All in one *Final*

Previous Edition 19) A false material statement made by an applicant for insurance is an example of A) concealment. B) breach of warranty. C) lack of offer and acceptance. D) misrepresentation.

D

Previous Edition 33) The voluntary relinquishment of a legal right is called A) subrogation. B) adhesion. C) estoppel. D) waiver.

D

1) That part of a property and liability insurance contract that contains information about the property or activity to be insured is called the A) declarations. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

A

1) Which of the following is a basic characteristic of insurance? A) pooling of losses B) avoidance of risk C) payment of intentional losses D) certainty about specific losses that will occur

A

Previous Edition 50) A risk that affects only individuals or small groups and not the entire economy is called a A) diversifiable risk. B) pure risk. C) speculative risk. D) nondiversifiable risk.

A

Previous Edition 13) Which of the following is a covered person under the medical payments coverage of the PAP? A) a family member of the named insured if struck by an auto while crossing the street B) a pedestrian struck by the named insured's auto C) the named insured while she is operating her car as a taxi D) a carjacker who is involved in an accident after stealing the insured's car

A

Previous Edition 17) All of the following statements about long-term care insurance are true EXCEPT A) Premiums can be reduced by electing shorter elimination periods. B) A common benefits trigger is the inability to perform a certain number of activities of daily living. C) Protection against inflation is usually made available as an optional benefit. D) Policies currently sold are guaranteed renewable.

A

Previous Edition 25) Duties of an insured after a collision loss covered under the PAP include which of the following? I. Take reasonable steps to protect the vehicle from further damage. II. Admit fault if the insured believes he or she caused the collision. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 30) What is the practical effect of an insurance policy being a conditional contract? A) The insurer can refuse to a pay claim if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The insured gets the benefit of the doubt if a policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

A

Previous Edition 10) Deductibles are not used in which of the following type of insurance? A) life insurance B) health insurance C) property insurance D) disability income insurance

A

Previous Edition 12) When must an insurable interest legally exist in property insurance for an insured to receive payment for a loss from the insurer? A) only at the time of the loss B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the loss settlement takes place D) both at the time of the loss and at the inception of the policy

A

Previous Edition 14) Tony has an unendorsed Personal Auto Policy which provides medical payments coverage. Under which of the following circumstances would the injured person be eligible for benefits under Tony's policy? I. A friend in the car is injured while Tony is driving a covered auto. II. A passenger on a motorcycle driven by Tony is injured when Tony hit another vehicle. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 15) At what point in time must an insured meet the coinsurance requirement in a property insurance policy in order to avoid having to pay a portion of the loss? A) only at the time of loss B) only at the time when the policy is issued C) only at the time of policy application D) both at the time when the policy is issued and at the time of loss

A

Previous Edition 17) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and gambling is (are) true? I. Insurance is used to handle existing pure risks, while gambling creates a new speculative risk. II. Insurance usually involves risk avoidance, while gambling typically involves only risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 19) A pure risk is defined as a situation in which there is A) only the possibility of loss or no loss. B) only the possibility of profit. C) a possibility of neither profit nor loss. D) a possibility of either profit or loss.

A

Previous Edition 19) Inland marine insurance provides coverage for A) goods being shipped on land. B) premature death of members of the armed forces. C) goods being shipped on ocean-going vessels. D) liability exposures of nonprofit organizations.

A

Previous Edition 2) Which of the following is a fundamental purpose of the principle of indemnity? A) to reduce moral hazard B) to minimize physical hazards C) to settle property insurance losses on a replacement cost basis D) to require deductibles in all property insurance policies

A

Previous Edition 2) Which of the following statements about the payment of defense costs by the PAP is (are) true? I. They are paid in addition to the policy limits. II. They are payable even after the limit of liability is exhausted. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 20) The premature death of an individual is an example of a A) pure risk. B) speculative risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) physical hazard.

A

Previous Edition 20) Which of the following is classified as casualty insurance? A) workers compensation insurance B) fire insurance C) marine insurance D) life insurance

A

Previous Edition 20) Which of the following statements about a warranty in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. It is part of the insurance contract. II. Statements made by an insurance applicant are considered warranties rather than representations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 22) Which of the following statements regarding private insurance and government insurance is (are) true? I. Private insurance programs include life and health insurance and property and liability insurance. II. Social insurance programs are government insurance programs that are voluntary and financed entirely by contributions from covered employers. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 51) The authority of an agent to perform all incidental acts necessary to fulfill the purposes of the agency agreement is called A) implied authority. B) declared authority. C) apparent authority. D) express authority.

A

Previous Edition 25) Kate is covered under her employer's group health plan. She is also covered as a dependent under her husband's group health plan. Under the usual coordination-of-benefits provision, how will each company respond to a claim filed by Kate? A) Kate's plan is primary, and her husband's plan is excess. B) Her husband's plan is primary, and Kate's plan is excess. C) The plan of the person with the birthday earliest in the year pays first, and the other plan is excess. D) Each plan will pay 50 percent of the claim.

A

Previous Edition 29) Which of the following statements about liability risks is (are) true? I. Future income and assets can be attached to pay judgments if inadequate insurance is carried. II. There is an upper limit on the amount of loss. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 29) Which of the following types of insurance policies can usually be assigned without the insurer's consent? I. Life insurance II. Property insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 3) All of the following are covered autos under the liability section of the PAP EXCEPT A) a nonowned van which is driven by the insured on a regular basis. B) a trailer owned by the named insured. C) a borrowed auto used by the insured as a substitute for a stolen covered auto. D) a newly acquired auto which replaces a vehicle previously described in the policy.

A

Previous Edition 3) An insurance company estimates its objective risk for 10,000 exposures to be 10 percent. Assuming the probability of loss remains the same, what would happen to the objective risk if the number of exposures were to increase to 1 million? A) It would decrease to 1 percent. B) It would decrease to 5 percent. C) It would remain the same. D) It would increase to 20 percent.

A

Previous Edition 3) Which of the following statements about "open-perils" coverage is (are) true? I. All losses are covered except those losses specifically excluded. II. The burden of proof is on the insured to prove that a loss is covered. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 30) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred: —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the other driver's medical expenses? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

A

Previous Edition 32) Gina would like to buy a house. She will pay 10 percent of the cost of the house as a down payment and borrow the other 90 percent from a mortgage lender. The home will serve as collateral for the loan. The lender will not make the loan to Gina unless the home is insured. Using insurance to secure the collateral for a loan illustrates which of the following benefits of insurance to society? A) enhancement of credit B) reduction of fear and worry C) source of investment funds D) incentives for loss prevention

A

Previous Edition 34) Sarah purchased a Personal Auto Policy with liability limits of 50/100/25. Sarah ran a stop sign and hit a van. The van sustained $15,000 in damages. The following bodily injuries were suffered by passengers in the van: Passenger #1, $15,000; Passenger #2, $60,000; and Passenger #3, $10,000. Sarah sustained $5,000 in medical expenses, and Sarah's car sustained $10,000 in damages. How much will Sarah's insurer pay under Part A: Liability Coverage? A) $90,000 B) $100,000 C) $115,000 D) $125,000

A

Previous Edition 35) Jane purchased a $50,000 liability insurance policy from Insurer A. Fearing that she did not have enough liability insurance, she purchased an additional $100,000 of liability coverage from Insurer B. As a result of a negligent act, Jane was ordered to pay $75,000 in damages. Assuming the coverage from Insurer A is primary and the coverage from Insurer B is excess, how will this claim be settled? A) Insurer A will pay $50,000 and Insurer B will pay $25,000. B) Insurer A will pay $37,500 and Insurer B will pay $37,500. C) Insurer A will pay $25,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. D) Insurer A will pay nothing and Insurer B will pay $75,000.

A

Previous Edition 35) Janice purchased a living room set for $1,000 and insured this furniture on an actual cash value basis. Two years later the living room set was destroyed by a covered peril. At the time of loss, the property had depreciated in value by 25 percent. The replacement cost of the furniture at the time of loss was $1,200. Assuming no deductible, how much will Janice receive from her insurer? A) $900 B) $950 C) $1,000 D) $1,200

A

Previous Edition 37) As an alternative to coinsurance, rate discounts can be given as the amount of insurance to value increases. This alternative is called A) graded rates. B) agreed value coverage. C) retrospective rating. D) manual rating.

A

Previous Edition 41) Williams Company installed smoke detectors, a sprinkler system, and fire extinguishers in its new manufacturing facility. These devices are all examples of A) risk control. B) noninsurance transfer. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention.

