All Domains LC-3-120Q
82. Stories are prioritized based on many factors. In a release planning exercise, the primary task is assigning stories to iterations. This is done primarily on the basis of: A. Value and risk B. Risk and cost C. Customer direction D. Team capabilities
A - The primary task in release planning is assigning stories to iterations, chiefly on the basis of value and risk.
52. If your release is 12 iterations away, your velocity is 14 points, your risk exposure is 1 iteration and with a 10% chance, how many points will you have finished? A. 154 B. 110 C. 86 D. 92
Using the following formula, risk_adjusted_points_remaining = (iterations_remaining - risk_exposure) X velocity / risk_multiplier --> points remaining = (12 - 1) X 14 = 154 points 10 percent chance: 154 / 1 = 154 points.
5. Which of the following charts shows how much work remains in an iteration? A. Iteration burndown chart B. Burndown chart C. Daily burndown chart D. Burnup chart
B - A burndown chart shows how much work remains in an iteration.
21. When is the definition of done first used by the team? A. During iteration reviews B. During retrospectives C. During iteration planning D. During feature estimation of user stories
D - The estimate must take into consideration all the work needed to complete the story - codified in the definition of done
64. A team's average billing rate is $2,000 per iteration. They plan to work in thirteen two-week iterations during the project a team velocity of twenty story points per iteration. What will be the budget for the overall project? A. 52,000 B. 13,000 C. 26,000 D. 520,000
C - 13 iterations * 2,000 per iteration = $26,000
33. Which of the following defines a complex story? A. A user story that contains multiple stories B. A user story that users can mark as inactive C. A user story that is large by nature and cannot easily be dissected into smaller stories D. A user story that is not executable
C - A complex story is a user story that is large by nature and cannot easily be dissected into smaller stories.
7. Which of the following is a unit of measure to express the estimated difficulty or the effort of a user story that is based on an analogous estimation technique? A. Days B. Years C. Story Points D. Iterations
C - A story point is a unit of measure to express the estimated difficulty or the effort of a user story and is arrived at by a comparison (analogy) with benchmark stories.
32. Assuming one-week iterations and a team of four developers, how many iterations will it take for the team to complete a project with 27 story points if they have a velocity of 4? A. 4 B. 6 C. 7 D. 24
C - Number of Iterations = 27/4 = 6.75 ~7
5. Which of the following is NOT a good way to split a large story into smaller stories? A. Decomposing the story along operational boundaries B. Making design, development, and testing as separate stories C. Limiting the amount of data being processed D. Separating the exceptions and cross-cutting concerns
C. A story should deliver value to the customer. Just design or development without testing will not deliver value
46. One of your stakeholders wants more details than the vision statement provides, but not the overwhelming details of the release and iteration plans. Which of the following progress report will you share with this stakeholder? A. Roadmap B. Status email C. Iteration plan D. Productivity chart
A - A roadmap is the best report when stakeholders want more details than the vision statement provides. It summarizes planned releases and the significant features in each one.
94. A pharmaceutical product development process includes getting a mandatory FDA approval at the end. What would you recommend as an agile coach for the team? A. A hybrid process should be used in which the development is agile but the approval process is linear or predictive B. Agile should not be applied to projects when regulatory approvals are necessary C. Modify the process to get regulatory approvals in the middle of the life cycle D. Write a separate story for the regulatory requirements and schedule it throughout the life cycle
A - As an agile coach, you should recommend the use of a hybrid process in which the development is agile but the approval process is linear or predictive.
28. Who specifies acceptance tests in an agile project? A. Product owner B. Programmer C. Developer D. Scrum master
A - As the software is being written to fulfill a vision held by the product owner, the acceptance tests need to be specified by the product owner. The product owner can work with a programmer or tester to actually create the tests, but the product owner needs to specify the tests that will be used to know when a story has been correctly developed.
