: A. suctioning the nose first may cause the baby to gasp and aspirate fluid. B. it is easier to suction larger volumes of fluid from the baby's oropharynx. C. babies are primarily mouth breathers and do not breathe through their nose. D. the mucosa of the nose is fragile and is easily damaged by vigorous suctioning.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1120

45. After a baby is born, it is important to: A. ensure that it is thoroughly dried and warmed. B. position it so that its head is higher than its body. C. cool the infant to stimulate effective breathing. D. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1123

51. Vigorous suctioning of a newborn's airway is indicated if: A. there is meconium in the amniotic fluid. B. positive-pressure ventilations are indicated. C. the newborn presents with labored breathing. D. his or her heart rate is less than 60 beats/min.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126

57. Which of the following statements regarding a breech presentation is MOST correct? A. A breech presentation occurs when the buttocks are the presenting part. B. There is minimal risk of trauma to the infant with a breech presentation. C. It is impossible to deliver a breech presentation in the prehospital setting. D. Breech deliveries occur rapidly, so the EMT should deliver at the scene.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128

59. The ONLY indications for placing your gloved fingers in the vagina during delivery are: A. breech presentation and prolapsed umbilical cord. B. limb presentation and severe vaginal hemorrhage. C. vertex presentation and delivery of the placenta. D. nuchal cord and presentation of an arm or leg.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1128-1129

62. An abortion occurs when the fetus and placenta deliver before: A. 20 weeks. B. 24 weeks. C. 26 weeks. D. 28 weeks.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129

66. In contrast to a full-term infant, a premature infant: A. has an even proportionately larger head. B. is often covered with excess vernix material. C. is one who is born before 38 weeks' gestation. D. retains heat better because of excess body hair.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

1. The first month of life after birth is referred to as the: A. neonatal period. B. toddler period. C. start of infancy. D. premature phase.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

3. A child may begin to show signs of separation anxiety as early as: A. 6 months. B. 12 months. C. 18 months. D. 24 months.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

4. Unless he or she is critically ill or injured, you should generally begin your assessment of a toddler: A. at the feet. B. at the head. C. in the ambulance. D. en route to the hospital.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1150

7. When assessing or treating an adolescent patient, it is important to remember that: A. they usually do not wish to be observed during a procedure. B. it is generally not necessary to explain procedures in advance. C. they often request medication to help in the relief of severe pain. D. they cannot understand complex concepts and treatment options.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1153

10. Compared to an adult, the diaphragm dictates the amount of air that a child inspires because the: A. intercostal muscles are not well developed. B. rib cage is rigid and provides little flexibility. C. abdominal organs force the diaphragm upward. D. upper airway is smaller and easily collapsible.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154

14. Compared to adults, the liver and spleen of pediatric patients are more prone to injury and bleeding because they are: A. proportionately larger and situated more anteriorly. B. more vascular despite the fact that they are proportionately smaller. C. spaced further apart, which causes them to shift following trauma. D. lower in the abdominal cavity, where the muscles are not as strong.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

17. The components of the PAT are: A. appearance, work of breathing, and skin circulation. B. mental status, heart rate, and systolic blood pressure. C. skin condition, respiratory rate, and level of alertness. D. activity, respiratory quality, and level of consciousness.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

21. Early signs of respiratory distress in the pediatric patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. tachypnea. C. retractions. D. abnormal airway noise.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1159

29. A high-pitched inspiratory sound that indicates a partial upper airway obstruction is called: A. stridor. B. rhonchi. C. grunting. D. wheezing.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

32. After squeezing the end of a child's finger or toe for a few seconds, blood should return to the area within: A. 2 seconds. B. 3 seconds. C. 4 seconds. D. 5 seconds.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

36. If the situation allows, a child should be transported in a car seat if he or she weighs less than _____ lb. A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1164

37. Which of the following inquiries should you make in private when obtaining a SAMPLE history from an adolescent patient? A. sexual activity B. past medical history C. change in bladder habits D. duration of symptoms

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1165

39. Blood pressure is usually not assessed in children younger than _____ years. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

40. Which of the following represents a low normal systolic blood pressure for a 6-year-old child? A. 82 mm Hg B. 88 mm Hg C. 90 mm Hg D. 98 mm Hg

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1167

42. An infant or child with respiratory distress will attempt to keep his or her alveoli expanded at the end of inhalation by: A. grunting. B. wheezing. C. assuming a tripod position. D. retracting the intercostal muscles.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1168

44. A viral infection that may cause obstruction of the upper airway in a child is called: A. croup. B. asthma. C. bronchitis. D. epiglottitis.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169

46. Signs of an upper airway obstruction in an infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. wheezing. B. a weak cough. C. a cough that resembles the bark of a seal. D. stridorous breathing.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

54. Which of the following statements regarding the use of nasopharyngeal airways in children is correct? A. They are rarely used in infants younger than 1 year. B. It is the recommended adjunct for children with head trauma. C. They are usually not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex. D. Blanching of the nares after insertion indicates correct placement.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1175

58. When administering oxygen to a frightened child, it would be MOST appropriate to: A. place oxygen tubing through a hole in a paper cup. B. tightly secure the oxygen mask straps to the face. C. have a parent restrain the child as you give oxygen. D. use a nasal cannula instead of a nonrebreathing mask.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

59. When ventilating a pediatric patient with a bag-mask device, the EMT should: A. block the pop-off valve if needed to achieve adequate chest rise. B. squeeze the bag 40 times/min when ventilating an infant. C. ensure that he or she uses a neonatal device for children younger than 12 months. D. ventilate the child with sharp, quick breaths at the appropriate rate.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1177

72. Signs and symptoms of meningitis in the infant or child include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. sunken fontanelles. B. headache and fever. C. a stiff or painful neck. D. an altered mental status.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183

73. Children with N meningitides would MOST likely present with: A. cherry-red spots or a purplish rash. B. a low-grade fever and tachycardia. C. hypothermia and an irregular pulse. D. a generalized rash with intense itching.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1183

74. The signs and symptoms of poisoning in children: A. vary widely, depending on the child's age and weight. B. are more obvious than in the adult population. C. usually present within the first 10 minutes of ingestion. D. are most severe if the child ingested a poisonous substance.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

84. Submersion injuries in the adolescent age group are MOST commonly associated with: A. alcohol. B. child abuse. C. hyperthermia. D. swimming pools.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

89. Padding underneath the torso when immobilizing an injured child is generally not necessary if he or she is: A. older than 8 to 10 years. B. complaining of severe back pain. C. immobilized on a long backboard. D. experiencing cardiopulmonary arrest.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

90. The pediatric patient should be removed from his or her car seat and secured to an appropriate spinal immobilization device if: A. the car seat is visibly damaged. B. he or she has no visible injuries. C. his or her vital signs are stable. D. he or she even has a minor injury.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1189

92. When a child experiences a blunt injury to the abdomen: A. he or she can compensate for blood loss better than adults. B. his or her blood pressure falls with as little as 5% blood loss. C. your assessment will most often reveal bruising to the abdomen. D. delayed capillary refill indicates a state of decompensated shock.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

98. Bruising to the _________ is LEAST suggestive of child abuse. A. shins B. back C. face D. buttocks

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

99. Death caused by shaken baby syndrome is usually the result of: A. bleeding in the brain. B. multiple open fractures. C. intra-abdominal hemorrhage. D. fracture of the cervical spine.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

3. When explaining the need for a particular procedure to an elderly patient, you should: A. use plain language and simple terms. B. use the appropriate medical terminology. C. be complex so the patient fully understands. D. realize that he or she will not understand you.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

6. Sedentary behavior while healing from a hip fracture would MOST likely predispose the older patient to: A. pneumonia. B. osteoporosis. C. heart failure. D. ischemic stroke.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217

12. Which of the following statements regarding a decreased level of consciousness in the elderly patient is correct? A. A decreased level of consciousness is not a normal part of the aging process. B. Most elderly patients have some deterioration in their level of consciousness. C. A decreased level of consciousness is most often the result of chronic dementia. D. The AVPU scale is an ineffective tool when assessing an elderly patient's level of consciousness.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

15. The purpose of the GEMS diamond is to: A. help EMS personnel remember what is different about elderly patients. B. provide the EMT with a standard format for assessing elderly patients. C. replace the typical ABC approach to patient care when caring for the elderly. D. provide clues about an elderly patient's problem by observing his or her home.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221

19. Which of the following statements regarding the aging process is correct? A. Aging is a linear process; the rate at which a person loses functions does not increase with age. B. Because he or she is younger and healthier, a 35-year-old person ages slower than a 75-year-old person. C. Human growth and development peaks in the late 40s or early 50s, at which point the aging process sets in. D. The older a person gets, the slower the decline in the function of vital organs, such as the kidneys and liver.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223

20. During the natural process of aging, the number of functional cilia in the respiratory system decreases, resulting in: A. a decreased ability to cough. B. baseline respiratory distress. C. an increased risk of COPD. D. air-trapping within the alveoli.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223

28. When assessing a geriatric patient who has possibly experienced an acute ischemic stroke, it is MOST important to: A. determine the onset of the patient's symptoms. B. ascertain about a history of atrial fibrillation. C. administer 324 mg of aspirin as soon as possible. D. determine if the patient has risk factors for a stroke.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

33. In contrast to delirium, dementia: A. is usually considered irreversible. B. is the result of an acute condition. C. is reversible with certain treatment. D. often develops over a period of days.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229

36. Syncope in the older patient is: A. caused by an interruption of blood flow to the brain. B. generally of no concern unless the patient was injured. C. most commonly caused by a silent myocardial infarction. D. rarely life threatening but should be evaluated by a physician.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230

42. The stooped posture of some older people, which gives them a humpback appearance, is called: A. kyphosis. B. arthritis. C. scoliosis. D. miosis.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

46. When an elderly patient presents you with multiple over-the-counter medications that he or she is taking, it is MOST important to: A. recall that the patient is at risk for negative medication interactions. B. ask the patient to explain what each of the medications is used for. C. look up all of the medications before providing care to the patient. D. contact each of the physicians whose names are on the medications.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

49. Which of the following statements regarding suicide in the older patient is correct? A. Older patients tend to use more lethal means than younger patients. B. Older females have a higher rate of suicide than any other group. C. Depression and hopeless feelings are often not predisposing factors. D. Most suicidal patients readily seek care and do not deny the problem.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236

50. Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury in older patients? A. falls B. burns C. abuse D. suicide

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1237

55. An older woman with osteoporosis presents with pain and deformity to her left hip after she shifted her weight onto her other foot. She has MOST likely experienced a(n): A. pathologic fracture. B. idiopathic fracture. C. compression fracture. D. comminuted fracture.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

56. Fractures of the pelvis in older patients often occur as the result of a combination of: A. osteoporosis and low-energy trauma. B. increased bone density and car crashes. C. arthritic joints and high-energy trauma. D. acetabular separation and severe falls.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

64. Poor maintenance of home, poor personal care, and dietary neglect are all possible indicators of ____________ elder abuse. A. physical B. financial C. emotional D. psychological

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244

31. A tube from the brain to the abdomen that drains excessive cerebrospinal fluid is called a: A. shunt. B. G-tube. C. CS tube. D. cerebral bypass.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

36. Because a tracheostomy tube bypasses the nose and mouth: A. secretions can build up in and around the tube. B. the risk of a local infection is significantly high. C. bleeding or air leakage may occur around the tube. D. severe swelling of the trachea and bronchi can occur.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

35. You are assessing a 440-lb man who complains of shortness of breath and lower back pain. The patient is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 148/98 mm Hg, and his heart rate is 120 beats/min. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. avoid placing him in a supine position if possible and administer oxygen. B. notify the receiving facility and advise them of the patient's weight and status. C. perform a secondary assessment, focusing on his respiratory system and back. D. ask a member of your team to locate the best route to move him to the ambulance.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1269

9. By the 20th week of pregnancy, the uterus is typically at or above the level of the mother's: A. belly button. B. pubic bone. C. xiphoid process. D. superior diaphragm.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

3. Patients with autism: A. have extreme difficulty with complex tasks that require many steps. B. prefer to maintain eye contact with whomever is talking with them. C. often speak with speech patterns that alternate in tone and speed. D. use and understand nonverbal means of communicating messages.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

8. Airway management can be challenging in patients with Down syndrome because their: A. teeth are misaligned and they have a large tongue. B. occiput is round, which causes flexion of the neck. C. tongue is relatively small and falls back in the throat. D. mandible is large, which inhibits a mask-to-face seal.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

20. When enlisting the help of an interpreter who signs, it is important for you to ask the interpreter to: A. report exactly what the patient signs and not to add any commentary. B. voice what he or she is signing while communicating with the patient. C. document the answers to the questions that the patient has responded to. D. avoid any kind of lip movement while he or she is signing with the patient.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

25. Cerebral palsy is a condition that results from damage or injury to the: A. brain. B. spinal cord. C. voluntary muscles. D. peripheral nervous system.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

26. Which of the following statements regarding cerebral palsy is correct? A. Conditions such as brain injury at birth, postpartum infections, and fetal hypoxia can cause cerebral palsy. B. Most cases of cerebral palsy develop within the first 10 years of life and are typically caused by meningitis. C. Approximately 25% of patients with cerebral palsy possess some varying degrees of developmental delay. D. A key clinical feature of cerebral palsy is paralysis of the respiratory muscles, which confines the patient to a ventilator.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

32. Which of the following does NOT usually contribute to or cause obesity? A. rapid metabolism B. high caloric intake C. low metabolic rate D. genetic predisposition

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

42. In contrast to an automated implanted cardioverter/defibrillator, an internal cardiac pacemaker: A. regulates the patient's heart rate if it falls below a preset value. B. delivers a shock to the heart if the rate becomes exceedingly fast. C. is implanted under the skin in the left upper abdominal quadrant. D. will only activate if it detects rhythms such as ventricular fibrillation.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1271

44. The tip of a central venous catheter rests in the: A. vena cava. B. left atrium. C. right ventricle. D. pulmonary vein.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

49. Vagal nerve stimulators may be an alternative treatment to medication for patients with: A. chronic seizure disorders. B. inherently slow heart rates. C. certain psychiatric conditions. D. chronic muscle pain and fatigue.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

50. A surgical procedure that creates an opening between the intestine and the surface of the body that allows for elimination of waste products is called a(n): A. colostomy. B. gastrostomy. C. gastric stoma. D. intestinal shunt.

Answer: A Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

42. Upon delivery of the baby's head, you note that its face is encased in the unruptured amniotic sac. You should: A. give the mother 100% oxygen and transport at once. B. puncture the sac and suction the baby's mouth and nose. C. leave the amniotic sac intact until arrival at the hospital. D. note the color of the amniotic fluid before breaking the sac.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122

46. Following delivery of a full-term baby, you have properly cared for the baby and have clamped and cut the umbilical cord. During transport, you note that the mother is experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. You should: A. elevate her legs 6″ to 8″ and cover her with a blanket. B. firmly massage the uterine fundus with a circular motion. C. carefully insert a sterile trauma dressing into her vagina. D. place her legs together and position her on her left side.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1124

60. While examining a woman in labor, you see the umbilical cord protruding from the vagina. You should: A. carefully push the cord back into the vagina. B. push the infant's head away from the cord. C. cover the umbilical cord with a dry dressing. D. gently pull on the cord to facilitate delivery.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1129

23. You are dispatched to a local elementary school for an injured child. As you approach the child, you note that he is lying at the base of the monkey bars. He is unresponsive and there are no signs of breathing. You should: A. begin immediate rescue breathing. B. stabilize his head and check for a pulse. C. perform a head tilt-chin lift maneuver. D. open his airway and look in his mouth.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1160

47. A 6-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. His mother states that she saw him put a small toy into his mouth shortly before the episode began. The child is conscious, obviously frightened, and is coughing forcefully. You should: A. carefully look into his mouth and remove the object if you see it. B. encourage him to cough, give oxygen as tolerated, and transport. C. deliver a series of five back blows and then reassess his condition. D. place the child in a supine position and perform abdominal thrusts.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1170

70. A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should: A. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital. B. attempt cooling measures, offer oxygen, and transport. C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever. D. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1182

76. A 4-year-old female ingested an unknown quantity of liquid drain cleaner. Your assessment reveals that she is conscious and alert, is breathing adequately, and has skin burns around her mouth. You should: A. place her supine and elevate her legs. B. monitor her airway and give oxygen. C. determine why the ingestion occurred. D. give 12.5 to 25 g of activated charcoal.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1184

81. A 6-month-old male presents with 2 days of vomiting and diarrhea. He is conscious, but his level of activity is decreased. The infant's mother tells you that he has not had a soiled diaper in over 12 hours. The infant's heart rate is 140 beats/min and his anterior fontanelle appears to be slightly sunken. You should suspect: A. mild dehydration. B. moderate dehydration. C. severe dehydration. D. hypovolemic shock.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1185

34. A 77-year-old female presents with an acute onset of altered mental status. Her son is present and advises that she has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, type 2 diabetes, and glaucoma. He further advises that she takes numerous medications and that she is normally alert. When you assess this patient, it is important to note that: A. because of her age and medical history, you should suspect Alzheimer disease. B. the patient is experiencing delirious behavior, which suggests a new health problem. C. her mental status is likely the result of hypoglycemia and you should give her sugar. D. dementia typically presents as an acute onset of deterioration of cognitive function.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1229

58. You receive a call for a sick person. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 75-year-old male, lying unresponsive in his bed. His respirations are slow and irregular and his pulse is slow and weak. His daughter tells you that he fell the day before, but refused to allow her to call 9-1-1. His past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism, deep vein thrombosis, heavy alcohol use, and liver cirrhosis. His medications include blood thinners and vitamins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. acute hyperglycemia. B. a subdural hematoma. C. acute ischemic stroke. D. diabetic ketoacidosis.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1240-1241

40. A 13-year-old child is on a home ventilator. The parents called because the ventilator is malfunctioning and the child has increasing respiratory distress. You should: A. attempt to troubleshoot the ventilator problem. B. disconnect the ventilator and use a bag-mask device. C. place a call to the home health agency treating this patient. D. reset the ventilator by unplugging it for 30 to 60 seconds.

Answer: B Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1270

2. From what internal female organ is the fetus expelled during delivery? A. vagina B. uterus C. cervix D. perineum

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

7. The amniotic fluid serves to: A. transfer oxygen to the fetus. B. insulate and protect the fetus. C. remove viruses from the fetus. D. assist in fetal development.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

16. Braxton-Hicks contractions are characterized by: A. regular contractions of progressively increasing intensity. B. alleviation of pain with movement or changing positions. C. pink or red bloody show in conjunction with the contractions. D. a rupture of the amniotic sac just before the contractions begin.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

22. Supine hypotensive syndrome occurs when: A. a supine position kinks the ascending aorta. B. the pregnant uterus compresses the inferior vena cava. C. the superior vena cava is compressed by the uterus. D. blood pressure decreases as a result of hypovolemia.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

31. The presence of thick meconium in the amniotic fluid indicates: A. an expected finding in full-term infants. B. that the baby's airway may be obstructed. C. that the fetus is at least 4 weeks premature. D. that full newborn resuscitation will be needed.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116-1117

33. Which of the following is an indication of imminent birth? A. rupture of the amniotic sac B. crowning of the baby's head C. irregular contractions lasting 10 minutes D. expulsion of the mucus plug from the vagina

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118

43. A nuchal cord is defined as an umbilical cord that: A. has separated from the placenta. B. is wrapped around the baby's neck. C. is lacerated due to a traumatic delivery. D. has abnormally developed blood vessels.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1122

54. If a baby is born at 7:52, the second Apgar score should be calculated at: A. 7:53. B. 7:57. C. 7:59. D. 8:00.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1127

64. Fetal complications associated with drug- or alcohol-addicted mothers include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. low birth weight. B. profound tachycardia. C. premature delivery. D. respiratory depression.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130

68. General treatment guidelines when caring for a woman with traumatic vaginal bleeding include: A. carefully removing impaled objects. B. transporting to an appropriate facility. C. packing the vagina with sterile dressings. D. cleaning external wounds with sterile water.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1132

6. When assessing an 8-year-old child, you should: A. refrain from taking a blood pressure. B. talk to the child, not just the caregiver. C. use a toe-to-head assessment approach. D. rely solely on the parent for information.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1152

9. The normal respiratory rate for a newborn should not exceed ______ breaths/min. A. 50 B. 60 C. 70 D. 80

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1154

12. Signs of vasoconstriction in the infant or child include: A. warm, dry skin. B. weak distal pulses. C. a rapid heart rate. D. brisk capillary refill.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

16. The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle (PAT) is to: A. determine if the child's vital signs are within the age-appropriate limits. B. allow you to rapidly and visually form a general impression of the child. C. facilitate a rapid head-to-toe assessment of the child by visualization only. D. gather critical data by performing a rapid hands-on assessment of the child.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

22. Before assessing the respiratory adequacy of an semiconscious infant or child, you must: A. routinely suction the mouth to remove oral secretions. B. ensure that the airway is patent and clear of obstructions. C. insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway adjunct. D. ensure that his or her head is in a hyperextended position.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

25. To ensure that the airway of an infant or small child is correctly positioned, you may have to: A. place bulky padding behind his or her occiput. B. place a towel or folded sheet behind the shoulders. C. slightly flex the neck to prevent tracheal kinking. D. hyperextend the neck to ensure adequate alignment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

31. After determining that an infant or child has strong central pulses, you should: A. assume the child is hypertensive. B. not rule out compensated shock. C. conclude that the child is stable. D. assess his or her respiratory effort.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

33. Capillary refill time is MOST reliable as an indicator of end-organ perfusion in children younger than: A. 4 years. B. 6 years. C. 8 years. D. 10 years.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162-1163

45. Infection should be considered a possible cause of an airway obstruction in an infant or child, especially if he or she presents with: A. extreme restlessness. B. drooling or congestion. C. skin that is cool and dry. D. acute respiratory distress.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1170

51. The MOST efficient way to identify the appropriately sized equipment for a pediatric patient is to: A. estimate the child's weight based on age. B. use a length-based resuscitation tape measure. C. estimate the child's weight based on appearance. D. ask a relative if he or she knows the child's weight.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173

52. An oropharyngeal airway should not be used in children who have ingested a caustic or petroleum-based product because it may: A. depress the gag reflex. B. cause the child to vomit. C. result in airway swelling. D. result in a soft-tissue injury.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1173

56. Use of a nonrebreathing mask or nasal cannula in a child is appropriate ONLY if: A. an oral airway has been inserted. B. his or her tidal volume is adequate. C. his or her respirations are shallow. D. he or she is breathing inadequately.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

61. Cardiac arrest in the pediatric population is MOST commonly the result of: A. a complete airway obstruction. B. respiratory or circulatory failure. C. a congenital cardiovascular defect. D. lethal cardiac rhythm disturbances.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1179

65. Which of the following is the LEAST reliable assessment parameter to evaluate when determining the presence of shock in infants and children? A. heart rate B. blood pressure C. skin condition D. capillary refill

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

66. Common causes of seizures in children include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. infection. B. hyperglycemia. C. electrolyte imbalances. D. poisonings or ingestion

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

67. Febrile seizures are MOST common in children between: A. 3 months and 4 years. B. 6 months and 6 years. C. 8 months and 8 years. D. 18 months and 10 years.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

71. Which of the following groups of people is associated with the lowest risk of meningitis? A. newborns B. females C. geriatrics D. children with shunts

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

77. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate dose of activated charcoal for a 20-kg child? A. 12.5 g B. 20 g C. 25 g D. 50 g

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

80. Signs of severe dehydration in an infant include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound tachycardia. B. slowed level of activity. C. delayed capillary refill. D. dry mucous membranes.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1185

82. The EMT should be MOST concerned when a child presents with fever and: A. chills. B. a rash. C. ear pain. D. a headache.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

86. When a child is struck by a car, the area of greatest injury depends MOSTLY on the: A. speed at which the car was traveling when impact occurred. B. size of the child and the height of the bumper upon impact. C. age of the child and the size of the car that struck him or her. D. height of the child and the speed at which the car was traveling.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

91. When a child experiences a blunt chest injury: A. the flexible rib cage protects the vital thoracic organs. B. the flexible ribs can be compressed without breaking. C. the sudden force against the ribs causes them to fracture. D. there is usually obvious injury to the external chest wall.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1190

94. Critical burns in children include: A. any superficial or partial-thickness burn that involves the legs or arms. B. partial-thickness burns covering more than 20% of the body surface. C. second-degree burns covering more than 10% of the body surface. D. superficial burns covering more than 10% to 15% of the body surface.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

96. Effective methods for providing pain relief to a child with an extremity injury include: A. separating the child from his or her parents. B. positioning, ice packs, and emotional support. C. avoiding the placement of a splint, if possible. D. heat compresses and lowering the injured extremity.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193-1194

100. With regard to the legal implications of child abuse: A. child abuse must be reported only if it can be proven. B. EMTs must report all suspected cases of child abuse. C. you should document your perceptions on the run form. D. a supervisor can forbid you from reporting possible abuse.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

101. When caring for a female child who has possibly been sexually abused, you should: A. encourage the child to urinate and take a shower. B. have a female EMT remain with her if possible. C. carefully examine the genitalia for signs of injury. D. immediately report your suspicions to the parents.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

105. During the attempted resuscitation of an infant with suspected SIDS: A. discourage the family from observing. B. allow the family to observe if they wish. C. a law enforcement officer must be present. D. give detailed updates to the infant's parents.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1197

1. To minimize distractions and confusion when assessing an older patient, you should: A. dismiss the family members from the room or area. B. have only one EMT speak to the patient at a time. C. elevate your voice and speak directly to the patient. D. perform a physical exam and then talk to the patient.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

4. Talking about an elderly patient in front of him or her to other members of the family: A. often causes the patient to become paranoid and untrusting of your help. B. may cause the patient to think that he or she has no say in making decisions. C. will anger the patient and result in his or her refusal to accept care or transport. D. is usually beneficial because the patient's cognitive skills are typically impaired.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

10. When transporting a stable older patient to the hospital, the MOST effective way to reduce his or her anxiety is to: A. allow at least two family members to accompany the patient. B. transport him or her to a hospital that he or she is familiar with. C. avoid the use of a long backboard, even if trauma is suspected. D. perform frequent detailed assessments to gain the patient's trust.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

16. Upon entering the residence of a geriatric patient with a medical or trauma complaint, the EMT should: A. immediately seek out a family member or other caregiver. B. observe for conditions that may make the residence unsafe. C. begin his or her assessment after gathering any medication bottles. D. talk to the patient after performing his or her primary assessment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221

17. Which of the following observations or statements represents the "E" in the GEMS diamond? A. Elderly patients present atypically and deserve your respect. B. The patient's residence is cold due to a malfunctioning heater. C. A patient is assisted with his or her activities of daily living. D. The patient's medications have not been filled in 2 months.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222

22. An older patient with significant dehydration would MOST likely present with: A. an increase in blood pressure upon standing. B. dizziness or fainting upon standing. C. weakness to one side of the body. D. a drop in heart rate upon standing.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224

25. A "silent" heart attack occurs when: A. sweating is the only presentation. B. the usual chest pain is not present. C. a sudden dysrhythmia causes death. D. the patient minimizes the chest pain.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226

26. The EMT should suspect left-sided heart failure in the geriatric patient who presents with: A. fever and a cough that produces green sputum. B. tachypnea and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. C. jugular venous distention and peripheral edema. D. swelling of the lower extremities and weakness.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

30. Clouding of the lenses of the eyes is called: A. retinitis. B. cataracts. C. glaucoma. D. conjunctivitis.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

35. Causes of delirium in the older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. acute hypovolemia. B. Alzheimer disease. C. low blood sugar level. D. decreased cerebral perfusion

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229-1230

38. Common causes of syncope in older patients include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. venous pooling. B. vasoconstriction. C. acute hypotension. D. blood volume loss.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1231

45. Blood levels of medications may rise in the elderly, sometimes to toxic levels. This is MOST likely due to: A. pancreatic failure. B. renal insufficiency. C. intentional overdose. D. splenic dysfunction.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

47. The use of multiple prescription drugs by a single patient, causing the potential for negative effects such as overdosing or drug interaction, is called: A. potentiation. B. polypharmacy. C. drug tolerance. D. drug dependency.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1235

53. When immobilizing a patient with a kyphotic spine to a long backboard, the EMT would MOST likely have to: A. force the head into a neutral alignment. B. place blankets behind the patient's head. C. secure the patient's head before the torso. D. use a scoop stretcher instead of a log roll.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

59. Patients who have experienced even minor-appearing head injuries should be suspected of having a brain injury, especially if they: A. have minor abrasions to the head area. B. are taking blood-thinning medications. C. do not have deformities to the skull. D. have a history of Alzheimer disease.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1241

61. In contrast to a living will, a "do not resuscitate" (DNR) order becomes valid when: A. the patient has a terminal illness. B. the patient develops cardiac arrest. C. the patient is in a health care setting. D. it is signed by three or more physicians.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

62. When faced with a situation in which an older patient with a terminal illness is in cardiac arrest, but written documentation regarding the patient's wishes cannot be located, the EMT should: A. try to locate the documentation. B. attempt to resuscitate the patient. C. allow the patient to die in peace. D. contact medical control for advice.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

66. When assessing an older patient who has multiple bruises in various stages of healing, the EMT should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A. factually document all findings. B. accuse a caregiver of physical abuse. C. ask the patient how the bruises occurred. D. review the patient's activities of daily living.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245

63. A common cause of shock in an infant is: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. dehydration from vomiting and diarrhea. C. excessive tachycardia. D. cardiovascular disease.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

10. Which of the following is a normal physiologic change that occurs in the mother's respiratory system during pregnancy? A. decreased respiratory rate and increased minute volume B. increased respiratory rate and decreased respiratory reserve C. increased respiratory reserve and decreased oxygen demand D. increased respiratory depth and decreased respiratory rate

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

30. If a pregnant patient requires spinal immobilization, you should secure her to the backboard and then: A. tilt the board 30° to the right to prevent hypotension. B. elevate the right side of the board with rolled towels or blankets. C. raise the foot of the board 12″ in order to maintain blood pressure. D. elevate the head of the board 6″ to prevent breathing impairment.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1116

1. Which of the following statements regarding patients with developmental disabilities is correct? A. Speaking with the patient's family is the least effective way to determine how much the patient understands. B. Patients with developmental disabilities are susceptible to the same disease processes as other patients. C. A developmental disability differs from mental retardation in that it is the result of a congenital abnormality. D. Most patients with developmental disabilities have normal cognitive function, but abnormal physical features.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

6. Characteristic anatomic features of Down syndrome include: A. a proportionately small tongue. B. a round head with a flat occiput. C. bulging eyes and a large face. D. long hands with wide fingers.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

11. When assessing or providing care to a patient with a developmental disability, you should: A. explain procedures while in the process of performing them. B. be observant for signs of fear or reluctance from the patient. C. move swiftly and deliberately to quickly accomplish the task. D. frequently reassure him or her that everything will be okay.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

16. In contrast to conductive hearing loss, sensorineural hearing loss is caused by: A. barotrauma. B. nerve damage. C. earwax accumulation. D. eardrum perforation.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

17. Which of the following would be the MOST practical method of communicating with a hearing-impaired patient until his or her hearing aids can be located? A. attempting to use body language to determine the problem B. using a piece of paper and writing utensil to ask questions C. using a high-pitched voice while speaking directly into the ear D. contacting dispatch and requesting a sign language interpreter

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

21. By placing one hand on top of your head and the other hand over your abdomen, you are asking a hearing-impaired patient if he or she: A. is hurt. B. is sick. C. needs help. D. is nauseated.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

28. When caring for patients with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A. they are unable to walk and are totally dependent upon you. B. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury. C. hearing aids are usually ineffective for patients with hearing loss. D. most patients have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gait.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1267

29. Spina bifida is MOST accurately defined as: A. congenital inflammation of the spinal cord, usually in the neck. B. a birth defect caused by incomplete closure of the spinal column. C. a birth defect in which the child is born without spinal vertebrae. D. chronic pressure on the brain caused by excess cerebrospinal fluid.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

30. Common associated conditions in patients with spina bifida include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hydrocephalus. B. spastic limb movement. C. extreme latex allergy. D. loss of bladder control.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

38. General care for a patient with a tracheostomy tube includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation at all times. B. removing the tube if the area around it appears to be infected. C. suctioning the tube as needed to clear a thick mucous plug. D. maintaining the patient in a position of comfort when possible.

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

43. Under what circumstances is a left ventricular assist device used? A. to permanently replace the function of one or both of the ventricles B. as a bridge to heart transplantation while a donor heart is being located C. to reduce ventricular pumping force in patients with aortic aneurysms D. to ensure that the ventricles contract at an adequate and consistent rate

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

47. For which of the following conditions would you MOST likely encounter a ventricular peritoneum shunt? A. heart failure B. hydrocephalus C. cerebral palsy D. subdural hematoma

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

53. According to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act (EMTALA): A. all health care facilities are legally obligated to provide assessment and care only if the patient is critically ill or injured. B. all health care facilities must provide a medical assessment and required treatment, regardless of the patient's ability to pay. C. a health care facility has the right to refuse assessment and treatment to a patient, but only if his or her condition is not deemed critical. D. a patient maintains the legal right to recant his or her consent to emergency treatment, even after signing in to the emergency department.j

Answer: B Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1275

34. You are assessing a 25-year-old woman who is 39 weeks pregnant. She is experiencing regular contractions that are approximately 3 minutes apart and states that her amniotic sac broke 2 hours ago. After taking the standard precautions, you should: A. apply 100% oxygen. B. place her on her left side. C. assess her for crowning. D. transport her immediately.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1118

55. You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is: A. 6 B. 7 C. 8 D. 9

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127

56. You have just delivered a full-term infant. His respirations are rapid and irregular, and he has a strong cry. What should you do next? A. Allow the mother to hold her baby. B. Clamp and cut the umbilical cord. C. Assess the brachial or umbilical pulse. D. Begin assisting the newborn's breathing.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1127

20. You are dispatched to a residence for a child with respiratory distress. The patient, an 18-month-old female, is tachypneic, has sternal retractions, and is clinging to her mother. Her skin is pink and dry, and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. The MOST appropriate treatment for this child includes: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance to insert an advanced airway device. B. separating the child from her mother and providing ventilatory assistance. C. administering blow-by oxygen and transporting the child with her mother. D. allowing the child to remain with her mother and applying a nasal cannula.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1158-1159

14. A 69-year-old female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She is semiconscious with a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 74 beats/min that is weak. Her daughter, who was uninjured in the crash, tells you that her mother has a history of hypertension and takes beta-blockers. Considering the fact that this patient is probably in shock, what is the MOST likely explanation for the absence of tachycardia? A. deterioration of the cardiac conduction system B. intrathoracic bleeding and cardiac compression C. the effects of her antihypertensive medication D. failure of the parasympathetic nervous system

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1220

41. You are assessing a 70-year-old female who complains of intense thirst, frequent urination, and dizziness. She has a history of type 2 diabetes, heart disease, rheumatoid arthritis, and gout. Her blood glucose level is 450 mg/dL. She is conscious, but confused. Her blood pressure is 92/52 mm Hg, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min and shallow. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. diabetic ketoacidosis. B. hyperglycemia with moderate dehydration. C. hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC). D. acute renal failure with associated hyperglycemia.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1233

6. The umbilical cord: A. separates from the placenta shortly after birth. B. carries blood away from the baby via the artery. C. carries oxygen to the baby via the umbilical vein. D. contains two veins and one large umbilical artery.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

21. Eclampsia is MOST accurately defined as: A. high levels of protein in the patient's urine. B. hypertension in the 20th week of pregnancy. C. seizures that result from severe hypertension. D. a blood pressure greater than 140/90 mm Hg.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

24. The leading cause of maternal death during the first trimester of pregnancy is: A. massive brain damage secondary to a prolonged seizure. B. unrecognized or untreated supine hypotensive syndrome. C. internal bleeding caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. D. blunt trauma to the abdomen during a motor vehicle crash.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

29. A pregnant trauma patient may lose a significant amount of blood before showing signs of shock because: A. pregnant patients can dramatically increase their heart rate. B. pregnancy causes vasodilation and a lower blood pressure. C. pregnant patients have an overall increase in blood volume. D. blood is shunted to the uterus and fetus during major trauma.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113

32. Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when determining whether a mother will deliver her baby within the next few minutes? A. "When are you due?" B. "Is this your first baby?" C. "Have you had a sonogram?" D. "Do you feel the urge to push?"