A

Previous Edition 42) Roger owns some farmland that he rents to a tenant. The tenant lives in an old farmhouse on the property and raises crops on the land. Roger is concerned about possible legal liability if the tenant injures someone. Roger requires the tenant to have liability insurance and to add himself to the liability coverage through an endorsement. Under the tenant's liability insurance, Roger is a(n) A) additional insured. B) first-named insured. C) second-named insured. D) other insured.

A

Previous Edition 46) MLX Drug Company would like to market a new hypertension drug. While the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) was testing the drug, it discovered that the drug produced a harmful side effect. When MLX learned of the FDA's test result, MLX abandoned its plan to produce and distribute the drug. MLX's reaction illustrates A) risk avoidance. B) hedging. C) risk transfer. D) risk retention.

A

Previous Edition 5) The long-run relative frequency of an event based on the assumption of an infinite number of observations with no change in the underlying conditions is called A) objective probability. B) objective risk. C) subjective probability. D) subjective risk.

A

Previous Edition 8) Which of the following statements about the definition of the insured is (are) true? I. In some cases, a person who is not specifically named may be classified as an insured. II. Under no circumstances can more than one person be named as an insured. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 9) All of the following will support an insurable interest for purposes of purchasing property and liability insurance EXCEPT A) former ownership of property. B) potential legal liability. C) secured creditors. D) contractual right.

A

Previous Edition 11) One of the reasons that deductible are used in insurance policies is to A) eliminate coverage for small claims. B) place restrictions or limits on the insurer's promise to perform. C) provide broader coverage by increasing the number of perils covered. D) exclude perils that are not insurable.

A

Previous Edition 20) Purposes of the coinsurance clause in health insurance contracts include which of the following? I. To reduce premiums. II. To exclude coverage for certain medical procedures. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 26) A group of farmers agreed that if any farmer suffered a property loss, the loss would be spread over the entire group. In this way, each farmer is responsible for the average loss of the group rather than the actual loss that each farmer sustained. Which characteristic of insurance is embodied in this agreement? A) pooling of losses B) fortuitous losses C) risk avoidance D) indemnification

A

Previous Edition 28) Mark reviewed his homeowners policy. He learned that his personal property was insured on an actual cash value basis. He would like replacement cost coverage on his personal property. He contacted his agent who said, "I'll simply add an amendment to your contract that changes the basis of recovery to replacement cost." The written provision the agent was referring to is called a(n) A) endorsement. B) coinsurance clause. C) binder. D) deductible.

A

Previous Edition 36) The purpose of a coordination-of-benefits provision in group health insurance plans is to A) determine which plan pays first if more than one plan covers a loss. B) determine which health care provider an insured may use for his or her care. C) determine if the calendar-year deductible has been satisfied by the insured. D) determine if the employee is eligible for coverage under the group health plan.

A

Previous Edition 11) Methods by which insurers may minimize or avoid catastrophic losses include which of the following? I. The use of reinsurance II. Concentrating coverage written in one geographic region A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Previous Edition 32) Following good health habits can be categorized as A) loss prevention. B) risk retention. C) noninsurance transfer. D) personal insurance.

A

Previous Edition 43) If insurers were to provide indemnification for losses that were deliberately caused, which characteristic of ideally insurable risks would not be met? A) The loss must be accidental and unintentional. B) The loss must be determinable and measurable. C) The loss should not be catastrophic. D) There must be a large number of similar exposure units.

A

Previous Edition 44) The Affordable Care Act requires all new medical expense plans to provide a comprehensive set of coverages and services. This comprehensive set of coverages and services that must be provided are called A) essential health benefits. B) dread disease benefits. C) long-term care benefits. D) respite care benefits.

A

Previous Edition 46) A discount store chain is concerned that cashiers might steal money from cash registers. To provide protection against theft by the cashiers, the discount store chain can purchase a A) fidelity bond. B) liability insurance policy. C) surety bond. D) business income insurance policy.

A

Previous Edition 53) The production facility for ABC Manufacturing is located in a flood plain. Although the risk of flood is low, ABC's risk manager is concerned that a flood could damage the plant and equipment. He received bids on flood insurance from two insurance agents, but decided the cost of coverage was too high relative to the risk. So he did not purchase flood insurance. Which risk management technique is ABC using with respect to the risk of flood? A) active retention B) noninsurance transfer C) passive retention D) avoidance

A

Previous Edition 56) Kim purchased a one-year property insurance policy. She agreed to pay half the premium when she bought the coverage, and the other half six months later. If Kim fails to pay the second premium, the insurer cannot sue her for the premium because insurance contracts are A) unilateral contracts. B) contracts of adhesion. C) personal contracts. D) aleatory contracts.

A

Previous Edition 2) Which of the following is implied by the pooling of losses? A) sharing of losses by an entire group B) inability to predict losses with any degree of accuracy C) substitution of actual loss for average loss D) increase of objective risk

A

Previous Edition 32) All of the following are typical characteristics of individual medical expense coverage EXCEPT A) annual benefit limits. B) essential health benefits. C) deductibles. D) coinsurance.

A

Previous Edition 45) The premium that insurance companies charge does not cover the cost of expected losses only. The premium must also cover the cost of compensating agents and other costs of doing business. The amount added to the pure premium to cover these costs is called the A) expense loading. B) deductible. C) dividend. D) loss reserve.

A

Previous Edition 6) Which of the following statements regarding health care expenditures in the United States is (are) true? I. As a nation, the U.S. spends significantly more per-person on health care than most other industrialized nations. II. Health care expenditures in the U.S. are high because everyone is covered by a health insurance plan. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

A

Revised 39) Some managed care plans use physicians, hospitals, and health care organizations that agree to make medical services available to insureds at discounted fees. Insureds are not required to use these entities, but if they do, health care costs are less than if these entities are not used. Such health care entities are called A) Preferred Provider Organizations (PPOs). B) Health Maintenance Organizations (HMOs). C) Blue Cross/Blue Shield Plans. D) Health savings accounts (HSAs).

A

Revised 5) One provision of the Affordable Care Act is designed to benefit young adults up to age 26. This provision allows these young adults to A) remain covered under their parents' health insurance policies. B) receive a tax credit for their health insurance premium if they are unemployed. C) receive low-interest government loans to finance their health insurance. D) receive coverage under Medicare if they are not covered by a private health insurance plan.

A

Previous Edition 43) Which distinct legal characteristic of insurance contracts states that only the insurer's promise to perform is legally enforceable? A) contracts of adhesion B) unilateral contracts C) aleatory contracts D) personal contracts

B

1) Fundamental purposes of the principle of indemnity include which of the following? I. To reduce physical hazards II. To prevent the insured from profiting from insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

New 23) All of the following are benefits to society that result from insurance EXCEPT A) less worry and fear. B) elimination of moral hazard. C) indemnification for loss. D) loss prevention.

B

Previous Edition 43) If the value of a vehicle is increased after repairs, such as repainting an entire auto when only one fender or door is damaged, the insurer will not pay for the increase in value. Another name for the increase in value is A) diminution. B) betterment. C) appraisal. D) subrogation.

B

New 57) Charles Blake told Wendy that he was an agent for Easy Pay Life Insurance Company. He presented no credentials. He asked Wendy some questions about her health and activities, and recorded the answers on scrap paper. He collected a $250 cash premium from Wendy. When Wendy did not receive a policy from Easy Pay, she contacted the company. Easy Pay said they do not have an agent named Charles Blake. Easy Pay is not responsible for Wendy's loss of $250 because A) the principal is never responsible for the acts of its agents. B) there is no presumption of an agency relationship. C) limitations can be placed on the powers of agents. D) knowledge of the agent is assumed to be knowledge of the principal.

B

New 59) Some members of Congress are concerned that if one or two large U.S. banks fail, it could lead to the collapse of the entire U.S. financial sector. This risk is called A) objective risk. B) systemic risk. C) enterprise risk. D) subjective risk.

B

New 38) The Affordable Care Act has provisions that improve the quality of health care and lower costs. All of the following are examples of these provisions EXCEPT A) reducing paperwork and administrative expenses. B) increasing the number of medical specialists and reducing the number of primary care physicians. C) compensating physicians based on value rather than on the volume of services. D) cracking down on healthcare fraud.

B

New 47) Ann Parks and Robert Evans jointly own a grocery store. Ann and Robert are both named insureds on the property insurance covering the store, but Ann is the first named insured. Which of the following statements is true with regard to Ann's status as the first named insured? A) Any loss settlement is paid to Ann only. B) Ann is responsible for making sure that the premium has been paid. C) Ann can assign the policy without the consent of the insurer. D) Ann can waive policy conditions.