24. Which methodology deals with the movement of a product from development to operational environment? A. DevOps B. ITIL C. Kanban D. Scrum
A - DevOps helps in moving development product to operations
86. During the second level of conflict, disagreement, the team members distance themselves from one another, except in one-on-one conversations to obtain advice and support. What becomes as important as solving the problem? A. Self-protection B. Satisfying self-ego C. Aiming to win D. Aiming to grow
A - During disagreement, self-protection becomes as important as solving the problem or the conflict situation.
9. A team is conducting the daily standup but the team member's updates don't conclude within 15 minutes. What should the scrum master do at this point? A. Declare the meeting as closed and encourage the team to be more focused next time B. Limit the remaining updates to just half minute by each team member C. Provide the remaining updates in brief on behalf of the rest of the team D. Ask the team to provide the updates over email
A - If the scrum meetings extend beyond 15 minutes, the scrum master should declare the meeting as closed and encourage the team to be more focused next time.
79. Many contract types are used on agile projects, including fixed price contracts. In a fixed price contract, the risk of cost escalation is borne mostly by the: A. Supplier B. Customer C. Product owner D. Project team
A - In a fixed price contract, the risk is mostly assumed by the supplier because if the estimate is incorrect the supplier must still honor the price fixed with the customer.
57. In an iteration, the team committed 10 stories but completed only eight. What can be done about the remaining two stories? A. They move back to the product backlog B. They move to the next iteration C. The iteration is extended till all stories are completed D. The team performs a short iteration to complete them
A - Incomplete stories move to the backlog and are prioritized against the rest of the items.
59. What financial return parameter will be best for comparing the values of two different cash flow streams? A. Internal rate of return B. Payback period C. Discounted payback period D. Compound interest
A - Internal rate of return (IRR) is used to express the return on project in percentage when comparing the two different cash flow streams.
80. Teams utilizing unfamiliar technology may need time for training prior to a project's launch and time to establish a development environment. The best way to account for this is to include the training time ____. A. In iteration 0 B. As a new story C. Outside the scope of the project as such D. As a part of the functional manager's budget
A - Iteration 0 is used to prepare the team for the project and need not deliver direct customer value.
3. A product owner realizes that a software used to serve hospital customers, with some enhancements, can also be used to serve health insurers. The product owner asks the development team to make the changes and is able to create a new source of revenue to the company from the new software. Under what revenue stream is this feature classified? A. New Revenue B. Incremental Revenue C. Retained Revenue D. Operational Efficiencies
A - New Revenue is the revenue from a new opportunity after a project is completed.
26. A story that was planned as one story point, actually took two days to complete. How much does it contribute to the velocity when calculated at the end of the iteration? A. One Point B. Three Points C. Two Points D. Cannot be calculated
A - Only the original planned effort of one story point is used to calculate the Velocity at the end of the iteration.
36. Name the XP technique where two people work: one person who codes is the driver and the other person who thinks is the navigator? A. Pair programming B. Planning poker C. Planning technique D. Coding technique
A - Pair programming is when two developers work on the same code together to improve efficiency.
16. A meeting where a team reflects and looks back to adapt and learns to improve future projects is popularly known as: A. Retrospective B. Planning C. Review session D. Status meeting
A - Retrospective is the meeting where a team reflects and looks back to adapt and learn to do future projects better.
20. Self-organization implies a reliance on internal motivation of the team rather than external motivation. This is referred to as: A. Delegatory management B. Measurement-based management C. Democratic management D. Autocratic management
A - Self-organization implies a reliance on internal motivation of the team rather than external motivation (i.e., a measurement target). Author Austin calls this delegatory management as contrasted with measurement-based management. He goes on to say, "measurement-based management is in conflict with delegatory management. There is a negative interaction because of the implicit message of distrust that a measurement system conveys by the fact of its existence."
91. A team is experiencing conflict while solving a particular issue. It can be said that the level of conflict is 1 (a problem to solve). What is the appropriate response option at this level? A. Collaboration and consensus B. Accommodate C. Safety D. Root case analysis
A - Successful response options at level 1 are collaboration and consensus.