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1117

39. When the mother is experiencing a contraction, you should instruct her to: A. hold her breath. B. push for 30 seconds. C. take quick short breaths. D. rest and breathe deeply.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

47. Which of the following is NOT generally considered an obstetrical emergency? A. failure of the placenta to deliver after 30 minutes B. significant bleeding after delivery of the placenta C. return of contractions following delivery of the baby D. more than 500 mL of blood loss before placental delivery

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

48. A newborn infant will usually begin breathing spontaneously within _______ seconds following birth. A. 3 to 5 B. 5 to 10 C. 15 to 30 D. 30 to 60

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

49. Common interventions used to stimulate spontaneous respirations in the newborn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. suctioning of the upper airway. B. thorough drying with a towel. C. positive-pressure ventilations. D. some form of tactile stimulation.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1124

63. Which of the following statements regarding twins is correct? A. Twins are typically larger than single infants. B. Identical twins are typically of different gender. C. Most twins are born within 45 minutes of each other. D. Fraternal twins have two cords coming from one placenta.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1130

67. Following delivery of a pulseless and apneic infant who has a foul odor, skin sloughing, and diffuse blistering, you should: A. begin full resuscitation and transport. B. report the case to the medical examiner. C. provide emotional support to the mother. D. dry the infant off to stimulate breathing.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

11. Pale skin in a child indicates that the: A. child is in severe decompensated shock. B. oxygen content in the blood is decreased. C. blood vessels near the skin are constricted. D. child's core body temperature is elevated.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

18. After using the PAT to form your general impression of a sick or injured child, you should: A. evaluate the child's baseline vital signs. B. obtain a SAMPLE history from the parents. C. perform a hands-on assessment of the ABCs. D. assess the child's heart rate and skin condition.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

26. When assessing an infant's ventilation status, you should: A. observe the chest for rise and fall. B. rule out hypoxia if cyanosis is absent. C. palpate the abdomen for rise and fall. D. give oxygen if the SpO2 is less than 90%.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

30. When assessing the heart rate of a 6-month-old infant, you should palpate the brachial pulse or ________ pulse. A. radial B. carotid C. femoral D. popliteal

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1162

48. Signs of a severe airway obstruction in an infant or child include: A. pink, dry skin. B. crying and anxiety. C. an ineffective cough. D. mild respiratory distress.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1171

57. Which of the following children would benefit the LEAST from a nonrebreathing mask? A. a conscious 4-year-old male with adequate tidal volume B. a responsive 6-year-old male who responds appropriately C. an unresponsive 5-year-old male with shallow respirations D. a semiconscious 7-year-old female with normal ventilation

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1176

68. In most children, febrile seizures are characterized by: A. a blank stare, a duration of between 15 and 30 minutes, and a prolonged postictal phase. B. unresponsiveness, complete body relaxation, a fever greater than 105°F, and a short postictal phase. C. generalized tonic-clonic activity, a duration of less than 15 minutes, and a short or absent postictal phase. D. isolated tonic-clonic activity, a duration of greater than 15 minutes, and a short postictal phase.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

75. When questioning the parent of a child who ingested a poisonous substance, which of the following questions would be of LEAST pertinence? A. What time did the ingestion occur? B. Have you noticed any signs or symptoms? C. Why did your child ingest the poison? D. Do you know what substance was ingested?

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1184

85. Which of the following statements regarding pediatric trauma is correct? A. Children are less likely than adults to be struck by a car. B. A child's head is less frequently injured than an adult's. C. Children are more likely to experience diving-related injuries. D. Inexperience and poor judgment are rare causes of pediatric trauma.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

95. Greenstick fractures occur in infants and children because: A. the growth plate is commonly injured. B. their bones are more brittle than an adult's. C. their bones bend more easily than an adult's. D. twisting injuries are more common in children.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1193

97. Which of the following findings is LEAST suggestive of child abuse? A. evidence of alcohol consumption or drug use at the scene B. burns to the hands or feet that involve a glove distribution C. consistency in the method of injury reported by the caregiver D. an unexplained delay in seeking medical care after the injury

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1195

102. Which of the following statements regarding sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is correct? A. Certain cases of SIDS are predictable and therefore preventable. B. SIDS is most commonly the result of an overwhelming infection. C. Most cases of SIDS occur in infants younger than 6 months. D. The cause of death following SIDS can be established by autopsy.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

2. General communication techniques with the elderly include: A. using medical terms to ensure patient understanding. B. explaining procedures while you are performing them. C. frequently asking the patient if he or she understands. D. having at least two EMTs talk to the patient at a time.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

8. When caring for a geriatric patient with a traumatic injury, it is important to consider that: A. geriatric patients usually present with little to no pain. B. decreased bone density often results in incomplete fractures. C. the injury may have been preceded by a medical condition. D. geriatric patients typically present with classic signs of shock.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1218

18. Findings during the social assessment of an older patient include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. interaction with others. B. daily activity assistance. C. outdated medications. D. delays in obtaining meals

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1221-1222

23. Which of the following patients is at highest risk for a pulmonary embolism? A. 59-year-old male who is recovering from pneumonia B. 66-year-old active female with a history of hypertension C. 71-year-old male with recent surgery to a lower extremity D. 78-year-old female who takes blood thinning medications

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1224

24. In contrast to younger patients, older patients are more prone to a decrease in blood pressure upon standing because: A. their red blood cells are destroyed at a faster than normal rate. B. the aging process results in an overall increase in blood volume. C. the baroreceptors have become less sensitive to blood pressure. D. any change in position causes blood to be shunted to the brain.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1226

27. When assessing a 78-year-old female who complains of shortness of breath, the EMT should: A. give oxygen only if the patient has labored breathing. B. conclude that the patient is experiencing a heart attack. C. ask her how many pillows she uses when she sleeps. D. place the patient supine to see if the problem worsens.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1227

37. Motor nerve neuropathy is characterized by: A. numbness, tingling, and severe muscle pain. B. loss of bladder control and sensitivity to touch. C. loss of balance, muscle weakness, and spasms. D. constipation, low blood pressure, and bradycardia.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1230

39. An abdominal aortic aneurysm: A. is usually not repairable, even if discovered early. B. causes dull pain that often radiates to the shoulders. C. is often the result of hypertension and atherosclerosis. D. can sometimes be palpated as a mass in the groin area.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1232

43. Osteoporosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. increased flexibility of bone mass. B. decreased bone marrow production. C. a decrease in bone mass and density. D. an abnormality near the growth plate.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

48. Common causes of depression in the elderly include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. chronic medical conditions. B. prescription medication use. C. an acute onset of dementia. D. alcohol abuse and dependence.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1236

51. When performing your secondary assessment on an older patient who has been injured, it is important to: A. routinely perform a focused exam to minimize time at the scene. B. perform an in-depth physical exam prior to initiating any treatment. C. recall that it will take a less severe mechanism of injury to cause significant injuries. D. focus your assessment just on the area(s) of pain or obvious injury.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1238

63. Which of the following is NOT a reason why the exact extent and prevalence of elder abuse is unknown? A. It has been largely hidden from society. B. The definitions of abuse and neglect vary. C. Human resource agencies fail to investigate. D. Victims of elder abuse are hesitant to report it.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1243

23. A 70-year-old male complains of shortness of breath. During your assessment, you note that he has bilateral hearing aids. When you ask him questions related to his chief complaint, he does not answer you. You can hear a whistling sound coming from his hearing aids. You should: A. recognize that the batteries in his hearing aids are probably depleted. B. remove his hearing aids, turn up the volume, and replace them in his ears. C. try repositioning the hearing aid or remove it and turn down the volume. D. remove both of his hearing aids and use pencil and paper to communicate.

Answer: C Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1266

1. Which of the following processes occurs during ovulation? A. Certain female hormone levels decrease significantly in quantity. B. The endometrium sheds its lining and is expelled from the vagina. C. The inner lining of the uterus thickens in preparation for implantation. D. Numerous follicles mature and release eggs into the fallopian tubes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1107

28. Which of the following statements regarding gestational diabetes is correct? A. Gestational diabetes results in permanent diabetes mellitus after delivery. B. The onset of gestational diabetes typically manifests with hypoglycemia. C. In some cases, women with gestational diabetes require insulin injections. D. Diet and exercise are typically ineffective in controlling gestational diabetes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1113

37. A precipitous labor and delivery is MOST common in women who: A. have gestational diabetes. B. are younger than 30 years of age. C. have delivered a baby before. D. are pregnant for the first time.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

4. Which of the following statements regarding autism is correct? A. Autism affects females four times greater than males. B. The majority of patients with autism do not speak at all. C. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age. D. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

5. Down syndrome is a genetic defect that occurs as the result of: A. an extra pair of chromosomes. B. a separation of chromosome 21. C. a triplication of chromosome 21. D. a sperm that contains 24 chromosomes.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

10. When interacting with a developmentally disabled patient, the best approach is to: A. speak primarily with the patient's family to establish the degree of disability. B. approach the patient as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help. C. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the patient. D. position yourself slightly above the patient's level to reduce his or her anxiety.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

15. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely cause a patient to slur words, speak very slowly, or speak in a monotone? A. advanced age B. cerebral palsy C. Parkinson disease D. visual impairment

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

19. Because hearing-impaired patients typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: A. try basic sign language first. B. speak in a monotone voice. C. lower the pitch of your voice. D. increase the pitch of your voice.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

22. Which of the following statements regarding hearing aids is correct? A. Over time, hearing aids can restore normal hearing. B. In-the-canal hearing aids fit in the outer part of the ear. C. Hearing aids cannot restore hearing to normal levels. D. A whistling sound indicates correct hearing aid placement.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

24. Cerebral palsy is characterized by poorly controlled ________ movement. A. eye B. neck C. body D. extremity

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1266

33. A person is said to be obese when he or she is ________ over his or her ideal weight. A. 5% to 10% B. 10% to 15% C. 20% to 30% D. 40% to 50%

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1268

37. According to the "E" in the DOPE mnemonic, which of the following actions should you perform to troubleshoot inadequate ventilation in a patient with a tracheostomy tube? A. Look for blood or other secretions in the tube. B. Attempt to pass a suction catheter into the tube. C. Check the mechanical ventilator for malfunction. D. Listen to breath sounds to assess for a pneumothorax.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

39. If suctioning of the tracheostomy tube is necessary, the EMT should: A. attach a bag-mask device to the tracheostomy tube and hyperventilate the patient for 2 minutes. B. instill 20 mL of saline into the tracheostomy tube and suction for no longer than 20 seconds. C. attempt to use the patient's suction device first because it is probably already sized correctly. D. insert the suction catheter to a depth of no more than 15-cm and set the suction unit to 140 mm Hg.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1269

46. Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? A. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine. B. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place. C. Patients with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration. D. Gastrostomy tubes are used for patients who cannot digest food.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

52. EMS personnel would MOST likely be called to the residence of a patient receiving home health care when the home care provider: A. needs simple assistance in providing patient care. B. must confirm that a specific intervention is required. C. has recognized a change in the patient's health status. D. has a question that is specific to the patient's condition.

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

35. You respond to a skate park where a 10-year-old male fell from his skateboard and struck his head on the ground; he was not wearing a helmet. He is responsive to painful stimuli only and has a large hematoma to the back of his head. After your partner stabilizes his head and opens his airway, you assess his breathing and determine that it is slow and irregular. His pulse is slow and bounding. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, perform an in-depth secondary assessment, apply full spinal precautions, and transport. B. insert an oral airway, hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device, apply full spinal precautions, and transport to the closest trauma center. C. apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, obtain baseline vital signs, apply full spinal precautions, and perform a secondary assessment. D. assist his ventilations, be prepared to suction his mouth if he vomits, apply full spinal precautions, and prepare for immediate transport to a trauma center.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1164

3. The vagina and the neck of the uterus comprise the: A. womb. B. cervix. C. fundus. D. birth canal.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1108

12. A mother who is pregnant with her first baby is typically in the first stage of labor for approximately: A. 4 hours. B. 8 hours. C. 10 hours. D. 16 hours.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

13. The onset of labor begins with: A. thinning of the uterus. B. full dilation of the cervix. C. increased fetal movement. D. contractions of the uterus

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1110

18. The third stage of labor begins when the: A. placenta is fully delivered. B. cervix is completely dilated. C. umbilical cord has been clamped. D. baby is expelled from the vagina.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

25. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease or tubal ligations increases a woman's risk for: A. preeclampsia. B. placenta previa. C. gestational diabetes. D. an ectopic pregnancy.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

27. Placenta previa is MOST accurately defined as: A. delivery of a portion of the placenta before the baby. B. premature placental separation from the uterine wall. C. abnormal development and functioning of the placenta. D. development of the placenta over the cervical opening

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1112

35. When preparing a pregnant patient for delivery, you should position her: A. in a supine position with her legs spread. B. on her left side with the right leg elevated. C. in a sitting position with her hips elevated 12″. D. on a firm surface with her hips elevated 2″ to 4″.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1118

38. When determining the frequency of contractions, you should time the contractions from the: A. end of one to the start of the next. B. start of one to the end of the next. C. end of one to the end of the next. D. start of one to the start of the next.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1119

53. Which of the following is NOT a component of the Apgar score? A. pulse B. activity C. grimace D. body size

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1126-1127

65. An infant is considered to be premature if it: A. is born before 38 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 6 lb. B. weighs less than 5.5 lb or is born before 37 weeks' gestation. C. is born before 40 weeks' gestation or weighs less than 7 lb. D. weighs less than 5 lb or is born before 36 weeks' gestation

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1131

2. Which of the following statements regarding a 3-month-old infant is correct? A. The infant is unable to turn his or her head and focus. B. The infant should be aroused easily from a sleeping state. C. At this age, the infant typically sleeps for up to 8 hours a day. D. A 3-month-old infant can distinguish a parent from a stranger.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1149

5. Which of the following statements regarding preschool-age children is correct? A. They realize that injuries are not a form of punishment. B. Preschoolers are usually not fearful of pain or separation. C. The preschool age begins after the child turns 2 years old. D. They can usually identify painful areas when questioned.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1151

13. Which of the following statements regarding spinal injuries in pediatric patients is correct? A. Because of a child's proportionately large head, they are more prone to spinal cord injuries than adults. B. The majority of cervical spine injuries in children are partial transections of the spinal cord, resulting in partial paralysis. C. Most cervical spine fractures in infants and children occur between the first and second cervical vertebrae. D. If the cervical spine is injured, it is most likely to be an injury to the ligaments because of rapid movement of the head.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1155

15. The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age, and the suture of the posterior fontanelle is typically closed by _____ months of age. A. 2, 4 B. 6, 12 C. 12, 4 D. 18, 6

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1156

19. A normal level of consciousness in an infant or child is characterized by: A. normal interactiveness, awareness to time, and pink skin color. B. awareness to place, pink and dry skin, and consistent eye contact. C. crying or combativeness, good muscle tone, and awareness to time. D. age-appropriate behavior, good muscle tone, and good eye contact.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1158

24. Before positioning an infant or child's airway, you should: A. put padding behind his or her head. B. thoroughly suction his or her airway. C. rule out an injury to the spinal cord. D. place him or her on a firm surface.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1160

27. All of the following are normal findings in an infant or child, EXCEPT: A. quiet breathing. B. fear or anxiety. C. belly breathing. D. head bobbing.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1161

43. The MOST ominous sign of impending cardiopulmonary arrest in infants and children is: A. pallor. B. retractions. C. nasal flaring. D. bradycardia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1169

53. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway in an infant or child, you should: A. place padding under the child's head. B. ensure that his or her neck is hyperextended. C. insert it until the flange rests on the teeth. D. depress the tongue with a tongue depressor.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1174

60. The MOST accurate method for determining if you are delivering adequate tidal volume to a child during bag-mask ventilations is to: A. monitor the child's heart rate. B. observe the child's skin color. C. monitor the pulse oximeter reading. D. observe the chest for adequate rise.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1178

69. Febrile seizures in a child: A. typically last less than 30 minutes. B. occur after a week of a febrile illness. C. are usually caused by viral meningitis. D. may indicate a serious underlying illness.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1182

83. Hyperthermia differs from fever in that it is an increase in body temperature: A. of more than 2°F to 3°F per hour. B. secondary to a severe bacterial infection. C. caused by inflammation of the spinal cord. D. caused by the inability of the body to cool itself.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1186

87. Which of the following is MORE common in children than in adults following a head injury? A. spinal cord injury B. loss of consciousness C. seizures and hypoxia D. nausea and vomiting

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1187

88. When immobilizing an injured child in a pediatric immobilization device, you should: A. secure the head before the torso. B. slide the device under the child. C. pad underneath the child's head. D. secure the torso before the head.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1188

93. Burns in children are commonly caused by all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hot items on a stovetop. B. scalding water in a bathtub. C. exposure to caustic chemicals. D. entrapment in a structural fire.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1192

104. Causes of infant death that may be mistaken for SIDS include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. child abuse. B. meningitis. C. severe infection. D. hyperglycemia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1196

5. Which of the following statements regarding communications with the elderly is correct? A. The majority of elderly patients are hearing or visually impaired. B. Attempt to calm the elderly patient by using his or her first name. C. Explain the justification for a procedure after it has been completed. D. Older patients have difficulty understanding when they are stressed.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1216

7. The leading cause of death in the geriatric patient is: A. hypertension. B. altered mental status. C. arthritis. D. heart disease.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1217

11. An elderly patient may understate or minimize the symptoms of his or her illness because: A. the nervous system has deteriorated. B. of decreased perception of pain. C. of conditions such as dementia. D. he or she fears hospitalization.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1219

21. A productive cough, fever, and chills in an 80-year-old patient with a compromised immune system should make you MOST suspicious for: A. heart failure. B. bronchitis. C. emphysema. D. pneumonia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1223-1224

29. A 10% to 20% reduction in brain weight and volume would MOST likely increase an older person's risk for: A. stroke. B. delirium. C. dementia. D. head trauma.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

31. When caring for an elderly patient who is hearing-impaired, you should: A. speak directly into his or her ear with an elevated tone. B. remember that most hearing-impaired patients can read lips. C. request that he or she communicates with you by writing on paper. D. recall that elderly patients have difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1228

32. The slow onset of progressive disorientation, shortened attention span, and loss of cognitive function is known as: A. delirium. B. delusion. C. paranoia. D. dementia.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1229

44. The chief component of connective tissues and bones that deteriorates as people age is called: A. fibrin. B. elastin. C. sebum. D. collagen.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1234

57. With age, the spine stiffens as a result of shrinkage of the intervertebral disc spaces, and the vertebrae become brittle. This increases the risk of: A. severe kyphosis. B. distracting injuries. C. spinal cord tearing. D. compression fractures.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1240

60. A specific legal document that directs relatives and caregivers regarding the medical treatment that may be given to patients who cannot speak for themselves is called a(n): A. statute of care. B. power of attorney. C. physician directive. D. advance directive.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1242

65. Many older victims of physical abuse may make false statements or lie about the origin of their injuries because: A. they are protective of the abuser. B. they do not want to be bothersome. C. most elderly patients have dementia. D. they fear retribution from the abuser.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1244

45. Common complications associated with central venous catheters include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a local infection. B. clotting of the line. C. bleeding around the line. D. rupture of a central vein

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1272

9. You respond to a residence for a 9-year-old female with Down syndrome who is sick. When you arrive at the scene and assess the patient, you determine that she is unresponsive and has gurgling respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. open her airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver and assess the rate and depth of her breathing. C. immediately apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and then assess her pulse rate. D. open her airway with a manual maneuver, suction her oropharynx, and insert a simple airway adjunct.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1263

41. You receive a call to a residence for an apneic 2-month-old male. When you arrive at the scene, the infant's mother tells you that her son was born prematurely and that his apnea monitor has alarmed 4 times in the past 30 minutes. Your assessment of the infant reveals that he is conscious and active. His skin is pink and dry, and he is breathing at an adequate rate and with adequate tidal depth. His oxygen saturation reads 98% on room air. You should: A. request an ALS ambulance to transport the infant to the hospital. B. advise the mother to observe her son and call 9-1-1 again if necessary. C. administer high-flow oxygen and observe for a drop in oxygen saturation. D. transport the infant to the hospital and bring the apnea monitor with you.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1271

8. Most medical models base a pregnant woman's due date: A. two weeks after her last menstrual cycle. B. on the last day of her last menstrual cycle. C. two weeks before her last menstrual cycle. D. on the first day of her last menstrual cycle

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1109

17. After the fetus has descended into the pelvis at the end of the third trimester, many mothers experience: A. midback pain. B. a bloated feeling. C. an urge to push. D. easier breathing.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

50. If a newborn's heart rate is less than 60 beats/min following delivery, you should: A. flick the soles of its feet. B. begin chest compressions. C. resuction the mouth only. D. provide ventilations for 30 seconds.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1125

61. Spina bifida is a developmental defect in which: A. an excessive amount of cerebrospinal fluid damages the spinal cord. B. nerve fibers that arise from the spinal cord do not function properly. C. the spinal column is severely deformed, resulting in permanent paralysis. D. a portion of the spinal cord or meninges protrudes outside of the vertebrae.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1129

2. Autism is MOST accurately defined as a: A. psychiatric condition related to an imbalance of serotonin in the brain. B. mental disability caused by insufficient cognitive development of the brain. C. congenital condition caused by factors such as malnutrition or birth complications. D. pervasive developmental disorder characterized by impairment of social interaction.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1262

7. Two thirds of children born with Down syndrome have: A. diabetes mellitus. B. intracranial bleeding. C. unilateral paralysis. D. congenital heart disease.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1263

12. An important aspect **********essment of a patient who experienced a previous brain injury involves: A. presuming that he or she has cognitive impairment until proven otherwise. B. contacting the patient's physician to determine the extent of the brain injury. C. recalling that most patients with a brain injury have other organ dysfunction. D. speaking with the patient and family to establish what is considered normal for the patient.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

14. When caring for a patient who is visually impaired, it is important to: A. allow a service dog to remain with the patient at all times, even if the patient is critically ill. B. stand to the side of the patient when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. C. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the patient will be carried on a gurney. D. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1264

18. General techniques for communicating with hearing-impaired patients include: A. exaggerating your lip movements to ensure the patient understands. B. speaking directly into the patient's ear with an increased voice pitch. C. removing any hearing aids and using pen and paper to ask questions. D. positioning yourself approximately 18″ directly in front of the patient.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1265

27. A significant number of patients with cerebral palsy also have: A. paralysis. B. brain tumors. C. type 2 diabetes. D. a seizure disorder.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1267

48. The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: A. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid to the ventricles of the brain. B. monitor pressure within the skull in patients with a head injury. C. remove fluid from the abdomen of patients with right heart failure. D. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

51. Which of the following statements regarding interaction with the caregiver of a child or adult with special health care needs is correct? A. In most cases, it is more appropriate for the EMT to contact medical control prior to speaking with the patient's primary caregiver. B. Before performing an assessment of the patient's ABCs, the EMT should ask the caregiver about the patient's medical condition. C. In general, the EMT should only speak with a certified home health care provider because he or she is the expert on the patient's illness. D. Communication with the patient's caregiver or family members is important because they are the most familiar with the patient's condition.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1273

A 19-year-old female is found unconscious by her roommate. Your primary assessment reveals that her breathing is inadequate. As you insert an oropharyngeal airway, she begins to gag violently. You should: A. continue to insert the airway as you suction her oropharynx. B. remove the airway and be prepared to suction her oropharynx. C. insert the airway no further but leave it in place as a bite block. D. select a smaller oropharyngeal airway and attempt to insert it.

A 19-year-old female was stung multiple times on the legs by fire ants. She states that she is allergic to fire ants, but does not carry her own epinephrine. The patient is conscious and alert and complains of pain to the area of the bites. Her blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and strong, and her respirations are 18 breaths/min and unlabored. You should: A. position her legs well above the level of her heart. B. administer oxygen and transport her to the hospital. C. request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine. D. advise her to see her physician as soon as possible.

A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine its depth B. assume that the arrow injured an internal organ C. clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing D. transport only if signs of shock begin to develop.

A 30-year-old female presents with redness, inflammation, and pain to her left eye. During your assessment, you note that she is having difficulty keeping her eyes open. You should suspect that she is experiencing: A. acute retinitis. B. conjunctivitis. C. a detached retina. D. a corneal abrasion.

A 30-year-old male experienced a crushing injury when his arm was trapped between the back of a truck and a loading dock. Upon your arrival, the man's arm has been freed. Your assessment reveals that his arm is obviously deformed and swollen and is cold and pale. Further assessment reveals an absent radial pulse. You should be MOST concerned that this patient has: A. internal hemorrhage. B. compartment syndrome. C. a severe closed fracture. D. damage to the radial nerve.

A 30-year-old male was rescued after being lost in the woods for approximately 18 hours. The outside temperature is 30°F (−1°C). He is immediately placed in the warmed ambulance, where you perform a primary assessment. He is unconscious, pale, and apneic. You should: A. apply an AED and assess his cardiac rhythm. B. assess for a carotid pulse for up to 45 seconds. C. open his airway and give two rescue breaths. D. apply chemical heat packs to his groin and axillae.

A 33 year old male sustained an abnormal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? A. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. B. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing. C. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. D. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport.

A 35-year-old mildly obese woman is complaining of localized pain in the right upper quadrant with referred pain to the right shoulder. The MOST likely cause of her pain is: A. acute cystitis. B. acute cholecystitis. C. appendicitis. D. pancreatitis.

A 37-year-old female with a history of diabetes presents with excessive urination and weakness of 2 days' duration. You apply 100% oxygen and assess her blood glucose level, which reads 320 mg/dL. If this patient's condition is not promptly treated, she will MOST likely develop: A. severe insulin shock. B. acidosis and dehydration. C. complete renal failure. D. hypoxia and overhydration.

A 37-year-old male is having a severe allergic reaction to penicillin. He does not have an epinephrine auto-injector and your protocols do not allow you to carry epinephrine on the ambulance. How should you proceed with the treatment of this patient? A. Ask the patient if he has any diphenhydramine (Benadryl) tablets that you can administer. B. Administer oxygen, transport at once, and request a paramedic intercept. C. Remain at the scene with the patient and request a paramedic ambulance. D. Quickly determine if there are any bystanders who may carry epinephrine.

A 38-year-old female was bitten by fire ants while at the park with her kids. Your primary assessment reveals that she is semiconscious, has profoundly labored breathing, and has a rapid, thready pulse. She has a red rash on her entire body and her face is very swollen. You should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. assist her ventilations with 100% oxygen. C. administer 0.3 mg of epinephrine. D. place her supine with her legs elevated 6″ to 12″.

A 39-year-old male accidentally cut his wrist while sharpening his hunting knife. He is conscious and alert with adequate breathing, but is bleeding significantly from the wound. You should: A. ensure the patient has a patent airway. B. control the bleeding with direct pressure. C. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask. D. apply a tourniquet proximal to the wound.

A 40-year-old male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal bleeding. You should: A. tilt the patient's head back and lift up on his chin. B. open his airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver. C. apply a cervical collar and suction his airway. D. apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm.

A 40-year-old male intentionally cut his wrist out of anger after losing his job. Law enforcement has secured the scene prior to your arrival. As you enter the residence and visualize the patient, you can see that he has a towel around his wrist and a moderate amount of blood has soaked through it. You should: A. tell the patient that you want to help. B. calmly identify yourself to the patient. C. quickly tend to the bleeding wound. D. approach the patient with caution.

A 40-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain following blunt trauma. He is diaphoretic, intensely thirsty, and has a weak and rapid pulse. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. covering him with a warm blanket. B. giving him small sips of plain water. C. promptly transporting to the hospital. D. administering supplemental oxygen.

A 40-year-old unrestrained female impacted the steering wheel of her vehicle with her chest when she hit a tree while traveling at 45 mph. She is conscious and alert, but is experiencing significant chest pain and shortness of breath. Which of the following injuries did this patient likely NOT experience? A. Cardiac contusion B. Head injury C. Multiple rib fractures D. Pulmonary contusion

A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. Appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. B. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. C. placing a rolled 4″ × 4″ dressing between his lower lip and gum. D. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops.

A 44-year-old male sustained a laceration to his left ear during a minor car accident. Your assessment reveals minimal bleeding. Appropriate care for this injury includes: A. applying a tight pressure dressing. B. padding between the ear and the scalp. C. packing the ear with sterile gauze pads. D. covering the wound with a moist dressing.

A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: A. anterior hip dislocation. B. posterior hip dislocation. C. a thoracic spine fracture. D. fracture of the tibia or fibula.

A 45-year-old male was working on his roof when he fell approximately 12′, landing on his feet. He is conscious and alert and complains of an ache in his lower back. He is breathing adequately and has stable vital signs. You should: A. obtain a Glasgow Coma Score value and give him oxygen. B. immobilize his spine and perform a focused secondary exam. C. allow him to refuse transport if his vital signs remain stable. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe exam and immobilize his spine.

A 47-year-old male presents with severe abdominal pain of 3 hours' duration. His abdomen is distended and guarded. Your MOST important consideration for this patient should be to: A. transport him in a supine position. B. be alert for signs and symptoms of shock. C. assess his blood pressure to determine perfusion adequacy. D. determine the exact location and cause of his pain.

A 48-year-old male is found unconscious in the garden by his wife. When you arrive at the scene and assess the man, you find that he is unresponsive, has severely labored breathing, and has hives over his entire trunk. You should: A. perform a detailed secondary assessment. B. maintain his airway and assist his ventilations. C. ask his wife if he has any known allergies. D. apply the automated external defibrillator (AED) in the event that cardiac arrest occurs.

A 50-year-old male presents with an altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" 3 years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. prepare for immediate transport. C. repeat the primary assessment. D. inquire about his family history.

A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: A. acute myocardial infarction. B. cardiogenic hypoperfusion. C. severe septic hypoperfusion. D. a ruptured aortic aneurysm.

A 59-year-old male presents with a sudden onset of severe lower back pain. He is conscious and alert, but very restless and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals a pulsating mass to the left of his umbilicus. You should: A. vigorously palpate the abdomen to establish pain severity. B. administer oxygen and prepare for immediate transport. C. place the patient in a sitting position and transport at once. D. request a paramedic unit to give the patient pain medication.

A 60-year-old male presents with acute respiratory distress. He is conscious and alert, has pink and dry skin, and has respirations of 24 breaths/min with adequate depth. Which of the following treatment modalities is MOST appropriate for this patient? A. assisted ventilation with a bag-mask device and a head-to-toe exam B. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and a focused secondary assessment C. positive-pressure ventilations and immediate transport to the closest hospital D. oxygen via a nasal cannula, vital signs, and prompt transport to the hospital

A 62-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, which he describes as being the same kind of pain that he had with a previous heart attack. He has prescribed nitroglycerin but states that he has not taken any. After administering 100% oxygen and contacting medical control, you should: A. begin immediate transport and request a rendezvous with a paramedic unit. B. assist him with his nitroglycerin unless his systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. C. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin before assessing his blood pressure. D. administer the nitroglycerin unless he has taken Viagra within the past 72 hours.

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should: A. place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing. B. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration. C. force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-mask device at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min. D. place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device and high-flow oxygen.

A 66-year-old woman presents with a stabbing pain in the middle of her chest that radiates to her back. She tells you that the pain suddenly began about 30 minutes ago and has been severe since the onset. She has a history of hypertension, but admits to being noncompliant with her antihypertensive medications. When you assess her, you find that her blood pressure is significantly higher in her left arm than it is in her right arm. What are her signs and symptoms MOST indicative of? A. unstable angina B. dissecting aortic aneurysm C. AMI D. hypertensive emergency

A 67-year-old female with severe chest pain becomes unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic during transport. You should: A. defibrillate with the AED while continuing transport to the hospital. B. stop the ambulance, begin CPR, and attach the AED as soon as possible. C. perform CPR for 1 to 2 minutes and then analyze her rhythm with an AED. D. alert the receiving hospital and perform CPR for the duration of the transport.

A 70-year-old man recently had a heart attack and now complains of severe difficulty breathing, especially when lying flat. He is coughing up pink, frothy secretions. This patient is MOST likely experiencing: A. acute right heart failure. B. severe left heart failure. C. an acute onset of bronchitis. D. an acute pulmonary embolism.

A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following would NOT be appropriate for this patient? A. performing a full-body scan B. gentle palpation of the pelvis C. treating her for possible shock D. 100% supplemental oxygen

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway. B. perform oropharyngeal suctioning. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: A. distal ulna. B. distal radius. C. proximal radius. D. radius and ulna.

A _______ is a disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact. A. torn ligament B. dislocation C. fracture dislocation D. sprain

A ____________ is a musculoskeletal injury in which there is partial or temporary separation of the bone ends as well as partial stretching or tearing of the supporting ligaments. A. strain B. sprain C. fracture D. dislocation

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. second-degree burn B. first-degree burn C. partial-thickness burn D. third-degree burn

A burn that is characterized by redness and pain is classified as a: A. third-degree burn. B. first-degree burn. C. second-degree burn D. partial-thickness burn

A closed soft-tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called a(n): A. abrasion. B. contusion. C. hematoma. D. crush injury.

A construction worker fell approximately 30 feet. He is semiconscious with rapid, shallow respirations. Further assessment reveals deformity to the thoracic region of his spine. His blood pressure is 70/50 mm Hg, his pulse is 66 beats/min and weak, and his skin is warm and dry. In addition to spinal immobilization and rapid transport, the MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, blankets for warmth, and elevation of his head. B. assisted ventilation, thermal management, and elevation of the lower extremities. C. oxygen via nonrebreathing mask, thermal management, and elevation of his legs. D. assisted ventilation, preventing hyperthermia, and elevating his lower extremities.

A contusion to a patient's forehead along with a spider-webbed windshield suggests possible injury to the: A. nose B. brain C. face D. heart

A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she: A. experiences multiple impacts. B. is ejected or partially ejected. C. remains within the vehicle. D. is wearing only a lap belt.

A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: A. flush both eyes with an alcohol-based solution and transport. B. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. C. neutralize the acid chemical in his eye with an alkaline chemical. D. mix baking soda with water and irrigate his eyes with the solution.

A fall from more than _____ times the patient's height is considered to be significant. A. two B. three C. four D. five

A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __________ fracture. A. greenstick B. pathologic C. transverse D. comminuted

A fracture is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. total loss of function in a bone. B. break in the continuity of the bone. C. disruption in the midshaft of a bone. D. abnormality in the structure of a bone.

A full-body scan should be performed on: A. all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport. B. patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients. C. responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI. D. stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened.

A hematoma develops when: A. small amounts of blood leak into the epidermis. B. large blood vessels beneath the skin are damaged. C. severe swelling compromises arterial circulation. D. cells and small vessels in the dermis are damaged.

A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. C. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle. D. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel.

A lack of one or more of the blood clotting factors is called A. A deficiency B. Hemophilia C. Platelet anomaly D. Anemia

A normal respiratory rate for an adult is typically: A) 5-10 breaths/min B) 12-20 breaths/min C) 15-30 breaths/min D) 20-30 breaths/min

A patient complains of heartburn, pain with swallowing, and feeling like an object is stuck in the throat. Which of the following is MOST likely cause? A. esophageal varices B. esophagitis C. peptic ulcer D. gastroenteritis

A patient injured her knee while riding a bicycle. She is lying on the ground, has her left leg flexed, is in severe pain, and cannot move her leg. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to her left knee. Distal pulses are present and strong. The MOST appropriate treatment for her injury involves: A. wrapping her entire knee area with a pillow. B. splinting the leg in the position in which it was found. C. straightening her leg and applying two rigid board splints. D. straightening her leg and applying and inflating an air splint.

A patient present with lower quadrant abdominal pain, tenderness above the pubic bone, and frequent urination with urgency. What is the MOST likely underlying condition? A. Cholecystitis B. Cystitis C. Gastroenteritis D. Diverticulitis

A patient tripped, fell, and landed on her elbow. She is in severe pain and has obvious deformity to her elbow. You should: A. assess distal pulses. B. manually stabilize her injury. C. assess her elbow for crepitus. D. apply rigid board splints to her arm.