B

New 47) Which of the following statements is true regarding disability income insurance? A) The purchase of disability income insurance is not necessary if you are covered under workers compensation. B) Increasing the elimination period reduces the premium for disability income insurance. C) Disability income insurance usually replaces 100 percent of lost income. D) A uniform definition of disability appears in all disability income policies.

B

New 48) Maggie purchased a life insurance policy. She was concerned that if she became disabled, she would no longer be able to pay the premiums. Her agent added an amendment of the policy stating that if she became disabled, future premium payments would be waived. Such an amendment to a life insurance policy is called a(n) A) binder. B) rider. C) warranty. D) schedule.

B

New 53) Jenny purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) that included property damage liability, collision coverage, medical payments coverage, and other-than-collision coverage. Jenny had too much alcohol to drink at a graduation party. While driving home from the party, Jenny ran off the road and hit a tree. Police responded to the accident, and Jenny was arrested for driving under the influence of alcohol. Which of the following statements is true regarding the damage to Jenny's car? A) Damage to the car is covered under Jenny's property damage liability coverage. B) Damage to the car is covered under Jenny's collision coverage. C) Damage to the car is covered under Jenny's other-than-collision loss coverage. D) There is no coverage as Jenny was intoxicated at the time of the accident.

B

New 47) BBB Auto Club provides emergency road service and other services to its members. BBB Auto Club charges a higher membership fee to new members than it charges to members who are renewing their membership. When asked to explain this pricing policy, the auto club president noted, "New members often sign-up prior to taking a long road trip, so we have to charge more as first-year members have higher service utilization rates." A similar phenomenon observed in insurance markets is called A) attitudinal hazard. B) adverse selection. C) risk aversion. D) moral hazard.

B

Previous Edition 17) Which of the following persons is (are) insured under the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP? I. A pedestrian struck by a covered auto if he or she has no insurance to pay medical expenses II. The spouse of a named insured who is killed by an uninsured motorist A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 21) Which of the following statements about individual disability income policies that use a two-part definition of total disability is (are) true? I. During the initial period of disability, the insured must be unable to perform the duties of any gainful occupation. II. After the initial period of disability, the insured must be unable to perform the duties of any occupation for which he or she is reasonably fitted by education, training, and experience. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 36) Which of the following is an example of a noninsurance risk transfer? A) not engaging in dangerous activities B) entering into a hold-harmless agreement C) installing smoke detectors in your home D) using nonflammable building material when constructing a house

B

Previous Edition 37) Which statement is true regarding the advanced premium tax credits for individuals and families under the Affordable Care Act? A) The tax credit is the same flat amount for individuals and families. B) The tax credit is based on income and is designed to limit the amount spent on health insurance premiums to make the insurance affordable. C) The tax credit is only available to high-income individuals and families. D) The tax credit is an expenses that lowers taxable income.

B

Previous Edition 39) Which of the following statements concerning the collision damage waiver when renting an auto is true? I. It relieves the renter from legal liability to third parties arising out of operation of the rented car. II. It relieves the renter from legal liability for the vehicle if it is damaged or stolen. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 41) All of the following statements about the tax treatment of Health Savings Accounts (HSAs) are true EXCEPT A) Contributions to a qualified HSA are tax deductible. B) Distributions from a qualified HSA used to fund medical expenses are taxable income. C) Investment income in a qualified HSA accumulates income tax free. D) Distributions from a qualified HSA prior to age 65 for nonmedical purposes are subject to a 10 percent penalty tax.

B

Previous Edition 49) Which of the following statements about chance of loss and risk is (are) true? I. If the chance of loss is identical for two groups, the objective risk must be the same. II. Two individuals may perceive differently the risk inherent in a given activity. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 9) Which of the following situations would be covered under the liability section of the PAP? I. A mechanic is sued by a pedestrian who is injured when the mechanic has an accident while road testing the insured's auto. II. The daughter of the named insured is sued after she has an accident when a new friend she just met at a campus hangout lets her drive his car. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 10) Which of the following statements about an insurable interest in life insurance is (are) true? I. It is required of any person named as beneficiary. II. It may result from a pecuniary (financial) interest. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 12) All the following are common exclusions in a medical expense insurance policy EXCEPT A) dental care. B) surgeons' fees. C) long-term care. D) routine eye care.

B

Previous Edition 12) Which of the following types of risks best meets the requirements for being insurable by private insurers? A) most market risks B) property risks C) financial risks D) political risks

B

Previous Edition 14) Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) Subrogation eliminates adverse selection. B) Subrogation helps to hold down the cost of insurance. C) Subrogation results in violation of the principle of indemnity. D) Subrogation permits a party who caused a loss to avoid responsibility for the loss.

B

Previous Edition 15) Which of the following is a result of adverse selection? A) The insurer's financial results will be substantially improved. B) Persons most likely to have losses are also most likely to seek insurance at standard rates. C) It is unnecessary for the insurance company to use underwriting. D) Insurance can be written only by the federal government.

B

Previous Edition 17) The primary purpose of coinsurance in property insurance is to A) reduce moral hazard. B) achieve equity in rating. C) minimize problems in settling claims. D) eliminate small losses.

B

Previous Edition 18) What is the legal significance of a material misrepresentation in an insurance application? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the misrepresentation. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

B

Previous Edition 2) Objective risk is defined as A) the probability of loss. B) the relative variation of actual loss from expected loss. C) uncertainty based on a person's mental condition or state of mind. D) the cause of loss.

B

Previous Edition 2) What information is contained in the insuring agreement of an insurance policy? A) a description of the property or life to be insured B) a summary of the major promises of the insurer C) a summary of the obligations of the insured D) a list of the property, losses, and perils that are not covered

B

Previous Edition 23) All of the following are programs to insure fundamental risks EXCEPT A) federally subsidized flood insurance. B) auto physical damage insurance. C) Social Security. D) unemployment insurance.

B

Previous Edition 23) All of the following losses are excluded under Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of an unendorsed PAP EXCEPT A) vandals damaged a portable cell phone kept in the car. B) theft of a compact disc player which was permanently installed in the auto. C) damage caused to a car's engine because the named insured never changed the oil. D) destruction of a radar detector which overheated and caught on fire.

B

Previous Edition 24) Which of the following statements about consideration in an insurance contract is (are) true? I. The insured's total consideration is submission of a completed application. II. The insurer's consideration is the promise to do those things specified in the policy. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 26) In addition to providing coverage in the United States, its territories and possessions, and Puerto Rico, where else does the PAP provide coverage? A) in Mexico B) in Canada C) in both Mexico and Canada D) anywhere in the world

B

Previous Edition 26) Why are insurance contracts said to be contracts of adhesion? A) The values exchanged by the parties to the contract are not equal. B) One party writes the contract, and the other party must accept the entire contract as written. C) Only one party makes a legally enforceable promise. D) Conditions are placed on the insurer's promise to perform.

B

Previous Edition 27) XYZ Insurance Company writes coverage for most perils which can damage property. XYZ, however, does not write flood insurance on property located in flood plains. Which requirement of an ideally insurable risk might be violated if XYZ wrote flood insurance on property located in flood plains? A) There must be a large number of similar exposure units. B) The loss should not be catastrophic. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The losses must be determinable and measurable.

B

Previous Edition 28) Greta purchased a long-term care policy. Under a typical policy, Greta's eligibility for benefits may be triggered by A) how long premiums have been paid. B) inability to perform activities of daily living. C) continuous hospitalization for at least 60 days. D) eligibility for Medicare benefits.

B

Previous Edition 29) Insurance companies collect premiums in advance. Since the premiums collected are not needed to pay losses and expenses immediately, the funds can be loaned to business firms. Because of this fact, insurance benefits society by A) enhancing credit. B) providing a source of investment funds. C) indemnifying losses. D) providing an incentive for loss prevention.

B

Previous Edition 3) According to the law of large numbers, what happens as the number of exposure units increases? A) Actual results will increasingly differ from probable results. B) Actual results will more closely approach probable results. C) Nondiversifiable risk will decrease. D) Objective risk will increase.

B

Previous Edition 3) Sam's furniture was destroyed by a fire. The furniture cost $1200 when it was purchased, but similar new furniture now costs $1800. Assuming the furniture was 50 percent depreciated, what is the actual cash value of Sam's loss? A) $600 B) $900 C) $1200 D) $1800

B

Previous Edition 30) All of the following are burdens to society because of the presence of risk EXCEPT A) The size of an emergency fund must be increased. B) Risk provides an incentive for people to engage in loss control. C) Society is deprived of certain goods and services. D) Mental fear and worry are present.