38. There are different types of retrospectives: release retrospectives, project retrospectives, iteration retrospectives, and surprise retrospectives. What are surprise retrospectives? A. Retrospectives conducted when an unplanned event changes the situation B. Retrospectives conducted at the end of each iteration C. Retrospectives conducted half way of each project D. Retrospectives suggested by the scrum master
A - Surprise retrospectives are conducted when an unplanned event changes the situation.
73. Which of the following chart indicates the scope changes made during an agile project? A. Burndown bar chart B. Sprint burndown chart C. Scrum board D. Parking lot chart
A - The burndown bar chart indicates the scope changes in addition to the work completed.
15. Team 1 has been asked to complete work on Item 10's story and deliver it to Team 2 so that they can initiate work on Item 12's story, which is dependent on the completion of Item 10's story. The leader of Team 1 decides to add a buffer that protects the start date on Item 12's story against delays in the completion of Item 10's story. This buffer is known as: A. Feeding buffer B. Iteration buffer C. Story buffer D. Release buffer
A - The feeding buffer protects the start date on Item 12's story against delays in the completion of Item 10's story.
99. What is the primary output of the sprint planning meeting? A. Sprint backlog B. Product backlog C. Working product D. Refined product backlog
A - The outcome of the sprint planning meeting is the sprint backlog.
66. A team often starts the retrospective with each participant declaring allegiance to the prime directive. Why is this important? A. To ensure that the retrospective does not degenerate into a blame game B. To ensure that the team achieves the goals set up during sprint planning C. To reaffirm the commitments made by the team during the planning D. To get the right feedback about the product from the customers and other stakeholders
A - The prime directive ensures that the retrospective is conducted without blaming each other for what happened. It ensures that the focus is instead on improvements.
97. To detect problems at the process level, the team uses a questionnaire that lists required elements and qualities that are the basic ingredients of agile. Using it, we can estimate the maturity of the agile process in the organization and how well the team follows the agile process. This questionnaire is referred to as: A. Health check B. Compliance requirement C. Audit D. Acceptance criteria
A - The questionnaire is referred to as a health check.
39. The red team finished 38 story points in their last two-week iteration. The blue team has half as many developers on a different project and completed 38 story points in their last two-week iteration. What can be determined from this information? A. The story points of one team are not comparable to the story points of any other team B. Team A is twice as productive as Team B C. Team A should have more people in the team D. Team B has the management support
A - The story points of one team are not comparable to the story points of any other team.
72. When the estimates of a team practising Planning Poker estimation do not converge, how can a decision be made? A. Ask the team to come to a decision B. Take the majority view C. Take the highest of the estimates D. Take an expert opinion
A - The team has to decide how to arrive at a decision regarding estimates. This is true regardless of the technique used.
100. When would you consider changing the team composition of an agile team? A. When the team lacks a critical skill that is needed to deliver a product B. When the functional manager wants to replace a team member C. When the team wants to add or remove members D. When the project is completed and a new project is about to start
A - The team needs all the skills required to complete the product increment.
54. What is wrong with the story - "As an administrator, I want to manage assignments so that I can control the workload"? A. The word manage does not provide enough detail about what exactly is needed B. The story does not say who needs it C. The story does not specify the reason D. The story is too small
A - The word manage does not provide details - it may potentially consist of multiple stories bunched together
68. A product owner felt that the "performance" of the product in terms of response time needed to be improved. The team then discussed what modifications were necessary in the product to achieve this. They came up with a bunch of work items. According to the product backlog, these work items can be collectively referred to as a ______. A. Theme B. Epic C. Story D. Task
A - Theme is the main purpose behind a group of stories, an iteration, or a release.
47. With whom should a team share information about the progress and impediments? A. All interested stakeholders B. Team members, team facilitator and subject matter experts C. Team members, team facilitator and product owner D. Senior management and customer
A - Transparency is a key principle of scrum. Therefore the information must be made transparent to all interested stakeholders.