A patient who is suspected of being hypoxic and is breathing adequately should be given supplemental oxygen with a: A. nasal cannula. B. nonrebreathing mask. C. bag-mask device. D. mouth-to-mask device.

A patient who presents with rapid breathing, nausea and vomiting, ringing in the ears, and a high fever should be suspected of ingesting a significant quantity of: a) cocaine. b) aspirin. c) ibuprofen. d) Tylenol.

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing: A. aphasia. B. dysarthria. C. dysphagia. D. paraplegia.

A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: A. thoracic spine. B. lumbar spine. C. coccygeal spine. D. symphysis pubis.

A rapid, irregular pulse following blunt trauma to the chest is MOST suggestive of a: A. ruptured aorta. B. myocardial contusion. C. pericardial tamponade. D. tension pneumothorax.

A short backboard or vest-style immobilization device is indicated for patients who: A. are found supine and have stable vital signs. B. are in a sitting position and are clinically stable. C. require prompt extrication from an automobile. D. are sitting in their car and are clinically unstable.

A temporary loss or alteration of part or all of the brain's abilities to function without physical damage to the brain MOST accurately describes a(n): A. cerebral contusion. B. cerebral concussion. C. intracranial hemorrhage. D. intracerebral hematoma.

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: A. ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange. B. a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen. C. ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body. D. a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. What was the second collision? A. The bike hitting the car. B. The bike rider hitting his bike or the car. C. The bike rider's internal organs against the solid structures of the body. D. The bike rider striking the pavement.

A young female experienced a laceration to her left eyeball from flying glass when her boyfriend broke a soda bottle against a wall. There is moderate bleeding and the patient states that she cannot see out of the injured eye. You should: A. carefully examine her eye and remove any foreign objects if needed. B. avoid applying pressure to the globe when you are covering the eye. C. ask her to move the injured eye to assess the integrity of the optic nerve. D. apply firm direct pressure to the injured eye and cover the opposite eye.

A young female is unconscious after intentionally ingesting a large amount of aspirin. You will MOST likely find her respirations: A. slow and deep. B. deep and rapid. C. slow and shallow. D. rapid and shallow.

A young male experienced severe blunt chest trauma when his passenger car struck another vehicle head-on. During your inspection of the interior of his vehicle, you would MOST likely find: A. deployed airbags. B. steering wheel deformity. C. starring of the windshield. D. a crushed instrument panel.

A young male was struck in the forearm with a baseball and complains of pain to the area. Slight swelling and ecchymosis are present, but no external bleeding. What type of injury does this describe? A. abrasion B. contusion C. hematoma D. avulsion

A(n) ______ occurs whenever a large blood vessel is damaged and bleeds. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

A(n) _______ is a fracture in which the bone is broken into two or more fragments. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal

A(n) _______ may cause a fracture or discoloration at a distant point. A. direct blow B. indirect force C. twisting force D. high-energy injury

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. conjunctivitis B. a brain injury C. contact lenses D. retinitis

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: A. the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack. B. a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia. C. a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate. D. the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.

After experiencing penetrating trauma to the chest, your patient's blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg. Which of the following repeat blood pressures is MOST indicative of a cardiac tamponade? A. 116/74 mm Hg B. 100/90 mm Hg C. 128/60 mm Hg D. 140/80 mm Hg

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid scan of the body should be performed in order to: A. look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion. B. identify less obvious injuries that require immediate transport. C. determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions. D. find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should: A. assess for a carotid pulse. B. immediately resume CPR. C. reanalyze the cardiac rhythm. D. transport the patient at once.

All of the following are signs of hypoxia except: a. tachycardia b. dehydration c. cyanosis d. weak pulse

All of the following terms are used to describe a cold body part that is not frozen, EXCEPT: A. frostnip. B. frostbite. C. chilblains. D. trench foot.

An acute accelerated drop in the hemoglobin level, which is caused by red blood cells breaking down at a faster rate than normal, occurs during a(n) __________ crisis. A. aplastic B. hemolytic C. vaso-occlusive D. splenic sequestration

An air embolism associated with diving occurs when: A. the diver hyperventilates prior to entering the water. B. the diver holds his or her breath during a rapid ascent. C. the alveoli completely collapse due to high pressure. D. high water pressure forces air into the mediastinum.

An allergic response to certain foods or some other allergen may produce an acute: A. bronchodilation. B. asthma attack. C. vasoconstriction. D. insulin release.

An area of swelling or enlargement in a weakened arterial wall is called: A. a thrombus. B. an aneurysm. C. an embolism. D. atherosclerosis.

An index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the EMT's prediction of the type of illness a patient has based on how the call is dispatched. B. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illness. C. determining the underlying cause of a patient's medical condition based on signs and symptoms. D. ruling out specific medical conditions based on the absence of certain signs and symptoms.

An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost. A. 50 mL B. 100 mL C. 150 mL D. 200 mL

An injury that separates various layers of soft tissue, resulting in complete detachment or a flap of skin, is called a(n): A. incision. B. avulsion. C. laceration. D. amputation.

An obstruction to the exchange of gases between the alveoli and the capillaries may result from: A. epiglottis. B. pneumonia. C. a cold. D. all of the above.

An open pneumothorax occurs when: A. a fractured rib perforates the tissue of the lung. B. air enters the pleural space from outside the body. C. extreme pleural pressure causes the lung to rupture. D. air enters the pleural space from a perforated lung.

An organ or tissue may be better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion if the: A. body's demand for oxygen is markedly increased. B. body's temperature is considerably less than 98.6°F (37.0°C). C. systolic arterial blood pressure is at least 60 mm Hg. D. heart rate is maintained at more than 100 beats/min.

An organ or tissue that is considerably _______ is much better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion A. warmer B. colder C. younger D. older

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: A. 200 psi. B. 500 psi. C. 1,000 psi. D. 1,500 psi.

Anaphylaxis is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. moderate allergic reaction that primarily affects the vasculature. B. extreme allergic reaction that may affect multiple body systems. C. severe allergic reaction that typically resolves without treatment. D. allergic reaction that causes bronchodilation and vasoconstriction.

Angina pectoris occurs when: A. a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque. B. myocardial oxygen demand exceeds the supply. C. one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm. D. myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

Applying ice to and elevating an injured extremity are performed in order to: A. prevent further injury. B. reduce pain and swelling. C. enhance tissue circulation. D. maintain extremity perfusion.

As a woman approaches menopause: A. she usually experiences abdominal cramping without vaginal bleeding. B. her menstrual periods may become irregular and vary in severity. C. her risk of developing PID lowers significantly. D. she cannot become pregnant because of fluctuating hormone levels.

As the cells on the surface of the skin are worn away, now cells form in the _____ layer. A. dermal B. germinal C. epidermal D. subcutaneous

At 1400 in July, the weather is 105 degrees F and very humid. You have been called for a "man down" at the park. As you arrive, you recognize him as an alcoholic who has been a "frequent flyer" with your service. It looks like he had been sitting under a tree when he fell over, unconscious. As you assess the patient, he has cold, clammy skin and a dry tongue. You suspect that: A. he is well-hydrated B. he has suffered heat exhaustion C. he is hypothermic D. he has heatstroke

At 1400 in July, the weather is 105 degrees F and very humid. You have been called for a "man down" at the park. As you arrive, you recognize him as an alcoholic who has been a "frequent flyer" with your service. It looks like he had been sitting under a tree when he fell over, unconscious. As you look closer, you note that he is shivering and his respirations are 20 breaths/min. You begin to have a stronger suspicion that he is now getting: A. hyperthermic B. hypothermic C. drunk D. heatstroke

At 1400 in July, the weather is 105 degrees F and very humid. You have been called for a "man down" at the park. As you arrive, you recognize him as an alcoholic who has been a "frequent flyer" with your service. It looks like he had been sitting under a tree when he fell over, unconscious. You pull back on your glove and place the back of your hand on his skin at the abdomen. and skin feels cool. Again, you suspect A. hyperthermia B. hypothermia C. that he is drunk D. heatstroke

Because of local tenderness and swelling, it is easy to confuse a nondisplaced or minimally displaced fracture at the knee with a: A. tendon injury. B. ligament injury. C. dislocation. D. fracture-dislocation.

Because the depth of an open abdominal wound is often difficult to determine: A. vital signs should be monitored frequently. B. prompt transport to the hospital is essential. C. the EMT must perform a thorough exam. D. the abdomen must be vigorously palpated.

Bleeding within the brain tissue itself is called a(n): A. epidural hematoma. B. intracerebral hematoma. C. subdural hematoma. D. intracranial hematoma.

Blood enters the left atrium from the A. Coronary arteries B. Lungs C. Vena cava D. Coronary veins

Blood flow through the capillary beds is regulated by: A. systolic pressure. B. the capillary sphincters. C. perfusion. D. diastolic pressure.

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: A. enters the systemic circulation. B. flows into the pulmonary arteries. C. has a high concentration of oxygen. D. was received directly from the aorta.

Blunt abdominal injuries may result from: A. a stab wound B. seat belts C. a gunshot wound D. an impaled object

Bone marrow produces: A. platelets. B. blood cells. C. lymphocytes. D. electrolytes.

Burns are diffuse soft-tissue injuries created by destructive energy transfers from all of the following sources EXCEPT: A. thermal sources B. kinetic sources C. radiation sources D. electrical sources

By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height? A. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact. B. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop. C. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact. D. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.

Classic signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include: A. warm, dry skin; irritability; bradycardia; and rapid respirations. B. cool, clammy skin; weakness; tachycardia; and rapid respirations. C. warm, dry skin; hunger; abdominal pain; and deep, slow respirations. C. cold, clammy skin; bradycardia; hunger; and deep, rapid respirations.

Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. cool and clammy skin. B. absent peripheral pulses. C. restlessness or anxiety. D. rapid, shallow breathing.

Common signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. tachypnea. B. hematemesis. C. localized pain. D. chest wall ecchymosis.

Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness.

Common signs and symptoms of an airway burn include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hoarseness. B. chest pressure. C. singed nasal hair. D. soot around the mouth.

Common signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. abdominal cramps. B. drying of the eyes. C. flushing of the skin. D. persistent dry cough.

Common signs and symptoms of diabetic coma include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. warm, dry skin. B. cool, clammy skin. C. rapid, thready pulse. D. acetone breath odor.

Compared to adults, infants and children are at higher risk for hypothermia for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT: A. a decreased ability to shiver. B. a relatively small surface area. C. a smaller amount of body fat. D. a smaller overall muscle mass.

Contraindications to helping a patient self-administer a metered-dose inhaler include all of the following EXCEPT: A. failure to obtain permission from medical control. B. noticing that the patient is in the tripod position. C. noticing that the patient has already taken the maximum does of the medication. D. noticing that the medication has expired.

Controlling internal bleeding requires: A. applying a tourniquet. B. surgery in a hospital. C. positioning the patient in the sitting position. D. providing slow and considerate transport.

Crackling sounds produce by air bubbles under the skin are known as: A) subcutaneous ecchymosis B) subcutaneous emphysema C) subcutaneous erythema D) subcutaneous emboli

Diabetic coma is a life-threatening condition that results from: A. hypoglycemia, excess insulin, and dehydration. B. hyperglycemia, ketoacidosis, and dehydration. C. hypoglycemia, dehydration, and ketoacidosis. D. hyperglycemia, excess insulin, and ketoacidosis.

Distended jugular veins, a narrowing pulse pressure, and muffled heart sounds are seen in which of the following conditions? A. Tension pneumothorax B. Cardiac tamponade C. Traumatic asphyxia D. Commotio cordis

Drowning is MOST accurately defined as: A. temporary survival after submersion in water. B. death from suffocation after submersion in water. C. water in the lungs following submersion in water. D. death beyond 24 hours after submersion in water.

During an altercation in a bar, two patrons got into a fist fight. The first patient, a 44-year-old female, was struck in the mouth and refuses EMS care. The second patient, a 39-year-old female, has a small laceration to her left knuckle and also refuses EMS care. Which of the following statements regarding this scenario is MOST correct? A. You should contact the police and have the patients arrested. B. The 39-year-old female is at high risk for an infection. C. The patient struck in the mouth should be immobilized. D. The 44-year-old female is at high risk for an infection.

During your assessment of a 22-year-old male who was assaulted, you note widespread contusions and abrasions to his face, chest, and abdomen. His pulse is rapid and weak, and his skin is cool and clammy. You should: A. perform a focused physical exam of his abdomen. B. administer oxygen and prepare for rapid transport. C. place him in a sitting position and give him oxygen. D. conclude that he is experiencing intracranial bleeding.

During your assessment of a 29-year-old female with significant deformity to her left elbow, you are unable to palpate a radial pulse. Your transport time to the hospital is approximately 40 minutes. You should: A. splint the elbow in the position of deformity and transport immediately. B. apply gentle manual traction in line with the limb and reassess for a pulse. C. carefully straighten the injured arm and secure it with padded board splints. D. make two or three attempts to restore distal circulation by manipulating the elbow.

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is MOST consistent with a: A. handgun. B. shotgun. C. .22-caliber pistol. D. .357 magnum.

During your assessment of a patient with a head injury, you note that he opens his eyes when you pinch his trapezius muscle, is mumbling, and has his arms curled in toward his chest. You should assign him a GCS score of: A. 9. B. 7. C. 8. D. 10.

During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. C. immobilize his spine and transport immediately. D. pack his nostrils to stop the drainage of blood.

During your primary assessment of a semiconscious 30-year-old female with closed head trauma, you note that she has slow, shallow breathing and a slow, bounding pulse. As your partner maintains manual in-line stabilization of her head, you should: A. perform a focused secondary assessment of the patient's head and neck. B. instruct him to assist her ventilations while you perform a rapid assessment. C. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and obtain baseline vital signs. D. immediately place her on a long backboard and prepare for rapid transport.

During your rapid secondary assessment of a 19-year-old female with multiple trauma, you note bilateral humeral deformities and a deformity to the left midshaft femur. Her skin is diaphoretic and her pulse is rapid and weak. Your partner has appropriately managed her airway and is maintaining manual stabilization of her head. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. applying and inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) and transporting. B. immobilizing her to a backboard and rapidly transporting. C. applying a traction splint to immobilize her femur. D. carefully splinting each of her deformed extremities.

Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: A. localized pain. B. red areas of skin. C. gross distention. D. dark purple marks.

Early signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding include: A. bruising only. B. pain and distention. C. widespread ecchymosis. D. significant hypotension.

Epinephrine acts as a specific antidote to: A) adrenaline B) histamine C) asthma D) bronchitis

Factors that should be considered when assessing a patient who has fallen include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. the height of the fall. B. the speed of the fall. C. the surface struck. D. the primary impact point.

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21-year-old female complains of left upper quadrant abdominal pain with referred pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. pancreas. D. gallbladder.

Following blunt trauma to the face, a 21-year-old male complains of a severe headache and decreased ability to move his eyes. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: A. a lacerated globe. B. a blowout fracture. C. a ruptured eyeball. D. optic vessel compression.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear B. laryngeal fracture C. collapsed trachea D. crushed cricoid

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: A. 50 and 60 beats/min. B. 60 and 100 beats/min. C. 50 and 70 beats/min. D. 70 and 110 beats/min.

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. hospital staff require frequent patient updates B. such injuries can affect the respiratory system C. they lend credibility to your documentation D. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries

Frequent reassessments of the patient with face or neck injuries are MOST important because: A. they lend credibility to your documentation. B. such injuries can affect the respiratory system. C. hospital staff require frequent patient updates. D. rapid facial swelling may mask hidden injuries.

Functions of dressings and bandages include all of the following EXCEPT: A. prevention of contamination B. immobilization of the injury C. protection from further injury D. control of external hemorrhage

Glutose is a trade name for: A. glucotrol. B. oral glucose. C. micronase. D. glucophage.

Heatstroke occurs when: A. a person's core body temperature rises above 103°F (39°C). B. the body's heat-eliminating mechanisms are overwhelmed. C. a person becomes dehydrated secondary to excess water loss. D. the ambient temperature exceeds 90°F (32°C) and the humidity is high.

Hemoptysis is defined as: A. vomiting blood. B. coughing up blood. C. abnormal blood clotting. D. blood in the pleural space.

Hypoglycemic crisis tends to develop more often and more severely in children because: A. they have larger glucose stores than adults do. B. they do not always eat correctly and on schedule. C. their cells do not uptake glucose as fast as adults' do. D. their low activity levels cause rapid glucose depletion.

Hypothermia is more common among all of the following except: A. older individuals B. long-distance athletes C. infants and children D. those who are already ill

Hypothermia occurs when the core body temperature falls below: A. 98°F (37°C). B. 95°F (35°C). C. 90°F (32°C). D. 88°F (31°C).

Hypovolemic shock is a result of: A. widespread vasodilation. B. low volume. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. pump failure.

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: A. the clotting ability of the blood is enhanced. B. the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss. C. the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg. D. at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost.

If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: A. distal circulation. B. the patient history. C. bruising to the shoulder. D. the presence of deformity.

If a patient has a hot skin temperature, he or she likely is: A. hypothermic B. hyperthermic C. hypoglycemic D. hypervolemic

If a patient with vaginal bleeding present with a rapid pulse and pale or cool skin, you should: A. attempt to locate the source of bleeding and correct it. B. place the patient in a supine position with her legs elevated. C. consider this to be a normal sign in a menstruating woman. D. inquire about recent problems with urination.

If a person's tidal volume decreases, but his or her respiratory rate remains unchanged: A. minute volume will increase. B. minute volume will decrease. C. minute volume will remain unchanged. D. excess carbon dioxide will be eliminated.

If an abnormal or disturbing pattern of behavior lasts for at least _____, it is regarded as a matter of concern from a mental health standpoint. A. 6 weeks B. 1 month C. 6 months D. 1 year

If the level of carbon dioxide in the arterial blood rises above normal, the patient breathes: A. normally. B. rapidly and deeply. C. slower and deeply. D. fast and shallow.

If the typical adult loses more than 1L of blood, significant changes in vital signs, such as _____ will occur A. Decreased heart rate B. Increased respiratory rate C. Increased blood pressure D. All of the above

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient, you should: A. assess for adequate breathing. B. immediately begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). C. attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) at once. D. palpate at another pulse site.

If you have been exposed to an HIV-positive patient's blood, you should: A. not worry about it, because transmission rates are low. B. seek medical advice as soon as possible. C. wait until your next doctor visit to seek evaluation. D. wash the area thoroughly and get an updated tetanus shot.

Immediate death from blunt chest trauma following a motor vehicle crash is MOST often the result of: A. a tension pneumothorax. B. traumatic aortic rupture. C. penetrating lung injuries. D. a massive cardiac contusion.

In a diving emergency, ___________ occurs when bubbles of gas, especially nitrogen, obstruct the blood vessels. A. compression sickness B. decompression sickness C. pulmonary sickness D. nitrogen toxicity

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve: A. palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time. B. checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of his or her skin. C. applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate. D. taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.

In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: A. nerve fiber damage B. an air embolism C. an ischemic stroke D. a spinal fracture

In cases of sexual assault, which of the following is true? A. You should always examine the genitalia for any sign of injury B. Advise the patient not to wash, urinate or defecate C. In addition to recording the facts, it is important to include your personal thoughts D. You should use plastic bags when collecting items such as clothes

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: A. is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest. B. often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset. C. usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours. D. is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea.

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: A. requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs. B. is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure. C. occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs. D. is an active process caused by decreased intrathoracic pressure.

In contrast to the brown recluse spider, the black widow spider: A. is very small and has a violin-shaped marking on its back. B. is large and has a red-orange hourglass mark on its abdomen. C. has a bite that is typically painless until a blister develops. D. has a bite that usually produces local pain but no systemic signs or symptoms.

In evaluating a situation that is considered a behavioral emergency, the first things to consider are: A. airway and breathing. B. scene safety and patient response. C. history of medications. D. respiratory and circulatory status.

In general, musculoskeletal injuries should be splinted before moving the patient unless: A. the patient is in severe pain. B. the patient is clinically unstable. C. deformity and swelling are present. D. transport time is less than 15 minutes.

In infants and children, a capillary refill time (CRT) that is greater than ______ second(s) is a sign of poor peripheral perfusion. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

In infants and small children, skin color should be assessed on the: A. forehead. B. palms and soles. C. underside of the arms. D. chest and abdomen.

In older patients, the first indicator of nontraumatic internal bleeding may be: A. a low blood pressure. B. weakness or dizziness. C. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. D. diaphoresis and pale skin.

In order for electricity to flow through the body and cause damage: A. an insulator must exist between the electrical source and the patient. B. a complete circuit must exist between the electrical source and the ground. C. the part of the body that is in contact with the electrical source must be dry. D. the person must make direct physical contact with the source of electricity.

In order for sweating to be an effective cooling mechanism: A. several layers of clothing must be worn. B. it must be able to evaporate from the body. C. the relative humidity must be above 90%. D. the body must produce at least 1 L per hour.

In order to avoid exacerbating a patient's injury, it is especially important to use extreme caution when providing positive-pressure ventilation to patients with a: A. flail chest. B. pneumothorax. C. cardiac tamponade. D. myocardial contusion.

In the _____ position, the patient sits leaning forward on outstretched arms with the head & chin thrust slightly forward. A) Fowler's B) Tripod C) Sniffing D) Lithotomy

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _______ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _______ beats/min. A. 40, 120 B. 60, 100 C. 30, 130 D. 50, 110

In the prehospital setting, a(n) ____ is the preferred method of giving oxygen to patients who have sufficient tidal volume and can provide up to 90% inspired oxygen. A) nasal cannula B) nonrebreathing mask C) bag-mask device D) endotracheal tube

In the presence of ileus, the only way the stomach can empty itself is by: A. diarrhea. B. vomiting. C. muscular contraction. D. spontaneous rupture.

In which of the following patients would the head tilt-chin lift maneuver be the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway? A. a 24-year-old male who is found unconscious at the base of a tree B. a 37-year-old female who is found unconscious in her bed C. a 45-year-old male who is semiconscious after falling 20 feet D. a 50-year-old male who is unconscious following head trauma

Insulin functions in the body by: A. producing new glucose as needed. B. enabling glucose to enter the cells. C. increasing circulating blood glucose. D. metabolizing glucose to make energy.

Ischemic heart disease is MOST accurately defined as: A. absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery. B. decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium. C. death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen. D. decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation.

Jugular venous distention suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: A. in a supine position. B. sitting up at a 45° angle. C. in a recumbent position. D. in a full Fowler's position.

Kinetic energy is a calculation of: A. weight and size. B. weight and speed. C. mass and weight. D. speed and force.

Large blood vessels in the chest that can result in massive hemorrhaging include all of the following EXCEPT: A. the pulmonary arteries B. the femoral arteries C. the aorta D. the four main pulmonary veins

Late signs of abdominal injury include all of the following EXCEPT: A. distention B. increased blood pressure C. change in mental status D. pale,cool, moist skin

Late signs of peritonitis may include: A. soft abdomen B. nausea C. normal bowel sounds D. diarrhea

Learning to adapt to a variety of situations in daily life, including stresses and strains, is called: A. disruption. B. adjustment. C. behavior. D. functional.

Liver disease or dysfunction may cause ____, resulting in the patient's skin & sclera turning yellow. A) cyanosis B) jaundice C) diaphoresis D) lack of perfusion

Moderate elevation in intracranial pressure with middle brain stem involvement is characterized by: A. increased blood pressure, bradycardia, reactive pupils, and rapid respirations. B. sluggishly reactive pupils, widened pulse pressure, bradycardia, and posturing. C. ataxic respirations, unequal pupils, no response to pain, and an irregular pulse. D. fixed and dilated pupils, decreased blood pressure, and irregular respirations.

Most patients are instructed by their physician to take up to _______ doses of nitroglycerin before calling EMS. A. two B. three C. four D. five

Most patients who die of anaphylaxis do so within the first __________ following exposure. A. 5 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 90 minutes

Muscle control and body coordination are controlled by the: A. cerebrum. B. cerebellum. C. brain stem. D. cerebral cortex.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients: A. who have taken up to two doses. B. who have experienced a head injury. C. with a history of an ischemic stroke. D. with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

On which of the following patients would it be MOST appropriate to use the flow- restricted, oxygen-powered ventilation device? A. an 8-year-old female with respiratory failure B. a 21-year-old male with traumatic cardiac arrest C. a 38-year-old apneic female with blunt chest trauma D. a 59-year-old male with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

One of the primary waste products of normal cellular metabolism that must be removed from the body by the lungs is: A. lactic acid. B. carbon dioxide. C. pyruvic acid. D. carbon monoxide.

Open soft-tissue wounds include all of the following EXCEPT: A. abrasions B. contusions C. lacerations D. avulsions

Optimally, on-scene time for critically injured patients should be less than _____ minutes. A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20

Organic brain syndrome may be caused by: A. daily stress. B. seizure disorder. C. myocardial infarction. D. thoracic spinal cord injury.

Pain that is localized to the lower back and/or lower abdominal quadrants is MOST suggestive of: A. acute pancreatitis. B. an aortic aneurysm. C. a kidney infection. D. acute appendicitis.

Painful urination associated with burning and a yellowish discharge is assocated with: A. chlamydia. B. gonorrhea. C. endometriosis. D. syphilis.

Patients with uncontrolled diabetes experience polyuria because: A. they drink excess amounts of water due to dehydration. B. excess glucose in the blood is excreted by the kidneys. C. low blood glucose levels result in cellular dehydration. D. high blood sugar levels cause permanent kidney damage.

People at risk for suicide include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. those with a recent diagnosis of a serious illness. B. married males older than 30 years. C. substance abusers. D. children with parents addicted to alcohol.

Peritonitis may result in shock because: A. intra-abdominal hemorrhage is typically present. B. fluid shifts from the bloodstream into body tissues. C. abdominal distention impairs cardiac contractions. D. severe pain causes systemic dilation of the vasculature.

Peritonitis, with associated fluid loss, is the result of: A. abnormal shift of fluid from body tissue into the bloodstream. B. abnormal shift of fluid from bloodstream into body tissue. C. normal shift of fluid form body tissue into the bloodstream. D. normal shift of fluid bloodstream into body tissue.

Phosphorus or elemental sodium should be brushed off of the skin instead of irrigated with water because: a) this will eliminate the chances of you being exposed. b) these chemicals may ignite upon contact with water. c) severe swelling will occur when mixed with water. d) water makes these chemicals impossible to remove.

Potentially life-threatening consequences of PID include: A. bacterial vaginosis and chlamydia. B. ovarian abscess and ectopic pregnancy. C. ovarian cysts and gonorrhea. D. uterine rupture with severe bleeding.

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, the EMT must: A. ensure the medication is in tablet form. B. obtain authorization from medical control. C. determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin. D. wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should: A. contact medical control. B. dry the chest off if it is wet. C. perform CPR for 30 seconds. D. assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

Proper procedure for administering oral glucose to a patient includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing the patient's mental status. B. ensuring the absence of a gag reflex. C. checking the medication's expiration date. D. requesting permission from medical control.

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: A. continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions. B. suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx. C. removing large, solid objects with a tonsil-tip suction catheter. D. suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated.

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: A. a cardiac arrhythmia. B. congestive heart failure. C. significant hypotension. D. right ventricular failure.

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by: A. taking another set of vital signs. B. repeating the primary assessment. C. reassessing the nature of illness. D. reviewing all treatment performed.

Regarding the maintenance of the airway in an unconscious adult, which of the following is false? a. insertion of an oropharyngeal airway helps keep the airway open b. the head tilt-chin lift maneuver should always be used to open the airway c. secretions should be suctioned from the mouth, as necessary d. inserting a rigid suction catheter beyond the tongue may cause gagging

Regardless of the extent and severity of the damage to the skin, you should treat any injury that breaks the skin as a possible: A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.

Regulation of acidity and blood pressure is largely attributed to the: A. liver B. kidneys C. gallbladder D. pancreas

Rough handling of a hypothermic patient with a pulse may cause: A. profound bradycardia. B. ventricular fibrillation. C. ventricular tachycardia. D. pulseless electrical activity.

Signs and symptoms of a chest injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hemoptysis. B. hematemesis. C. asymmetrical chest movement. D. increased pain with breathing.

Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound cyanosis B. collapsed jugular veins C. unilaterally absent breath sounds D. bulging intercostal muscles

Signs and symptoms of a tension pneumothorax include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. profound cyanosis. B. collapsed jugular veins. C. bulging intercostal muscles. D. unilaterally absent breath sounds.

Signs and symptoms of an air embolism include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. dysphasia. B. pale skin. C. dizziness. D. joint pain.

Solid abdominal organs include the: A. stomach and small intestine. B. spleen, kidneys, and pancreas. C. gallbladder and large intestine. D. urinary bladder, colon, and ureters.

The AED is MOST advantageous to the EMT because: A. it is lightweight, easy to use, and safe for the EMT who is using it. B. it delivers prompt defibrillation to patients with ventricular fibrillation. C. its use does not require the presence of ALS personnel. D. it delivers an unlimited number of shocks with the same amount of energy.

The _______ are found in the retroperitoneal space. A. stomach and gallbladder B. kidneys, ovaries, and pancreas C. liver and pancreas D. adrenal glands and uterus

The _______ is one of the most commonly fractured bones in the body. A. scapula B. clavicle C. humerus D. radius

The _______ is your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying and unseen injuries or illnesses. A. nature of illness B. index of suspicion C. general impression D. clinical impression

The _______ links the arteries and the venules. A. Aorta B. Capillaries C. Vena cava D. Valves

The __________ of a medication usually dictates the route by which it will be administered. A. type B. form C. class D. name

The ability of a person's cardiovascular system to compensate for blood loss is MOST related to: A. how fast his or her heart beats. B. how rapidly he or she bleeds. C. his or her baseline blood pressure. D. the part of the body injured.

The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the: A. bronchioles. B. alveolar sacs. C. apex of the lung. D. pulmonary capillaries.

The amount of kinetic energy that is converted to do work on the body dictates the _____ of the injury. A. location B. severity C. cause D. speed

The anterior aspect of the cerebrum controls: A. touch. B. emotion. C. movement. D. vision.

The body will not tolerate an acute blood loss of greater than _______ of blood volume A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 40%

The central nervous system (CNS) is composed of the: A. cerebellum and brain. B. brain and spinal cord. C. cerebrum and meninges. D. meninges and spinal cord.

The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the: A. air bag correctly deploys upon impact. B. headrest is appropriately positioned. C. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck. D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.

The conjuctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. corneal duct B. lacrimal gland C. posterior orbit D. optic chiasma

The cricoid cartilage: A. lies superior to the thyroid cartilage in the neck. B. is the only complete circular cartilage of the trachea. C. is easier to see and palpate than the thyroid cartilage. D. lies superior to the cricothyroid membrane in the neck.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. orbit. B. globe. C. sclera. D. cornea.

The first set of vital signs that you obtain is called the: A) original vital signs B) baseline vital signs C) actual vital signs D) real vital signs

The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. B. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. C. coccygeal, sacral, lumbar, thoracic, and cervical. D. cervical, coccygeal, thoracic, sacral, and lumbar.

The head is divided into two parts: the cranium and the: A. brain B. face C. skull D. medulla oblongata

The hypoxic drive—the primary stimulus to breathe for patients with certain chronic respiratory diseases—is influenced by: A. high blood oxygen levels. B. low blood oxygen levels. C. low blood carbon dioxide levels. D. high blood carbon dioxide levels.

The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: A. the clothes drag. B. the four-person log roll. C. to use a scoop stretcher. D. the direct patient carry.

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: A. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries. B. your concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. C. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. D. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.

The initial assessment includes evaluation of all of the following EXCEPT: A) mental status B) pupils C) airway D) circulation

The knee is especially susceptible to _______ injuries, which occur when abnormal bending or twisting forces are applied to the joint. A. tendon B. ligament C. dislocation D. fracture-dislocation

The letter "S" in the pneumonic PASTE refers to: A. symptoms. B. sputum. C. severity. D. sickness.

The main advantage of the Venturi mask is: A. the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient. B. the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long-term management of physiologically stable patients. C. that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered. D. the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator.

The meninges, along with the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) that circulates in between each meningeal layer, function by: A. regenerating brain cells after they have been damaged. B. acting as a shock absorber for the brain and spinal cord. C. delivering oxygen directly to the CNS. D. producing leukocytes that protect the brain from infection.

The most important consideration when dealing with electrical burns is: A. standard precautions B. scene safety C. level of responsiveness D. airway

The normal blood glucose level, as measured by a glucometer, is between: A. 60 and 80 mg/dL. B. 80 and 120 mg/dL. C. 130 and 150 mg/dL. D. 160 and 200 mg/dL.

The normal respiratory rate for an adult is: a. about equal to the person's heart rate b. 12 to 20 breaths/min c. faster when the person is sleeping d. the same as in infants and children

The onset of menstruation usually occurs between the ages of: A. 8 and 10 years. B. 11 and 16 years. C. 16 and 18 years. D. 17 and 20 years.

The patient with COPD usually presents with: A. bloody sputum. B. a green or yellow productive cough. C. a decreased pulse rate. D. pulmonary edema.

The purpose of splinting a fracture is to: A. reduce the fracture if possible. B. prevent motion of bony fragments. C. reduce swelling in adjacent soft tissues. D. force the bony fragments back into anatomic alignment.

The quickest and MOST effective way to control external bleeding from an extremity is: A. a pressure bandage. B. direct pressure and elevation. C. a splint. D. a tourniquet.

The single most significant factor that contributes to suicide is: A. a chronic illness. B. depression. C. drug abuse. D. advanced age.

The skin covering the _____ is quite thick. A. lips B. scalp C. ears D. eyelids

The skin regulates temp in a cold environment by: A. secreting sweat through sweat glands B. constricting the blood vessels C. dilating the blood vessels D. increasing the amount of heat that is radiated from the body's surface

The smaller vessels that carry blood away from the heart and connect the arteries to the capillaries are called the: A. venules. B. arterioles. C. vena cavae. D. capillary arteries.

The stinger from a honeybee should be: A. left in place and covered. B. scraped away from the skin. C. squeezed with tweezers and removed. D. irrigated with copious amounts of water.

The term "behavioral crisis" is MOST accurately defined as: A. a sudden, violent outburst of an otherwise mentally stable person toward a family member. B. any reaction that interferes with activities of daily living or is deemed unacceptable by others. C. a situation in which a patient demonstrates bizarre behavior and becomes a risk to other people. D. a period of severe depression that lasts longer than 2 weeks and cannot be controlled with medications.

The term "hematuria" is defined as: A. blood in the stool. B. blood in the urine. C. vomiting up blood. D. urinary bladder rupture.

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the: A. anterior rib cage B. diaphragm C. costovertebral angle D. intercostal margin

The three phases of a dive, in the order they occur, are: A. ascent descent, and bottom B. descent, bottom, and ascent C. orientation, bottom and ascent D. descent, orientation, and ascent

The usual dose for activated charcoal is up to ______ for a pediatric patient and up to ______ for an adult patient. a) 10 g, 20 g b) 25 g, 50 g c) 5 g, 10 g d) 12.5 g, 25 g

The venom of a black widow spider is toxic to the: A. renal system. B. nervous system. C. respiratory system. D. cardiovascular system.

Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A. is moved through the lungs in a single minute. B. moves into or out of the lungs in a single breath. C. remains in the lungs following a complete exhalation. D. is forced into the lungs as a result of positive pressure.

Type 1 diabetes: A. is typically treated with medications such as metformin (Glucophage). B. is a condition in which no insulin is produced by the body. C. typically occurs in patients between 50 and 70 years of age. D. is defined as a blood sugar level that is less than 120 mg/dL.

What Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score would you assign to a patient who responds to painful stimuli, uses inappropriate words, and maintains his or her arms in a flexed position? A. 6 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

What are agonal gasps? a. occasional gasping breaths, but adequate to maintain life b. occasional gasping breaths, unable to maintain life c. painful respirations due to broken ribs d. another name for ataxic respirations

When a hollow organ is punctured during a penetrating injury to the abdomen: A. the abdomen will become instantly distended. B. peritonitis may not develop for several hours. C. it will bleed profusely and rapidly cause shock. D. it commonly protrudes through the injury site.