B

Previous Edition 30) Ellen purchased a health insurance policy. Under the provisions of the Affordable Care Act, which of the following renewal provisions must the insurer use in the policy? A) cancellable B) guaranteed issue C) renewable at the insurer's option D) conditionally renewable

B

Previous Edition 31) ABC Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $700,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $1 million when it sustained a $40,000 loss. How much will ABC Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $33,333 B) $35,000 C) $36,000 D) $40,000

B

Previous Edition 31) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to Ken's car? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

B

Previous Edition 31) One branch of government insurance programs has a number of distinguishing characteristics. These programs are compulsory, they are financed by mandatory contributions rather than general tax revenues, and benefits are weighted in favor of low-income groups. These government insurance programs are called A) welfare programs. B) social insurance programs. C) casualty insurance programs. D) private insurance programs.

B

Previous Edition 34) Prior to passage of the Affordable Care Act, insurance policies typically contained a provision excluding coverage for impairments that were present or were treated during a specified period prior to the effective date of the policy. This provision is a(n) A) time limit on certain defenses. B) preexisting-conditions clause. C) benefit period provision. D) incontestable clause.

B

Previous Edition 34) The use of fire-resistive materials when constructing a building is an example of A) risk transfer. B) risk control. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention.

B

Previous Edition 38) Mark owns a building that he insured for $90,000. The replacement cost of the building is $100,000. Mark's property insurance policy has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. Ignoring any deductible, if Mark's building is destroyed by a covered peril, how much will Mark receive from his insurer? A) $80,000 B) $90,000 C) $101,250 D) $112,500

B

Previous Edition 38) When Ben applied for life insurance, he was asked on the application if he smoked or used tobacco products. Ben answered "No." In reality, Ben smokes two packs of cigarettes a day. The policy was issued at the "preferred, nonsmoker rate." If Ben dies 6 months after the policy is issued, upon what grounds will the insurer be able to legally deny the claim? A) warranty B) misrepresentation C) waiver D) concealment

B

Previous Edition 39) A special coverage policy is a policy that A) has no exclusions. B) provides open-perils coverage. C) provides coverage under special conditions. D) has coverage for multiple lines of insurance.

B

Previous Edition 39) Brad started a pest control business. To protect his personal assets against liability arising out of the business, Brad incorporated the business. Brad's use of the corporate form of organization to shield against personal liability claims illustrates A) fundamental risk. B) noninsurance transfer. C) risk retention. D) objective risk.

B

Previous Edition 39) Robin plans to open a bar in a high-crime area. She had difficulty obtaining insurance for the business. She found an insurer willing to write the coverage, but only if Robin agreed to have a security alarm system in operation at all times when the business is closed. Robin's promise to have a security alarm system operational as a condition of having the insurance coverage in force is a A) binder. B) warranty. C) waiver. D) deductible.

B

Previous Edition 39) Which of the following statements concerning social insurance benefits is (are) correct? I. Social insurance benefits are heavily weighted in favor of upper-income groups because of their higher earnings. II. Social insurance benefits are financed entirely or in part by mandatory contributions by covered employers and employees, and not by general revenues of the government. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 4) Uncertainty based on a person's mental condition or state of mind is known as A) objective risk. B) subjective risk. C) objective probability. D) subjective probability.

B

Previous Edition 41) The purpose of gap insurance is to A) pay the difference between the bodily injury liability limit purchased and the actual amount of bodily injury liability if it exceeds the limit. B) pay the difference between the amount the insurer pays if a car is a total loss and the remaining amount owed on a lease or car loan. C) pay the difference between the medical payments coverage limit and the actual medical expenses of injured family members or passengers in the insured auto. D) pay the difference between the uninsured motorists coverage limit and the actual amount of the medical expenses incurred by the insured.

B

Previous Edition 41) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and hedging is true? A) Both insurance and hedging deal only with pure risks. B) Insurance reduces objective risk while hedging involves only risk transfer and not risk reduction. C) Hedging reduces objective risk while insurance involves only risk reduction and not risk transfer. D) Both insurance and hedging reduce objective risk but do not involve the transfer of risk.

B

Previous Edition 43) Which of the following statements about health savings accounts (HSAs) is true? A) There are no limits to annual contributions that an individual may make to his or her HSA. B) Once an individual has reached age 65 or is covered by Medicare, no additional contributions to the HSA may be made. C) The health insurance plan covering the HSA account beneficiary is not permitted to use a deductible. D) HSAs offer no tax benefits for the individual who establishes the account.

B

Previous Edition 45) Ben is concerned that if he injures someone or damages someone's property he could be held legally responsible and required to pay damages. This type of risk is called a A) speculative risk. B) liability risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) property risk.

B

Previous Edition 46) A vehicle is considered a constructive total loss when A) it cannot be repaired. B) the repair cost exceeds the actual cash value. C) it can be repaired, but the insured prefers a cash settlement. D) it can be repaired, but the insurer prefers a cash settlement.

B

Previous Edition 46) The general rule that ambiguity in insurance contracts is construed against the insurer is reinforced by an important legal principle. This principle states the insured is entitled to coverage under a policy that he or she would assume the policy would provide, and exclusions must be conspicuous, plain, and clear. This principle is known as A) the principle of utmost good faith. B) the principle of reasonable expectations. C) the principle of subrogation. D) the principle of indemnity.

B

Previous Edition 47) ABC Insurance Company sells auto insurance in one state. Recently, the state legislature passed a law that limits the use of an individual's credit history by insurers when selecting applicants to insure. This change in law will increase the possibility of unprofitable results for ABC. This type of hazard is an example of A) physical hazard. B) legal hazard. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard.

B

Previous Edition 47) Dave and Meagan Philips borrowed $150,000 from Fifth National Bank to help fund the purchase of a new home. The home serves as collateral for the loan. Fifth National has an insurable interest in the home based on A) potential responsibility for legal liability. B) being a secured creditor. C) expectation of ownership. D) having a contractual right.

B

Previous Edition 5) Characteristics of a fortuitous loss include which of the following? I. The loss is certain to occur. II. The loss occurs as a result of chance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 5) Exclusions are used in insurance policies for all of the following reasons EXCEPT A) to reduce moral hazard. B) to waive policy conditions. C) to eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils. D) to eliminate coverage not needed by typical insureds.

B

Previous Edition 5) Under which of the following rules is actual cash value determined by taking into consideration all relevant factors an expert would use to determine the value of the property? A) the circumstantial evidence rule B) the broad evidence rule C) the property indemnity rule D) the objective value rule

B

Previous Edition 51) Which of the following is an example of a commercial risk? A) the risk of insufficient retirement income B) the loss of business income C) the risk of premature death D) the risk of being unemployed

B

Previous Edition 52) A special form of planned retention by which part or all of a give loss exposure is retained by the firm is called A) hedging. B) self-insurance. C) passive retention. D) noninsurance transfer.

B

Previous Edition 7) The policy provision requiring the filing of proof of loss with the insurer is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) condition. C) insuring agreement. D) miscellaneous provision.

B

Previous Edition 7) Which of the following situations would be covered by the liability section of an unendorsed PAP if the insured is legally liable? A) The insured injures a pedestrian while operating a friend's new motorcycle. B) The insured backs into and damages the garage door of his rented house. C) The insured intentionally runs into another motorist's car after the driver cut in front of him. D) The insured damages a parked car while driving a dump truck for his employer.

B

Previous Edition 7) Which of the following statements describes how losses will be settled if a property insurance policy is written on a replacement cost basis? A) Losses are settled without the applicable deductible. B) Losses are settled without a deduction for depreciation. C) The insurer must replace the damaged or destroyed property in lieu of a cash settlement. D) The policy is converted to a valued policy.

B

Previous Edition 8) A peril is A) a moral hazard. B) the cause of a loss. C) a condition that increases the chance of a loss. D) the probability that a loss will occur.

B

Previous Edition 8) Which of the following statements about the principle of insurable interest is (are) true? I. It makes it difficult to measure the amount of an insured's loss. II. It reduces moral hazard. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 9) An earthquake is an example of a(n) A) moral hazard. B) peril. C) physical hazard. D) objective risk.