81. A user story must be properly described so that the readers can understand what is the underlying requirement. Such a story is often called a closed story. Which of the following is NOT a closed story? A. A recruiter can review resumes from applicants to one of their ads B. A recruiter can delete an application that is not a good match for a job C. A recruiter can manage ads D. A recruiter can change the expiry date of an ad
A recruiter can manage the ads that they place is not a closed story because it is an ongoing activity
89. Spike solutions are small experiments to answer a question and determine a path forward. Which of the following types of spikes will you use if you need to test an approach to solve a particular problem? A. Development spikes B. Design spikes C. Scheduling spikes D. Iteration spikes
B - A design spike is used to test the appropriateness of a particular solution or approach.
34. Which of the following is NOT an attribute of a good story? A. Testable B. Large C. Independent D. Negotiable
B - A good story has six attributes - Independent, Negotiable, Valuable to users or customers, Estimable, Small, and Testable.
74. A team is wondering whether to use Planning Poker or affinity estimation to estimate a subset of the product backlog. Affinity estimation is preferred over Planning Poker when: A. A team-based approach is necessary B. A large number of items need to be estimated C. When the unit of estimation is ideal days instead of points D. When the design or approach is unclear
B - Affinity estimation is most valuable when there are a large number of items to be estimated.
69. A project uses a version control system to mediate changes, which includes updating codes, testing the code, and then checking-in the changes, which may occur several times in a day. This process is known as: A. Version control management B. Continuous integration C. Simple integration D. Configuration management
B - Continuous integration is the development practice of updating codes, testing the code, and then checking-in the changes, which may occur several times in a day.
75. The ideal time estimate for a given piece of work does not automatically translate into the elapsed time. A conversion factor is often necessary. Which of the following defines elapsed time? A. It is the same as ideal time B. The actual amount of time that the team spent on developing a feature C. The amount of time without any interruptions D. The amount of time that the team spent on the iteration
B - Elapsed time is the actual amount of time that the team spent on developing a feature.
14. The team working on a product has become too large and the product demands are increasing. This is resulting in increasing the team size beyond manageable levels. What can be done? A. Split the teams into a development and test team to keep the size of each team manageable B. Split the teams into feature teams, each taking care of a manageable chunk of user-visible product C. Grow the team size to the desired level and follow a hybrid model combining agile and waterfall practices D. Sacrifice some productivity in the interest of meeting the customer goals
B - Feature teams are a good way for a team to scale to the requirements of the product.
1. Forecasting the financial value of a theme comprising a set of features is the responsibility of: A. Analysts B. Product Owner C. Project Manager D. Sponsor
B - Forecasting the financial value of a theme is the responsibility of the product owner.
17. In the agile methodology, decisions are mostly taken by consensus. Consensus in this context means: A. Everybody is onboard and agrees with the decision B. Everybody is able to live with the decision C. The decision is taken by one or two people after consulting with the team D. The decision is taken by majority of the team members present and voting
B - In agile methodology, decisions are taken in the spirit of "I can live with that". Whether it is estimates or technical approach or priorities - it is virtually impossible to reach 100% agreement
30. When can a plan be changed in agile management? A. At the end of the Iteration B. When something new is learned C. At the daily meeting D. Cannot be changed
B - In agile, you can change the plan when something new is learned or when it is known that a mistake is to be avoided.
23. How would risk be managed in an agile project? A. Decision tree B. Risk-adjusted backlog C. Risk assessment matrix D. Risk management plan
B - In an agile project, risk would be managed using the risk-adjusted backlog.
41. A stand-up meeting is conducted in the morning every day. Each person describes the new information that the team should know. Which of the following is NOT discussed? A. What did I do yesterday? B. What are my tasks for the coming week? C. What do I plan to do today? D. What issues are preventing my progress?
B - In the daily stand-up meeting, the tasks for next week would not be discussed, only yesterday's activity, today's activity, and current issues are discussed.