When a person is looking at an object up close, the pupils should: A. dilate. B. constrict. C. remain the same size. D. dilate, and then constrict.

When a person is lying supine at the end of exhalation, the diaphragm: A. contracts and flattens inferiorly. B. may rise as high as the nipple line. C. is less prone to penetrating trauma. D. descends below the level of the navel.

When a warm hand is immersed in water that is 70°F (21°C), heat is transferred from the hand to the water through a process called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she: A. has obtained a complete set of vital signs. B. has gathered patient history information. C. ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant. D. has formed a general impression of the patient.

When administering epinephrine via auto-injector, you should hold the injector in place for: A. 5 seconds. B. 10 seconds. C. 15 seconds. D. 20 seconds.

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxemic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: A. recall that most patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels. B. adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations. C. begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing. D. avoid positive-pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma.

When applying a tourniquet to an amputated arm, the EMT should: A. use the narrowest bandage possible. B. avoid applying the tourniquet over a joint. C. cover the tourniquet with a sterile bandage. D. use rope to ensure that the tourniquet is tight.

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: A. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious. B. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. C. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. D. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.

When assessing a patient with a possible fracture of the leg, the EMT should: A. assess proximal circulation. B. compare it to the uninjured leg. C. carefully move it to elicit crepitus. D. ask the patient to move the injured leg.

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is MOST important to remember that: A. the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock. B. blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. C. multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock. D. irreversible shock often responds well to a prompt blood transfusion.

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has: A. normal breath sounds. B. abnormal breath sounds. C. diminished breath sounds. D. an absence of breath sounds.

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to: A. send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them. B. take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report. C. let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications. D. document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced.

When caring for a patient with facial trauma, the EMT should be MOST concerned with: A. spinal trauma. B. airway compromise. C. associated eye injuries. D. severe external bleeding.

When caring for a patient with severe epistaxis, the MOST effective way to prevent aspiration of blood is to: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and lean the patient back. B. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning forward. C. place the patient supine with his or her head in the flexed position. D. tilt the patient's head forward while he or she is leaning backward.

When considering the need for additional resources, which of the following is NOT a question you should ask? A) How many patients are there? B) Is it raining? C) Who contacted EMS? D) Does the scene pose a threat to you or your patient's safety?

When controlling bleeding from a scalp laceration with a suspected underlying skull fracture, you should: A. elevate the patient's head and apply an ice pack. B. avoid excessive pressure when applying the bandage. C. apply firm compression for no longer than 5 minutes. D. apply manual pressure and avoid applying a bandage.

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: A. use medical terminology. B. use the patient's own words. C. underline the patient's quotes. D. document his or her own perception.

When examining the abdomen, you should palpate for all of the following EXCEPT: A) guarding B) crepitation C) tenderness D) rigidity

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Motrin, and Digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)? A. Lasix B. Motrin C. Isordil D. Digoxin

When palpating the chest and abdomen, you are attempting to identify areas of: A. bruising. B. tenderness. C. crepitus. D. nausea.

When splinting a possible fracture of the foot, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. use a pillow as a splint. B. leave the toes exposed. C. apply a pneumatic splint. D. observe for tissue swelling.

When stabilizing a large foreign object in the eye, you should first cover the eye with a moist dressing, then: A. irrigate the eye with saline B. surround the object with a doughnut-shaped collar made from gauze C. apply tape around the object and then secure the tape to the forehead D. place an ice pack over the eye to reduce swelling

When the body senses a state of hypoperfusion, the sympathetic nervous system releases epinephrine, the effects of which include: A. tachypnea. B. tachycardia. C. vasodilation. D. restlessness.

When the chest impacts the steering wheel during a motor vehicle crash with rapid deceleration, the resulting injury that kills almost one third of patients, usually within seconds, is: A. a hemothorax. B. aortic shearing. C. a pneumothorax. D. a ruptured myocardium.

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: A. the brain stem inhibits respirations. B. respirations increase in rate and depth. C. exhalation lasts longer than inhalation. D. respirations decrease in rate and depth.

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: A. the heart contracts with less force. B. the arteries supplying the heart dilate. C. the heart rate decreases significantly. D. the AV node conducts fewer impulses.

When transporting a patient with a facial injury, it is MOST important to be as descriptive as possible with the hospital regarding the patient's injuries because: A. they must make arrangements for an ICU bed. B. a specialist may need to be called. C. it saves time on repeat assessments at the hospital. D. most patients with facial trauma will need surgery.

When transporting a stable stroke patient with unilateral paralysis, it is best to place the patient in a: A. recumbent position with the paralyzed side up. B. recumbent position with the paralyzed side down. C. sitting position with the head at a 45° to 90° angle. D. supine position with the legs elevated 6″ to 12″.

When treating a patient with an amputation of the penile shaft, your top priority is: A. locating the amputated part B. controlling bleeding C. keeping the remaining tissue dry D. delaying transport until bleeding is controlled

When treating a patient with signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock and no outward signs of bleeding always consider the possibility of bleeding into the A. thoracic cavity B. Abdomen C. Skull D. Chest

When treating a suspected-shock patient, vital signs should be recorded approximately every _______ minutes. A. 2 B. 5 C. 10 D. 15

When treating multiple victims of lightning strikes, who should you concentrate your efforts on first? A. conscious patients B. unconscious patients in respiratory or cardiac arrest C. all unconscious patients D. none of the above

When using a stick and square knot as a tourniquet to control severe bleeding from an amputated arm, the EMT should: A. cover the tourniquet with a sterile dressing. B. stop twisting the stick when the bleeding stops. C. twist the stick until the radial pulse disappears. D. remove the tourniquet if the bleeding has stopped.

Whether you are using a commercial device or a stick and triangular bandage as a tourniquet, it is important to remember that: A. you should try to control the bleeding by applying pressure to a proximal arterial pressure point first. B. the tourniquet should only be removed at the hospital because bleeding may return if the tourniquet is released. C. bulky dressings should be securely applied over the tourniquet to further assist in controlling the bleeding. D. the tourniquet should be applied directly over a joint if possible because this provides better bleeding control.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes hyperthermia? A. The core body temperature exceeds 99.5°F (37°C). B. The body is exposed to more heat than it can lose. C. Heat evaporates a significant amount of body water. D. The body eliminates more heat than it can generate.

Which of the following conditions does NOT typically present with vaginal discharge? A. PID B. genital herpes C. chlamydia D. gonorrhea

Which of the following conditions is NOT a common cause of seizures? A. poisoning or overdose B. severe hypovolemia C. acute hypoglycemia D. acute alcohol withdrawal

Which of the following conditions would LEAST likely result in hypoxia? A. pleural effusion B. severe anxiety C. pulmonary edema D. prolonged seizures

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to mimic the signs and symptoms of a stroke? A. hypoglycemia B. hypovolemia C. a postictal state D. intracranial bleeding

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? A. liver laceration B. cardiac tamponade C. simple pneumothorax D. spinal cord injury

Which of the following injuries would be appropriate to treat with a traction splint? A. Injuries of the pelvis B. An isolated femur fracture C. Partial amputation or avulsions with bone separation D. Lower leg or ankle injury

Which of the following is NOT a component of the cardiovascular system? A. Heart B. Lungs C. Venules D. Plasma

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A. dilation of blood vessels in the muscles B. constriction of blood vessels in the muscles C. increases in the heart and respiratory rates D. constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

Which of the following is NOT considered a risk factor for suicide? A. Alcohol abuse B. Recent marriage C. Family history of suicide D. Depression

Which of the following is NOT considered a type of breath sound? A) Rhonchi B) Vibration C) Wheeze D) Stridor

Which of the following is a late sign of hypoxia? A. anxiety B. cyanosis C. tachycardia D. restlessness

Which of the following is a major difference between angina pectoris and AMI? A. AMI is caused by myocardial ischemia. B. Anginal pain typically subsides with rest. C. Nitroglycerin has no effect on angina pectoris. D. Pain from an AMI subsides within 30 minutes.

Which of the following is the MOST rapidly acting medication administration route? A. sublingual (SL) B. intravenous (IV) C. subcutaneous (SC) D. intramuscular (IM)

Which of the following medications is NOT used to treat patients with a history of seizures? A. phenytoin (Dilantin) B. hydromorphone (Dilaudid) C. carbamazepine (Tegretol) D. phenobarbital

Which of the following medications is commonly given to patients with chest pain to prevent blood clots from forming or getting bigger? A. furosemide (Lasix) B. aspirin C. oxygen D. digoxin (Lanoxin)

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? A. vertical-position flowmeter B. Bourdon-gauge flowmeter C. ball-and-float flowmeter D. pressure-compensated flowmeter

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? A. 36-year-old man with cyanosis around the lips and irregular respirations B. 29-year old woman with respirations of 20 breaths/min, who is conscious and alert C. 22-year-old man with labored respirations at a rate of 28 breaths/min and pale skin D. 59-year-old woman with difficulty breathing, whose respirations are rapid and shallow

Which of the following patients would MOST likely demonstrate typical signs of infection, such as a fever? A. a 3-month-old female who was born prematurely B. a 17-year-old male with depression and anxiety C. a 35-year-old female in the later stages of AIDS D. an 88-year-old male with chronic renal problems

Which of the following patients would MOST likely require insertion of an oropharyngeal airway? A. a 33-year-old semiconscious patient with reduced tidal volume B. a 40-year-old unconscious patient with slow, shallow respirations C. a 51-year-old confused patient with severely labored respirations D. a 64-year-old conscious patient with rapid and deep respirations

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? A. bronchodilation and vasodilation B. vasoconstriction and bronchodilation C. bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction D. blocking of further histamine release

Which of the following questions should you ask yourself when dealing with a patient who is not answering your questions? A) Is the patient hungry? B) Is there a language problem? C) Is the patient tired? D) Is the patient angry with me?

Which of the following respiratory diseases causes obstruction of the lower airway? A. Croup B. Asthma C. Epiglottitis D. Laryngitis

Which of the following signs is LEAST indicative of a head injury? A. Asymmetrical pupils B. Pupillary constriction to bright light C. Both eyes moving in opposite directions D. Inability to look upward when instructed to

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure? A. labored breathing B. dependent edema C. pulmonary edema D. flat jugular veins

Which of the following signs or symptoms would you NOT expect to encounter in a patient with congestive heart failure? A. hypertension and tachycardia B. hypotension and flat jugular veins C. the presence of rales in the lungs D. trouble breathing while lying down

Which of the following sounds indicates swelling of the upper airway? A. rales B. stridor C. rhonchi D. wheezing

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding assessment and treatment of a woman who was the victim of sexual assault? A. You may be called to testify in court regarding the incident B. You should question the victim thoroughly about the assaulter in case the police missed any details C. The patient should be given the option of being treated by a female responder D. The patient should be discouraged from urinating or changing her clothes prior to examination at the hospital

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding influenza? A. It may worsen chronic medical conditions. B. It is primarily a human respiratory disease that has mutated to infect animals. C. It is transmitted by direct contact with nasal secretion and aerosolized droplets. D. It has the potential to become a pandemic

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. Most eviscerations occur to the left upper quadrant. B. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist. C. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. D. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal trauma is correct? A. Most of the vital abdominal organs lie within the retroperitoneal space. B. The absence of abdominal pain does not rule out intra-abdominal bleeding. C. The liver is well protected and is rarely injured during a traumatic event. D. Hollow abdominal organs are vascular and bleed profusely when injured.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? A. Patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis. B. Anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension. C. Most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes after exposure. D. The signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction.

Which of the following statements regarding cervical collars is correct? A. Once a cervical collar is applied, you can cease manual head stabilization. B. A cervical collar is used in addition to, not instead of, manual immobilization. C. Cervical collars are contraindicated in patients with numbness to the extremities. D. The patient's head should be forced into a neutral position to apply a cervical collar.

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. B. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. C. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. D. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal.

Which of the following statements regarding diabetic coma is correct? A. Diabetic coma can be prevented by taking smaller insulin doses. B. Diabetic coma typically develops over a period of hours or days. C. Patients with low blood glucose levels are prone to diabetic coma. D. Diabetic coma rapidly progresses once hyperglycemia develops.

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct? A. In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe. B. Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself. C. Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome. D. Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? A. Hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets. B. Patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously. C. Hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting. D. Approximately 25% of the population has hemophilia.

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? A. The oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during the exhalation phase. B. Oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries. C. The actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries. D. Blood that returns to the lungs from the body has a low carbon dioxide content.

Which of the following statements regarding positive-pressure ventilation is correct? A. Positive-pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body. B. With positive-pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing. C. To prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive- pressure ventilation. D. Unlike negative-pressure ventilation, positive-pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure.

Which of the following statements regarding sickle cell disease is correct? A. Sickle cell disease is an inherited blood disorder that causes the blood to clot too quickly. B. In sickle cell disease, the red blood cells are abnormally shaped and are less able to carry oxygen. C. The red blood cells of patients with sickle cell disease are round and contain hemoglobin A. D. Because of their abnormal shape, red blood cells in patients with sickle cell disease are less apt to lodge in a blood vessel.

Which of the following statements regarding the dermis is correct? A. The dermis produces a substance that provides color to the skin. B. The dermis contains hair follicles, sweat glands, and nerve endings. C. The cells of the dermis are worn away and are constantly replaced. D. The dermis lies above the germinal layer and provides protection.

Which of the following statements regarding the physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem is correct? A. It is only appropriate to perform a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem if he or she is unconscious or is being physically restrained. B. A physical examination for a behavioral problem may be difficult to perform but may provide clues to the patient's state of mind and thought processes. C. The physical examination of a patient with a behavioral problem often yields crucial information and should always be performed, even if the patient is violent. D. Performing a physical examination on a patient with a behavioral problem will likely cause him or her to become violent and should be avoided in the field.

Which of the following statements regarding the rule of nines is correct? A. A child's head is equal to 14% of his or her total BSA. B. The anterior trunk of an adult is equal to 18% of the BSA. C. The posterior of a child's leg is equal to 13.5% of the BSA. D. The anterior arm in the adult is equal to 9% of the total BSA.

Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is a clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury. B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost.

Which of the following types of muscle is under direct voluntary control of the brain? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. smooth D. autonomic

Which of the following would MOST likely result in hemorrhagic shock? A. severe vomiting B. liver laceration C. excessive sweating D. repeated diarrhea

Which of the following would NOT cause a decrease in tidal volume? A. shallow breathing B. deep respirations C. irregular breathing D. agonal respirations

Which statement regarding HIV is FALSE? A. It is not easily transmitted in your work environment. B. It is not considered a hazard when deposited on mucous membranes. C. You should always wear gloves when treating a patient with HIV. D. Many patients with HIV do not show symptoms.

While assessing a 21-year-old female who struck a tree head-on with her small passenger car, you note that her air bag deployed. You should: A. perform a head-to-toe assessment while she is in the car. B. lift the air bag and look for deformity to the steering wheel. C. carefully assess her upper chest for seatbelt-related injuries. D. extricate her immediately and transport to a trauma center.

While assisting a paramedic in the attempted resuscitation of a 55-year-old male in cardiac arrest, you should expect the paramedic to: A. give the patient nitroglycerin to increase his blood pressure. B. administer drugs via the IV route to achieve the fastest effect. C. give the patient activated charcoal to rule out a drug overdose. D. withhold drug therapy until an intraosseous catheter is in place.

With _____, the force of the injury occurs over a broad area, & the skin is usually not broken. A) motor vehicle collisions B) blunt trauma C) penetrating trauma D) gunshot wounds

With regard to the three collisions that occur during a motor vehicle crash, which of the following statements regarding the first collision is correct? A. It provides the least amount of information about the mechanism of injury. B. It is the most dramatic part of the collision and may make extrication difficult. C. It occurs when the unrestrained occupant collides with the interior of the vehicle. D. It has a direct effect on patient care because of the obvious vehicular damage.

You and your partner are treating a 66-year-old man who experienced a sudden onset of respiratory distress. He is conscious but is unable to follow simple verbal commands. Further assessment reveals that his breathing is severely labored and his oxygen saturation is 80%. You should: A. attempt to insert an oropharyngeal airway. B. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. apply a continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) device and monitor his breathing. D. apply high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should: A. begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED without delay. B. perform five cycles of high-quality CPR and then apply the AED. C. perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup. D. immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced: A. acute hypoglycemia. B. a ruptured cerebral artery. C. a complex partial seizure. D. an occluded cerebral artery.

You are assessing a 59-year-old male and note that his pupils are unequal. He is conscious and alert. When obtaining his medical history, it is MOST pertinent to ask him if he: A. is allergic to any medications. B. has a history of eye surgeries. C. regularly sees a family physician. D. noticed the change during a meal.

You are assessing a conscious 55-year-old male with a sudden change in behavior. Which of the following clinical findings would be MOST suggestive of dysfunction of this patient's central nervous system? A. an irregular pulse B. rapid eye movement C. excessive tearing or crying D. consistent eye contact

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60-year-old woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: A. repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward. B. repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself. C. instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test. D. defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech.

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oral glucose is ____ for this patient. A) indicated B) contraindicated C) not normally given D) prescribed

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oxygen: A) is a controlled substance B) should be applied to this patient C) is not flammable D) is considered a suspension

You are called to the beach for a 15-year-old boy who is having trouble breathing. He tells you between gasps that he was stung by something & that his body feels "swollen." Just then, a woman runs up to you & puts an EpiPen into your hand. "Here," she says breathlessly. "He needs this!" Would you administer epinephrine to this patient? A) Yes, by pushing the EpiPen firmly against the patient's thigh for several seconds B) Not until you determine if it was prescribed for the patient C) Yes, using the sublingual route D) No, his signs & symptoms contraindicate an epinephrine injection

You are called to the home of a 48 year old woman who has a history of high blood pressure and now has a major nose bleed. She is alert and oriented and converse freely with you. Her respirations and pulse are within normal limites. Her blood pressure is 194/108 mm Hg. You have been able to rule out trauma. How you you manage the nose bleed? A. Apply a sterile dressing B. Pinch the nostrils together C. Put the patient in a supine position D. Have the patient hold ice in her mouth

You are dispatched to a movie theater for a 39-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction. As you are assessing her, she pulls an epinephrine auto-injector out of her purse and hands it to you. After administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. administer the drug. B. contact medical control. C. verify the medication name. D. check the drug's expiration date.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who complains of lower abdominal pain, fever and chills, and a foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Which of the following additional assessment findings would increase your index of suspicion for PID? A. a history of ectopic pregnancy B. a shuffling gait when walking C. bright red blood in the urine D. vaginal passage of blood clots

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66-year-old male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You should: A. assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis. B. initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and attach an automated external defibrillator (AED) as soon as possible. C. obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia. D. perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED.

You are dispatched to a residence for a young female who was kicked in the abdomen by her boyfriend. While en route to the scene, you should ask the dispatcher if: A. the patient is conscious. B. law enforcement is at the scene. C. there are other patients involved. D. the severity of the injury is known.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to: A. palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse. B. log roll him as a unit to a supine position. C. assess the rate and quality of his breathing. D. open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

You are dispatched to a state park for a young female experiencing an allergic reaction. Your assessment reveals that her breathing is severely labored and her blood pressure is very low. You carry epinephrine auto-injectors on your ambulance and have been trained and approved by your medical director to administer them. As your partner gives the patient high-flow oxygen, you attempt to contact medical control but do not have a signal from your cell phone. You should: A. notify dispatch and request that a paramedic unit respond to the scene so they can administer epinephrine to the patient. B. administer epinephrine to the patient, begin immediate transport, and attempt to contact medical control en route to the hospital. C. elevate the patient's legs 6″ to 12″, keep her warm, begin transport to the hospital, and request a paramedic intercept en route. D. immediately load the patient into the ambulance, begin transport, and reattempt to contact medical control when you receive a cell signal.

You are dispatched to a store in the downtown mall for an arm injury. When you arrive, you are directed to a small stock room where you find a teenaged girl holding a blood-soaked cloth tightly onto her left forearm. You notice blood droplets high up the wall and on the floor several feet from where she is sitting. "I was opening a shipment with a box-cutter," she says, her skin noticeable pale. "And it slipped and cut my arm." What type of bleeding should you anticipate? A. You should suspect heavy venous bleeding. B. She most likely has arterial bleed. C. Internal bleeding is probably causing her skin to appear pale. D. Very sharp blades usually only cause capillary bleeding.

You are performing mouth-to-mask ventilations with oxygen connected and set at a flow rate of 15 L/min. What percentage of oxygen is your patient receiving? A. 45% B. 55% C. 65% D. 75%

You are transporting a 42-year-old male who experienced blunt abdominal trauma. He is receiving oxygen at 12 L/min via a nonrebreathing mask, and full spinal precautions have been applied. During your reassessment, you note his level of consciousness has decreased and his respirations have become shallow. You should: A. perform a comprehensive secondary assessment to determine why his clinical status has changed. B. insert an airway adjunct if he will tolerate it and begin assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. reassess his vital signs and then notify the receiving hospital of the change in his clinical status. D. suction his oropharynx to ensure it is clear of secretions and then increase the oxygen flow rate to 15 L/min.

You are transporting a patient with possible peritonitis following trauma to the abdomen. Which position will he MOST likely prefer to assume? A. Sitting up B. Legs drawn up C. Legs outstretched D. On his right side

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. quickly suction his oropharynx. B. turn the backboard onto its side. C. reassess his breathing adequacy. D. alert the hospital of the situation.

You are ventilating a patient with a stoma; however, air is escaping from the mouth and nose. To prevent this, you should: A. thrust the jaw forward. B. seal the mouth and nose. C. ventilate with less pressure. D. thoroughly suction the stoma.

You arrive at a grocery store shortly after a 35-year-old male stopped seizing. Your assessment reveals that he is confused and incontinent of urine. The patient's girlfriend tells you that he has a history of seizures and takes carbamazepine (Tegretol). When obtaining further medical history from the girlfriend, it is MOST important to: A. determine if the patient is a known alcohol abuser. B. obtain a description of how the seizure developed. C. determine when he was last seen by his physician. D. ask her how long the patient has been taking his medication.

You have sealed the open chest wound of a 40-year-old male who was stabbed in the anterior chest. Your reassessment reveals that he is experiencing increasing respiratory distress and tachycardia, and is developing cyanosis. You should: A. begin ventilatory assistance. B. partially remove the dressing. C. begin rapid transport at once. D. call for a paramedic ambulance.

You respond to a 33-year-old man who was hit in the ear by a line drive during a softball game. He is complaining of a severe headache, ringing in the ears, and dizziness. He has blood draining from his ear. Why would you not apply pressure to control bleeding? A. It should be collected to be re-infused at the hospital. B. It could collect within the head and increase the pressure on the brain. C. It is contaminated. D. You could fracture the skull with the pressure needed to staunch the flow of blood.

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What airway technique will you use to open his airway? a. head tilt-neck lift maneuver b. jaw thrust c. head tilt-chin lift maneuver d. none of the above

You respond to a home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. He is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. He is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. His respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his heart rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of his inadequate breathing? A. He was cyanotic. B. His shirt was unbuttoned. C. He was in a tripod position. D. His heart rate was over 100 beats/min (tachycardia).

You respond to a local motel for a young female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious but confused. She tells you that the last thing she remembers was drinking beer at a club with her friends the night before. When she awoke, she was in the bed of the motel room. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient: a) is acutely intoxicated. b) was given flunitrazepam (Rohypnol). c) is a heroin abuser. d) is abusing marijuana.

You respond to a movie theater for a 70-year-old male who is confused. His wife tells you he has type 2 diabetes but refuses to take his pills. Your assessment reveals that the patient is diaphoretic, tachycardic, and tachypneic. Initial management for this patient should include: A. administering one to two tubes of oral glucose. B. applying a nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min. C. assisting the patient with his diabetic medication. D. performing a rapid exam and obtaining vital signs.

You respond to a residence for a child who is having a seizure. Upon arrival at the scene, you enter the residence and find the mother holding her child, a 2-year-old male. The child is conscious and crying. According to the mother, the child had been running a high fever and then experienced a seizure that lasted approximately 3 minutes. You should: A. cover the child with wet towels and give oxygen via nasal cannula. B. transport the child to the hospital and reassure the mother en route. C. advise the mother to take her child to the doctor the following day. D. call medical control and request permission to give the child aspirin.

You respond to an 18-year-old high school football player who was hit in the right flank with a helmet several hours ago. He is complaining of pain in the area. He is alert and oriented. His airway is open and his respirations are within normal limits. His pulse is regular. He has a radial pulse. He tells you that he is noticing blood in his urine. Based on this information, the patient is likely to have an injury to the: A. liver B. kidney C. gallbladder D. appendix

You should consider bleeding to be serious if all of the following conditions are present except A. Blood loss is rapid B. There is no mechanism of injury C. The patient has a poor general appearance D. Assessment reveals signs and symptoms of shock

Your assessment of a 23-year-old female reveals a core body temperature of 93.4°F (34°C). She is conscious, answers your questions appropriately, is shivering, and complains of nausea. Her skin is cold and pale, her muscles appear rigid, and her respirations are rapid. In addition to monitoring her ABCs, administering oxygen, and turning up the heat in the back of the ambulance, you should: A. apply the AED in case she develops cardiopulmonary arrest, cover her with layers of blankets, and transport carefully. B. place heat packs to her groin, axillae, and behind her neck; cover her with warm blankets; and avoid rough handling. C. cover her with warm blankets and let her move about on the stretcher in order to generate body heat and increase her temperature. D. sit her up and give her small sips of warm water to drink, place heat packs to her axillae and groin, and cover her with blankets.

Your patient is having respiratory difficulty and is not responding to your treatment. What is the best method of transport? A. Without lights and sirens, to the closest hospital B. With lights and sirens, to the closest hospital C. Air transport, to a special facility located 30 miles away D. The patient does not need to be transported.

Your primary concern when dealing with an unresponsive patient with an open abdominal injury is: A. covering the wound with a moist dressing B. maintaining the airway C. controlling the bleeding D. monitoring vital signs

_____ is an acute, potentially fatal viral infection of the central nervous system that affects all warm-blooded animals. A. Streptococcus B. Rabies C. Tuberculosis D.Emboli

________ occur(s) when there is excess pressure within the portal system and surround vessel; may lead to life-threatening bleeding. A. esophageal rupture B. esophageal varices C. esophageal ulcers D. esophageal reflux

_________ is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and digestive system. A. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B. Cystic fibrosis C. Pertussis D. Bronchiolitis

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. inspect the helmet for cracks. C. stabilize her entire spine. D. leave her bicycle helmet on.

A 20-year-old male was accidentally shot in the right upper abdominal quadrant with an arrow during an archery contest. Prior to your arrival, the patient removed the arrow. Your assessment reveals that he is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. The entrance wound is bleeding minimally and appears to be superficial. You should: A. transport only if signs of shock begin to develop. B. carefully probe the wound to determine its depth. C. assume that the arrow injured an internal organ. D. clean the wound and apply a dry, sterile dressing.

A 23-year-old male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How should you manage his airway? A. Suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed. B. Insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations. C. Alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation. D. Provide continuous ventilations with a bag-mask device to minimize hypoxia.

A 27-year-old male was stabbed in the chest during a disagreement at a poker game. As you approach him, you see that a knife is impaled in his chest. Before you make physical contact with the patient, it is MOST important to: A. form a general impression. B. call for an ALS ambulance. C. follow standard precautions. D. ask bystanders what happened.

A 29-year-old female presents with confusion and disorientation. Her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. She is markedly diaphoretic and has an oxygen saturation of 89%. You should: A. transport immediately. B. administer oral glucose. C. provide ventilatory support. D. treat her for hyperglycemia.

A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for: A. alterations in his mental status. B. damage to internal structures. C. potential airway compromise. D. injury to the cervical spine.

A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should: A. apply direct pressure to the wound. B. place the patient on 100% oxygen. C. follow appropriate standard precautions. D. perform a rapid head-to-toe assessment.

A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused, has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead, and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: A. perform a neurologic exam. B. palpate his radial pulses. C. administer high-flow oxygen. D. apply ice to the hematoma.

A 4 year old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab C. transport her to the emergency department D. use tweezers to try to remove the object

A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: A. use tweezers to try to remove the object. B. remove the peanut with a cotton-tipped swab. C. transport her to the emergency department. D. thoroughly flush her ear with sterile saline.

A 40-year-old male was in his woodworking shop when he felt a sudden, sharp pain in his left eye. Your assessment reveals a small splinter of wood embedded in his cornea. You should: A. scrape the splinter away with moist, sterile gauze. B. cover his right eye and flush the left eye with saline. C. cover both of his eyes and transport to the hospital. D. remove the object with a cotton-tipped applicator.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do? A. Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD. B. Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate. C. Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR. D. Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.

A 5-year-old female pulled a pot of boiling water from the stove. She has superficial and partial-thickness burns to her head and anterior trunk. What percentage of her body surface area has been burned? A. 18% B. 27% C. 30% D. 36%

A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: A. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. B. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. C. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing.

A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: A. requesting a paramedic ambulance. B. careful monitoring her vital signs. C. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. D. quickly immobilizing her spinal column.

A 66-year-old male presents with bizarre behavior. His daughter states that he did not seem to recognize her and was very rude to her. The patient is conscious, and has a patent airway and adequate breathing. You should: A. advise the patient that his behavior is unacceptable. B. conclude that the patient has Alzheimer's disease. C. ask the daughter how her father normally behaves. D. carefully restrain the patient and transport at once.

A 76-year-old male experienced sudden pain to his left thigh when he was standing in line at the grocery store. Your assessment reveals ecchymosis and deformity to the distal aspect of his left femur, just above the knee. Distal circulation and sensory and motor functions are intact. The MOST appropriate method of splinting this injury involves: A. applying a traction splint to realign the deformity. B. applying and fully inflating the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG). C. applying padded board splints to both sides of the leg. D. binding the legs together and elevating them 6″ to 8″.

A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. B. carefully slide a long backboard underneath her, keep her in a supine position, and apply a splint to her leg. C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. D. bind both of her legs together with triangular bandages and carefully secure her onto the ambulance stretcher.

A football player was struck by another player in the right flank area just below the posterior rib cage. He complains of severe pain and point tenderness to the area. Your assessment reveals that there is a small amount of blood in his underwear. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. external genitalia injury. B. a lacerated liver or spleen. C. blunt injury to the kidney. D. a ruptured urinary bladder.

A fractured femur can result in the loss of ______ or more of blood into the soft tissues of the thigh. A. 250 mL B. 500 mL C. 1 L D. 2 L

A frostbitten foot can be identified by the presence of: A. gross deformity. B. soft, smooth skin. C. mottling and blisters. D. blanching of the skin.

A laceration: A. is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue. B. is a sharp, smooth cut that is made by a surgical scalpel. C. is a jagged cut caused by a sharp object or blunt force trauma. D. rarely penetrates through the subcutaneous tissue to the muscle.

A low ETCO2 reading, as measured by capnography, would MOST likely be observed if: A. an endotracheal (ET) tube is correctly placed in the trachea. B. the cells produce large amounts of CO2 and return it to the lungs. C. there is an absence or decrease in the level of CO2 in the lungs. D. a patient in cardiac arrest is receiving high-quality CPR.

A man finds his 59-year-old wife unconscious on the couch. He states that she takes medications for type 2 diabetes. He further tells you that his wife has been ill recently and has not eaten for the past 24 hours. Your assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive. You should: A. quickly assess for the presence of a medical identification tag. B. administer 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. open and maintain her airway and assess breathing. D. administer oral glucose between her cheek and gum.

A motorcyclist crashed his bike and has closed deformities to both of his midshaft femurs. He is conscious, but restless; his skin is cool and clammy; and his radial pulses are rapid and weak. The MOST appropriate splinting technique for this patient involves: A. applying rigid board splints. B. applying two traction splints. C. securing him to a long backboard. D. immobilizing his femurs with air splints.

A palpable pulse is created by: A. the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart. B. electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction. C. pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction. D. the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.

A patient suffering from a heart attack should be transported to: A. a local clinic, 5 minutes away. B. a community hospital with no catheterization lab, 10 minutes away. C. a university hospital with a catheterization lab, 15 minutes away. D. a trauma center, 20 minutes away.

A patient who is experiencing aphasia is: A. not able to swallow without choking. B. experiencing a right hemispheric stroke. C. unable to produce or understand speech. D. usually conscious but has slurred speech.

A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is: A. cyanotic and dry. B. mottled and cool. C. pale and moist. D. flushed and red.

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: A. edematous. B. flushed. C. diaphoretic. D. plethoric.

A prolonged asthma attack that is unrelieved by epinephrine may progress into a condition known as: A. pleural effusion. B. status epilepticus. C. status asthmaticus. D. reactive airway disease.

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: A. one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow. B. the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow. C. two thirds the length from the armpit to the crease in the elbow. D. one half the length between the armpit to the crease in the elbow.

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: A. strong. B. weak. C. regular. D. irregular.

A seizure patient is having what kind of medical emergency? A. Respiratory B. Cardiovascular C. Neurologic D. Immunologic

A small compact car was involved in a rollover crash. As you are approaching the vehicle, you note that the roof is significantly collapsed. The patient, a 29-year-old male, is complaining of severe pain in his neck and to the top of his head as well as numbness and tingling in his extremities. Witnesses who removed the patient from the vehicle state that he was wearing his seatbelt. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for this patient's condition? A. Impact of the head against the steering wheel B. Whiplash injury to the neck during the rollover C. Compression of the head against the roof D. Lateral bending of the neck during the crash

A spinal cord injury at the level of C7 would MOST likely result in: A. immediate cardiac arrest. B. paralysis of the diaphragm. C. paralysis of the intercostal muscles. D. paralysis of all the respiratory muscles

A subluxation occurs when: A. ligaments are partially severed. B. a fracture and a dislocation exist. C. a joint is incompletely dislocated. D. a bone develops a hairline fracture.

A sucking chest wound should be treated with: A. a standard dressing B. taping down the chest C. an occlusive dressing D. a sandbag over the wound

A sudden onset of difficulty breathing, sharp chest pain, and cyanosis that persists despite supplemental oxygen is MOST consistent with: A. severe pneumonia. B. myocardial infarction. C. a pulmonary embolism. D. a spontaneous pneumothorax.

Activated charcoal administration is contraindicated in patients who have ingested: a) acetaminophen (Tylenol). b) steroid drugs. c) acids or alkalis. d) ibuprofen.

Activated charcoal is given to patients who have ingested certain substances because it: a) decreases absorption of poisons into the lungs. b) is a direct antidote for many toxic substances. c) binds to the substance and prevents absorption. d) induces vomiting and empties the stomach.

Air bags, in conjunction with properly worn seatbelts, are MOST beneficial when a person is involved in a: A. rollover crash. B. lateral collision. C. head-on crash. D. rear-end collision.

All of the following are examples of a functional disorder EXCEPT: A. anxiety. B. depression. C. organic brain syndrome. D. schizophrenia.

All of the following male genitalia lie outside the pelvis cavity EXCEPT the: A. urethra B. penis C. seminal vesicles D. testes

All of the following snakes are pit vipers, EXCEPT for the: A. copperhead. B. rattlesnake. C. coral snake. D. cottonmouth.

Although substantial ligament damage always occurs with a knee dislocation, the more urgent injury is to the _______ artery, which is often lacerated or compressed by the displaced tibia. A. tibial B. femoral C. popliteal D. dorsalis pedis

An acute bacterial infection that results in swelling of the flap that covers the larynx during swallowing is called: A. croup. B. laryngitis. C. epiglottitis. D. diphtheria.

An adult at rest should have a respiratory rate that ranges between: A. 8 and 15 breaths/min. B. 10 and 18 breaths/min. C. 12 and 20 breaths/min. D. 16 and 24 breaths/min.

An altered mental status may arise from: A. an oxygen saturation of 98%. B. moderate temperatures. C. an inadequate blood flow to the brain. D. adequate glucose levels in the blood.