B

Previous Edition 11) When must an insurable interest legally exist in life insurance? A) only at the time of the insured's death B) only at the inception of the policy C) only at the time the beneficiary is paid D) both at the time of the insured's death and at the inception of the policy

B

Previous Edition 16) David owns a commercial building with a replacement cost of $4 million. The building is insured on a replacement cost basis for $2.4 million under a fire insurance policy that has an 80 percent coinsurance clause. How much will David collect if the building sustains a covered fire loss with a replacement cost of $80,000? A) $50,000 B) $60,000 C) $66,667 D) $80,000

B

Previous Edition 35) Patricia purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP). Her car was rear-ended by a driver who fled the scene. Patricia suffered whiplash, migraine headaches, and she was unable to work. Which of the following coverages will cover her lost work earnings? A) medical payments B) uninsured motorists C) underinsured motorists D) bodily injury liability

B

Previous Edition 38) Ashley opened an all-you-can-eat buffet restaurant. The price per-person was based on what Ashley believed an average restaurant patron would consume. The restaurant began to lose money. Ashley concluded that her patrons had "above average" appetites, and were attracted to her restaurant because they could eat as much as they wanted while being charged an average price. A similar phenomenon exists in insurance markets. This problem is called A) legal hazard. B) adverse selection. C) attitudinal hazard. D) nondiversifiable risk.

B

Previous Edition 17) One of the speculative financial risks considered in an enterprise risk management program is the risk of loss because of adverse changes in commodity prices, interest rates, foreign exchange rates, and the value of money. This risk is called A) property risk. B) financial risk. C) strategic risk. D) operational risk.

B

Previous Edition 17) What is the legal significance of a material concealment by an insurance applicant? A) The contract is automatically voided from its inception. B) The contract is voidable at the insurer's option. C) Loss payments are reduced by the degree of the concealment. D) The insurer is immediately entitled to a higher premium.

B

Previous Edition 18) Which of the following statements about disability and disability income insurance is (are) true? I. Most disability income policies replace 100 percent of gross earnings. II. The probability of being disabled before age 65 is much higher than commonly believed. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 21) Which of the following is a form of casualty insurance? A) fire insurance B) general liability insurance C) inland marine insurance D) ocean marine insurance

B

Previous Edition 22) An automobile that is a total loss as a result of a collision is an example of which of the following types of risk? I. Speculative risk II. Diversifiable risk A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 40) Which of the following statements about eligibility requirements for qualified Health Savings Accounts (HSAs) is (are) true? I. Only individuals who are eligible for Medicare benefits can establish a qualified HSA. II. Applicants must be covered by a high deductible health plan and not be covered by any other comprehensive health plan to establish a qualified HSA. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 44) The 2005 PAP states that the insurer has no duty to provide coverage if the insured fails to comply with certain listed duties. In practice, however, the insurer is only relieved of its duty to provide coverage if A) the insured was unaware of the listed duties. B) failure to comply with the duties is prejudicial to the insurer. C) the claim involves bodily injuries of more than $50,000. D) the claim occurred in another state.

B

Previous Edition 6) All of the following are covered as supplementary payments under the liability section of the PAP EXCEPT A) the cost of an appeal bond in a lawsuit stemming from an auto accident. B) the cost of a bail bond for a traffic violation when no accident is involved. C) interest which accrues on a liability judgment covered by the policy. D) reasonable expenses incurred by the insured to testify at a trial involving a lawsuit covered by the policy.

B

Previous Edition 6) From the viewpoint of the insurer, all of the following are characteristics of an ideally insurable risk EXCEPT A) The loss must be accidental. B) The loss should be catastrophic. C) The premium must be economically feasible. D) There must be a large number of exposure units.

B

Previous Edition 51) Dan picked up his friend Rodney to drive to their softball game. Both Dan and Rodney have a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with $5,000 of medical payments coverage. Dan hit a parked car, and Rodney was injured, incurring $9,000 of medical expenses. How will this claim be settled under the other insurance provision of the PAP? A) Both insurers will pay $4,500. B) Dan's insurer will pay $5,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $4,000. C) Dan's insurer will pay $4,000 and Rodney's insurer will pay $5,000. D) Dan's insurer will pay $3,000, Rodney's insurer will pay $3,000, and Rodney must pay $3,000 out of his own pocket.

B

Previous Edition 9) Under the Affordable Care Act, if a health insurer does not meet the minimum loss ratio requirement, the insurer must A) pay a fine to the federal government. B) issue rebates to the people the insurer covered. C) not sell any health insurance for a period of one year. D) reduce the premium on the policies it sells the following year.

B

Previous Edition 15) Which of the following statements about long-term care insurance is (are) true? I. Long-term care insurance is inexpensive, especially if purchased at older ages. II. Purchasers have a choice of daily benefits and benefit periods. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 16) Which of the following statements about the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP is true? A) The coverage usually applies only to property damage. B) The coverage applies only if the uninsured motorist is legally liable. C) Unless higher amounts are purchased, the maximum benefit is normally limited to $1,000. D) A covered person's only recourse is to sue the insurer if there is a disagreement over the amount of damages.

B

Previous Edition 18) Katelyn was just named Risk Manager of ABC Company. She has decided to create a risk management program which considers all of the risks faced by ABC—pure, speculative, operational, and strategic—in a single risk management program. Such a program is called a(n) A) financial risk management program. B) enterprise risk management program. C) fundamental risk management program. D) consequential risk management program.

B

Previous Edition 37) Angie was injured when her car was struck by a driver who ran a red light. The other driver carried the minimum liability coverage necessary to be considered financially responsible. Angie's injuries were $15,000 above the minimum bodily injury limit. There is a coverage that can be added to the PAP that applies when a negligent driver carries the minimum liability insurance required by the state, but is less than the insured's actual damages for bodily injury. This coverage is called A) medical payments coverage. B) underinsured motorists coverage. C) bodily injury liability coverage. D) uninsured motorists coverage.

B

Previous Edition 37) Curt borrowed money from a bank to purchase a fishing boat. He purchased property insurance on the boat. Curt had difficulty making loan payments because he did not catch many fish, and fish prices were low. Curt intentionally sunk the boat, collected from his insurer, and paid off the loan balance. This scenario illustrates the problem of A) adverse selection. B) moral hazard. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) attitudinal hazard.

B

Previous Edition 43) Maria's home was damaged by an earthquake. As Maria has open-perils coverage on her home, she was surprised to learn that her loss was not covered. Which section of a property insurance policy specifies which perils, property, and types of losses are not covered? A) the declarations B) the exclusions C) the conditions D) the insuring agreement

B

Previous Edition 50) If a third party is led to reasonably believe that an agent is acting within the scope of his/her authority, even though the agent is exceeding his/her authority, the principal may still be bound by the agent's actions. In this case, the agent has bound the principal by A) implied authority. B) apparent authority. C) incidental authority. D) express authority.

B

Previous Edition 50) The appraisal provision in the Personal Auto Policy is used to determine the A) value of a loss payable under property damage liability. B) amount paid for a physical damage loss to the insured's auto if the insured and insurer disagree. C) amount of auto insurance that should be purchased for an older/antique car. D) value of the loss payable under the medical payments coverage.

B

Previous Edition 55) Hank bought a farm that had an old barn. He noticed one day that the roof of the barn was swaying in the wind. Hank went to see his insurance agent and he insured the barn for $20,000. The agent didn't ask if the roof might collapse, and Hank didn't say anything about it. One week later there was a strong wind and the roof collapsed. Assuming the insurer can prove it, under what legal grounds could the insurer deny payment of the claim? A) estoppel B) concealment C) warranty D) misrepresentation

B

Previous Edition 56) Five years ago, Shannon decided to start investing monthly in the common stock of ABC Telecom Company. Her financial well-being will be harmed if the price of ABC Telecom stock drops significantly. The risk of investment loss can be reduced if she invests in other companies and other types of financial assets. The risk Shannon faces with regard to her investments is a(n) A) enterprise risk. B) diversifiable risk. C) pure risk. D) nondiversifiable risk.

B

Previous Edition 7) Individual medical expense insurance sold in the Health Insurance Marketplace is characterized by which of the following? A) narrow range of benefits B) no lifetime benefit limits C) no exclusions D) first-dollar coverage

B

Previous Edition 29) Which of the following statements about the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is (are) true? I. It provides bodily injury liability coverage for any vehicle rented by the insured. II. It can be added to PAP to insurance motorcycles and motor scooters. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

B

Previous Edition 41) An elimination (waiting) period is an example of a(n) A) exclusion. B) deductible. C) other-insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

B

Previous Edition 31) The Affordable Care Act includes a provision designed to help small employers make health insurance coverage available to their employees. This provision allows small employers to reduce their federal income tax by a percentage of the employer's contribution to health insurance for employees. This subsidy, in the form of reduction of income taxes, is called a A) marginal tax rate. B) tax credit. C) tax bracket. D) tax deduction.