10. In a project, all the user stories are estimated and the sum of those estimates is 200 story points. Based on past experience, it is known that the team velocity is 25 story points per two-week iteration. How many iterations does the project need to complete the user stories? A. 9 B. 8 C. 5 D. 1
B - Iterations = 200/25 = 8
19. Which of the following charts show the number of tasks completed each day of the iteration to monitor the progress? A. Progression charts B. Task burnup chart C. Task check-off charts D. Task charts
B - Many agile practitioners use a task burnup chart, which shows the number of tasks completed each day of the iteration to monitor progress.
87. John and Joseph are working in the same room. John is programming and Joseph is discussing with Kim. John overhears their conversation enough to know that Joseph has discussed an idea with Kim. What kind of communication is this referred to as? A. Push communication B. Osmotic communication C. Pull communication D. Active listening
B - Osmotic communication occurs when people in the same environment hear and comprehend information without it being communicated to them directly.
96. A team facilitator in an agile team is an example of a servant leader. Which of the following is not a servant leader's responsibility? A. Enabling people to contribute B. Ensuring that the team delivers on commitments C. Removing impediments D. Facilitating collaboration
B - Servant leaders help, unblock, and enable, but they do not ensure that the team delivers on commitments.
6. Which one of the following phases of project management includes developing a capability and/or feature-based release plan for the product? A. Envision B. Speculate C. Explore D. Adapt
B - Speculate phase includes developing a capability and/or feature based release plan to deliver the vision.
77. The MoSCoW technique is used to create a prioritized requirements list and is popularly used in the DSDM agile technique. In the MoSCoW technique, 'M' stands for: A. Medium B. Must C. Must Not Have D. Minimum Marketable Features
B - The MoSCoW prioritization scheme derived its name from the first letters of its labels: must, should, could, won't.
35. When a team of people work together, the team goes through a specific sequence of group dynamics called the Tuckman model. Which of the following depicts the correct sequence of this process? A. Forming, Norming, Performing, Storming B. Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing C. Forming, Performing, Storming, Norming D. Storming, Norming, Performing, Forming
B - The Tuckman model has the following stages: Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing.
78. Pair programming is a widely used practice in the extreme programming method. This method allows two people to work on a task instead of one. The primary advantage of this method is that _____ ... A. It optimally utilizes the available development effort B. It leads to knowledge sharing and collective code ownership C. It generates self-testing code D. It leads to greater commitment and ownership from the team
B - The pair programming method leads to knowledge sharing across the team.
53. The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should NOT focus on: A. What we did well in the previous iteration B. What should be planned for the next iteration C. What we did not do well in the previous iteration D. What we need to change as a team
B - The retrospective meeting on previous iteration should not get distracted by planning the next iteration.
Which of the following is true about the throughput of a team? A. Throughput = WIP * Cycle time B. Throughput = 1 / Cycle Time C. Throughput = WIP / Lead Time D. Throughput = Lead time /Cycle time
B - Throughput is the number of features the team can develop in a particular amount of time and is the inverse of the cycle time.
60. In the relative weighting prioritization technique, what is the relative contribution of feature X to the project if it has a value of 12 and the total value of all features is 35? A. 0.38 B. 0.34 C. 2.91 D. 14.91
B - To calculate the relative contribution of each feature, divide its value by the sum of the Total Value of all features. Hence, relative contribution of feature X = 12/35 = 0.34.
83. Agile methods are not uniformly applicable to all kinds of projects. Broadly speaking, one can say that agile is most suitable when: A. The team is largely inexperienced B. The teams are distributed geographically C. The requirements are changing and the technology is moderately complex D. The customer prefers to work in a linear or incremental fashion
C - Agile methods are most appropriate when the complexity of requirements and/or technology is moderate.