An open neck injury may result in ______ if enough air is sucked into a blood vessel. A. hypovolemic shock B. trachael deviation C. air embolism D. subcutaneous emphysema

As red blood cells begin to clump together to form a clot, __________ reinforces the clumped red blood cells. A. fibrin B. plasma C. fibrinogen D. plasminogen

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: A. look in the ears for gross bleeding. B. assess the rest of the body for bleeding. C. maintain stabilization of the head. D. prepare the immobilization equipment.

Assessing a person's neurovascular status following a musculoskeletal injury includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. assessing motor function. B. assessing sensory function. C. evaluating proximal pulses. D. determining capillary refill.

Asthma produces a characteristic ___________ as a patients attempt to exhale through partially obstructed air passages. A. rhonchi B. stridor C. wheezing D. rattle

Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: A. pressure dressings and chemical ice packs. B. digital pressure to an adjacent pulse point. C. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. D. ice packs and elevation of the patient's head.

Blood contains all of the following except A. White blood cells B. Plasma C. Cerebrospinal fluid D. Platelets

Blood enters the right atrium from the A. Coronary arteries B. Lungs C. Vena cava D. Coronary veins

Blood leaves each chamber of a normal heart through a A. Vein B. Artery C. One way valve D. Capillary

Bowel inflammation, diverticulitis, and hemorrhoids are common causes of bleeding in the: A. upper GI tract B. middle GI tract C. lower GI tract D. all of the above

Breath-holding syncope is caused by a decreased stimulus to breathe and occurs when: A. a swimmer breathes shallowly before entering the water. B. a diver holds his or her breath during a staged ascent. C. a swimmer hyperventilates prior to entering the water. D. a diver holds his or her breath for a long period of time.

CPAP is indicated for patients who: A. have signs of pneumonia but are breathing adequately. B. are unresponsive and have signs of inadequate ventilation. C. have pulmonary edema and can follow verbal commands. D. are hypotensive and have a marked reduction in tidal volume.

Cardiogenic shock may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. heart attack. B. increased afterload. C. increased preload. D. poor contractility.

Chronic renal failure is a condition that: A. can be reversed with prompt treatment. B. occurs from conditions such as dehydration. C. is often caused by hypertension or diabetes. D. causes dehydration from excessive urination.

Closed soft-tissue injuries are characterized by all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain at the site of the injury B. swelling beneath the skin C. damage of the protective layer of skin D. a history of blunt trauma

Common names for activated charcoal include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) LiquiChar. b) Actidose. c) Fructose. d) InstaChar.

Common signs and symptoms of tension pneumothorax include all of the following EXCEPT: A. increasing respiratory distress B. distended neck veins C. high blood pressure D. tracheal deviation away from the injured site

Compression injuries to the abdomen that occur during a motor vehicle crash are typically the result of: A. air bag deployment. B. failure to wear seatbelts. C. a poorly placed lap belt. D. rapid vehicle deceleration.

Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: A. flexing. B. referring. C. guarding. D. withdrawing.

Coordination of balance and body movement is controlled by the: A. medulla. B. cerebrum. C. cerebellum. D. brain stem.

Crepitus and false motion are: A. indicators of a severe sprain. B. only seen with open fractures. C. positive indicators of a fracture. D. most common with dislocations.

DTs is a syndrome associated with withdrawal from: a) opioids. b) sedatives. c) alcohol. d) cocaine.

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: A. restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance. B. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen. C. explain to her that you will assist her ventilations. D. ventilate her at the rate at which she is breathing.

During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions: A. immediately after completion of your primary assessment. B. any time before you load the patient into the ambulance. C. upon exiting the ambulance, but before actual patient contact. D. after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.

During the normal wound healing process, bleeding may occur from even a minor injury because: A. there is a substantial decrease in the number of platelets in and around the wound, which increases the risk of bleeding. B. histamines released by the immune system constrict the blood vessels, which increases the pressure within them. C. new capillaries that stem from intact capillaries are delicate and take time to become as stable as the preexisting capillaries. D. bacteria and other microorganisms invade the wound site and damage the capillaries, which makes them more prone to bleeding.

During your assessment of a 19-year-old male, you are told that he is being treated with factor VIII. This indicates that: A. he has a thrombosis. B. he has hemophilia B. C. he has hemophilia A. D. his blood clots too quickly.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: A. a ruptured spleen. B. a severe liver laceration. C. intra-abdominal bleeding. D. rupture of a hollow organ.

During your assessment of a patient with a closed chest injury, you should NOT intentionally assess for: A. bruising. B. deformities. C. crepitus. D. breath sounds.

During your assessment of a patient with blunt chest trauma, you note paradoxical movement of the left chest wall. As your partner is administering oxygen to the patient, you should: A. request a paramedic to decompress the chest. B. make note of it and continue your assessment. C. stabilize the chest wall with a bulky dressing. D. reassess the adequacy of the patient's breathing.

During your treatment of a woman in cardiac arrest, you apply the AED, analyze her cardiac rhythm, and receive a "no shock advised" message. This indicates that: A. the AED has detected asystole. B. the AED detected patient motion. C. she is not in ventricular fibrillation. D. she has a pulse and does not need CPR.

Eating certain foods, such as shellfish or nuts, may result in a relatively __________ reaction that still can be quite severe. A. mild B. fast C. slow D. rapid

Energy can be: A. created. B. destroyed. C. converted. D. all of the above.

External bleeding from an extremity can usually be controlled by a combination of: A. elevation and pressure point control. B. elevation and chemical ice packs. C. direct pressure and elevation. D. direct pressure and a tourniquet.

General treatment for a woman with vaginal bleeding and shock following sexual assault includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A. refraining from placing any dressings into the vagina. B. treating external lacerations with moist, sterile compresses. C. carefully removing any foreign bodies from the vagina. D. supplemental oxygen and lower extremity elevation.

Generic names for popular inhaled medications include: A. ventolin. B. flovent. C. albuterol. D. atrovent.

Hypotension in a child with blunt or penetrating trauma is particularly significant because: A. it typically develops earlier in children than it does in adults. B. the most likely cause of the hypotension is respiratory failure. C. it often indicates the loss of half of his or her blood volume. D. most children with hypotension die in the prehospital setting.

If carbon dioxide levels drops too low, the person automatically breathes: A. normally. B. rapidly and deeply. C. slower and less deeply. D. fast and shallow.

If direct pressure with a sterile dressing fails to immediately stop severe bleeding from an extremity, you should apply: A. additional sterile dressings. B. a splint and elevate the extremity. C. a tourniquet proximal to the injury. D. digital pressure to a proximal artery.

If the interruption of daily routine tends to recur on a regular basis, the behavior is also considered a _____ crisis. A. mental health B. functional C. behavioral D. psychogenic

If the near drowning victim has evidence of upper airway obstruction by foreign matter, which of the following would not be considered a method for clearing it? A. remove the obstruction manually B. apply suction C. place the patient in the recovery position to allow drainage D. use abdominal thrusts

If your patient is alone and unresponsive, in order to obtain some form of medical history, you should: A. ask people in the neighborhood. B. go through the patient's wallet. C. search the scene for medication containers or medical devices. D. search through the patient's bedroom drawers for hidden illegal drugs.

In a healthy individual, the brain stem stimulates breathing on the basis of: A. increased oxygen levels. B. decreased oxygen levels. C. increased carbon dioxide levels. D. decreased carbon dioxide levels.

In anticipation of receiving a fertilized ovum, the lining of the uterine wall: A. sheds and is expelled externally. B. diverts blood flow to the vagina. C. becomes engorged with blood. D. thins and begins to separate.

In which of the following situations should the EMT splint an injured limb in the position of deformity? A. when distal circulation and neurological functions are absent B. if transport time to the hospital is greater than 20 to 30 minutes C. if resistance is encountered or the patient experiences severe pain D. if a traction splint will be used to immobilize the injured extremity

In which of the following situations would it be MOST appropriate to utilize an air medical transportation service? A. 43-year-old man experiencing a heart attack, and the closest appropriate hospital is 15 minutes away B. 29-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant, has light vaginal bleeding, and stable vital signs C. 61-year-old man with signs and symptoms of a stroke and your ground transport time is 50 minutes D. 50-year-old conscious woman with severe nausea and vomiting, fever, and chills of 3 days' duration

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: A. brain. B. kidneys. C. liver. D. pancreas.

Inflammation and swelling of the pharynx, larynx, and trachea resulting in a "seal bark" is typically caused by: A. emphysema. B. chronic bronchitis. C. croup. D. epiglottis.

Inhalation occurs when the: A. diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. B. diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure. C. diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure. D. diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure.

Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because: A. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet. B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown. C. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body. D. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.

Interruption of cerebral blood flow may result from all of the following, EXCEPT: A. a thrombus. B. an embolism. C. cerebral vasodilation. D. an acute arterial rupture.

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: A. the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases in the lungs. B. a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels. C. blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state. D. any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

Law enforcement has summoned you to a nightclub, where a 22-year-old female was found unconscious in an adjacent alley. Your primary assessment reveals that her respirations are rapid and shallow and her pulse is rapid and weak. She is wearing a medical alert bracelet that identifies her as an epileptic. There is an empty bottle of vodka next to the patient. You should: A. place a bite block in her mouth in case she has a seizure and transport at once. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, place her on her left side, and transport. C. assist ventilations, perform a rapid exam, and prepare for immediate transport. D. apply oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and transport her for a blood-alcohol test.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance for a 30-year-old man who they pulled over for erratic driving. The patient became acutely violent while he was being questioned, which required one of the officers to subdue him with a Taser. When you arrive and assess the patient, you find that he is very agitated and is experiencing apparent hallucinations. His skin is flushed and diaphoretic. You should: A. quickly rule out any life-threatening conditions and then perform a detailed secondary assessment as he is being restrained. B. recognize that he is experiencing a complex psychiatric crisis, quickly load him into the ambulance, and transport without delay. C. limit physical contact with the patient as much as possible and avoid interrupting him if he is attempting to communicate with you. D. suspect that he is acutely hypoglycemic, consider giving him one tube of oral glucose, and transport with lights and siren.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should: A. advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence. B. perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries. C. provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma. D. ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative.

More extensive closed injuries may involve significant swelling and bleeding beneath the skin, which could lead to: A. compartment syndrome B. contamination C. hypovolemic shock D. hemothorax

Most poisonings occur via the __________ route. a) injection b) absorption c) ingestion d) inhalation

Noncardiovascular causes of shock include respiratory insufficiency and: A. sepsis. B. metabolism. C. anaphylaxis. D. hypovolemia.

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _______ breaths per minute in children and _______ breaths per minute in infants. A. 20, 30 B. 18, 28 C. 30, 50 D. 24, 45

Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: A. the patient adamantly denies neck pain. B. lateral immobilization has been applied. C. it causes a problem managing the ABCs. D. sensory and motor functions remain intact.

Open abdominal injuries are also known as: A. blunt injuries B. eviscerations C. penetrating injuries D. peritoneal injuries

Pain that initially starts in the umbilical area and then later moves to the lower right quadrant is typically associated with: A. gastroenteritis B. pancreaitis C. appendicitis D. diverticulitis

Paradoxical motion of the chest refers to: A. rib fractures that move with the chest wall during breathing B. one segment of the chest wall moving opposite the remainder of the chest C. unequal expansion of the chest wall D. one segment of the chest wall moving out on inspiration and in on exhalation

Patients with full-thickness (third-degree) burns generally do not complain of pain because: A. blister formation protects the burn. B. he or she is generally not conscious. C. the nerve endings have been destroyed. D. subcutaneous vessels are usually clotted.

Regulation of blood flow is determined by: A. oxygen intake. B. systolic pressure. C. cellular need. D. diastolic pressure.

Removal of a tick should be accomplished by: A. suffocating it with gasoline B. burning it with a lighted match to cause it to release its grip C. using fine tweezers to pull it straight out of the skin D. suffocating it with Vasoline

Shivering in the presence of hypothermia indicates that the: A. musculoskeletal system is damaged. B. nerve endings are damaged, causing loss of muscle control. C. body is trying to generate more heat through muscular activity. D. thermoregulatory system has failed and body temperature is falling.

Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: A. transport her in a sitting position. B. wait 5 minutes and reassess her blood pressure. C. place her supine and elevate her legs. D. assist ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Significant blood loss demands your immediate attention as soon as the _______ has been managed A. Fracture B. Extraction C. Airway D. None of the above

Signs of a cardiac tamponade include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. muffled heart tones. B. a weak, rapid pulse. C. collapsed jugular veins. D. narrowing pulse pressure.

The MOST important thing to consider in patients with multiple injuries in various stages of healing is that: A) The patient is rather clumsy B) The patient could have an underlying cancer C) The patient might be a victim of abuse D) The patient has a high tolerance for pain

The MOST serious complication associated with using a nasopharyngeal airway in a patient with trauma to the head or face is: A. fracturing the septum. B. damaging the turbinates. C. penetrating the cranium. D. causing severe bleeding.

The best indicator of brain function is the patient's: A) pulse rate B) pupillary response C) mental status D) respiratory rate & depth

The body's functions that occur without conscious effort are regulated by the _________ nervous system. A. sensory B. somatic C. autonomic D. voluntary

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull known as the: A. eustachian tube B. spinous process C. foramen magnum D. vertebral foramina

The energy of a moving object is called: A. potential energy. B. thermal energy. C. kinetic energy. D. work.

The four items used to assess the orientation of a patient's mental status include all of the following EXCEPT: A) person B) place C) history D) events

The kidneys help to regulate blood pressure by: A. retaining key electrolytes, such as potassium. B. eliminating toxic waste products from the body. C. removing sodium, and thus water, from the body. D. accommodating a large amount of blood volume.

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a typical seizure: A. progressively worsens over a period of a few hours. B. is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia. C. is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes. D. typically does not improve, even after several minutes.

The middle ear is connected to the nasal cavity by the: A. frontal sinus B. zygomatic process C. eustachian tube D. superior trachea

The most common life-threatening event in a rollover is ____ or partial ejection of the passenger from the vehicle. A. vehicle intrusion B. centrifugal force C. ejection D. spinal cord injury

The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as: A. conversion. B. congruent. C. cavitation. D. capitation.

The presence of subcutaneous emphysema following trauma to the face and throat is MOST suggestive of: A. esophageal injury. B. cervical spine fracture. C. crushing tracheal injury. D. carotid artery laceration.

The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: A. is always accompanied by hypotension. B. indicates a state of decompensated shock. C. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. D. is most commonly caused by severe pain.

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: A. lactic acid. B. pyruvic acid. C. carbon dioxide. D. adenosine triphosphate.

The process of blood clotting and plugging the hole is called A. Conglomeration B. Configuration C. Coagulation D. Coalition

The proper dose of a medication depends on all of the following EXCEPT: A) the patient's age B) the patient's size C) generic substitutions D) the desired action

The proper technique for sizing an oropharyngeal airway before insertion is to measure the device from: a. the tip of the nose to the earlobe b. the bridge of the nose to the tip of the chin c. the corner of the mouth to the earlobe d. the center of the jaw to the earlobe

The purpose of the eustachian tube is to: A. move in response to sound waves. B. transmit impulses from the brain to the ear. C. equalize pressure in the middle ear when external pressure changes. D. house fluid within the inner chamber of the ear and support balance.

The rate of breathing is typically increased when: A. oxygen levels increase. B. oxygen levels decrease. C. carbon dioxide levels increase. D. carbon dioxide levels decrease.

The scene size-up consists of all of the following EXCEPT: A) Determining the mechanism of injury B) Requesting additional assistance C) Determining level of responsiveness D) PPE/standard precautions

The signs and symptoms of insulin shock are the result of: A. increased blood glucose levels. B. fat metabolism within the cells. C. decreased blood glucose levels. D. prolonged and severe dehydration.

The small, rounded, fleshy bulge immediately anterior to the ear canal is called the: A. incus. B. pinna. C. tragus. D. stapes.

The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: A. the study of drugs that are produced illegally. B. the study of how medications affect the brain. C. the study of drugs and their actions on the body. D. the study of drug excretion from the human body.

The term _______ means constantly adapting to changing conditions A. Perfusion B. Conduction C. Dynamic D. Autonomic

The three collisions in a frontal impact include all of the following EXCEPT: A. car striking object. B. passenger striking vehicle. C. air bag striking passenger. D. internal organs striking solid structures of the body.

The transfer of heat to circulating air, such as when cool air moves across the body's surface, is called: A. radiation. B. conduction. C. convection. D. evaporation.

The two MOST efficient ways for the body to eliminate excess heat are: A. respiration and bradycardia. B. perspiration and tachycardia. C. sweating and dilation of skin blood vessels. D. hyperventilation and tachycardia.

The white portion of the eye is called the: A. iris. B. retina. C. sclera. D. cornea.

There is often a significant amount of blood loss, as much as _______ mL, after a fracture of the shaft of the femur. A. 100 to 250 B. 250 to 500 C. 500 to 1,000 D. 100 to 1,500

Three ambulances respond to a golf course where a group of six golfers were struck by lighting. Two of the golfers are conscious and alert with superficial skin burns (Group 1). The next two golfers have minor fractures and appear confused (Group 2). The last two golfers are in cardiac arrest (Group 3). According to reverse triage, which group of golfers should be treated FIRST? A. Group 1 B. Group 2 C. Group 3 D. Groups 1 and 2; Group 3 should be tagged as deceased

Traction splints are used primarily to immobilize and secure fractures of the: A. hip. B. pelvis. C. femur. D. humerus.

Traumatic asphyxia: A. is bruising of the lung B. occurs when three or more adjacent ribs fractured in two or more places C. is a sudden, severe compression of the chest D. results from the pericardial sac filling with blood

Treatment for an abdominal evisceration includes: A. pushing the exposed organs back into the abdominal cavity B. covering the organs with dry dressings C. flexing the knees and legs to relieve pressure on the abdomen D. applying moist, adherent dressings

Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings. B. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls. C. falls and motor vehicle collisions. D. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.

Vaccinations are NOT available for which form of hepatitis? A. Hepatitis A B. Hepatitis B C. Hepatitis C D. None of the above

Very young children tend to breathe predominantly with their diaphragm because: A. their chest wall and ribs are very pliable. B. they require less tidal volume per breath. C. their intercostal muscles are not fully developed. D. there is no nerve innervation of the intercostal muscles.

What is the best method of inactivating a jellyfish sting? A. urinating on it B. flushing the site with cold water C. applying vinegar D. applying an ice pack

What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? A. central B. sensory C. somatic D. autonomic

When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant: A. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard. B. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle. C. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force. D. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.

When a patient has a chemical burn to the eye, you should irrigate the eye for at least 5 minutes, however, if the burn was caused by an alkali or strong acid, you should irrigate for: A. 10 minutes B. 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 25 minutes

When a person goes __________ minutes without oxygen, brain damage is very likely. a. 0-4 b. 4-6 c. 6-10 d. more than 10

When afterload increases: A. the volume of venous blood that returns to the right atrium increases. B. the amount of resistance that the ventricle must beat against decreases. C. it becomes harder for the ventricle to push blood through the blood vessels. D. the blood pressure falls because of significant dilation of the blood vessels.

When assessing a patient with a closed soft-tissue injury, it is MOST important to: A. manipulate the injury site for signs of a fracture. B. assess circulation distal to the site of the injury. C. remain alert for more severe underlying injuries. D. recognize that the integrity of the skin is broken.

When assessing arm movement of a patient with a suspected stroke, you should: A. observe for approximately 5 minutes. B. expect to see one arm slowly drift down to the patient's side. C. ask the patient to close his or her eyes during the assessment. D. ask the patient to hold his or her arms up with the palms down.

When caring for a known alcoholic patient with severe trauma to the chest and abdomen, you should be concerned that: a) signs and symptoms of shock may be masked by the stimulant effects produced by alcohol. b) delirium tremens (DTs) are commonly induced by physical trauma and can lead to life-threatening seizures. c) internal bleeding may be profuse because prolonged alcohol use may impair the blood's ability to clot. d) long bone fractures are likely because chronic alcohol consumption weakens the structure of the bones.

When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT must: A. closely assess the patient's airway. B. consider the mechanism of injury. C. wear gloves and facial protection. D. manually stabilize the patient's head.

When determining the initial general impression, you should note all of the following EXCEPT: A) the patient's age B) the level of distress C) the events leading up to the incident D) the patient's sex

When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first: A. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle. B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle. C. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian. D. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage.

When flushing an eye with saline to remove a foreign object, it is important to remember to: A. flush from the outside of the eye in toward the nose B. flush from the top of the eye in toward the nose C. flush from the nose side of the eye toward the outside D. flush only along the bottom of the eye

When obtaining a blood pressure by palpation in the arm, you should place your fingertips on the ____ artery. A) carotid B) brachial C) radial D) posterior tibial

When restraining a patient without an appropriate order, legal actions may involve charges of: A. abandonment. B. negligence. C. battery. D. breach of duty.

When taking a history on a patient experiencing a gynecologic emergency, you should consider asking all of the following EXCEPT: A. Are you taking birth control? B. When was your last menstrual period? C. How many sexual partners have you has in the past? D. Do you have any history of sexually transmitted diseases?

When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of more than: A. 100 mm Hg. B. 200 mm Hg. C. 300 mm Hg. D. 400 mm Hg.

When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated: A. hormones are released that prepare the body for stress. B. heart rate and blood pressure increase. C. the heart rate decreases and the blood vessels dilate D. blood is shunted away from the digestive organs.

When treating a patient who experienced a pulmonary blast injury, you should: A. suspect an accompanying cardiac tamponade. B. use a demand valve to ventilate the patient. C. avoid giving oxygen under positive pressure. D. administer large amounts of intravenous fluid.

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: A. angina usually occurs after an AMI. B. most patients with chest pain are experiencing an AMI. C. the cause of the pain cannot be diagnosed in the field. D. angina and AMI present identically.

When using an air splint to control bleeding in the fractured extremity you should reassess the A. Airway B. Breathing C. Circulation in the injured extremity D. Fracture site

When using an auto-injector to give epinephrine, the primary injection site is the: A. medial part of the buttocks. B. lateral portion of the arm. C. lateral portion of the thigh. D. medial portion of the thigh.

When ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device, you should: a. look for inflation of the cheeks b. look for signs of the patient breathing on his or her own c. look for rise and fall of the chest d. listen for gurgling

When would it be MOST appropriate for a patient to take his or her prescribed nitroglycerin? A. sharp chest pain that lasts longer than 10 to 15 minutes B. an acute onset of dizziness during a period of exertion C. chest pain that does not immediately subside with rest D. difficulty breathing that awakens the patient from sleep

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be: A. thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist. B. encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes. C. given the option of being treated by a female EMT. D. asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.

Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? A. bacterial infection of the nervous system with widespread vasodilation B. widespread vasoconstriction and plasma loss due to a severe viral infection C. bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation D. viral infection of the blood vessels, vascular damage, and vasoconstriction

Which of the following MOST accurately describes what the patient will experience during the postictal state that follows a seizure? A. hyperventilation and hypersalivation B. a rapidly improving level of consciousness C. confusion and fatigue D. a gradually decreasing level of consciousness

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? A. scalp B. back C. ears D. soles of the feet

Which of the following clinical presentations is MOST consistent with PID? A. left lower quadrant pain, referred pain to the left shoulder, and fever B. upper abdominal cramping, severe headache, and heavy vaginal bleeding C. lower abdominal pain, fever, general malaise, and foul-smelling vaginal discharge D. pain around the umbilicus, low-grade fever, and generalized weakness

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock? A. pallor B. dizziness C. wheezing D. hypotension

Which of the following conditions often requires transport to a hospital with specialized capabilities that may not be available at the closest hospital? A. cardiac arrest and shock B. diabetes and migraines C. stroke and heart attack D. seizures and infection

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to increase a person's risk of hypothermia? A. hypoperfusion B. severe infection C. hyperglycemia D. spinal cord injury

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of a head injury? A. one pupil larger in size than the other pupil B. failure of the eyes to move in the same direction C. briskly constricting pupils when exposed to light D. failure of the eyes to follow movement of an object

Which of the following fractures has the greatest potential for internal blood loss and shock? A. hip B. femur C. pelvis D. humerus

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash? A. Forehead lacerations B. Extremity fractures C. Aortic rupture D. Flail chest

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a chest injury? A. Bruising of the chest wall B. Crepitus with palpation of the chest C. Clear and equal breath sounds D. Unequal expansion of the chest wall

Which of the following is NOT an assessment parameter included in the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale? A. speech B. arm drift C. memory D. facial droop

Which of the following is NOT an indication of inadequate breathing? A. Accessory muscle use B. Cyanosis C. A regular pattern of inspiration D. Unequal chest expansion

Which of the following is NOT considered a method for controlling external bleeding? A) Direct pressure B) Tourniquet C) Cold water D) Elevation

Which of the following is NOT typically linked to a psychological or behavioral crisis A. Mind-altering substances B. An underlying medical problem C. History of smoking D. Stress

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? A. superficial burn to 30% of the BSA B. full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA C. partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA D. second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient's cardiac output? A. Listen to heart sounds with a stethoscope. B. Connect the patient to an electrocardiogram. C. Assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse. D. Determine the average diastolic blood pressure.

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? A. diffuse urticaria B. severe hypotension C. upper airway swelling D. systemic vasodilation

Which of the following organs assists in the filtration of blood, serves as a blood reservoir, and produces antibodies? A. liver B. kidney C. spleen D. pancreas

Which of the following organs is at MOST risk for injury as the result of a pelvic fracture? A. pancreas B. fallopian tubes C. urinary bladder D. liver or spleen

Which of the following organs is part of the lymphatic system and plays a role in regulation of red blood cells and the immune system? A. bladder B. liver C. spleen D. pancreas

Which of the following organs lies in the retroperitoneal space? A. liver B. spleen C. pancreas D. gallbladder

Which of the following patients has experienced the MOST significant fall? A. A 5′0″ patient who fell 13′ B. A 5′9″ patient who fell 14′ C. A 4′6″ patient who fell 13′ D. A 4′8″ patient who fell 13′

Which of the following patients should you place in the recovery position? A. a 19-year-old conscious male with a closed head injury and normal respirations B. a 24-year-old unconscious female who overdosed and has a reduced tidal volume C. a 31-year-old semiconscious male with low blood sugar and adequate breathing D. a 40-year-old conscious female with a possible neck injury and regular respirations

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? A. a 21-year-old female who inhaled pollen B. a 30-year-old male who was stung by a bee C. a 45-year-old male who ingested penicillin D. a 50-year-old male who was exposed to latex

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet or spray? A. Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness. B. Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it. C. Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb. D. Wait 15 minutes and reassess the blood pressure prior to administering another dose.

Which of the following statements regarding chemical burns is FALSE? A. Most chemical burns are caused by strong acids or alkalis. B. Fumes of strong chemicals can cause burns to the respiratory tract. C. Prior to removing a dry chemical, flush the area with sterile water. D. Do not attempt to neutralize an acid burn with an alkaline chemical.

Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the assessment of patients with a language barrier? A) You should find an interpreter B) Determine whether the patient understands you C) Questioning should be lengthy & complex D) Be aware of the language diversity in your community

Which of the following statements regarding intra-abdominal bleeding is FALSE? A. Intra-abdominal bleeding often causes abdominal distention. B. Intra-abdominal bleeding is common following blunt force trauma. C. The absence of pain and tenderness rules out intra-abdominal bleeding. D. Bruising may not occur immediately following blunt abdominal trauma.

Which of the following statements regarding a basilar skull fracture is correct? A. Bloody CSF commonly leaks from the nose. B. In most cases, mastoid bruising occurs. C. The absence of raccoon eyes or Battle's sign does not rule it out. D. They are typically the result of local, low-energy trauma to the head.

Which of the following statements regarding breathing adequacy is correct? A. Patients with a grossly irregular breathing pattern usually do not require assisted ventilation. B. The single most reliable sign of breathing adequacy in the adult is his or her respiratory rate. C. Patients breathing shallowly may require assisted ventilation despite a normal respiratory rate. D. A patient with slow respirations and adequate depth will experience an increase in minute volume.

Which of the following statements regarding dialysis is correct? A. Acute hypertension is a common adverse effect of dialysis. B. Hemodialysis is effective but carries a high risk of peritonitis. C. Patients who miss a dialysis treatment often present with weakness. D. The purpose of dialysis is to help the kidneys retain salt and water.

Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? A. Most cells will function normally without glucose. B. Blood glucose levels decrease in the absence of insulin. C. The brain requires glucose as much as it requires oxygen. D. The brain requires insulin to allow glucose to enter the cells.

Which of the following statements regarding low-energy penetrating injuries is correct? A. Exit wounds are typically easy to locate with low-energy penetrating injuries. B. It is usually easy to differentiate between an entrance wound and an exit wound. C. The area of injury is usually close to the path the object took through the body. D. Internal injuries caused by low-velocity bullets are usually easy to predict.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygen is correct? A. Oxygen cylinders must always remain in an upright position. B. Oxygen is flammable and may explode if under high pressure. C. Oxygen supports the combustion process and may cause a fire. D. Oxygen is most safely administered in an enclosed environment.

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? A. In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly. B. Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases. C. In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite inadequate oxygenation. D. Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quickly ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure.

Which of the following statements regarding pulse oximetry is correct? A. The pulse oximeter is a valuable assessment tool that measures the percentage of red blood cells that contain hemoglobin molecules. B. Caution must be exercised when using the pulse oximeter on a patient with carbon monoxide poisoning because falsely low readings are common. C. Pulse oximetry measures the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen, but does not measure the actual hemoglobin content of the blood. D. Most otherwise healthy patients can maintain adequate oxygenation and good skin color with oxygen saturation readings as low as 70% to 80%. Incorrect

Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? A. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. B. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. C. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head.

Which of the following statements regarding severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) is correct? A. Although SARS can cause pneumonia and other respiratory infections, it rarely causes death, even in immuno compromised patients. B. Most cases of SARS are caused by a bacterium that is spread from person to person via direct contact with infected blood. C. SARS is caused by a virus and usually starts with flulike symptoms that deteriorate to pneumonia and respiratory failure. D. SARS is caused by a virus that occurs naturally in the bird population, although it usually does not cause illness in humans.

Which of the following statements regarding shoulder dislocations is MOST correct? A. Posterior dislocations are most common. B. They are caused by forced arm adduction. C. Most shoulder dislocations occur anteriorly. D. They involve the acromion process and humerus.

Which of the following statements regarding the acute abdomen is correct? A. The most common cause of an acute abdomen is inflammation of the gallbladder and liver. B. The parietal peritoneum is typically the first abdominal layer that becomes inflamed or irritated. C. The initial pain associated with an acute abdomen tends to be vague and poorly localized. D. An acute abdomen almost always occurs as the result of blunt trauma to solid abdominal organs.

Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? A. The adult auto-injector delivers 0.5 to 1 mg of epinephrine. B. The auto-injector delivers epinephrine via the subcutaneous route. C. The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. D. EMTs do not need physician authorization to use the auto-injector.

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-mask device technique is correct? A. Bag-mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person. B. The C-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-mask device. C. Adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-mask device. D. The bag-mask device delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth-to-mask technique.

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? A. larynx B. pharynx C. bronchus D. oropharynx

Which of the following structures is regulated by smooth muscle? A. heart B. skeleton C. blood vessels D. diaphragm

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? A. cephalic B. axillary C. saphenous D. subclavian

Which of the following would MOST likely provide clues regarding the source of a patient's allergic reaction? A. the patient's family history B. the patient's general physical appearance C. the environment in which the patient is found D. the time of season in which the exposure occurred

While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for: A. a lacerated coronary artery. B. underlying cardiac disease. C. bruising of the heart muscle. D. traumatic rupture of the aorta.

While auscultating breath sounds of a patient who was stung multiple times by a yellow jacket, you hear bilateral wheezing over all lung fields. This indicates: A. rapid swelling of the upper airway tissues. B. a significant amount of fluid in the alveoli. C. narrowing of the bronchioles in the lungs. D. enlargement of the bronchioles in the lungs.

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: A. open abdominal trauma. B. lower extremity fractures. C. neck and facial injuries. D. blunt trauma to the head.

With _____, the force of the injury occurs at a small point of contact between the skin & the object piercing the skin. A) motor vehicle collisions B) blunt trauma C) penetrating trauma D) falls

With a good mask-to-face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to ______% inspired oxygen. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100

With regard to musculoskeletal injuries, the zone of injury is defined as the: A. area of obvious deformity over the site of impact. B. exact part of the bone or joint that was disrupted. C. area of soft-tissue damage surrounding the injury. D. part of the body that sustained secondary injury.

With regard to the pediatric rule of nines, the: A. head is proportionately smaller than an adult's. B. thorax is proportionately larger than an adult's. C. legs are proportionately smaller than an adult's. D. arms are proportionately larger than an adult's.

You and your partner respond to a park where several people were reportedly struck by lightning. When you arrive, you find three patients. The first patient is lying supine on the ground; he is unresponsive and does not appear to be breathing. The second patient is ambulatory, appears confused, and is holding his arm against his chest. The third patient is sitting on the ground holding the sides of his head. After calling for backup, you should: A. immediately begin CPR on the unresponsive patient, but cease resuscitation efforts if there is no response after 5 minutes of treatment. B. focus your initial treatment efforts on the patients who are conscious because the unresponsive patient is likely in irreversible cardiac arrest. C. assess the unresponsive patient's pulse, begin CPR starting with chest compressions if he is pulseless, and attach the AED as soon as possible. D. recognize that the patients who are conscious are at high risk for developing cardiac arrest and quickly assess them for potentially life-threatening injuries.

You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. After applying a tourniquet, you write ______ and _______ on a piece of adhesive tape and apply it to the patient's forehead. A. the patient's name; tourniquet location B. your last name; unit number C. the letters "TK"; the exact time applied D. the date and time; estimated amount of blood loss

You are assessing a 30-year-old woman with a heat-related emergency. Her skin is flushed, hot, and moist; and her level of consciousness is decreased. After moving her to a cool environment, managing her airway, and administering oxygen, you should: A. give her ice water to drink. B. place her in the recovery position. C. cover her with wet sheets and fan her. D. take her temperature with an axillary probe.

You are called to a home of a known 34-year-old man with diabetes. When you arrive, you find the patient supine & unconscious on the living room floor with snoring respirations. Oral glucose: A) Is a suspension B) Should be given to this patient C) Is placed between the patient's cheek & gum D) Is not carried by EMTs

You are called to the local assisted living facility where a 94-year-old man has fallen. He is alert and oriented and denies passing out. His respirations are 18 breaths/min and regular. Pulse is 106 beats/min, regular, and strong. Distal pulses are present. He states that he was walking and heard a pop and fell to the floor. You suspect a(n): A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The second course of action involves the psychological care of the patient. You should avoid: A. making attempts to get a female EMT to examine the patient. B. examination of the vaginal canal, even if active bleeding is taking place. C. attempting to gather information to assist the police. D. granting the patient's wishes for refusing care and transport.

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to: A. assess the effectiveness of the bystanders' CPR. B. quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button. C. have the bystanders stop CPR and assess the patient. D. request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision. You see a 25-year-old woman who was restrained but is complaining of abdominal pain. She is alert and oriented. The patient's airway is open, and she is breathing normally. Her pulse is regular but weak and rapid. She has a radial pulse. You inspect the abdomen for possible bleeding. You would expect to see all of the following EXCEPT: A. pain or tenderness B. rigidity C. urticaria D. distention

You are dispatched to a motor vehicle collision. Your patient is a 42-year-old restrained woman. The air bag did deploy, and the woman has abrasions on her face. She is complaining of pain to both her chest and abdomen. Her airway is open and respirations are within normal limits. Her pulse is a little rapid but strong and regular. She has distal pulses. In assessing this patient, which of the following statements is NOT true? A. Bowel sounds can be difficult to hear in the field B. Palpation is typically performed first with light touch C. If light touch elicits pain, perform deep palpation to assess further injury D. If you find an entry wound, you should always assess for an exit wound.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex for a young male with abdominal pain. Your priority upon arriving at the scene should be to: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. notify the dispatcher of your arrival. C. assess the scene for potential hazards. D. place a paramedic ambulance on standby.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should: A. insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning. B. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once. C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation. D. place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: A. take his vital signs in 15 minutes. B. arrange for an ALS rendezvous. C. reassess his condition in 5 minutes. D. repeat your secondary assessment.