B

Previous Edition 49) Which of the following statements is true about uninsured motorists coverage under the Personal Auto Policy? A) The benefits are paid without regard to fault. B) The insured collects from his or her own insurer, and the insurer can recoup the loss payment from the other driver. C) Uninsured motorists benefits are limited to the medical expenses of the insured. D) Subrogation is never used when uninsured motorists benefits are paid.

B

Revised 24) Kevin has an individual disability income policy that his insurer agrees to keep in force until age 60. However, the company has the right to increase the premium each year for the underwriting class in which Kevin has been placed. Which renewal provision is found in Kevin's policy? A) noncancellable B) guaranteed renewable C) conditionally renewable D) nonrenewable.

B

Revised 13) Kristen has an individual medical expense policy with a $1,000 calendar-year deductible, a $5,000 annual out-of-pocket limit, and a 20 percent coinsurance requirement. Kristen was hospitalized for a surgical procedure in March, her first health care treatment received during the year. The total bill was $20,000. Considering the deductible and coinsurance, how much of this amount must Kristen pay? A) $4,400 B) $4,800 C) $5,000 D) $5,100

B

Revised 27) Because of the Affordable Care Act, all new medical expense plans that offer individual and group coverage must accept all individuals and employers in the state who apply for coverage. These insurers are required to continue to renew the coverage at the option of the individual or plan sponsor. Thus, under the Affordable Care Act, the renewal provision is A) conditionally renewable. B) guaranteed issue. C) nonrenewable. D) renewable at the insurer's option.

B

Previous Edition 4) Under the Affordable Care Act, which of the following statements are true? I. Health insurers cannot use pre-existing conditions exclusions. II. Health insurers cannot impose annual benefit limits and lifetime benefit limits. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 55) Rapid inflation, cyclical unemployment, war, hurricanes, and floods are all examples of A) diversifiable risks. B) physical hazards. C) nondiversifiable risks. D) speculative risks.

C

Previous Edition 21) Which of the following statements about speculative risks is true? A) They are almost always insurable by private insurers. B) They are more easily predictable than pure risks. C) They may benefit society even though a loss occurs. D) They involve only a chance of loss.

C

1) Problems with the health care system in the United States that led to implementation of the Affordable Care Act included I. Rising healthcare expenditures II. Considerable waste and inefficiency in the healthcare system A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

1) Traditionally, risk has been defined as A) any situation in which the probability of loss is one. B) any situation in which the probability of loss is zero. C) uncertainty concerning the occurrence of loss. D) the probability of a loss occurring.

C

1) Which of the following statements about the liability limits of the PAP is (are) true? I. The policy can be written with split limits of liability. II. Prejudgment interest is considered part of the damage award and is subject to the policy limit of liability. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 45) An insurance policy provision that specifies how a property loss will be settled if more than one property insurance policy covers the loss is the A) insuring agreement provision. B) loss settlement provision. C) other insurance provision. D) coinsurance provision.

C

Previous Edition 15) A name that encompasses all of the major risks faced by a business firm is A) financial risk. B) speculative risk. C) enterprise risk. D) pure risk.

C

New 49) Homeowners insurance policies usually cover resident relatives of the named insured who are under age 24 and who are full-time students away from home. Under the homeowners policy, these full-time students are considered A) first named insureds. B) second named insureds. C) other insureds. D) additional insureds.

C

New 58) Rather than storing all of its finished goods in a single location, Davis Company divides the finished goods between two warehouses. This simple risk control technique which is designed to limit losses should a warehouse fire occur is called A) duplication. B) risk transfer. C) separation. D) loss prevention.

C

New 55) All of the following are considered to be a covered auto under the Personal Auto Policy EXCEPT A) a trailer owned by the insured. B) a temporary substitute auto loaned to the insured while her care is being repaired. C) a motorcycle owned by the insured. D) a newly acquired auto.

C

New 54) Gary purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) that included collision coverage. Gary lost control of his vehicle on an icy road. He slid across the center line into oncoming traffic. Another vehicle hit his car, causing severe damage to it. Ignoring any deductible, what is the insurer's liability for damage to Gary's car? A) the greater of the actual cash value or the amount necessary to repair or replace the vehicle B) the replacement cost of the vehicle C) the lesser of the actual cash value or the amount necessary to repair or replace the vehicle D) the original purchase price of the vehicle

C

Previous Edition 11) Faking an accident to collect insurance proceeds is an example of A) physical hazard. B) objective risk. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard.

C

Previous Edition 16) The principle of utmost good faith is supported by all of the following legal doctrines EXCEPT A) representations. B) warranty. C) subrogation. D) concealment.

C

Previous Edition 3) The Affordable Care Act requires that most U.S. citizens and legal residents have qualifying health insurance or pay a financial penalty. This provision of the Affordable Care Act is known as the A) Health Insurance Marketplace option. B) public option. C) individual mandate. D) premium subsidy option.

C

Previous Edition 21) Which of the following is considered to be a collision loss under Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of the PAP? A) The covered auto was damaged when the car hit a deer. B) The covered auto is vandalized by a thief after it is stolen. C) The covered auto is damaged when it slid off an icy road and hit a fence. D) The covered auto is damaged by a fire after the engine overheated.

C

Previous Edition 26) Which of the following is (are) often consequences of long-term disability? I. Continuing medical expenses II. Loss or reduction of employee benefits A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 31) Loss control includes which of the following? I. Loss reduction II. Loss prevention A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 34) Frank asked his company's employee benefits director if his group health coverage could be converted to individual coverage. The benefits director said, "Yes, you can convert to an individual policy, and the coverage is identical to your group coverage." Frank quit his job and converted to an individual policy. Six months later he filed a claim. He was dismayed to learn the conversion policy was more limited compared to the group coverage, and his claim was denied. What legal doctrine will allow Frank to bring a successful legal action against his former employer because he was financially harmed due to his reasonable reliance upon a representation of fact? A) adhesion B) waiver C) estoppel D) subrogation

C

Previous Edition 37) Melody's car was damaged when another driver ran a stop sign and hit her car. Melody decided to collect from her own insurer and to let her insurer recoup the loss payment from the negligent driver who hit her. What fundamental legal principle is illustrated in this scenario? A) the principle of utmost good faith B) the principle of insurable interest C) the principle of subrogation D) the principle of reasonable expectations

C

Previous Edition 40) ABC Insurance Company plans to sell homeowners insurance in five Western states. ABC expects that 8 homeowners out of every 100, on average, will report claims each year. The variation between the rate of loss that ABC expects to occur and the rate of loss that actually occurs is called A) objective probability. B) subjective probability. C) objective risk. D) subjective risk.

C

Previous Edition 42) Which of the following is an example of private insurance? A) unemployment insurance B) Social Security C) life insurance D) federal deposit insurance

C

Previous Edition 5) Which of the following persons is (are) covered for liability insurance under the PAP? I. a family member who drives a covered auto II. a family member who occasionally drives a friend's auto A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 10) Dense fog that increases the chance of an automobile accident is an example of a A) speculative risk. B) peril. C) physical hazard. D) moral hazard.

C

Previous Edition 10) Which of the following is implied by the requirement that a loss should be determinable and measurable to be insurable? I. The loss must be definite as to place. II. The loss must be definite as to amount. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 11) John occasionally borrows the car of his friend, Sophie. Sophie has a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50. John also has a PAP, and his liability limits 250/500/50. John had an accident while using Sophie's car and was found to be legally liable for $300,000 in bodily injury liability for injuries suffered by one person. How much will be paid by each policy? A) Sophie's policy will pay $150,000, John's policy will pay $150,000. B) Sophie's policy will pay $50,000, John's policy will pay $250,000. C) Sophie's policy will pay $100,000, John's policy will pay $200,000. D) John's policy will pay the entire amount.

C

Previous Edition 12) The deductible used for automobile collision losses is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) elimination period. C) straight deductible. D) aggregate deductible.

C

Previous Edition 12) Which of the following statements about the medical payments coverage of the PAP is true? A) The amount of the benefit typically is $100,000. B) Covered expenses must be incurred within 30 days of the accident. C) Covered expenses include the cost of funeral services. D) The benefit limit applies on a per-accident basis rather than on a per-person basis.

C

Previous Edition 13) Reasons why market, financial, and production risks are often uninsurable include which of the following? I. The potential to produce a catastrophic loss is great. II. The chance of loss cannot be accurately estimated. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 14) A provision in a disability income insurance policy that requires a person to be disabled for 60 days before receiving benefits is an example of a(n) A) calendar year deductible. B) grace period. C) elimination period. D) probationary period.