27. A good approach for small stories is to combine them into larger stories that represent from about a half-day to several days of work. The combined story is given a name and is scheduled and worked on just like any other story. Which of the following is an example of a small story? A. Major database architecture changes B. Updating over one hundred automated reports C. User interface changes D. Status updates
C - Bug reports and user interface changes are common examples of stories that are too small for an individual story.
95. The primary difference between iteration-based agile and flow-based agile is that: A. Iteration-based agile may have different iteration durations for each feature B. Flow-based agile is based on time boxed iterations C. Flow-based agile may have different iteration durations for each feature D. Iteration-based agile relies more on feature teams
C - Flow-based agile relies on teams picking up features for development and completing them based on their ability - rather than fixed set of time boxes.
58. Which of the following factors will NOT assist in improving the project velocity? A. Pay down technical debt B. Offload programmer duties C. Reduce customer involvement D. Provide needed resources
C - Improving customer involvement will assist in improving the project velocity (not reducing).
12. Who should participate in an iteration retrospective session? A. Team, product owner, and managers of the team members B. Team, customers, and team facilitator C. Team and the team facilitator D. Team, team facilitator, and subject matter experts
C - Inviting external participants to the retrospective may affect the free exchange of ideas within the team.
48. Which of the following is NOT true about the Iteration demos? A. It demonstrates the team progress B. It realistically reports progress C. It is shown only to a select set of stakeholders D. It solicits feedback from customers
C - Iteration demos are not shown only to select set of stakeholders, but all stakeholders and are invited to provide feedback.
11. Who should participate in iteration review? A. Team members and product owner B. Team members and team facilitator C. Team members, product owner and anybody who can give feedback about the product D. Product specialists, customers, iteration manager, developers, and testers
C - Iteration review is a good forum to collect feedback so anybody whose inputs are valuable may be invited to the meeting.
90. Which of the following statements about lean, Kanban and agile is not true? A. Lean thinking is a superset that encompasses both Kanban and agile approaches B. Kanban approaches are less prescriptive than agile methods as it advocates "start where you are" C. Agile methods are a superset that include both lean and Kanban D. Agile approaches encompass many approaches like scrum, DSDM, etc.
C - Lean thinking is the superset of agile and Kanban methods, not the other way around.
67. A product owner is discussing prospective features that will be added in the near future with customers. According to the planning onion, the PO is describing the _______. A. Strategy B. Release plan C. Roadmap D. Iteration goals
C - PO's often present product roadmaps to customers to give them a glimpse of the upcoming product features.
63. What is NOT true about participatory decision-making? A. It is a technique that involves all the affected parties B. It is a style of making decisions where timeliness of decision is important C. It ensures that all interested parties agree with the decision D. In it many concerned parties are consulted before making a decision
C - Participatory decision-making is a technique that involves all the affected parties. It does not mean all have to agree with the decision. They have to be able to "live with" the decision.
93. A predictive life cycle uses the traditional approach to project management. All activities are performed in sequence and typically only once throughout the project. The predictive life cycle is suitable when: A. Requirements are highly dynamic B. Small deliveries are frequently required C. Requirements are more or less fixed D. The solution is repeated until it is correct
C - Predictive life cycles are best when requirements are more or less fixed.
2. A team decided to work on a set of features that are already present in a competing product and are highly desired by customers. Which of the following reasons to justify project work is exemplified in this scenario? A. Revenue due to a new opportunity B. Additional incremental revenue from existing customers C. Revenue that an organization will lose if the project is not performed D. Revenue due to streamlining a process
C - Retained revenue refers to the revenue an organization will lose if the project is not performed.
22. What is the Japanese term for a technique used to perform root cause analysis using a fishbone diagram? A. Lean B. Sashimi C. Ishikawa diagram D. Kaizen
C - Root cause analysis can be performed using Ishikawa diagrams or fishbone diagrams
55. Which of the following is NOT a principle from the agile Manifesto? A. Responding to change B. Customer collaboration C. Technical excellence D. Working software
C - The four principles of the agile Manifesto are individuals and interactions, working software, customer collaboration, and responding to change.