You are transporting a stable patient with a possible pneumothorax. The patient is receiving 100% oxygen and has an oxygen saturation of 95%. During your reassessment, you find that the patient is now confused, hypotensive, and profusely diaphoretic. What is MOST likely causing this patient's deterioration? A. a total collapse of the affected lung B. hidden bleeding in the thoracic cavity C. compression of the aorta and vena cava D. blood accumulation in the pleural space

You are transporting an immobilized patient with severe facial trauma. As you are preparing to give your radio report to the hospital, the patient begins vomiting large amounts of blood. You should: A. quickly suction his oropharynx B. reassess his breathing adequacy C. turn the backboard onto its side D. alert the hospital of the situation

You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? A. Administer her epinephrine, reassess her condition, and transport her promptly. B. Begin immediate transport and request an intercept with a paramedic ambulance. C. Give her oxygen, transport her to the hospital, and monitor her condition en route. D. Give her half the dose of her epinephrine in case her allergic reaction is delayed.

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen, you should: A. administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport. B. place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren. C. monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level. D. give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.

You come upon an unresponsive patient who is not injured and is breathing on her own with a normal rate and an adequate tidal volume. What would be the advantage of placing her in the recovery position? a. it's the preferred position of comfort for patients b. it helps to protect their cervical spine when injuries are hidden c. it helps to maintain a clear airway d. it's easier to load them onto the cot from this position

You have administered one dose of epinephrine to a 40-year-old female to treat an allergic reaction that she developed after being stung by a scorpion. Your reassessment reveals that she is still having difficulty breathing, has a decreasing mental status, and has a blood pressure of 80/50 mm Hg. You should: A. monitor her en route to the hospital and call medical control if she worsens. B. crush up an antihistamine tablet and place it in between her cheek and gum. C. request permission from medical control to give another dose of epinephrine. D. administer a nebulized bronchodilator to improve the status of her breathing.

You have applied a dressing and roller-gauze bandage to a laceration on the arm of a young female. During transport, she begins to complain of numbness and tingling in her hand. You should: A. remove the bandage and dressing and apply another one. B. carefully manipulate her arm until the symptoms subside. C. assess distal circulation and readjust the bandage as needed. D. remove the gauze bandage and replace it with an elastic one.

You have applied a zippered air splint to a patient's left arm. During transport, the patient complains of increased numbness and tingling in his left hand. You reassess distal circulation and note that it remains present. Your MOST appropriate action should be to: A. elevate the injured arm and reassess distal sensory function. B. inflate the splint with more air until the patient is comfortable. C. assess the amount of air in the splint and let air out as necessary. D. remove the air splint and reimmobilize with padded board splints.

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver? A. It filters toxic substances B. It creates glucose stores C. It acts as reservoir for bile D. It produces substances for blood clotting.

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. Which of the following would be an appropriate question to ask regarding the pain? A. Have you experienced any belching? B. Do you feel nauseous? C. Is the pain constant or intermittent? D. Have you been urinating more or less?

You have inserted an oral airway and are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag- mask device. She suddenly begins regurgitating large amounts of vomit. You should: A. perform a finger sweep of her mouth. B. insert a nasal airway and then suction her mouth. C. roll her onto her side and remove the oral airway. D. remove the oral airway and suction her oropharynx.

You have just completed your primary assessment of a 48-year-old man with crushing chest pain. The patient has been given 324 mg of aspirin and is receiving high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. As you begin your secondary assessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and he is now bradycardic. You should: A. continue with your secondary assessment. B. insert a nasal airway and assist his breathing. C. prepare the patient for immediate transport. D. request an ALS unit to respond to the scene.

You receive a call to a residence for a sick patient. Upon your arrival, you find the patient, a 53-year-old diabetic male, lying down on his front porch. His wife tells you that he had been mowing the lawn in the heat for the past 3 hours. The patient is confused and has hot, moist skin. His pulse is weak and thready, and his blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. perform a rapid assessment and look for signs of trauma. B. place him in a sitting position and have him drink 1 L of water. C. load him into the ambulance and begin rapid cooling interventions. D. administer one tube of oral glucose and reassess his mental status.

You respond to a 25-year-old man who has cut his arm with a circular saw. The bleeding appears to be a bright red and spurting. The patient is alert and oriented and converses with you freely. He appears to be stable at this point. What is your first step of controlling his bleeding? A. Direct pressure B. Maintain the airway C. Standard precautions D. Elevation

You respond to a college campus for a young male who is acting strangely. After law enforcement has secured the scene, you enter the patient's dorm room and find him sitting on the edge of the bed; he appears agitated. As you approach him, you note that he has dried blood around both nostrils. He is breathing adequately, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is 200/110 mm Hg. Treatment for this patient includes: a) requesting a paramedic to administer naloxone (Narcan). b) assisting his ventilations with a bag-mask device. c) attempting to calm him and giving him oxygen if tolerated. d) asking law enforcement to place handcuffs on the patient.

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. What method will you use to keep his airway open? a. nasal cannula b. jaw thrust c. oropharyngeal airway d. any of the above

You respond to a soccer game for a 16-year-old male with severe ankle pain. When you deliver him to the hospital, the physician tells you that he suspects a sprain. This means that: A. there is a disruption of the joint and the bone ends are no longer in contact. B. the patient has an incomplete fracture that passes only partway through the bone. C. stretching or tearing of the ligaments with partial or temporary dislocation of the bone ends has occurred. D. the muscles of the ankle have been severely stretched, resulting in displacement of the bones from the joint.

Your first consideration when assessing a pulse is to determine: A) How fast the rate is B) the quality C) if one is present D) if the rhythm is regular

Your patient believes he has hepatitis and is now exhibiting signs of cirrhosis of the liver. He most likely has: A. hepatitis A. B. hepatitis B. C. hepatitis C. D. hepatitis D.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min, his Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is: A. 8. B. 11. C. 9. D. 10.

Your quick primary assessment of the patient and evaluation of the _____ can help to direct lifesaving care and provide critical information to the hospital staff. A. environment B. index of suspicion C. mechanism of injury D. abdominal area

____ is an assessment tool used to evaluate the effectiveness of oxygenation: A) Capnography B) Capnometry C) Pulse oximetry D) Blood glucose

______ burns involve only the epidermis. A. Full-thickness B. Second-degree C. Superficial D. Third-degree

______ takes place in the solid organs. A. digestion B. Excretion C. Energy production D. Absorption

_______ burns may involve the subcutaneous layers, muscle, bone or internal organs. A. Superficial B. Partial-thickness C. Full-thickness D. Second-degree

_______ can be caused by an obstructing gallstone, alcohol abuse, and other diseases A. Appendicitis B. Peptic ulcer C. Pancreatitis D. Diverticulitis

_______ is responsible for the breakdown of starches into sugar A. insulin B. bile C. amylase D. bicarbonate

_______ is the most reliable indicator of an underlying fracture. A. Crepitus B. Deformity C. Point tenderness D. Absence of distal pulse

_________ regulates the amount of glucose in the bloodstream A. Bicarbonate B. Amylase C. Insulin D. Bile

A 22-year-old female was ejected from her car after striking a tree head-on. As you approach her, you note obvious closed deformities to both of her femurs. She is not moving and does not appear to be conscious. You should: A. apply manual stabilization to both of her femurs. B. administer oxygen and perform a rapid assessment. C. assess for a carotid pulse and assist her ventilations. D. stabilize her head and perform a primary assessment.

A 22-year-old male was punched in the abdomen several times. You find him lying on his left side with his knees drawn up. He is conscious and alert and complains of increased pain and nausea when he tries to straighten his legs. His blood pressure is 142/82 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. In addition to administering high-flow oxygen, you should: A. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions. B. keep him on his side but gently straighten his legs. C. place him supine but allow him to keep his knees bent. D. transport him in the position in which you found him.

A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? A. 100% oxygen administration B. full immobilization of her spine C. application of the pneumatic antishock garment (PASG) D. rapid transport to a trauma center

A 30-year-old female was robbed and assaulted by a gang as she was leaving a nightclub. She has massive facial trauma and slow, gurgling respirations. As your partner manually stabilizes her head, you should: A. begin immediate ventilatory assistance. B. visualize her mouth for obvious wounds. C. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. D. suction her oropharynx for 15 seconds.

A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? A. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. B. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. C. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. D. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing.

A 37-year-old male has an apparent foreign body airway obstruction. He is conscious and alert and is coughing forcefully. His skin is pink, warm, and moist. The MOST appropriate treatment for this patient includes: A. a series of back blows and chest thrusts. B. finger sweeps to remove the obstruction. C. performing a series of abdominal thrusts. D. encouraging him to cough and transporting.

A 42-year-old male is found unresponsive on his couch by a neighbor. During your assessment, you find no signs of trauma and the patient's blood glucose level is 75 mg/dL. His blood pressure is 168/98 mm Hg, his heart rate is 45 beats/min and bounding, and his respirations are 8 breaths/min and irregular. The patient is wearing a medical alert bracelet that states he has hemophilia. You should: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, apply oral glucose in between his cheek and gum, and transport. B. suspect that he has internal bleeding and is in shock, administer high-flow oxygen, and transport at once. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment at the scene, and transport promptly. D. suspect that he has intracranial bleeding, assist his ventilations, and transport rapidly to an appropriate hospital.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should: A. administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin. B. administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin. C. obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history. D. assess the adequacy of his respirations.

A 49-year-old male with an extensive cardiac history presents with 2 hours of crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. He is pale and diaphoretic and tells you that he feels like he is going to die. His medications include nitroglycerin, sildenafil (Viagra), and enalapril (Vasotec). His blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. obtain physician approval to give the nitroglycerin. B. place him in a supine position and transport at once. C. administer one nitroglycerin and call medical control. D. ask him if he took his Viagra within the past 24 hours.

A 50-year-old male was splashed in the eyes with radiator fluid when he was working on his car. During your assessment, he tells you that he wears soft contact lenses. You should: A. leave the contact lenses in place and flush his eyes with sterile water. B. remove the contact lenses and cover his eyes with a dry, sterile dressing. C. leave the contact lenses in place and cover both eyes with a dry dressing. D. carefully remove the contact lenses and then irrigate his eyes with saline.

A 50-year-old male was stung by a honeybee approximately 15 minutes ago. He presents with respiratory distress, facial swelling, and hypotension. After placing him on oxygen and administering his epinephrine via auto-injector, you note that his breathing has improved. Additionally, his facial swelling is resolving and his blood pressure is stable. Your next action should be to: A. reassess his breathing and blood pressure in 15 minutes. B. visualize his airway to assess for oropharyngeal swelling. C. notify medical control of the patient's response to your treatment. D. record the time and dose of the injection, and transport promptly.

A 54-year-old male accidentally shot himself in the leg while cleaning his gun. Your assessment reveals a small entrance wound to the medial aspect of his right leg. The exit wound is on the opposite side of the leg and is actively bleeding. The patient complains of numbness and tingling in his right foot. You should: A. assess distal pulses as well as sensory and motor functions. B. manually stabilize the leg above and below the site of injury. C. gently manipulate the injured leg until the numbness dissipates. D. control the bleeding and cover the wound with a sterile dressing.

A 59-year-old male presents with severe vomiting and diarrhea of 3 days' duration. He is confused and diaphoretic, and his radial pulses are absent. His blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg. After applying 100% supplemental oxygen, you should: A. perform a head-to-toe exam. B. allow him to drink plain water. C. obtain a repeat blood pressure in 5 minutes. D. prepare for immediate transport.

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition? A. rupture of the diaphragm B. exacerbation of his COPD C. acute pulmonary embolism D. spontaneous pneumothorax

A 74-year-old woman complains of heaviness in her chest, nausea, and sweating that suddenly began about an hour ago. She is conscious and alert, but anxious. Her blood pressure is 144/84 mm Hg and her heart rate is 110 beats/min. She took two of her prescribed nitroglycerin (0.4-mg tablets) before your arrival but still feels heaviness in her chest. You should: A. give her high-flow oxygen, avoid giving her any more nitroglycerin because it may cause a drop in her blood pressure, and transport. B. assist her in taking one more of her nitroglycerin tablets, reassess her blood pressure, and contact medical control for further instructions. C. transport her at once and wait at least 20 minutes before you consider assisting her with a third dose of her prescribed nitroglycerin. D. recall that geriatric patients often have slower absorption and elimination times, which may necessitate modification of the dosing of certain drugs.

A _______ results when an injury allows air to enter through a hole in the chest wall or the surface of the lung as the patient attempts to breathe, causing the lung on that side to collapse. A. tension pneumonthorax B. hemothorax C. hemopneumonthorax D. pneumonthorax

A compression injury that is severe enough to cut off blood flow below the injury is called: A. a contusion. B. a hematoma. C. a local thrombus. D. compartment syndrome.

A conscious and alert 29-year-old female with a history of asthma complains of difficulty breathing that began after her morning jog. The temperature outside is 40°F (5°C). On exam, you hear bilateral expiratory wheezing. After providing 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a recumbent position to facilitate breathing. B. contact medical control and administer an antihistamine. C. call medical control and ask how to proceed with treatment. D. determine if she has been prescribed a beta-agonist inhaler.

A decrease in the blood pressure may indicate: A. arterial constriction. B. increased blood volume. C. forceful cardiac contraction. D. a loss of vascular tone.

A dysbarism injury refers to the signs and symptoms related to changes in: A. rapid ascent. B. rapid descent. C. decompression. D. barometric pressure.

A female patient with a suspected spinal injury is breathing with a marked reduction in tidal volume. The MOST appropriate airway management for her includes: A. hyperventilating her at 30 breaths/min. B. administering oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. ventilation assistance to maintain an oxygen saturation of 90%. D. assisting ventilations at an age-appropriate rate.

A hematoma can result from: A. a soft-tissue injury B. a fracture C. any injury to a large blood vessel D. all of the above

A laceration may be: A. linear B. deep C. jagged D. all of the above

A man involved in a motorcycle crash has multiple abrasions and lacerations. Which of the following injuries has the HIGHEST treatment priority? A. Widespread abrasions to the back with pinkish ooze B. 3" laceration to the forehead with dark red, flowing blood C. Laceration to the forearm with obvious debris in the wound D. 1" laceration to the thigh with spurting, bright red blood

A patient who does not respond to your questions but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: A. conscious and alert. B. responsive to verbal stimuli. C. completely unresponsive. D. responsive to painful stimuli.

A patient who is complaining of seeing flashing lights, specks, or "floaters" in his or her field of vision has MOST likely experienced: A. conjunctivitis. B. acute hyphema. C. a blowout fracture. D. a detached retina.

A patient who is possibly experiencing a stroke is NOT eligible for thrombolytic (fibrinolytic) therapy if he or she: A. has had a prior heart attack. B. is older than 60 years of age. C. has a GCS score that is less than 8. D. has bleeding within the brain.

A patient who presents with a headache, fever, confusion, and red blotches on his or her skin should be suspected of having: A. hantavirus. B. hepatitis. C. tuberculosis. D. meningitis.

A patient who presents with profound cyanosis following a chest injury: A. should be placed in Trendelenburg's position. B. is most likely experiencing severe blood loss. C. has most likely experienced a ruptured aorta. D. requires prompt ventilation and oxygenation.

A patient who was bitten by a mosquito and presents with signs and symptoms of illness should be suspected of having: A. hantavirus. B. avian flu. C. lyme disease. D. West Nile virus.

A percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) restores blood flow to the ischemic myocardium by: A. scraping fatty deposits off of the lumen of the coronary artery. B. bypassing the coronary artery with a vessel from the chest or leg. C. placing a stent inside the coronary artery to keep it from narrowing. D. dilating the affected coronary artery with a small inflatable balloon.

A raised, swollen, well-defined area on the skin that is the result of an insect bite or sting is called: A. a pustule. B. purpura. C. urticaria. D. a wheal.

A strangulated hernia is one that: A. spontaneously reduces without any surgical intervention. B. can be pushed back into the body cavity to which it belongs. C. is reducible if surgical intervention occurs within 2 hours. D. loses its blood supply due to compression by local tissues.

A technique used to gain insight into a patient's thinking, which involves repeating in question form what the patient has said, is called: A. active listening. B. passive listening. C. intuitive listening. D. reflective listening.

A teenage boy who was involved in a bicycle accident has a puncture wound where the bicycle kickstand impaled his leg. The MOST appropriate method for treating this injury is to: A. remove the kickstand in a circular motion and apply a dry, sterile dressing. B. cut the kickstand off just above the skin, and stabilize it with sterile dressings. C. leave the kickstand attached to the bike until the physician can remove it safely. D. unbolt the kickstand from the bike frame and stabilize it with bulky dressings.

A woman has frostbite in both feet after walking several miles in a frozen field. Her feet are white, hard, and cold to the touch. Treatment at the scene should include: A. rubbing her feet gently with your own warm hands. B. trying to restore circulation by helping her to walk around. C. removing her wet clothing and rubbing her feet briskly with a warm, wet cloth. D. removing her wet clothing and covering her feet with dry, sterile dressings.

A young male has a musculoskeletal injury and is unresponsive. You will NOT be able to assess: A. false motion. B. distal pulses. C. capillary refill. D. sensory and motor functions.

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: A. obtain baseline vital signs. B. apply a nonrebreathing mask. C. perform a secondary assessment. D. assist the patient's ventilations.

A(n) _______ fracture occurs in a growth section of a child's bone, which may prematurely stop growth if not properly treated. A. greenstick B. comminuted C. pathologic D. epiphyseal

A(n) _______ fracture produces actual deformity, or distortion, of the limb by shortening, rotating, or angulating it. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.

Abnormal variations in pupil size and reaction would MOST likely be observed in a patient with: A. retinitis. B. contact lenses. C. conjunctivitis. D. a brain injury.

According to the American College of Surgeons, an adult trauma patient meets Level I criteria if he or she: A. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min. B. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed. C. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury. D. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 8 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

After administering activated charcoal to a patient, it is MOST important to: a) call medical control. b) reassess the patient's blood pressure. c) document the intervention. d) be alert for vomiting.

After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient, you should: A. assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity. B. place him or her in the recovery position. C. provide positive-pressure ventilatory assistance. D. suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.

After the first 60 minutes of experiencing a significant injury: A. most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding. B. the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly. C. the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable. D. the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.

Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, is the generic name for: A. Alupent. B. Metaprel. C. Brethine. D. Ventolin.

All of the following are conditions not related to the body's circulation that may slow capillary refill EXCEPT: A) local circulatory compromise B) hypothermia C) age D) abdominal pain

All of the following are considered types of motorcycle impacts EXCEPT: A. head-on collision. B. angular collision. C. controlled crash. D. rear collision.

All of the following are factors that increase the risk for developing MRSA, EXCEPT: A. antibiotic therapy. B. prolonged hospital stays. C. exposure to an infected patient. D. close contact with wild birds.

All of the following conditions refer to when exposed parts of the body become very cold, but not frozen, except: A. frostnip B. trench foot C. immersion foot D. frostbite

All of the following conditions would make you suspect shock, EXCEPT: A. anaphylaxis. B. heart attack. C. severe infection. D. tachycardia.

All of the following systems contain organs that make up the contents of the abominal cavity EXCEPT: A. the digestive system B. the urinary system C. the genitourinary system D. the limbic system

All of the following will help minimize the risk of gastric distention when ventilating an apneic patient with a bag-mask device, EXCEPT: A. delivering each breath over 1 second. B. ensuring the appropriate airway position. C. ventilating the patient at the appropriate rate. D. increasing the amount of delivered tidal volume.

Allergens may include: A. food. B. animal bites. C. semen. D. all of the above.

Always check neurovascular function: A. after any manipulation of the limb. B. before applying a splint. C. after applying a splint. D. all of the above.

An 8-year-old male was bitten by a stray dog. He has a large laceration to the back of his left hand, which your partner covered with a sterile dressing and bandage. In addition to transporting the child to the hospital, you should: A. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. B. ask the child's father to try to locate the dog. C. advise the child that he will need rabies shots. D. report the incident to the appropriate authorities.

An abdominal evisceration: A. is most commonly the result of blunt force trauma. B. should be covered with bulky dry, sterile dressings. C. often causes severe hypothermia because of heat loss. D. occurs when organs protrude through an open wound.

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: A. have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min. B. assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing. C. exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs. D. be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses.

Approximately _____ of the nose is composed of bone. The remainder is composed of cartilage. A. nine tenths B. two thirds C. three quarters D. one third

At 1400 in July, the weather is 105 degrees F and very humid. You have been called for a "man down" at the park. As you arrive, you recognize him as an alcoholic who has been a "frequent flyer" with your service. It looks like he had been sitting under a tree when he fell over, unconscious. How will you treat this patient? A. prevent conduction heat loss B. prevent convection heat loss C. remove the patient from the environment D. all of the above

At the onset of an acute asthma attack, patients commonly experience difficulty breathing and: A. audible stridor. B. rales and rhonchi. C. profound cyanosis. D. expiratory wheezing.

Basic causes of shock include: A. poor pump function. B. blood or fluid loss. C. blood vessel dilation. D. all of the above.

Because shootings usually end up in court, it is important to factually and completely document: A. the circumstances surrounding any gunshot injury B. the patient's condition C. the treatment given D. all of the above

Because the stinger of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: A. the stinger can easily be removed with tweezers. B. the body's immune system deactivates the venom. C. the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes. D. it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes.

Before giving activated charcoal, you should: a) have the patient drink a glass of milk. b) mix it with an equal amount of water. c) mix the suspension by stirring the bottle. d) obtain approval from medical control.

Before you begin caring for a patient with an open wound, you should: A. survey the scene B. follow standard precautions C. be sure the patient has an open airway D. all of the above

Black widow spiders may be found in: A. New Hampshire B. woodpiles C. Georgia D. all of the above

Blood stasis, changes in the vessel wall, and certain medications affect the: A. systolic blood pressure exclusively. B. white blood cell's ability to fight infection. C. ability of red blood cells to carry oxygen. D. ability of the blood to effectively clot.

Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: A. bursa. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

Burns from hot gases and respiratory injuries from inhaling toxic gas are associated with which type of blast injury? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Miscellaneous

Burns may result from: A. heat B. toxic chemicals C. electricity D. all of the above

Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: A. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. B. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. C. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. D. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.

Capillary sphincters are: A. under complete control of the voluntary portion of the nervous system. B. capable of dilating in order to increase perfusion to crucial body organs. C. responsible for constricting to compensate for decreased cell perfusion. D. circular muscular walls that regulate blood flow through the capillaries.

Characteristics of epinephrine include: A) dilating passages of the lungs B) constricting blood vessels C) increasing the heart rate and blood pressure D) all of the above

Chemicals that are responsible for the signs and symptoms of an allergic reaction to a bee sting include: A. the bee venom itself. B. adrenaline and histamines. C. leukocytes and epinephrine. D. histamines and leukotrienes.

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. supraclavicular retractions. B. gasping attempts to breathe. C. use of accessory muscles. D. shallow chest movement.

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. irregular heartbeat. B. sudden unexplained sweating. C. shortness of breath or dyspnea. D. pain exacerbated by breathing.

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: A. altered mental status and bradycardia. B. unilateral paralysis and slurred speech. C. anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea. D. tachypnea and tingling in the extremities.

Common signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. nausea. B. headache. C. tachycardia. D. hot, dry skin.

Common signs of a skull fracture include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. mastoid process bruising. B. ecchymosis around the eyes. C. noted deformity to the skull. D. superficial scalp lacerations.

Contraindications for continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) include: A. being alert and able to follow commands. B. a pulse oximetry reading of less than 90%. C. a respiratory rate greater than 26 breaths/min. D. hypotension.

Contributing factors to the development of heat illnesses include all of the following except: A. high air temperature B. vigorous exercise C. high humidity D. increased fluid intake

Death from a rollover motor vehicle crash is MOST often secondary to: A. crushing injuries. B. airbag-related trauma. C. multiple collisions to the interior of the car. D. ejection of the patient from the motor vehicle.

Defibrillator pads are placed on the patient's chest with one pad to the: A. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the left nipple. B. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right of the right nipple. C. left of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the right and below the left nipple. D. right of the upper sternum and the other pad just to the left and below the left nipple.

Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when: A. blood glucose levels rapidly fall. B. the cells rapidly metabolize glucose. C. the pancreas produces excess insulin. D. insulin is not available in the body.

Difficulty breathing and a sunken appearance of the anterior abdominal wall is MOST indicative of a ruptured: A. aorta. B. spleen. C. stomach. D. diaphragm.

Distributive shock occurs when: A. an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function. B. severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster. C. temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain. D. widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds.

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least ________ times. A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 2

During your assessment of a patient who was stabbed, you see an open wound to the left anterior chest. Your MOST immediate action should be to: A. position the patient on the affected side. B. transport immediately. C. assess the patient for a tension pneumothorax. D. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.

During your assessment of a patient who experienced a blast injury, you note that he has a depressed area to the front of his skull. This injury MOST likely occurred: A. during the secondary phase. B. during the primary phase. C. as a direct result of the pressure wave. D. during the tertiary phase.

During your assessment of a young female with nontraumatic vaginal bleeding, you note that her level of consciousness is decreased, her respirations are rapid and shallow, her skin is cool and moist, and her pulse is rapid and weak. You should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. perform a visual assessment of her vaginal area. C. assess her blood pressure and elevate her legs. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Elderly patients with abdominal problems may not exhibit the same pain response as younger patients because of: A. chronic dementia, which inhibits communication. B. interactions of the numerous medications they take. C. progressive deterioration of abdominal organ function. D. age-related deterioration of their sensory systems.

Elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when: A. the diaphragm descends. B. abdominal contents descend. C. intrathoracic pressure decreases. D. the intercostal muscles contract.

End-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) is defined as the: A. total amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs between breaths. B. amount of CO2 that a person breathes in during a single inhalation. C. maximum amount of CO2 that remains in the lungs at all times. D. maximal concentration of CO2 at the end of an exhaled breath.

Epinephrine, whether made by the body or by a drug manufacturer, works rapidly to: A. raise the pulse rate and blood pressure. B. inhibit an allergic reaction. C. relieve bronchospasm. D. all of the above.

Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.

Even though the body is very efficient at controlling bleeding on it's own it may fail in situations such as A. When medication interferes with normal clotting B. When damage to the vessel maybe so large that a clot cannot completely block the hole C. When only part of the vessel is cut preventing it from constricting D. All of the above

Factors that can aid in determining the severity of a burn include: A. the depth of the burn B. the extent of the burn C. whether critical areas are involved D. all of the above

Following blunt trauma to the chest, an 18-year-old female presents with respiratory distress, reduced tidal volume, and cyanosis. Her blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg and her pulse is 130 beats/min and thready. You should: A. apply 100% oxygen and immediately transport. B. place her supine and elevate her lower extremities. C. perform a rapid head-to-toe physical assessment. D. provide some form of positive-pressure ventilation.

Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: A. hyperventilate him with a bag-mask device and monitor his oxygen saturation. B. apply high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport. C. focus your assessment on his scapulae and clavicles and apply high-flow oxygen. D. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay.

Following direct trauma to the upper part of the anterior neck, a young male presents with labored breathing, loss of voice, and subcutaneous emphysema in the soft tissues around his neck. You should suspect a(n): A. esophageal tear. B. crushed cricoid. C. collapsed trachea. D. laryngeal fracture.

For children younger than 1 year old, you should palpate the ___ artery when assessing the pulse. A) carotid B) radial C) femoral D) brachial

Force acting over a distance defines the concept of: A. potential energy. B. latent energy. C. kinetic energy. D. work.

Hepatitis B is more virulent than hepatitis C, which means that it: A. is less resistant to treatment. B. is a more contagious type of disease. C. leads to chronic infection after exposure. D. has a greater ability to produce disease.

High humidity reduces the body's ability to lose heat through: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

How does positive-pressure ventilation affect cardiac output? A. There is no effect on cardiac output because positive-pressure ventilation is the act of normal breathing. B. It decreases intrathoracic pressure, which facilitates venous return to the heart and increases cardiac output. C. It causes pressure in the chest to decrease, which increases stroke volume and cardiac output. D. It increases intrathoracic pressure, which decreases venous return to the heart and causes a decrease in cardiac output.

Hypothermia can worsen internal bleeding secondary to: A. cardiac arrhythmias. B. a decreased heart rate. C. severe muscular rigidity. D. blood clotting abnormalities.

If a patient misses a dialysis treatment, weakness and _____ can be the first in a series of conditions that can become progressively more serious. A. diarrhea B. chest pain C. vomiting D. pulmonary edema

If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave? A. Impaled objects B. Fractured bones C. Severe burns D. Stomach rupture

If your partner, while examining a patient, states that the patient's lungs are equal and bilateral, you would understand your partner to mean that: a. both lungs have labored breathing b. both lungs are equally bad c. the patient is not breathing d. there are clear and equal lung sounds on both sides

In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: A. hypovolemia. B. tachycardia. C. diaphoresis. D. hypothermia.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis: A. can be prevented with a vaccination. B. typically does not cause yellow skin. C. is a far more transmittable disease. D. is not a communicable disease.

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur: A. the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen. B. there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion. C. the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed. D. oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

In responsive patients that are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the ________ artery. A. femoral B. carotid C. brachial D. radial

In septic shock: A. there is an insufficient volume of fluid in the container. B. the fluid that has leaked out often collects in the respiratory system. C. there's a larger-than-normal vascular bed to contain the smaller-than-normal volume of intravascular fluid. D. all of the above.

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? A. A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse. B. A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times. C. A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts every time she takes a deep breath. D. A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.

Injury to a hollow abdominal organ would MOST likely result in: A. pain secondary to blood in the peritoneum. B. profound shock due to severe internal bleeding. C. impairment in the blood's clotting abilities. D. leakage of contents into the abdominal cavity.

Irregular respirations characterized by an increasing rate and depth of breathing followed by periods of apnea are called: A. ataxic respirations. B. agonal respirations. C. eupneic respirations. D. Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

It is important to remain hydrated while on duty. Drink at least ________ of water per day, and more when exertion or heat is involved. A. 8 glasses B. 1 liter C. 2 liters D. 3 liters

PID typically does NOT affect the: A. ovaries. B. uterus. C. fallopian tubes. D. urinary bladder.

Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND), rales, and dependent edema are clinical indicators of: A. emphysema. B. severe pneumonia. C. bronchitis or asthma. D. congestive heart failure.

Patients with altered mental status should be considered _______ when determining transport options. A. nonemergency B. low priority C. moderate priority D. high priority

Patients with thrombophilia are at an increased risk for: A. various cancers. B. hemorrhagic stroke. C. acute arterial rupture. D. pulmonary embolism.

Patients with type 2 diabetes usually control their disease with all of the following, EXCEPT: A. diet and exercise. B. tolbutamide (Orinase). C. glyburide (Micronase). D. supplemental insulin.

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as the: A. effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls. B. ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure. C. effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells. D. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.

Perfusion requires having a working cardiovascular system as well as: A. adequate oxygen exchange in the lungs. B. adequate nutrients in the form of glucose in the blood. C. adequate waste removal. D. all of the above.

Peritonitis would MOST likely result following injury to the: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. stomach.

Potential problems associated with rupture of the lungs include all of the following except: A. air emboli B. pneumomediastinum C. pneumothorax D. hemopneumothorax

Significant airway burns may be associated with: A. singeing of the hair within the nostrils B. hoarseness C. hypoxia D. all of the above

Significant trauma to the face should increase the EMT's index of suspicion for a(n): A. airway obstruction. B. displaced mandible. C. basilar skull fracture. D. spinal cord injury.

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume. A. 5% B. 10% C. 15% D. 20%

Signs and symptoms associated with hip dislocation include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe pain in the hip. B. lateral and posterior aspects of the hip region will be tender on palpation. C. being able to palpate the femoral head deep within the muscles of the buttock. D. decreased resistance to any movement of the joint.

Signs and symptoms of internal bleeding in both trauma and medical patients include A. hematemesis B. melena C. hemoptysis D. all of the above

Signs and symptoms of knee ligament injury include: A. swelling. B. point tenderness. C. joint effusion. D. all of the above.

Splinting an extremity even when there is no fracture can help to: A. reduce pain B. minimize damage to an already-injured extremity C. make it easier to move the patient D. all of the above

Status epilepticus is characterized by: A. generalized seizures that last less than 5 minutes. B. an absence seizure that is not preceded by an aura. C. profound tachycardia and total muscle flaccidity. D. prolonged seizures without a return of consciousness.

Successful treatment of a stroke depends on whether: A. surgical intervention is performed to remove obstructive clots. B. medications are given to restore the function of infarcted cells. C. the stroke occurs within the left or right hemisphere of the brain. D. thrombolytic therapy is given within 3 hours after symptoms began.

Suspect kidney damage if the patient has a history or physical evidence of all of the following EXCEPT: A. an abrasion, laceration, or contusion in the flank B. a penetrating wound in the lower rib cage or the upper abdomen C. fractures on either side of the lower rib cage D. a hematoma in the umbilical region

Syrup of ipecac is no longer recommended to treat patients who have ingested a poisonous substance because it: a) does not effectively induce vomiting. b) has toxic effects on the myocardium. c) has been linked to hypotension. d) may result in aspiration of vomitus.

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that: A. you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions. B. the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms. C. you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately. D. you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

The AED has delivered a shock to an elderly male in cardiac arrest. Following 2 minutes of CPR, you reanalyze the patient's cardiac rhythm and receive a "no shock advised" message. After further resuscitation, you restore a palpable carotid pulse. Your next action should be to: A. obtain a blood pressure and apply the pulse oximeter. B. place him in the recovery position and apply oxygen. C. transport at once and reanalyze his rhythm en route. D. reassess airway and breathing and treat accordingly.

The MOST critical treatment for a tension pneumothorax involves: A. placing a bulky dressing over the affected side of the chest. B. assisting the patient's breathing with increased tidal volume. C. surgically removing the portion of the lung that is damaged. D. inserting a needle through the rib cage into the pleural space.

The MOST prominent symptom of decompression sickness is: A. tightness in the chest. B. difficulty with vision. C. dizziness and nausea. D. abdominal or joint pain.

The MOST reliable indicator of an underlying fracture is: A. guarding. B. severe swelling. C. obvious bruising. D. point tenderness.

The MOST significant hazard associated with splinting is: A. aggravation of the injury or worsened pain. B. reduction in circulation distal to the injury site. C. compression of nerves, tissues, and vasculature. D. delaying transport of a critically injured patient.

The _______ is the thickest chamber of the heart A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Left ventricle

The mesentery is: A. the point of attachment between the small and large intestines. B. a layer of thick skeletal muscles that protects the abdominal organs. C. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. D. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body.

The most common symptom of internal bleeding is: A. bruising around the abdomen. B. distention of the abdomen. C. rigidity of the abdomen. D. acute abdominal pain.

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the __________, which originate(s) from the __________. A. coronary sinus, vena cava B. aorta, inferior vena cava C. vena cava, coronary veins D. coronary arteries, aorta

The nasal cavity is divided into two chambers by the: A. frontal sinus B. middle turbinate C. zygoma D. nasal septum

The nasopharyngeal airway is MOST beneficial because it: A. can effectively stabilize fractured nasal bones if it is inserted properly. B. is generally well tolerated in conscious patients with an intact gag reflex. C. effectively maintains the airway of a patient in cardiopulmonary arrest. D. can maintain a patent airway in a semiconscious patient with a gag reflex.

The onset of menstruation is called menarche and usually occurs in women who are: A. between 25 and 35 years of age. B. between 12 and 14 years of age. C. between 45 and 50 years of age. D. between 11 and 16 years of age.

The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: A. C1 and C2. B. C3 and C4. C. C1, C2, and C3. D. C3, C4, and C5.

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, a material that: A. facilitates shedding of the epidermis. B. pulls the hair erect when you are cold. C. discharges sweat onto the skin's surface. D. waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple.

The secondary assessment of a medical patient: A. should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill. B. is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious. C. should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe. D. is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short.

The superficial temporal artery can be palpated: A. slightly above the ear. B. at the angle of the jaw. C. over the mastoid process. D. just anterior to the tragus.