C

Previous Edition 16) Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning benefit payments under long-term care insurance? I. Expense-incurred policies pay for actual charges up to a specified daily limit. II. Per diem policies pay a specified daily benefit regardless of the charges incurred. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 18) All of the following are considered to be uninsured vehicles for purposes of the uninsured motorists coverage of the PAP EXCEPT A) a vehicle owned by an individual who is insured, but for less than the amount required by the state's financial responsibility law. B) a hit-and-run vehicle, the ownership of which cannot be determined. C) a vehicle owned by an individual who purchased just enough liability insurance to satisfy the state's financial responsibility law. D) a vehicle insured by a company which becomes insolvent before a claim can be paid.

C

Previous Edition 18) In addition to marketing life insurance, life insurers typically sell which of the following products? I. Retirement annuities II. Disability income insurance A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 18) Which of the following statements about problems arising from the use of a coinsurance clause is (are) true? I. The amount of insurance should be periodically evaluated to avoid a coinsurance penalty because of inflation. II. An agreed value coverage option is one method used to solve the problem of values that fluctuate throughout the policy term. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 19) Connie has an individual medical expense policy with a $1,000 deductible. She is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. The insurer will pay 80 percent of expenses in excess of the deductible. If Connie has eligible medical expenses of $26,000, how much will be paid by her insurer? A) $10,000 B) $11,000 C) $20,000 D) $21,000

C

Previous Edition 22) Lisa has three fire insurance policies on her office building. The policy from company A is for $400,000, and the policies from companies B and C are for $100,000 each. If Lisa has a $360,000 loss, how much of the loss will be covered by each policy if the loss is settled on a pro rata basis by the insurers? A) each policy: $120,000 B) policy A: $160,000; policies B and C: $100,000 each C) policy A: $240,000; policies B and C: $60,000 each D) policy A: $360,000; policies B and C: nothing

C

Previous Edition 23) Chris applied for life insurance and paid the first premium on Monday. She was given an insurability premium receipt which specified that coverage was effective on the date of the application or the date of the medical exam, whichever is later. She took the medical exam the following Thursday. She was found to be in perfect health. On which day was her coverage effective? A) on Monday, when she completed the application and paid the first premium B) on Wednesday, two days after completing the application and paying the first premium C) on Thursday when she passed the medical exam D) on Saturday, two days after passing the medical exam

C

Previous Edition 24) Which of the following statements about the insurance industry as a source of investment funds is (are) true? I. These funds result in a lower cost of capital than would exist in the absence of insurance. II. These funds tend to promote economic growth and full employment. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 25) Which of the following is a reason why premature death may result in economic insecurity? I. Additional expenses associated with death may be incurred. II. The income of the deceased person's family may be inadequate to meet its basic needs. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 27) All of the following statements about the termination provisions of the PAP are true EXCEPT A) The insured can cancel the policy for any reason. B) The insurer can cancel a newly-written policy if it has been in force for fewer than 60 days. C) The insurer can cancel the policy after it has been in force for 60 days only if the insured has three or more traffic violations. D) The insurer can refuse to renew the policy at its annual anniversary date as long as proper notice is given prior to the end of the policy period.

C

Previous Edition 28) The purpose of the Miscellaneous-Type Vehicle Endorsement to the PAP is to A) add coverage for newly-acquired autos. B) provide coverage for when the insured is using someone else's auto with the permission of the owner. C) insure motorcycles, mopeds, motor scooters, and similar vehicles. D) provide coverage for when the insured is using someone else's auto without the permission of the owner.

C

Previous Edition 28) Why can an insurer refuse to pay a claim if an insured fails to abide by the policy provisions? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

C

Previous Edition 29) Under the terms of Jenny's auto insurance policy, she must pay the first $500 of any physical damage loss to her vehicle before her insurer will pay anything. What type of deductible is included in Jenny's auto insurance policy? A) calendar-year deductible B) waiting period C) straight deductible D) aggregate deductible

C

Previous Edition 33) ABC Insurance Company calculated the amount that it expected to pay in claims for each policy sold. Rather than selling the insurance for the amount it expected to pay in claims, ABC added an allowance to cover the cost of doing business, including commissions, taxes, and acquisition expenses. This allowance is called a(n) A) policyowner dividend. B) premium. C) expense loading. D) rate credit.

C

Previous Edition 33) Laura's medical insurance policy includes a $500 deductible. Laura is required to pay 20 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible, and her insurer will pay 80 percent of covered expenses in excess of the deductible. Laura was hospitalized and her covered medical expenses were $10,500. How much of the $10,500 will be paid by the insurer? A) $7,500 B) $7,900 C) $8,000 D) $10,000

C

Previous Edition 34) James purchased liability insurance with a $100,000 limit from Insurer A. When Insurer A denied a claim that James thought should be covered, he bought a second liability insurance policy with a $150,000 limit from Insurer B. Before he cancelled the policy with Insurer A, a $60,000 loss occurred. If this loss is settled on a pro rata basis, how much must each insurer pay? A) Insurer A will pay $10,000 and Insurer B will pay $50,000. B) Insurer A will pay $20,000 and Insurer B will pay $40,000. C) Insurer A will pay $24,000 and Insurer B will pay $36,000. D) Insurer A will pay $40,000 and Insurer B will pay $20,000.

C

Previous Edition 35) All of the following statements about risk retention are true EXCEPT A) It may be used intentionally if commercial insurance is unavailable. B) It may be used passively because of ignorance. C) Its use is most appropriate for low-frequency, high-severity types of risks. D) Its use results in cost savings if losses are less than the cost of insurance.

C

Previous Edition 35) Apex Insurance Company wrote a large number of property insurance policies in an area where earthquake losses could occur. When the president of Apex was asked if she feared that a severe earthquake might put the company out of business, she responded, "Not a chance. We transferred most of that risk to other insurance companies." An arrangement by which an insurer that initially writes insurance transfers to another insurer part or all of the potential losses associated with such insurance is called A) hedging. B) speculating. C) reinsurance. D) loss avoidance.

C

Previous Edition 36) Rob purchased a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) with collision and other-than-collision coverage. Which of the following losses would be covered under his policy? A) Rob wrecked his car while using it as a taxi cab. B) Thieves took Rob's radar detector from his car. C) A flash flood washed Rob's car off the road and damaged it. D) The new tires Rob had on the car were defective and wore out after 2 months.

C

Previous Edition 37) Which of the following statements regarding insurance and hedging is (are) true? I. Insurance involves the transfer of an insurable risk while hedging handles risk that is typically uninsurable. II. Insurance transactions can reduce objective risk, while hedging typically involves only risk transfer and not risk reduction. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 4) According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurer increases the number of units insured? A) The amount the insurer expects to pay in claims should decrease. B) Underwriting expenses should decrease. C) Actual results will more closely approach expected results. D) The insurer's profitability should become more variable.

C

Previous Edition 4) All of the following are insured persons under the liability coverage of the PAP EXCEPT A) a friend to whom the named insured loans a covered auto. B) the employer of the named insured for actions resulting from the named insured's use of a covered auto. C) the former spouse of the named insured who moved out of the home 2 years ago when the divorce was finalized. D) a relative of the named insured if a member of the same household.

C

Previous Edition 42) A car damaged in an auto accident may have reduced market or resale value after it is repaired. Some insureds have sought to recover this reduction in market or resale value. This loss in value is called A) gap coverage. B) betterment. C) diminution. D) subrogation.

C

Previous Edition 42) Mark owns a bar. The bar has a back room where Mark has some slot machines. Mark lets some of his patrons play the machines, and Mark keeps any profits. This type of gambling is illegal where Mark lives. Mark wanted to purchase insurance in case his slot machines were confiscated by the police. Such an insurance contract would not be enforceable. Which requirement needed to form a valid insurance contract is missing? A) consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

C

Previous Edition 42) Which of the following statements about hedging is (are) true? I. Hedging is a form of risk transfer. II. Hedging is used to address the risk of unfavorable price fluctuations. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 42) Which of the following statements about high deductible health insurance plans is (are) true? I. Coverage under a high deductible health plan is necessary to establish a qualified health savings account (HSA). II. High deductible health plans provide a maximum limit on annual out-of-pocket expenses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 44) In determining insurance limits and deductibles, an important concept is that insurance should be used to pay big losses rather than small losses. The objective is to insure big losses that could cause financial ruin and to exclude small losses that can be budgeted out of current income. This concept is called the A) law of large numbers. B) efficient loss-cost concept. C) large-loss principle. D) retention-transfer tradeoff.