62. After completing the calculation using the relative weights method, the numerical priority value for feature A was 0.92, B was 0.88, C was 0.97, and D was 0.41. Which of the features should be implemented first? A. A B. B C. C D. D
C - The order of the feature is determined by dividing priorities. Since C has highest priority value, it should be picked up first.
85. A newly appointed product owner is looking for a list of all the known features that are to be implemented in the future. Where can this information be found? A. Prioritized sprint B. Vision box C. Product backlog D. Sprint review meet
C - The product backlog documents all the known features that are to be implemented throughout the project.
42. Which of the following most appropriately describes a task board? A. Appears on a whiteboard B. Show the project trends C. Organizes work and communicates what work is left D. Displays the velocity
C - The task board organizes work and communicates what work is left.
76. A Kanban system for managing work is often used by teams. Which of the following is one of the essential steps of putting into place a Kanban system? A. Creating a value stream map B. Identifying the waste and removing it C. Visualizing the workflow D. Managing work in iterations
C - Visualizing the work is an essential part of a Kanban system.
49. During which project management phase is the product backlog changed based on feedback received? A. Envision B. Speculate C. Explore D. Adapt
D - It is during the adapt phase, the team adjusts based on feedback received.
8. A team needs to be very responsive to changes and improve the product and process rapidly. How should the agile process be tailored for this team? A. Hire more technically capable teams B. Spend more time in the design of the system to make it more flexible C. Clarify all the requirements upfront to limit the extent of change encountered D. Work in shorter increments and retrospect more often
D - Agile practice guide Table 3-1. The team should retrospect more often and work in shorter increments
31. You have been assigned a new project that is large, complex, and uncertain. As a project manager, you will be using agile project management. Which of the following would you select while creating your team? A. A team that is expandable with the project B. A large team C. A functional manager who is responsible for the team D. A small cross-functional team
D - As per agile methodology, it is best to work with small teams staffed by cross-functional skills and increase the number of team members only when necessary.
37. An informative and collaborative workspace makes information easily communicated by just being in the room. Which of the following is least likely to be present in an informative workspace? A. Big visible charts B. Process improvement charts C. Hand-drawn charts D. Project charter
D - Big visible charts, process improvement charts, hand-drawn charts are all examples that might be found in an informative workspace. A project charter would be a project document that would be stored in the project archive and not visible to the team in a workspace.
45. Which of the following will NOT assist in critical problem solving during the project? A. Ask probing questions B. Use active listening C. Use reflective listening D. Injecting ideas
D - During critical problem solving, you can ask probing questions and use active and reflective listening to find an answer, but one should avoid injecting their ideas.
70. When a team uses ideal days as a unit of estimation, which of the following is NOT true? A. There won't be any distractions B. All dependencies are met C. The team will focus only on the work D. A relative size unit is used
D - Ideal time is an absolute measure of size. Story points is a relative measure of size.
56. In a design-the-box activity, the objective is to design the product box front and back. Which of the following would NOT be included in the activity? A. Graphic design B. Feature description C. Operating requirements D. Competitor's product name and features
D - In a design-the-box activity, the objective is to design the product box front and back and would include the graphic design, feature description, and operating requirements.
88. Which of the following is NOT included on information radiators? A. Work breakdown B. Project status C. Automated build report D. Performance analysis of team members
D - Information radiators may display the work breakdown, project status, and automated build report, but not the performance analysis of individual team members.
29. What does the lean principle "amplify learning" mean? A. Emphasize trainings to the team members B. Hire employees with good academic records C. Encourage team members to learn from their seniors by pairing D. View every problem encountered as a learning opportunity to make the process better
D - Lean is based on the principle of "amplify learning" where every incident or problem is a learning opportunity.
98. Extreme programming is a collection of practices that enable high quality products. Which of the following is NOT one of the XP Practices? A. Programmer welfare B. Shared understanding C. Fine-scale feedback D. MoSCoW prioritization
D - MoSCoW is a part of the DSDM method.