The three major parts of the brain are the: A. cerebellum, medulla, and occiput. B. brain stem, midbrain, and spinal cord. C. midbrain, cerebellum, and spinal cord. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, and brain stem.

The upper jawbones are called the: A. mandible. B. mastoid. C. zygoma. D. maxillae.

The venom of a brown recluse spider is cytotoxic, meaning that it: A. suppresses the respiratory drive. B. destroys the body's red blood cells. C. weakens the structure of the bones. D. causes severe local tissue damage.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? A. an unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin B. a conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting C. a semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex D. a confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

Treatment of a snake bite from a pit viper includes: A. calming the patient B. providing BLS as needed if the patient shows no sign of envenomation C. marking the skin with a pen over the swollen are to note whether swelling is spreading D. all of the above

Treatment of drowning and/or near drowning begins with: A. opening the airway B. ventilation with 100% oxygen via bag-mask device C. suctioning the lungs to remove the water D. rescue and removal from the water

When assessing a patient who is displaying bizarre behavior, the EMT should: A. check his or her blood glucose level only if he or she has a history of diabetes. B. avoid asking questions about suicide because this may give the patient ideas. C. carefully document his or her perception of what is causing the patient's behavior. D. consider that an acute medical illness may be causing the patient's behavior.

When assessing a patient with a hemothorax, you will MOST likely find: A. jugular venous engorgement. B. ipsilateral tracheal deviation. C. distant or muffled heart tones. D. signs and symptoms of shock.

When assessing a patient with a medical complaint, which of the following would MOST likely reveal the cause of his or her problem? A. rapid body scan B. primary assessment C. baseline vital signs D. history taking

When assessing a stab wound, it is important for the EMT to remember that: A. stabbings to an extremity are rarely associated with an exit wound. B. the majority of the internal trauma will be near the path of the knife. C. most stabbings are unintentional and cause less severe internal injury. D. more internal damage may be present than the external wound suggests.

When assessing an unconscious diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: A. patient's mental status. B. rate of the patient's pulse. C. presence of a medical identification tag. D. rate and depth of breathing.

When assessing breathing, you should obtain all of the following EXCEPT: A) respiratory rate B) depth of breathing C) quality/character of breathing D) breath odor

When assessing the interior of a crashed motor vehicle for damage, you are gathering information regarding the: A. index of suspicion. B. kinetic energy. C. potential energy. D. mechanism of injury.

When blood pressure drops, the body compensates to maintain perfusion to the vital organs by: A) decreasing the pulse rate B) dilating the arteries C) decreasing the respiratory rate D) decreasing the blood flow to the skin & extremities

When caring for a patient whose arm is covered with a dry chemical, you should: A. deactivate the chemical with a 5% vinegar solution. B. quickly irrigate the arm with large amounts of water. C. use forceful streams of water to remove the chemical. D. brush away the chemical before flushing with water.

When caring for a patient with an altered mental status and signs of circulatory compromise, you should: A. transport immediately and begin all emergency treatment en route to the hospital. B. perform a detailed secondary assessment prior to transporting the patient. C. have a paramedic unit respond to the scene if it is less than 15 minutes away. D. limit your time at the scene to 10 minutes or less, if possible.

When caring for a patient with internal bleeding, the EMT must first: A. ensure a patent airway. B. obtain baseline vital signs. C. control any external bleeding. D. take appropriate standard precautions.

When caring for a woman who is experiencing a gynecologic emergency, the EMT's main focus should be to: A. determine the underlying cause of her problem. B. ask questions related to her gynecologic history. C. keep assessment and treatment to a minimum. D. maintain her ABCs and transport without delay.

When documenting a call in which a female was sexually assaulted, you should: A. only use quotation marks when recording any statements made by witnesses. B. translate the patient's words or statements using proper medical C. record your opinion only if you have reasonable proof to justify the statement. D. keep the report concise and record only what the patient stated in her own words.

When immobilizing a child on a long backboard, you should: A. secure the head prior to securing the torso and legs. B. defer cervical collar placement to avoid discomfort. C. place the child's head in a slightly extended position. D. place padding under the child's shoulders as needed.

When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, you should: A. have the patient exhale before fastening the torso straps. B. secure the torso and then center the patient on the board. C. follow the commands of the person at the patient's torso. D. ensure that you secure the torso before securing the head.

When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: A. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. B. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. C. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. D. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard.

When treating a partial-thickness burn, you should: A. immerse the affected part in warm water. B. rupture any blisters to prevent an infection. C. cover the burn with a moist, sterile dressing. D. avoid the use of creams, lotions, or antiseptics.

When treating a patient with an evisceration, you should: A. attempt to replace the abdominal contents B. cover the protruding organs with a dry, sterile dressing C. cover the protruding contents with moist, sterile gauze compresses D. cover the protruding contents with moist, sterile gauze compresses

When treating an 80-year-old patient who is in shock, it is important to remember that: A. compensation from the respiratory system usually manifests with increased tidal volume. B. the older patient's central nervous system usually reacts more briskly to compensate for shock. C. medications older patients take for hypertension often cause an unusually fast heart rate. D. changes in gastric motility may delay gastric emptying, which increases the risk for vomiting.

When used alone, diagonal shoulder safety belts can cause all of the following EXCEPT: A. a bruised chest B. a lacerated liver C. decapitation D. a ruptured appendix

Which of the following blood vessels transports oxygenated blood? A. superior vena cava B. pulmonary arteries C. inferior vena cava D. pulmonary veins

Which of the following body systems or components is the LEAST critical for supplying and maintaining adequate blood flow to the body? A. an effectively pumping heart B. an intact system of blood vessels C. adequate blood in the vasculature D. the filtering of blood cells in the spleen

Which of the following cardiac arrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? A. sinus tachycardia B. sinus bradycardia C. extra ventricular beats D. ventricular tachycardia

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of epinephrine? A. secreted naturally by the adrenal glands B. dilates passages in the lungs C. constricts blood vessels D. decreases heart rate and blood pressure

Which of the following is NOT a common disease that produces signs of an acute abdomen? A. Diverticulitis B. Cholecystitis C. Acute appendicitis D. Glomerulonephritis

Which of the following is a basic type of splint? A. Rigid B. Formable C. Traction D. All of the above

Which of the following is a question you would NOT ask during the history taking and the secondary assessment of a patient with dyspnea? A. What has the patient already done for the breathing problem? B. Does the patient use a prescribed inhaler? C. Does the patient have any allergies? D. What time did the patient wake up this morning?

Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of adequately performed bag- mask ventilations in an apneic adult with a pulse? A. 20 breaths/min being delivered to the adult B. decreased compliance when squeezing the bag C. an adult's heart rate that is consistently increasing D. adequate rise of the chest when squeezing the bag

Which of the following medications increases a person's risk of a heat-related emergency? A. Motrin B. Tylenol C. Aspirin D. diuretics

Which of the following medications would the EMT LEAST likely administer to a patient with a medical complaint? A. albuterol B. oral glucose C. aspirin D. naloxone (Narcan)

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would MOST likely result in deformity? A. severe strain B. moderate sprain C. hairline fracture D. displaced fracture

Which of the following musculoskeletal injuries would pose the greatest threat to a patient's life? A. an amputated extremity B. bilateral femur fractures C. nondisplaced long bone fractures D. pelvic fracture with hypotension

Which of the following nerves carry information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord? A. motor B. central C. somatic D. sensory

Which of the following organs can tolerate inadequate perfusion for up to 2 hours? A. brain B. heart C. kidneys D. skeletal muscle

Which of the following statements regarding anterior nosebleeds is correct? A. They cause blood to drain into the posterior pharynx. B. They are usually severe and require aggressive treatment to control. C. They are usually caused by a fracture of the basilar skull. D. They usually originate from the septum area and bleed slowly.

Which of the following statements regarding drowning is correct? A. Hypoxia in the drowning victim initially occurs due to water in the lungs. B. Artificial ventilations can easily be performed in patients with a laryngospasm. C. Large amounts of water enter the lungs in a small number of drowning victims. D. Laryngospasm following submersion in water makes rescue breathing difficult.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? A. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury. B. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries. C. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma. D. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury.

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct? A. Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids. B. Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate. C. Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful. D. Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.

Which of the following statements regarding inhaled poisons is correct? a) Burns around the eyes are the most common indication of an inhalation poisoning. b) Carbon monoxide is very irritating to the upper airway and may cause swelling. c) Chlorine is a colorless and odorless gas that causes hypoxia and pulmonary edema. d) Lung damage may progress after the patient is removed from the environment.

Which of the following statements regarding methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is correct? A. The communicable period for MRSA is 10 days to 2 weeks after being infected. B. Most cases of MRSA transmission occur following an accidental needlestick. C. Studies have shown that less than 1% of health care providers are MRSA carriers. D. MRSA is a bacterium that causes infections and is resistant to most antibiotics.

Which of the following statements regarding motor nerves is correct? A. They perform special functions such as sight, smell, and hearing. B. They are part of the CNS and control reflexes. C. They transmit information from the body to the brain via the spinal cord. D. They carry information from the CNS to the muscles.

Which of the following statements regarding nitroglycerin is correct? A. The potency of nitroglycerin is increased when exposed to light. B. A maximum of five nitroglycerin doses should be given to a patient. C. Nitroglycerin should be administered between the cheek and gum. D. Nitroglycerin usually relieves anginal chest pain within 5 minutes.

Which of the following statements regarding the cranium is correct? A. The skull is a subdivision of the cranium. B. Thirty percent of the cranium is occupied by blood. C. The cranium protects the structures of the face. D. Eighty percent of the cranium is occupied by brain tissue.

Which of the following statements regarding the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is correct? A. The risk of HIV infection is high, even if an infected person's blood comes in contact with your intact skin. B. HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B and is easily transmitted in the health care setting. C. Most patients who are infected with HIV experience chronic symptoms that vary in duration and severity. D. The risk of HIV infection is greatest when deposited on a mucous membrane or directly into the bloodstream

Which of the following would NOT give you a low pulse oximetry reading? A. Damaged heart B. Decrease in circulating red blood cells from bleeding C. Pulmonary contusion D. Carbon monoxide poisoning

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to occur in a patient with a core body temperature of between 89°F (32°C) and 92°F (33°C)? A. bradypnea B. confusion C. stiff muscles D. tachycardia

While drinking beer with his friends near a creek, a 31-year-old male was bitten on the leg by an unidentified snake. The patient is conscious and alert and in no apparent distress. Your assessment of his leg reveals two small puncture marks with minimal pain and swelling. In addition to administering oxygen and providing reassurance, further care for this patient should include: A. applying ice to the wound and transporting quickly. B. transporting only with close, continuous monitoring. C. elevating the lower extremities and giving antivenin. D. supine positioning, splinting the leg, and transporting.

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: A. encourage him to cough as forcefully as he can. B. deliver up to five back blows and reassess him. C. place him in a supine position and open his airway. D. stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts.

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: A. rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate (ATP). B. cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood. C. begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids. D. incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood.

You & your partner are dispatched to a home on the east side of town for a possible poisoning. Upon arrival, you are met by a frantic mother who carries her crying 4-year-old boy up to your truck. "Please help him!" She pleads. "I was cleaning the garage & before I could stop him he drank a jar of gasoline that my husband uses to clean car parts." Your partner puts the truck in park & sets the parking brake. "I'll grab that activated charcoal," he says, climbing out of the cab. You should: A) administer the activated charcoal & transport the child immediately B) ask to see the jar to determine how much gasoline was swallowed C) contact online medical direction while administering the activated charcoal D) not administer activated charcoal

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a house fire where fire fighters have rescued a 50-year-old male from his burning house. The patient has superficial and partial-thickness burns to his face and chest. His nasal hairs are singed and he is coughing up sooty sputum. You should be MOST concerned with: A. treating him for hypothermia. B. preventing the risk of infection. C. estimating the extent of his burns. D. the potential for airway swelling.

You and your partner respond to a patient who has had his hand nearly severed by a drill press. As you approach, you note that the patient is pale and there appears to be a lot of blood on the floor. The wound continues to bleed copiously. In the above call, when applying the tourniquet you know you must be sure to: A. use the narrowest bandage possible to minimize the area restricted. B. cover the tourniquet with a bandage. C. never pad underneath the tourniquet. D. not loosen the tourniquet after you have applied it.

You are assessing a young male who was stung on the leg by a scorpion. He is conscious and alert, his breathing is regular and unlabored, and his blood pressure is 122/64 mm Hg. Assessment of his leg reveals a wheal surrounded by an area of redness. He states that he had a "bad reaction" the last time he was stung by a scorpion, and carries his own epinephrine auto-injector. You should: A. apply high-flow oxygen, apply a chemical cold pack directly to the injection site, and transport at once. B. apply high-flow oxygen, obtain approval from medical control to assist him with his epinephrine, and transport. C. assess his ABCs and vital signs in 15 minutes and allow him to drive himself to the hospital if he remains stable. D. apply oxygen as needed, clean the area with soap and water or a mild antiseptic, and transport him to the hospital.

You are called to the local bar where a fight has taken place. The police department tells you that you have a 36-year-old man who has been stabbed twice in the abdomen. Upon your arrival, the patient is alert and oriented. His airway is open. His respirations are at 24 breaths/min, pulse is rapid, regular and weak. He has distal pulses. With the penetrating trauma, you should assume that the object: A. has penetrated the peritoneum B. has entered the abdominal cavity C. has possibly injured one or more organs D. all of the above

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. The patient tells you that she would really like to be transported to the hospital but refuses a physical examination. You should: A. explain to her that she cannot be transported without a physical exam. B. have the police take the patient into custody in order to legally force a physical exam. C. explain to her that this is a criminal case and that she must be examined. D. follow your system's refusal of treatment policy and respect the patient's wishes without judgement.

You are transporting a 28-year-old man with a frostbitten foot. The patient's vital signs are stable and he denies any other injuries or symptoms. The weather is treacherous and your transport time to the hospital is approximately 45 minutes. During transport, you should: A. rewarm his foot in 100°F to 105°F (38°C to 40°C) water. B. administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. C. cover his foot with chemical heat compresses. D. protect the affected part from further injury.

You are transporting a 49-year-old male with "tearing" abdominal pain. You are approximately 30 miles away from the closest hospital. During your reassessment, you determine that the patient's condition has deteriorated significantly. You should: A. assist his ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. immediately perform a rapid physical examination. C. continue transporting and alert the receiving hospital. D. consider requesting a rendezvous with an ALS unit.

You arrive at a residence approximately 20 minutes after a 7-year-old boy, who weighs 22 kg, ingested a bottle of Advil. He is conscious and alert and has stable vital signs. Medical control orders you to administer activated charcoal and oxygen and then transport the child at once. The appropriate maximum dose of activated charcoal for this child is: A. 11 g. B. 22 g. C. 36 g. D. 44 g.

You arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: A. place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway. B. wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter. C. restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. D. maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen.

You arrive at the scene of a major motor vehicle crash. The patient, a 50-year-old female, was removed from her vehicle prior to your arrival. Bystanders who removed her state that she was not wearing a seatbelt. The patient is unconscious, tachycardic, and diaphoretic. Your assessment reveals bilaterally clear and equal breath sounds, a midline trachea, and collapsed jugular veins. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient has experienced a: A. massive hemothorax. B. tension pneumothorax. C. pericardial tamponade. D. laceration of the aorta.

You respond to a 71 year old woman who is unresponsive. You try to get her to respond but have no success. Her airway is open, and she is breathing at a rate of 14 breaths/min. You know you can check a pulse on either side of the neck. You know that the jugular veins and several nerves run through the neck next to the trachea. What structure are you trying to locate to take a pulse? A. Hypothalamus B. Subclavian arteries C. Cricoid cartilage D. Carotid arteries

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. After opening the airway, your next priority is to: a. provide oxygen at 6L/min via nonrebreathing mask b. provide oxygen at 15L/min via nasal cannula c. assist respirations d. suction the airway

You respond to a construction site and find a worker lying supine in the dirt. He has been hit by a heavy construction vehicle and flew more than 15' before landing in his current position. There is discoloration and distention of his abdomen about the RUQ. He is unconscious and his respirations are 10 breaths/min and shallow, with noisy gurgling sounds. While assisting with respirations, you note gastric distention. In order to prevent or alleviate the distention, you should: a. ensure that the patient's airway is appropriately positioned b. ventilate the patient at the appropriate rate c. ventilate the patient at the appropriate volume d. all of the above

You respond to a home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. He is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. He is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. His respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his heart rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. Your first thought as an EMT-B should be to: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask at 15L/min. B. call for back-up. C. assess the airway status. D. determine scene safety.

You respond to a residence for a patient who is "not acting right." As you approach the door, the patient, a 35-year-old male, begins shouting profanities at you and your partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: A. calm him down so you can assess him. B. be assertive and talk the patient down. C. contact medical control for instructions. D. retreat at once and call law enforcement.

Your presence is requested by law enforcement to assess a 33-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. The patient is conscious and obviously upset. As you are talking to her, you note an impressive amount of blood on her clothes in the groin area. Her blood pressure is 98/58 mm Hg, her pulse is 130 beats/min, and her respirations are 24 breaths/min. You should: A. visualize the vaginal area and pack the vagina with sterile dressings. B. allow her to change her clothes and take a shower before you transport. C. arrange for a rape crisis center representative to speak with the patient. D. control any external bleeding, administer oxygen, and transport at once.

_______ is a sudden reaction of the nervous system that produces temporary vascular dilation and fainting. A. Neurogenic shock B. Psychogenic shock C. Vascular shock D. Cardiogenic shock

Psychogenic Shock

A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _____ of his BSA. A. 18% B. 27% C. 36% D. 45%

A 39-year-old female experienced a severe closed head injury. She is unconscious with her eyes slightly open; her pupils are bilaterally dilated and slow to react. In addition to managing problems with airway, breathing, and circulation, you should: A. close her eyes and cover them with a moist dressing. B. secure her eyes open so you can reassess her pupils. C. inspect her eyes and gently remove impaled objects. D. irrigate her eyes with water to prevent mucosal drying.

Blood in the urine is known as: A. hematuria. B. hemotysis. C. hematocrit. D. hemoglobin.

Shivering is a mechanism in which the body generates heat by: A. increasing the metabolic rate. B. decreasing the use of oxygen. C. decreasing the metabolic rate. D. retaining excess carbon dioxide.

Shock is the result of: A. hypoperfusion to the cells of the body. B. the body's maintenance of homeostasis. C. temporary dysfunction of a major organ. D. widespread constriction of the blood vessels.

The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is the: A. clavicle. B. scapula. C. radius and ulna. D. midshaft femur.

You are called to the scene of a possible assault. Upon arrival, you are directed by police to a dark room where you find a 22 year old woman who says she was sexually assaulted by a coworker this afternoon. Your first course of action should be to: A. determine whether the patient is physically injured. B. establish the exact events of what took place. C. allow the patient to use the restroom. D. let the police question the patient before conducting a primary assessment.

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, and is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth. You should: A. suction her oropharynx and apply 100% oxygen. B. insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport. C. use a bag-mask device to assist her ventilations. D. place her on her side and prepare for rapid transport.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: A. determine if she was injured when she fainted. B. provide emotional support regarding her sister. C. advise her that she needs to go to the hospital. D. obtain baseline vital signs and a medical history.

You respond to the residence of a 70-year-old male who complains of weakness and severe shortness of breath. His wife tells you that he is a dialysis patient, but has missed his last two treatments. After applying high-flow oxygen, you auscultate his lungs and hear diffuse rhonchi. The patient is conscious, but appears confused. His blood pressure is 98/54 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. You should: A. leave him in a sitting position, keep him warm, and prepare for immediate transport. B. place him in a supine position, elevate his lower extremities, and transport at once. C. treat for shock and request a paramedic unit to respond to the scene and assist you. D. perform a detailed secondary assessment and then transport him to a dialysis center.

You should suspect shock in all of the following except: A. a mild allergic reaction. B. multiple severe fractures. C. a severe infection. D. abdominal or chest injury.

You're called to the residence of a 67-year-old man who is complaining of chest pain. He's alert and oriented. During your assessment, the patient tells you he has had two previous heart attacks. He is taking medication for fluid retention. As you listen to his lungs, you notice that he has fluid in his lungs. This is known as pulmonary ____. A. edema. B. overload. C. cessation. D. failure.

Your 24-year-old patient fell off a balance beam and landed on his arm. He is complaining of pain in the upper arm, and there is obvious swelling. You know that swelling is a sign of: A. bleeding. B. laceration. C. a locked joint. D. compartment syndrome.

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49-year-old male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience? a) dry mucous membranes b) a fall in blood pressure c) excessive lacrimation d) pupillary constriction

____ cause the pupils to constrict to a pinpoint. A) Opiates B) Antidepressants C) Antihypertensive Medications D) Diabetic Medications

_____ is a behavior that is characterized by restlessness and irregular physical activity. A. Agitation B. Aggression C. Anxiety D. Apathy

_______ is inadequate tissue perfusion A. Shock B. Hyperperfusion C. Hypertension D. Contraction

_______ shock is a condition in which low blood volume results in inadequate perfusion or even death A. Hypovolemic B. Metabolic C. Septic D. Psychogenic

_________ is a loss of the elastic material around the air spaces as a result of chronic stretching of the alveoli. A. Emphysema B. Bronchitis C. Pneumonia D. Diphtheria

__________ is a sign of hypoxia to the brain. A. Altered mental status B. Decreased pulse rate C. Decreased respiratory rate D. Dalayed capillary refill time

23. A 33-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant is experiencing scant vaginal bleeding. During transport, you note that she suddenly becomes diaphoretic, tachycardic, and hypotensive. In addition to administering 100% oxygen, you should: A. place her in a left lateral recumbent position. B. position her supine and elevate her legs 12″. C. carefully place sterile gauze into her vagina. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1112

41. During your visual inspection of a 19-year-old woman in labor, you see the baby's head crowning at the vaginal opening. What should you do? A. Apply gentle pressure to the baby's head as it delivers. B. Tell the mother not to push and transport her immediately. C. Place your fingers in the vagina to assess for a nuchal cord. D. Maintain firm pressure to the head until it completely delivers.

Answer: A Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1120

64. Blood loss in a child exceeding _____ of his or her total blood volume significantly increases the risk of shock. A. 5% B. 15% C. 25% D. 35%

Answer: C Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1180

44. Upon delivery of an infant's head, you note that the umbilical cord is wrapped around its neck. You should: A. immediately clamp and cut the umbilical cord. B. give 100% oxygen to the mother and transport at once. C. provide free-flow oxygen to the infant and transport. D. attempt to slip the cord gently over the infant's head.

Answer: D Question Type: Critical Thinking Page: 1122

67. When documenting a case of suspected elder abuse, it is MOST important for the EMT to: A. theorize as to why the patient was abused. B. document his or her perceptions of the event. C. list the names of all of the suspected abusers. D. avoid documenting any unsupported opinions.

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1245

19. Preeclampsia MOST commonly occurs after the ____ week of gestation. A. 12th B. 20th C. 24th D. 30th

Answer: D Question Type: General Knowledge Page: 1111

A 26-year-old female presents with heavy vaginal bleeding. She is conscious, but restless. Her blood pressure is 84/54 mm Hg, her pulse is 120 beats/min and weak, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. She tells you that she inserted a tampon about 2 hours ago. You should: A. administer high-flow oxygen, ask her to remove the tampon, perform a detailed secondary assessment, and transport promptly. B. administer high-flow oxygen, place a sterile pad over her vagina, keep her warm, elevate her lower extremities, and transport without delay. C. administer high-flow oxygen, perform a detailed assessment of her vaginal area for signs of trauma, place her on her side, and transport. D. assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device, place one sterile dressing into her vagina, perform a rapid secondary assessment, and transport.

A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: A. renal insufficiency. B. liver dysfunction. C. gallbladder disease. D. acute pancreatitis.

A patient who presents with vomiting, sign of shock, and history of eating disorder and alcohol abuse is likely to be suffering from: A. diverticulitis B. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome C. appendicitis D. cholecytitis

A patient with a core body temperature of 95°F (35°C) will MOST likely experience: A. a slow pulse. B. rapid breathing. C. muscle stiffness. D. loss of consciousness.

A patient with a head injury presents with abnormal flexion of his extremities. What numeric value should you assign to him for motor response? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because the: A. coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow. B. lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow. C. tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen. D. ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

After your partner assumes manual in-line stabilization of the patient's head, you should: A. apply an appropriately sized rigid cervical collar. B. assess distal neurovascular status in the extremities. C. thoroughly palpate the patient's head for deformities. D. use four people to log roll the patient onto a backboard.

All of the following are causes of acute dyspnea, EXCEPT: A. asthma. B. emphysema. C. pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolism.

All of the following are examples of passive rewarming techniques, EXCEPT: A. removing cold, wet clothing. B. administering warm fluids by mouth. C. turning up the heat inside the ambulance. D. covering the patient with warm blankets.

An integral part of the rapid scan is evaluation using the mnemonic: A) AVPU B) DCAP-BTLS C) OPQRST D) SAMPLE

In addition to obtaining a SAMPLE history and asking questions related to the chief complaint, what else should you inquire about when assessing a patient with a potentially infectious disease? A. HIV status B. recent travel C. drug allergies D. sexual practices

In an apparent suicide attempt, a 19-year-old female ingested a full bottle of amitriptyline (Elavil). At present, she is conscious and alert and states that she swallowed the pills approximately 30 minutes earlier. Her blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, her pulse is 140 beats/min and irregular, and her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. When transporting this patient, you should be MOST alert for: a) an increase in her blood pressure. b) seizures and cardiac arrhythmias. c) a sudden outburst of violence. d) acute respiratory depression.

In any case of trauma to a female patient, you should always determine if the patient: A. is on birth control B. is pregnant C. is currently menstruating D. has a history of ovarian cysts

Signs of a pulmonary blast injury include: A. multiple rib fractures. B. coughing up blood. C. an irregular pulse. D. vomiting blood.

Signs of cardiogenic shock include all of the following EXCEPT: A. cyanosis. B. strong, bounding pulse. C. nausea. D. anxiety.

Signs of envenomation by a pit viper include all of the following except: A. swelling B. chest pain C. ecchymosis D. severe burning pain at the site of the injury

Skeletal muscle is also referred to as __________ muscle. A. smooth B. striated C. connective D. involuntary

Skeletal muscle is attached to the bone by tough, ropelike fibrous structures called: A. fascia. B. tendons. C. cartilage. D. ligaments.

Smooth muscle is found in the: A. back. B. blood vessels. C. heart. D. all of the above.

The MOST common and serious complication of a significant head injury is: A. a hypoxic seizure. B. cerebral edema. C. a skull fracture. D. acute hypotension.

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: A. are elderly. B. are in denial. C. cannot afford it. D. do not trust EMTs.

The MOST reliable sign of a head injury is: A. a pulse that is rapid and thready. B. a decreased level of consciousness. C. an abnormally low blood pressure. D. decreased sensation in the extremities.

The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: A. damage to the eyes. B. airway compromise. C. cervical spine injury. D. mandibular immobility.

The MOST significant complication associated with oropharyngeal suctioning is: A. oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning. B. hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts. C. clogging of the catheter with thick secretions. D. vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway.

The MOST significant risk factor for a hemorrhagic stroke is: A. severe stress. B. hypertension. C. heavy exertion. D. diabetes mellitus.

The PASG is absolutely contraindicated in patients who have: A. pelvic fractures. B. pulmonary edema. C. bilateral femur fractures. D. any trauma below the pelvis.

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: A. nipple line. B. umbilicus. C. iliac crest. D. pubic symphysis.

The driver of a sport utility vehicle lost control and struck a utility pole head-on. The driver was killed instantly. The passenger, a young female, is conscious and alert and has several small abrasions and lacerations to her left forearm. Treatment for the passenger should include: A. transport to a community hospital. B. transport to a trauma center. C. a secondary assessment at the scene. D. a focused exam of her forearm.

The effects of epinephrine are typically observed within _________ following administration. A. 30 seconds B. 1 minute C. 30 minutes D. 1 hour

The function of the blood is to _______ all of the body's cells and tissues A. Remove oxygen from B. Deliver nutrients to C. Carry waste products to D. All of the above

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. diffusion. B. ventilation. C. respiration. D. oxygenation.

The poison control center will be able to provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: a) knows the location of the closest hospital. b) is aware of the patient's age and gender. c) is aware of the substance that is involved. d) knows why the patient overdosed on the drug.

The primary prehospital treatment for most medical emergencies: A. focuses on definitive care because a diagnosis can usually be made. B. addresses the patient's symptoms more than the actual disease process. C. involves transport only until treatment can be performed at the hospital. D. typically does not require the EMT to contact medical control.

The primary reason for applying a sterile dressing to an open injury is to: A. prevent contamination. B. control external bleeding. C. reduce the risk of infection. D. minimize any internal bleeding.

The respiratory distress that accompanies emphysema is caused by: A. repeated exposure to cigarette smoke. B. chronic stretching of the alveolar walls. C. massive constriction of the bronchioles. D. acute fluid accumulation in the alveoli.

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: A. left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium. B. right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle. C. right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle. D. left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle.

What is the MOST common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient? A. vomitus B. the tongue C. blood clots D. aspirated fluid

What is the function of the left atrium? A. It ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. B. It receives oxygenated blood from the lungs. C. It receives blood from the pulmonary arteries. D. It receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava.

What joint is frequently separated during football and hockey when a player falls and lands on the point of the shoulder? A. Glenohumeral joint B. Acromioclavicular joint C. Sternoclavicular joint D. None of the above

What layer of the skin forms a watertight, protective seal for the body? A. dermis B. epidermis C. muscular layer D. subcutaneous layer

What occurs when a patient is breathing very rapidly and shallowly? A. Minute volume increases because of a marked increase in both tidal volume and respiratory rate. B. Air moves primarily in the anatomic dead space and does not participate in pulmonary gas exchange. C. Air is forcefully drawn into the lungs due to the negative pressure created by the rapid respirations. D. The majority of tidal volume reaches the lungs and diffuses across the alveolar- capillary membrane.

What purpose does a one-way "flutter valve" serve when used on a patient with an open pneumothorax? A. It prevents air escape from within the chest cavity. B. It allows a release for air trapped in the pleural space. C. It only prevents air from entering an open chest wound. D. It allows air to freely move in and out of the chest cavity.

What should you do if you are exposed to a patient who is found to have pulmonary tuberculosis? A. Get the BCG vaccine. B. Get a tuberculin skin test. C. Undergo serious therapy. D. No precautions need to be taken.

When a light is shone into the pupil: A. the opposite pupil should dilate. B. it should become smaller in size. C. it should become larger in size. D. both pupils should dilate together.

When a patient experiences a severe spinal injury, he or she: A. will likely be paralyzed from the neck down. B. may lose sensation below the level of the injury. C. most commonly has a palpable spinal deformity. D. often loses motor function on one side of the body.

When a person is exposed to cold temperatures and strong winds for an extended period of time, he or she will lose heat mostly by: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. B. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. C. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure. D. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater.

When assessing a patient with a head injury, you note the presence of thin, bloody fluid draining from his right ear. This indicates: A. significant pressure and bleeding in between the skull and dura mater. B. rupture of the tympanic membrane following diffuse impact to the head. C. fractures to the internal structures of the ear following direct trauma. D. a linear skull fracture and a significant increase in intracranial pressure.

When documenting abnormal behavior, it is important to: A. document restraints only when leather restraints are used. B. document everything that happened on the call. C. avoid quoting the patient's own words. D. interject your interpretations of the patient's thoughts.

Which of the following is a normal reaction to a crisis situation? A. Monday morning blues that last until Friday B. Feeling "blue" after the break up of a long-term relationship C. Feeling depressed week after week with no discernible cause D. Thoughts of suicide

Which of the following is a severe burn in a 2-year-old child? A. superficial burn that covers 25% of the BSA B. any full-thickness burn, regardless of its location on the body C. partial-thickness burn that covers 10% of the BSA D. any burn that involves the arms, legs, or posterior part of the body

Which of the following is not considered a type of impact associated with a motorcycle crash? A. Head-on B. Rotational C. Controlled D. Ejection

Which of the following nerves allow sensory and motor impulses to be sent from one nerve directly to another? A. somatic B. connecting C. peripheral D. autonomic

Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? A. avulsion B. abrasion C. incision D. laceration

Which of the following organs would MOST likely bleed profusely when injured? A. bladder B. liver C. stomach D. intestine

Which of the following statements about compartment syndrome is FALSE? A. It occurs 6 to 12 hours after an injury. B. It most commonly occurs with a fractured femur. C. It is usually a result of excessive bleeding, a severely crushed extremity, or the rapid return of blood to an ischemic limb. D. It is characterized by pain that is out of proportion to the injury.

You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: A. immediately evaluate his airway. B. apply direct pressure to the wound. C. assess the rate and quality of his pulse. D. administer 100% supplemental oxygen.

You're called to a motor vehicle collision. Your patient is a 19-year-old woman who was not wearing her seatbelt. She is conscious but confused. Her airway is open & respirations are within normal limits. Her pulse is slightly tachycardic but regular. Her blood pressure is within normal limits. She is complaining of being thirsty and appears very anxious. You know that the last measurable factor to change to indicate shock is _______. A. mental status. B. blood pressure. C. pulse rate. D. respirations.

_________ commonly produces symptoms about 30 minutes after a particular fatty meal and usually at night. A. Peptic ulcers B. Cholecystitis C. Appendicitis D. Pancreatits

When restraining a patient on a stretcher, it is necessary to constantly reassess the patient's: A. level of consciousness. B. respiration and circulation. C. emotional status. D. pain status.

20-year-old man has major open facial injuries after his vehicle struck a tree head-on. Which of the following findings within the car would MOST likely explain his injury pattern? A. Deployed airbag B. Bent steering wheel C. Nonintact windshield D. Crushed instrument panel

A 16-year-old boy was playing football and was struck in the left flank during a tackle. His vital signs are stable; however, he is in severe pain. You should be MOST concerned that he has injured his: A. liver. B. spleen. C. kidney. D. bladder.

A 17-year-old football player collided with another player and has pain to his left clavicular area. He is holding his arm against his chest and refuses to move it. Your assessment reveals obvious deformity to the midshaft clavicle. After assessing distal pulse, sensory, and motor functions, you should: A. perform a rapid secondary assessment. B. straighten his arm and apply a board splint. C. immobilize the injury with a sling and swathe. D. place a pillow under his arm and apply a sling.

A 17-year-old male was shot in the right anterior chest during an altercation with a gang member. As your partner is applying 100% oxygen, you perform a rapid secondary assessment and find an open chest wound with a small amount of blood bubbling from it. You should: A. place a sterile dressing over the wound and apply direct pressure. B. control the bleeding from the wound and prepare to transport at once. C. apply an occlusive dressing to the wound and continue your assessment. D. direct your partner to assist the patient's ventilations with a bag-mask device.

A 19 year old male is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless after being struck in the center of the chest with a softball. Based on the mechanism of injury, what MOST likely occurred? A. collapse of both lungs due to fractured ribs that perforated the lung tissue and caused cardiac arrest B. asystole secondary to massive intrathoracic hemorrhage due to traumatic rupture of the aorta C. ventricular fibrillation when the impact occurred duing a critical portion of the cardiac cycle D. fracture of the sternum that caused a rupture of the myocardium and let to a cardiac dysrhythmia

A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer 100% oxygen and give him epinephrine via subcutaneous injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: A. transport him immediately and provide supportive care while en route. B. consider that he may actually be experiencing an acute asthma attack. C. repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. D. request a paramedic unit that is stationed approximately 15 miles away.

A 20-year-old male was pulled from cold water by his friends. The length of his submersion is not known and was not witnessed. You perform a primary assessment and determine that the patient is apneic and has a slow, weak pulse. You should: A. suction his airway for 30 seconds, provide rescue breathing, keep him warm, and transport at once. B. ventilate with a bag-mask device, apply a cervical collar, remove his wet clothing, and transport rapidly. C. provide rescue breathing, remove wet clothing, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport carefully. D. apply 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, immobilize his spine, keep him warm, and transport rapidly.

A 21-year-old male has a large laceration to his neck. When you assess him, you note that bright red blood is spurting from the left side of his neck. You should immediately: A. apply a pressure dressing to his neck. B. sit the patient up to slow the bleeding. C. place your gloved hand over the wound. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask.

A ______ is the result of blunt chest trauma and is associated with an irregular pulse and sometimes dangerous cardiac rhythms. A. cardiac tamponade B. pulmonary contusion C. myocardial contusion D. traumatic asphyxia

A _______ is an injury to the ligaments, the articular capsule, the synovial membrane, and the tendons crossing the joint. A. dislocation B. strain C. sprain D. torn ligament

A blood clot lodged in a pulmonary artery is referred to as: A. a myocardial infarction. B. a stroke. C. a pulmonary embolism. D. a pulmonary effusion

A collection of fluid outside the lungs on one or both sides of the chest is called a: A. pulmonary edema. B. subcutaneous emphysema. C. pleural effusion. D. tension pneoumothorax.

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: A. rhonchi. B. crepitus. C. subcutaneous emphysema. D. Korotkoff sounds.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when: A. all layers of the aorta suddenly contract. B. a weakened area develops in the aortic wall. C. the inner layers of the aorta become separated. D. the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: A. medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot. B. a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage. C. the normal body processes destroy a clot in a cerebral artery. D. signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours.

A young boy was riding his bicycle down the street when he hit a parked car. How many collisions took place? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

A young female was involved in a motor vehicle crash. She complains of pain to her left eye, which appears to have a piece of glass impaled in it. Further assessment reveals a large laceration to her left forearm with active venous bleeding. As your partner manually stabilizes the patient's head, you should: A. stabilize the impaled glass in her eye. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply direct pressure to her arm wound. D. carefully remove the glass from her eye.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation with a rival gang member. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then: A. auscultate bowel sounds. B. apply a cervical collar. C. assess for an exit wound. D. obtain baseline vital signs.

A(n) _____ occurs when a great amount of force is applied to the body for a long period of time. A. contusion B. hematoma C. crushing injury D. avulsion

A(n) _______ is also known as a hairline fracture. A. closed fracture. B. open fracture. C. nondisplaced fracture. D. displaced fracture.

A(n) __________ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. A. greenstick B. diaphyseal C. epiphyseal D. metaphyseal

Acute pulmonary edema would MOST likely develop as the result of: A. right-sided heart failure. B. severe hyperventilation. C. toxic chemical inhalation. D. an upper airway infection.

After administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine via auto-injector to a 22-year-old female with an allergic reaction, you note improvement in her breathing and dissipation of her hives. However, she is still anxious and tachycardic. You should: A. contact medical control and obtain authorization to administer another 0.3 mg of epinephrine. B. transport her rapidly, as it is obvious that she is having a severe reaction to the epinephrine. C. monitor her closely but recall that anxiety and tachycardia are side effects of epinephrine. D. consider administering 0.15 mg of epinephrine to completely resolve her allergic reaction.

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: A. 24%. B. 35%. C. 44%. D. 52%.

Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: A. increased use of skeletal muscle causes an increase in its strength. B. the tendons that attach muscle to bone become stretched or injured. C. muscle decreases in size and function because of disease or trauma. D. carbon dioxide, lactic acid, and other wastes accumulate in the muscle.

Atropine sulfate and pralidoxime chloride are antidotes for: a) lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD). b) diphenhydramine (Benadryl). c) nerve gas agents. d) anticholinergic drugs.

Because the stinger of the honeybee is barbed and remains in the wound, it can continue to inject venom for up to: A. 1 minute. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. several hours.

Facial injuries should be identified and treated as soon as possible because: A. bleeding must be controlled early B. the spine may be injured as well C. of the risk for airway problems D. swelling may mask hidden injuries

Febrile seizures: A. often result in permanent brain damage. B. are also referred to as petit mal seizures. C. are usually benign but should be evaluated. D. occur when a child's fever progressively rises.

Functions of the skin include all of the following EXCEPT: A. sending information to the brain B. regulation of body temp C. the production of key antibodies D. maintenance of water balance

Functions of the skin include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. maintenance of water balance. B. regulation of body temperature. C. the production of key antibodies. D. sending information to the brain.

If a patient with a chest injury is only able to inhale small amounts of air per breath, he or she: A. often breathes at a slower rate because of lung damage caused by the injury. B. will eliminate more carbon dioxide than if he or she were breathing deeply. C. must increase his or her respiratory rate to maintain adequate minute volume. D. will maintain adequate minute volume if his or her respiratory rate stays the same.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT must assume that she: A. is pregnant. B. has an infection. C. is in shock. D. has an ectopic pregnancy.

In contrast to animal bites, the bite of a human: A. is usually less severe because the human mouth is cleaner. B. typically results in a minor infection that is slow-spreading. C. carries with it a wide variety of virulent bacteria and viruses. D. is associated with a much higher incidence of rabies infection.

In contrast to insulin shock, diabetic coma: A. is rapidly reversible if oral glucose is given. B. commonly results in excess water retention. C. can only be corrected in the hospital setting. D. is a rapidly developing metabolic disturbance.

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: A. prepares the body to handle stress. B. causes an increase in the heart rate. C. slows the heart and respiratory rates. D. dilates the blood vessels in the muscles.

In dealing with allergy-related emergencies, you must be aware of the possibility of acute __________ and cardiovascular collapse. A. hypotension B. tachypnea C. airway obstruction D. shock

In the absence of light, pupils will: A) constrict B) stay fixed C) dilate D) become unequal

In the presence of oxygen, the mitochondria of the cells convert glucose into energy through a process called: A. perfusion. B. respiration. C. aerobic metabolism. D. anaerobic metabolism.

In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? A. a semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest B. an apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen C. a pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back D. a conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye

It is MOST important to determine a patient's weight when asking questions pertaining to a toxic ingestion because: a) this will allow you to predict if the exposure is lethal. b) additional help may be needed at the scene to lift the patient. c) activated charcoal is given based on a patient's weight. d) this will determine whether or not to give syrup of ipecac.

It is important to remove a drowning victim from the water before laryngospasm relaxes because: A. the patient will suffer less airway trauma. B. the risk of severe hypothermia is lessened. C. less water will have entered the patient's lungs. D. you can ventilate the patient with laryngospasm.

Joints are bathed and lubricated by _______ fluid. A. cartilaginous B. articular C. synovial D. cerebrospinal

Passengers who are seated in the rear of a vehicle and are wearing only lap belts have a higher incidence of injuries to the: A. lumbar and coccygeal spine. B. thoracic and sacral spine. C. thoracic and lumbar spine. D. lumbar and sacral spine.

Patients suffering from an open wound to the neck may suffer from all of the following EXCEPT: A. significant bleeding. B. air embolism. C. tension pneumothorax. D. subcutaneous crepitation.

Perfusion is MOST accurately defined as: A. the removal of adequate amounts of carbon dioxide during exhalation. B. the intake of adequate amounts of oxygen during the inhalation phase. C. circulation of blood within an organ with sufficient amounts of oxygen. D. the production of carbon dioxide, which accumulates at the cellular level.

Pneumothorax is defined as: A. accumulation of air between the lungs. B. blood collection within the lung tissue. C. accumulation of air in the pleural space. D. blood collection within the pleural space.

Pregnancy, straining at stool, and chronic constipation cause increased pressure that could result in: A. Mallory-Weiss Syndrome B. Diverticulitis C. Hemorrhoids D. Gallstones

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient, you must ensure that the: A. one-way valve is sealed. B. flow rate is set at 6 L/min. C. reservoir bag is fully inflated. D. patient has reduced tidal volume.

Prolonged respiratory difficulty can cause ___________, shock, and even death. A. tachypnea B. pulmonary edema C. tachycardia D. airway obstruction

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: A. septic shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. cardiogenic shock. D. anaphylactic shock.

Pulmonary edema may also be produced by: A. cigarette smoking. B. seasonal allergies. C. inhaling toxic chemical fumes. D. carbon monoxide poisoning.

Pulse oximeters measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with: A. carbon dioxide. B. carbon monoxide. C. oxygen. D. iron.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include: A. excess stress. B. hyperglycemia. C. family history. D. lack of exercise.

Severe abrasion injuries can occur when motorcycle riders are slowed after a collision by road drag. Road drag is most often associated with which type of motorcycle impact? A. Head-on collision B. Angular collision C. Ejection D. Controlled crash

Small infant have a poor ability to thermoregulate and are unable to shiver to control heat loss until about the age of: A. 4-6 months B. 6-12 months C. 12-18 months D. 18-24 months

Speed is essential because in severe cases of anaphylaxis, __________ can occur rapidly. A. urticaria B. compensation C. death D. recovery

Structures of the lower airway include all of the following, EXCEPT the: A. alveoli. B. trachea. C. epiglottis. D. bronchioles.

Subcutaneous emphysema is an indication that: A. at least half of one lung has completely collapsed. B. your patient is experiencing a pericardial tamponade. C. air is escaping into the chest wall from a damaged lung. D. blood is slowly accumulating within the tissue of the lung.

Suctioning the oral cavity of an adult should be accomplished within: a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: A. cardiogenic shock. B. severe bradycardia. C. ventricular fibrillation. D. congestive heart failure.

Syphilis is a: A. high-risk disease to the EMT, especially through a needlestick. B. bacterial infection that is typically resistant to antibiotic medications. C. bloodborne disease that can successfully be treated with penicillin. D. sexually transmitted disease that is only found in vaginal secretions.

Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: A. vasovagal shock. B. neurogenic shock. C. psychogenic shock. D. neurologic shock.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by: A. an air embolism. B. alcohol intoxication. C. possible spinal injury. D. cold water immersion.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if: A. he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse. B. his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest. C. pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available. D. special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia.

The MOST important treatment for a patient with severe abdominal pain and signs of shock includes: A. administering high-flow oxygen. B. giving oral fluids to maintain perfusion. C. transporting the patient without delay. D. positioning the patient on his or her side.

The _____ is (are) our first line of defense against external forces. A. extremities B. hair C. skin D. lips

The ______ connects the cricoid cartilage and thyroid cartilage. A. larynx B. cricoid membrane C. cricothyroid membrane D. thyroid membrane

The _______ is one of the most commonly injured joints. A. knee B. elbow C. ankle D. hip

The _______ only requires a minimal blood supply when at rest A. Lungs B. Kidneys C. Muscles D. Heart

The ________ nerves control the diaphragm. A. vagus B. costal C. phrenic D. intercostal

The oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange takes place in the: A. trachea. B. bronchial tree. C. alveoli. D. blood.

The parietal peritoneum lines the: A. retroperitoneal space. B. lungs and chest cavity. C. walls of the abdominal cavity. D. surface of the abdominal organs.

Which of the following statements regarding gonorrhea is correct? A. Mild infections with gonorrhea cause abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever. B. Symptoms of gonorrhea usually appear within 3 months after being infected. C. Painful urination is a common symptom of gonorrhea in men and women. D. Most men who are infected with gonorrhea do not experience symptoms.

You respond to the local nursing home for an 85-year-old woman who has altered mental status. During your assessment you notice that the patient has an elevated body temperature. She is hypotensive & her pulse is tachycardic. The nursing staff tells you that she has been sick for several days & that they called because her mental status continued to decline. You suspect the patient is in septic shock. The shock is due to _______. A. pump failure. B. massive vasoconstriction. C. widespread dilation. D. increased volume.

You should assess pulse, motor, and sensation in all of the extremities and check for pupillary reactions if you suspect a _______ problem. A. cardiovascular B. endocrine C. neurologic D. psychological

You should request the assistance of a _____ when a mentally impaired patient refuses to got to the hospital. A. physician B. court order C. law enforcement officer D. psychologist

You're called to a construction site where a 27-year-old worker has fallen from the 2nd floor. He landed on his back and is drifting in and out of consciousness. A quick assessment reveals no bleeding or blood loss. His BP is 90/60 mm Hg with a pulse rate of 110 beats/min. His airway is open and breathing is within normal limits. You realize the patient is in shock. The patient's shock is due to an injury to the _______. A. cervical vertebrae. B. skull. C. spinal cord. D. peripheral nerves.

You're dispatched to the county fair for a 54-year-old woman complaining of chest pain. You arrive to find her pressing on the center of her chest & presenting with pale, clammy skin. You ask if she has any cardiac history & she tells you, "No, I just have asthma & my doctor says that I am prediabetic." Would you give this patient aspirin? A) No, nitroglycerin would be more appropriate B) Yes, her signs & symptoms indicate cardiac compromise & aspirin could help C) No, aspirin is contraindicated for asthmatics D) Yes, its analgesic properties may help with the discomfort

Your _____ is the best tool to gain the patient's confidence to seek medical help. A. professionalism B. content knowledge C. compassion D. empathy

A "hip" fracture is actually a fracture of the: A. pelvic girdle. B. femoral shaft. C. pubic symphysis. D. proximal femur.

A 13-year-old girl is found floating face down in a swimming pool. Witnesses tell you that the girl had been practicing diving. After you and your partner safely enter the water, you should: A. turn her head to the side and give five back slaps. B. turn her head to the side and begin rescue breathing. C. rotate her entire body as a unit and carefully remove her from the pool. D. rotate the entire upper half of her body as a unit, supporting her head and neck.

A 29-year-old male complains of a severe headache and nausea that has gradually worsened over the past 12 hours. He is conscious, alert, and oriented and tells you that his physician diagnosed him with migraine headaches. He further tells you that he has taken numerous different medications, but none of them seem to help. His blood pressure is 132/74 mm Hg, his pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 20 breaths/min and adequate. In addition to high-flow oxygen, further treatment should include: A. assisting him with his migraine medication and transporting without lights and siren. B. placing him in a supine position and transporting with lights and siren to a stroke center. C. applying warm compresses to the back of his neck and transporting with lights and siren. D. dimming the lights in the back of the ambulance and transporting without lights and siren.

A 40-year-old man was standing near a building when it exploded. He has multiple injuries, including a depressed skull fracture, severe burns, and an impaled object in his abdomen. His head injury MOST likely occurred during the ___________ phase of the explosion. A. blast B. primary C. secondary D. tertiary

A 58-year-old male presents with confusion, right-sided weakness, and slurred speech. His wife is present and is very upset. As your partner is applying oxygen, it is MOST important for you to: A. list all of the patient's current medications. B. obtain a complete set of baseline vital signs. C. administer glucose to rule out hypoglycemia. D. ask his wife when she noticed the symptoms.

A 67-year-old female presents with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: A. nitroglycerin for her chest pain. B. ventilations with a bag-mask device. C. oxygen at 4 L/min via nasal cannula. D. placing her in an upright position.

A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: A. acute appendicitis. B. intrathoracic hemorrhaging. C. an aortic aneurysm. D. gastrointestinal bleeding.

Airborne substances are diluted with: a) an alkaline antidote. b) activated charcoal. c) syrup of ipecac. d) oxygen.

An open fracture is MOST accurately defined as a fracture in which: A. bone ends protrude through the skin. B. a large laceration overlies the fracture. C. a bullet shatters the underlying bone. D. the overlying skin is no longer intact.

An unstable patient should be reassessed at least every: A. 10 minutes. B. 15 minutes. C. 20 minutes. D. 5 minutes.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during: A. rear-end collisions. B. rollover collisions. C. frontal collisions. D. lateral collisions.

As an EMT, your objective when treating patients with face and neck injuries is to: A. prevent further injury B. manage any acute airway problems C. control bleeding D. all of the above

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: A. mouth-to-mouth technique. B. one-person bag-mask device. C. manually triggered ventilation device. D. mouth-to-mask technique with a one-way valve.

As you enter the residence of a patient who has possibly overdosed, you should: a) observe the scene for drug bottles. b) quickly gain access to the patient. c) look for drug paraphernalia. d) be alert for personal hazards.

Assessment of a patient with hypoglycemia will MOST likely reveal: A. sunken eyes. B. hyperactivity. C. warm, dry skin. D. combativeness.

At the arterial end of the capillaries, the muscles dilate and constrict in response to conditions such as A. Fright B. A specific need for oxygen C. A need to dispose of metabolic wastes D. All the of above

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: A. a rapid heart beat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions. B. the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates. C. as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria. D. there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely.

During the primary assessment of a semiconscious 70-year-old female, you should: A. insert a nasopharyngeal airway and assist ventilations. B. immediately determine the patient's blood glucose level. C. ask family members if the patient has a history of stroke. D. ensure a patent airway and support ventilation as needed.

During your assessment of a 6-month-old male with vomiting and diarrhea, you note that his capillary refill time is approximately 4 seconds. From this information, you should conclude that his: A. respiratory status is adequate. B. systolic blood pressure is normal. C. skin temperature is abnormally cold. D. peripheral circulation is decreased.

Gastrointestinal bleeding should be suspected if a patient presents with: A. dyspnea. B. hematuria. C. hemoptysis. D. hematemesis.

In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must: A. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility. B. be involved in trauma prevention programs. C. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes. D. have general surgeons that are in-house 24 hours a day.

In contrast to a behavioral crisis, a psychiatric emergency occurs when a person: A. experiences feelings of sadness and despair for longer than a month. B. experiences a sudden attack of panic secondary to a stressful situation. C. exhibits impaired functioning due to a chemical or genetic disturbance. D. demonstrates agitation or violence or becomes a threat to himself or herself, or to others.

In contrast to the assessment of a trauma patient, assessment of a medical patient: A. is not as complex for the EMT because most patients typically present with classic symptoms. B. requires a thorough head-to-toe exam that involves a detailed assessment of all body systems. C. almost exclusively focuses on physical signs that indicate the patient is experiencing a problem. D. is focused on the nature of illness, the patient's chief complaint, and his or her symptoms.

In contrast to the parietal peritoneum, the visceral peritoneum: A. is supplied by the same nerves from the spinal cord that supply the skin of the abdomen. B. lines the walls of the abdominal cavity and is stimulated when the solid abdominal organs contract. C. is less likely to become inflamed or infected because it lines the abdominal organs themselves. D. is supplied by nerves of the autonomic nervous system, which are less able to localize pain or sensation.

In deeply pigmented skin, you should look for changes in color in areas of the skin that have less pigment, including: A) the sclera B) the conjunctiva C) the mucous membranes of the mouth D) all of the above

Management of hypothermia in the field consists of all of the following except: A. applying heat packs to the groin, axillary, and cervical regions B. removing wet clothing C. preventing further heat loss D. massaging the cold extremities

Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by: A. elevating the injured extremity. B. packing the wound with gauze. C. compressing a pressure point. D. applying local direct pressure.

Most of the serious injuries associated with scuba diving are caused by: A. water temperature lower than 70°F (21°C). B. too rapid of a descent. C. alcohol consumption. D. too rapid of an ascent.

Narrowing of the coronary arteries due to a buildup of fatty deposits is called: A. angina pectoris. B. arteriosclerosis. C. acute ischemia. D. atherosclerosis.

Nitroglycerin affects the body in the following ways: A) It decreases blood pressure B) It relaxes veins throughout the body C) It often causes a mild headache after administration D) All of the above

Nontraumatic internal bleeding may be caused by an A. Ulcer B. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy C. Aneurysm D. All of the above

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: A. pale, cool, and moist. B. flushed, cool, and dry. C. pink, warm, and moist. D. pink, warm, and dry.

Other than applying a moist, sterile dressing covered with a dry dressing to treat an abdominal evisceration, an alternative form of management may include: A. placing dry towels over the open wound. B. cleaning the exposed bowel with sterile saline. C. applying the PASG to stop the associated bleeding. D. applying an occlusive dressing, secured by trauma dressings.

Peritonitis, an intense inflammatory reaction of the abdominal cavity, usually occurs when: A. solid abdominal organs bleed secondary to penetrating trauma. B. the vessels that supply the abdominal organs become inflamed. C. bacteria or viruses invade the walls of the gastrointestinal tract. D. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents.

Questions to ask when obtaining a history from a patient to have an allergic reaction include: A. whether the patient has a history of allergies. B. what the patient was exposed to. C. how the patient was exposed. D. all of the above.

Rape is considered to be a _____ diagnosis, not a medical diagnosis. A. psychological B surgical C. sociological D. legal

Safety guidelines for behavioral emergencies include the following EXCEPT: A. assessing the scene B. being prepared to spend extra time C. encouraging purposeful movement D. determining the underlying psychiatric disorder

Signs and symptoms of a dislocated joint include all of the following EXCEPT: A. marked deformity. B. tenderness on palpation. C. locked joint. D. ecchymosis.

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: a) hypotension. b) slurred speech. c) sedation. d) tachycardia.

Signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion and associated hypovolemia include all of the following except: A. cold, clammy skin with ashen pallor B. dizziness, weakness, or faintness C. normal vital signs D. normal thirst

Signs and symptoms of insect stings or bites include: A. swelling. B. wheals. C. localized heat. D. all of the above.

The EMT's primary responsibility to the patient who has been poisoned is to: a) contact poison control immediately. b) administer 25 g of activated charcoal. c) administer the appropriate antidote. d) recognize that a poisoning occurred.

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is used to assess: A. mental status, eye opening, and respiratory rate. B. sensory response, pupil reaction, and heart rate. C. verbal response, eye opening, and mental status. D. eye opening, verbal response, and motor response.

The _________ nervous system consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves and 12 pairs of cranial nerves. A. central B. somatic C. autonomic D. peripheral

The ability of cardiac muscle cells to contract spontaneously without a stimulus from a nerve source is called: A. excitability. B. contractility. C. impulsivity. D. automaticity.

The action of hormones such as epinephrine and norepinephrine stimulates _______ to maintain pressure in the system and, as a result, perfusion of all vital organs. A. an increase in heart rate B. an increase in the strength of cardiac contractions C. vasoconstriction in nonessential areas D. all of the above

The adult epinephrine auto-injector delivers ______ mg of epinephrine, and the pediatric auto-injector delivers ______ mg. A. 0.1, 0.01 B. 0.01, 0.1 C. 0.03, 0.3 D. 0.3, 0.15

The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary functions such as: A. sweating. B. digestion. C. constriction & dilation of capillary sphincters. D. all of the above.

The body's natural cooling mechanism, in which sweat is converted to a gas, is called: A. radiation. B. convection. C. conduction. D. evaporation.

The body's natural protective mechanisms against heat loss are: A. shivering and vasodilation. B. vasodilation and respiration. C. respiration and vasoconstriction. D. vasoconstriction and shivering.

The brain and spinal cord usually cannot go for more than _______ minutes without perfusion or the nerve cells will be permanently damaged A. 30 -45 B. 12-20 C. 8-10 D. 4-6

The cardiovascular system consists of A. A pump B. A container C. Fluid D. All of the above

The conjunctiva are kept moist by fluid produced by the: A. corneal duct. B. posterior orbit. C. optic chiasma. D. lacrimal gland.

The disruption of a joint in which the bone ends are no longer in contact is called a: A. strain. B. sprain. C. fracture. D. dislocation.

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: A. parietal lobe. B. pons and medulla. C. somatic nervous system. D. autonomic nervous system.

The eyeball itself is referred to as the: A. cornea B. sclera C. orbit D. globe

The first signs of peritonitis include all of the following EXCEPT: A. severe abdominal pain B. tenderness C. muscular spasm D. nausea

The form the manufacturer chooses for a medication ensures: A) the proper route of the medication B) the timing of the medication's release into the bloodstream C) the medication's effects on target organs or body systems D) all of the above

The globe of the eye is also called the: A. lens. B. orbit. C. retina. D. eyeball.

The goal of the primary assessment is to: A. determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment. B. determine if the patient's problem is medical or trauma. C. identify patients that require transport to a trauma center. D. identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.

The greatest danger in displaying a personal bias or "labeling" a patient who frequently calls EMS is: A. demeaning or humiliating the patient and his family. B. discouraging the patient from calling EMS in the future. C. making the entire EMS system look unprofessional. D. overlooking a potentially serious medical condition.

The hallmark sign of compartment syndrome is: A. a lack of pain despite the severity of the injury. B. extreme redness to the injury site. C. a bounding pulse distal to the injury. D. pain out of proportion to the injury.

The inner surface of the eyelids and the exposed surface of the eye itself are covered by a delicate membrane called the: A. sclera. B. cornea. C. retina. D. conjunctiva.

The least common but most serious illness caused by heat exposure, occurring when the body is subjected to more heat than it can handle and normal mechanisms for getting rid of the excess heat are overwhelmed, is: A. hyperthermia B. heat cramps C. heat exhaustion D. heatstroke

The most common presenting sign of PID is: A. vaginal discharge. B. fever. C. nausea and vomiting. D. lower abdominal pain.

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _______ mm Hg. A. 70, 28 B. 88, 30 C. 90, 50 D. 104, 40

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be: A. deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician. B. as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented. C. performed in the presence of at least two police officers. D. limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: A. on the dorsum of the foot. B. above the lateral malleolus. C. in the fossa behind the knee. D. behind the medial malleolus.

The presence of air in the soft tissues of the neck that produces a crackling sensation is called: A. the "Rice Krispy" effect B. a pneumothorax C. rales D. subcutaneous emphysema

The pressure felt along the wall of the artery when the ventricles of the heart contract is referred to as the: A) asystolic pressure B) diastolic pressure C) idiopathic pressure D) systolic pressure

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approximately _______ pounds per square inch (psi). A. 500 B. 1,000 C. 1,500 D. 2,000

The principal clinical difference between a stroke and hypoglycemia is that patients with hypoglycemia: A. always take oral medications to maintain normal blood glucose levels. B. do not present with slurred speech or weakness to one side of the body. C. are typically alert and attempt to communicate with health care providers. D. usually have an altered mental status or decreased level of consciousness.

The rate and amount of heat loss by the body can be modified by all of the following except: A. increasing heat production B. moving to an area where heat loss is decreased C. wearing insulated clothing D. increasing fluid intake

The tough, fibrous outer meningeal layer is called the: A. pia mater. B. arachnoid. C. gray mater. D. dura mater.

The zone of injury includes the: A. adjacent nerves. B. adjacent blood vessels. C. surrounding soft tissue. D. all of the above.

To obtain the pulse rate in most patients, you should count the number of pulses felt in a ______. A) 15-second B) 20-second C) 25-second D) 30-second

Treatment for anaphylaxis and acute asthma attacks includes: A. epinephrine. B. high-flow oxygen. C. antihistamines. D. all of the above.

Treatment of electrical burns includes: A. maintaining the airway B. monitoring the patient closely for respiratory or cardiac arrest C. splinting any suspected injuries D. all of the above

Using elastic bandages to secure dressing may result in _____ if the injury swells or if the bandages are applied improperly. A. additional tissue damage B. loss of a limb C. impaired circulation D. all of the above

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: A. the volume of blood returning to the atria increases. B. the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood. C. blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion. D. the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood.

What effects will the application of an ice pack have on a hematoma? A. vasodilation and reduction of pain B. vasodilation and decreased bleeding C. vasodilation and reduction of swelling D. vasoconstriction and decreased bleeding

What is the function of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? A. allows flexion of the neck B. provides respiration C. connects the scapulae together D. allows movement of the head

What is the most common problem you may encounter when using a bag-mask device? a. volume of the bag-mask device b. positioning of the patient's head c. environmental conditions d. maintaining an airtight seal

What percentage of the air we breathe is made up of oxygen? a. 78% b. 12% c. 16% d. 21%

What type of muscle contracts and relaxes to control the movement of the contents within its structures? A. cardiac B. skeletal C. striated D. smooth

What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? A. Rear-end and rotational B. lateral and rollover C. frontal and rotational D. rotational and rollover

When a driver is in a car equipped with an air bag, but is not wearing a seatbelt, he or she will MOST likely strike the __________ when the air bag deploys upon impact. A. windshield B. dashboard C. steering wheel D. door

When a person is exposed to a cold environment: A. sweat is produced and is warmed when the vessels constrict. B. blood vessels dilate and divert blood to the core of the body. C. the skin becomes flushed secondary to peripheral vasodilation. D. peripheral vessels constrict and divert blood away from the skin.

When an organ of the abdomen is enlarged, rough palpation may cause ________ of the organ. A. distension B. nausea C. swelling D. rupture

When documenting a call involving a female patient who was sexually assaulted, the EMT should: A. theorize as to why the sexual assault occurred. B. include the results of his or her internal vaginal exam. C. include a description of the suspected perpetrator. D. avoid speculation and document only factual data.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that: Choose one answer. A. most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms. B. the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured. C. it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs. D. the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

When performing a history on a patient with abdominal trauma, which of the following questions would be appropriate regarding trauma? A. Is there any blood in your stool? B. Does your pain go anywhere? C. Do you have any nausea, vomiting or diarrhea? D. All of the above

When performing a physical exam on a victim of sexual assault, you should: A. expose and evaluate the patient's vaginal area regardless of whether there is bleeding. B. allow multiple people to observe the examination in case you have to testify. C. limit your examination to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries. D. place the patient's clothes into a paper bag.

When splinting an injury of the wrist, the hand should be placed: A. into a fist. B. in a straight position. C. in an extended position. D. in a functional position.

When the body loses sweat, it also loses: A. plasma. B. nutrients. C. erythrocytes. D. electrolytes.

Which of the following clinical signs is MOST suggestive of a ruptured cerebral artery? A. unilateral hemiparesis B. confusion and weakness C. nasal discharge of blood D. sudden, severe headache

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely affect the entire brain? A. blocked cerebral artery in the frontal lobe B. reduced blood supply to the left hemisphere C. ruptured cerebral artery in the occipital lobe D. respiratory failure or cardiopulmonary arrest

Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of a laryngeal injury? A. Hoarseness B. Difficulty breathing C. Subcutaneous emphysema D. Wheezing

Which of the following is NOT considered a possible cause of a psychiatric disorder? A. Social disturbance B. Chemical disturbance C. Biologic disturbance D. Emotional disturbance

Which of the following is NOT considered appropriate use of air medical services? A. The distance to a trauma center is greater than 25 miles. B. Traffic/road conditions make it unlikely to get the patient to the hospital in a timely manner. C. There is a mass-casualty incident. D. The closest trauma center is 10 minutes away by ground transport.

Which of the following is characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD)? A. the passage of bright red blood in the stool or coughing up blood B. symptom relief after taking nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs C. sharp pain that is typically located in both lower abdominal quadrants D. burning or pain in the stomach that subsides immediately after eating

Which of the following is considered a severe burn? A. any full-thickness burn B. 20% partial-thickness burn C. 10% full-thickness burn with abrasions D. 5% full-thickness burn with a fracture

Which of the following is of LEAST pertinence when obtaining medical history information from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? A. history of cigarette smoking B. history of previous heart attack C. presence of personal risk factors D. family history of hypertension

Which of the following is the MOST common cause of death from a blast injury? A. amputation B. burns C. chest trauma D. head trauma

Which of the following medications blocks the release of histamines? A. albuterol (Ventolin) B. epinephrine C. acetaminophen (Tylenol) D. diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Which of the following statements is FALSE? A. You may be able to predict whether a person will become violent. B. Scene safety is always your primary concern. C. Behavioral problems may be the result of drug or alcohol abuse. D. Most people with a mental illness are dangerous.

Which of the following statements regarding abdominal eviscerations is correct? A. Adherent material is preferred when covering an evisceration. B. The organs should be replaced carefully to avoid heat loss. C. Most evisceration's occur to the left upper quadrant D. The protruding organs should be kept warm and moist.

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is MOST correct? A. Anaphylactic shock occurs immediately after a person is sensitized to an allergen. B. Sensitized people will experience less severe reactions upon subsequent exposure. C. Anaphylactic shock is the result of immune system failure due to a toxic exposure. D. Each subsequent exposure following sensitization often produces a more severe reaction.

Which of the following statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is correct? A. The most common presenting symptom of PID is generalized upper abdominal pain. B. PID most commonly affects women who have had an ectopic pregnancy in the past. C. The most severe cases of PID occur in women who are not sexually active. D. PID can scar the fallopian tubes, which increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy.

Which of the following statements regarding severe burns is correct? A. Severe burns involving the airway have a 100% mortality rate. B. The majority of severe burns involve full-thickness burns only. C. Patients with severe burns are especially prone to hyperthermia. D. Severe burns are typically a combination of all degrees of burn.

Which of the following statements regarding striated muscle is correct? A. Striated muscle is involuntary because you have no conscious control over it. B. Most of the body's striated muscle is found within the walls of the blood vessels. C. Striated muscle tissue is attached directly to the bones by tough bands of cartilage. D. It forms the major muscle mass of the body and usually crosses at least one joint.

Which of the following statements regarding the clotting of blood is correct? A. Venous and capillary blood typically does not clot spontaneously. B. Bleeding begins to clot when the end of a damaged vessel dilates. C. Direct contact with the environment prevents blood from clotting. D. A person taking aspirin will experience slower blood clotting.

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? A. It is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling. B. It often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes. C. Nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes. D. It can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest.

You are called to a playground for an 8-year-old girl who has an uncontrolled nosebleed. The child is crying and will not to talk to you. The babysitter and other children present did not witness any trauma, but there is a bump on the temporal portion of the girl's head. The babysitter does state that the girl has had a cold for several days but can give you no further information on her medical history. What could be the possible cause(s) of the bleeding? A. A skull fracture B. Sinusitis C. Coagulation disorder D. All of the above

You are dispatched to a convenience store, where the clerk sustained a laceration to the side of his neck during a robbery attempt. During your assessment, you note bright red blood spurting from the laceration. You should: A. apply direct pressure below the lacerated vessel. B. circumferentially wrap a dressing around his neck. C. apply pressure to the closest arterial pressure point. D. apply direct pressure above and below the wound.

You are dispatched to a local high school track and field event for a 16-year-old male who fainted. The outside temperature is approximately 95°F (35°C) with high humidity. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious, alert, and complains of nausea and a headache. His skin is cool, clammy, and pale. You should: A. give him a liquid salt solution to drink. B. administer 100% supplemental oxygen. C. apply chemical ice packs to his axillae. D. move him into the cooled ambulance.

You have been dispatched to the home of a 52-year-old woman with severe flank pain. The patient tells you that she has right flank pain that radiates into her groin. What is MOST likely cause of her condition? A. cholecystitis B. Ileus C. appendicitis D. kidney stone

You respond to a home of a 78-year-old man having difficulty breathing. He is sitting at the kitchen table in a classic tripod position, wearing a nasal cannula. He is cyanotic, smoking, and has his shirt unbuttoned. His respirations are 30 breaths/min and shallow, his heart rate is 110 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 136/88 mm Hg. What should you do during the ongoing assessment? A. Assess vital signs every 5 minutes. B. Repeat the initial and focused assessment. C. Reassess interventions performed. D. All of the above.

You respond to the local rodeo arena for a bull rider. The scene is safe, and the patient is lying in the middle of the arena unconscious. His airway is open, and he is breathing at 20 breaths/min. His pulse is 128 beats/min and blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg. There is no obvious bleeding. Bystanders tell you he was thrown into the air and landed on the bull's head. He was not wearing a vest. Which of the following is NOT indicated in blunt trauma to the chest? A. Bruising of the lungs and heart B. Fracture of whole areas of the chest wall C. Damage to the aorta D. Dissection of the carotid arteries

Your patient is a 73-year-old man who was struck with severe chest pressure with radiating pain while having dinner at a local diner. Has has a small vial of nitroglycerin in his pocket but says through clenched teeth that he has not taken any in several days & needs you to help him to get the vial open. After administering oxygen, what is the first thing that you should do? A) Obtain the patient's blood pressure & ensure that his specific pressure is not below 110 mmHg B) Begin assisting the patient's ventilations C) Place him in a position of comfort for transport D) Ask if he has taken any erectile dysfunction medications in the last 24 hours

Your patient is complaining of fever, headache, stiffness of the neck, and red blotches on his skin. He most likely has: A. tuberculosis. B. hepatitis B. C. SARS. D. meningitis.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to: A. retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport. B. assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure. C. perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment. D. administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

_______ produce severe damage to the skeleton, surrounding soft tissues, and vital internal organs. A. Direct blow B. Indirect force C. Twisting force D. High-energy injury

___________ causes body heat to be lost as warm air in the lungs is exhaled into the atmosphere and cooler air is inhaled. A. convection b. conduction C. radiation D. respiration

All 1

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