13. Technical debt is the gap between a product's actual Cost of Change (CoC) and its optimal CoC. What is a good way to keep technical debt low? A. Devoting every alternate iteration to "hardening" activities B. Selecting more technically capable team members C. Invoking strict penalties for not following good design practices D. Performing frequent refactoring and following good development practices at all times
D - Performing frequent refactoring and following good development practices at all times is the best way to keep technical debt low.
18. When should be the best time for the team to estimate a task? A. Throughout the iteration B. During iteration planning C. During the release planning and baselining the plan D. During the time of planning and whenever additional information is available
D - Project team will estimate a task at the time of planning and reestimate whenever necessary
51. Which of the following does NOT explain refactoring? A. Organizes the working code B. Improves code quality C. Makes the code more maintainable D. Reduces bugs dramatically
D - Refactoring is the reorganization of code to make it more organized, of higher quality, and more maintainable. It does not reduce bugs.
61. Which of the following is NOT true about agile retrospectives? A. The team decides how they will work together to complete the project B. The team reflects on past work and learns from the project history C. The team decides how to drive the development process D. The team decides who will be part of the team for the next project
D - Retrospective is a meeting in which a team learns from their project history and discusses how they worked together and what they can learn from their progress on the project. This helps the team members to continue the development process and resolve issues when they arise.
44. Which of the following is NOT included in the story cards information? A. Estimated value points B. Story description C. Story dependencies D. Velocity
D - Story cards information includes story name, story description, estimated work effort, estimated value points, requirements uncertainty, story dependencies, and acceptance tests. Velocity is the number of user stories that are delivered in iteration.
43. Some stakeholders are interested in viewing the project progress, but are not interested in the details. Which of the following should you share with these stakeholders? A. Weekly demo B. Vision Statement C. Release plan D. Burnup chart
D - The burnup chart shows progress towards project completion and the expected completion date.
71. Agile teams may use Planning Poker for estimation. Which of the following is NOT true about Planning Poker? A. It combines expert opinion, analogy, and disaggregation to obtain reliable estimates B. Participants include all the developers in the team C. The team for Planning Poker should not exceed more than 10 participants D. The highest estimate is considered the final estimate
D - The highest estimate is not necessarily considered the final estimate because the players with high and low estimates must explain their estimates and then a decision is taken by the players as to the final estimate value.
84. "Having problems does not indicate a problem in itself, so welcome problems because they bring with them the chance for the team to overcome, grow, and become stronger together." As an agile coach, which of the following is NOT a perspective to analyze and detect the symptoms of a problem? A. Process level B. Quality and performance level C. Team dynamics dimension D. Management of team members
D - The multiple perspectives to analyze include the process level, the quality and performance angle, and the team dynamics dimension, not the management of team members.
4. Which of the following are the responsibilities of the scrum master? A. Achieving initial and ongoing funding for the project B. Teaching the product owner about the business or domain C. Being responsible for developing the functionality of the product D. Facilitating communication by removing the barrier between the team and the product owner
D - The scrum master is responsible for removing impediments and facilitating communications between the team.
40. Four developers are estimating a story. The estimates provided are two, three, six, and ten story points. Which estimate should be used? A. The one given by the expert B. The majority view C. The average of the estimates D. The team should decide by consensus
D - The team consensus should be used to estimate the story points.
92. As per the Kano model of customer satisfaction, which features are most important for the product to be ready for the marketplace? A. Exciters B. Linear Features C. Delighters D. Threshold
D - Threshold features are the must-have features present in the product.
65. A team is wondering whether a given user story meets its intended scope. Which of the following is NOT true regarding scope in agile projects? A. Scope in agile is primarily a function of rolling wave planning B. Scope creep doesn't exist in agile projects C. Scope is controlled using the product backlog D. Scope is verified by the scrum master
D -Scope is verified by the product owner and not the scrum master.