C

Previous Edition 48) Kelly was hit by a car while she was walking to the park. She incurred $750 in medical costs at a hospital emergency room. Kelly has coverage for this charge under which of her Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages? A) bodily injury liability B) other-than collision C) medical payments D) collision

C

Previous Edition 52) ABC Life Insurance Company insures both smokers and nonsmokers. Beth lied on her life insurance application, checking the box for "no" in response to the question of whether she smokes cigarettes or uses other tobacco products. Even though Beth smokes 10 to 15 cigarettes each day, the policy was issued at the "preferred nonsmoker rate." Beth's lie is materiel in this case because A) it was in writing on the application. B) it was given with the intent to deceive. C) the policy would have been issued on different terms if the insurer knew the true facts. D) the policy would have been issued for a lower face value if the insurer knew the true facts.

C

Previous Edition 7) An individual's personal estimate of the chance of loss is a(n) A) objective probability. B) objective risk. C) subjective probability. D) a priori probability.

C

Previous Edition 7) From the standpoint of the insurer, which of the following is a characteristic of an ideally insurable risk? A) The loss must be intentional. B) There must be a small number of unique loss exposures. C) The chance of loss must be calculable. D) The loss must be indeterminable.

C

Previous Edition 8) Prior to passage of the Affordable Care Act, insurers could go back to the date a health insurance policy became effective and render the policy void due to a clerical error. This practice, which is prohibited under the Affordable Care Act except in cases of fraud or intentional misrepresentation of a material fact, is called A) estoppel. B) retention. C) rescission. D) reformation.

C

Previous Edition 9) The requirement that losses should be accidental and unintentional in order to be insurable results in which of the following? I. Decrease in moral hazard II. More accurate prediction of future losses A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 24) Helen and John both own automobiles on which they carry liability insurance. If Helen is negligent and has an accident while driving John's car with his permission, how will each insurer respond to any liability judgment against Helen? A) The insurers will pay the judgment on a pro rata basis. B) John's insurer will pay on an excess basis if Helen's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. C) Helen's insurance will pay on an excess basis if John's insurance is insufficient to cover the judgment. D) The policies will pay the judgment on the basis of contribution by equal shares.

C

Previous Edition 30) LMN Insurance sells homeowners insurance. The LMN homeowners policy combines property and casualty insurance in the same contract. Insurance policies combining property and casualty coverage in the same contract are called A) mono-line policies. B) multi-year policies. C) multiple-line policies. D) manuscript policies.

C

Previous Edition 32) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover Ken's medical expenses? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

C

Previous Edition 32) XYZ Company insured its building on a replacement cost basis for $450,000 under a property insurance policy that included an 80 percent coinsurance clause. The building had a replacement cost of $500,000 when it sustained a $50,000 loss. How much will XYZ Company receive from its insurer, assuming no deductible applies? A) $42,500 B) $45,000 C) $50,000 D) $56,250

C

Previous Edition 6) Reasons why a peril may be considered uninsurable and therefore excluded from insurance contracts include which of the following? I. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be due to a predictable decline in value. II. The losses from the occurrence of the peril may be incalculable and catastrophic. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 6) Which of the following statements about a priori probabilities is correct? A) They are subjective probabilities based on ambiguity in the way probability is perceived. B) They are subjective probabilities that may vary among individuals because of factors such as age, gender, education, and the use of alcohol. C) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by deductive reasoning. D) They are objective probabilities that can be determined by subjective reasoning.

C

Previous Edition 10) Larry has $25,000 of bodily injury liability coverage under his PAP. This limit is the minimum amount required by his state to be considered financially responsible. While on a vacation, Larry visited a neighboring state which has a minimum financial responsibility limit of $50,000 for bodily injury. Which of the following statements describes the situation for Larry while he was in the neighboring state? A) Larry's policy was suspended while he was in the neighboring state. B) Larry had only $25,000 of liability coverage. C) Larry's policy automatically provided $50,000 of liability coverage. D) Larry's policy automatically provided $100,000 of liability coverage.

C

Previous Edition 15) In which of the following situations would medical payments be paid under an unendorsed PAP? A) injuries incurred while riding a motorcycle B) injuries incurred while an auto is being used without the presumption that permission would have been granted to use the auto C) injuries incurred in an auto while it is used in a share-the-expense car pool D) injuries incurred during the course of employment if workers compensation benefits are available

C

Previous Edition 22) Which of the following statements about offer and acceptance for insurance contracts is true? A) In property and liability insurance, agents typically do not have the authority to bind coverage. B) In life insurance, the agent can usually accept an offer by immediately binding coverage. C) In property insurance, the offer and acceptance are usually in writing but may be oral. D) In life insurance, completing the application and paying the first premium constitute acceptance of the offer from the insurer.

C

Previous Edition 22) Which of the following statements concerning individual medical expense insurance is (are) correct? I. Once the deductible is satisfied, no additional deductible is payable during the calendar year. II. Family deductibles are substantially higher than individual deductibles. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 24) The insurance company's options for settling a collision loss to a covered auto under the PAP include which of the following? I. Pay the loss in money. II. Repair or replace the damaged auto. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 27) Which of the following is an example of consequential (indirect) loss? A) the theft of a person's jewelry B) the destruction of a firm's manufacturing plant by an earthquake C) the cost of renting a substitute vehicle while a collision-damaged car is being repaired D) the vandalism of a person's automobile

C

Previous Edition 32) All of the following statements about the rules governing agency relationships are true EXCEPT A) An agent must be authorized to act on behalf of a principal. B) An agency agreement may grant certain powers to the agent as well as denying the agent other powers. C) The principal is responsible for the acts of agents only if the acts are criminal. D) Knowledge of the agent is presumed to be knowledge of the principal with respect to matters within the scope of the agency relationship.

C

Previous Edition 36) Beth's disability income insurance policy provides benefits for accidental death, dismemberment, and loss of sight. The maximum amount payable under this benefit is known as the A) face value. B) cash value. C) principal sum. D) monthly benefit.

C

Previous Edition 40) Dave is an agent for Easy Pay Insurance. Easy Pay insures only high-quality applicants. Dave wanted to earn more commissions, so he sold some policies to applicants he knew were below-average risks. When these policyowners started filing claims, Easy Pay tried to deny the claims stating that Dave had not acted appropriately. Which general rule of agency makes Easy Pay responsible for the claims of the higher-than-average risk policyowners? A) There is no presumption of an agency relationship. B) Agents should be compensated based on the quality of the business they generate. C) A principal is responsible for the acts of its agents who are acting within the scope of their authority. D) An agent must have authority to represent the principal.

C

Previous Edition 44) Some courts have ruled that an alternative to "replacement cost less depreciation" should be used to determine the actual cash value of a property loss. Under this alternative, the value of property lost is determined by the price a willing buyer would pay a willing seller for the property in a free market. This method of determining actual cash value is called the A) intrinsic value method. B) valued policy method. C) fair market value method. D) forensic cost method.

C

Previous Edition 54) A pharmaceutical company employs a young chemist who is responsible for three new patents last year and for the development of the company's two best-selling drugs. The company purchased a large life insurance policy on the chemist. In this case, the insurable interest requirement was met because of a(n) A) ownership interest. B) close family relationship. C) pecuniary interest. D) economic family relationship.

C

Previous Edition 10) Purposes of the coinsurance provision in medical expense insurance policies include which of the following? I. to reduce premiums II. to prevent overutilization of policy benefits A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

C

Previous Edition 43) Cathy's car hit a patch of ice on the road. The car skidded off the road and hit a tree. The presence of ice on the road is best described as a(n) A) peril. B) subjective risk. C) physical hazard. D) indirect loss.

C

Previous Edition 46) All of the following are methods used to fund the Affordable Care Act EXCEPT A) an excise tax on the sale of medical devices. B) reduced payments to Medicare Advantage plans. C) tort reform measures that reduce medical malpractice claims. D) savings in the Medicare and Medicaid programs from reduced fraud and abuse.

C

Revised 15) Which of the following statements about subrogation is true? A) It is used primarily for losses paid under life insurance policies. B) It allows the insurer to sue its own insured who is negligent. C) The insured's right to collect benefits may be forfeited if the insured interferes with the insurer's subrogation rights after a loss occurs. D) The insurer is required to exercise its subrogation rights.

C

Revised 2) All of the following are historical reasons for the increase in health care expenditures in the U.S. EXCEPT A) cost insulation because of third-party payers. B) employer-sponsored health insurance. C) universal health insurance coverage. D) technological advances in health care.

C

Revised 23) All of the following statements about optional disability income benefits are true EXCEPT A) Under a cost-of-living rider, benefits are periodically adjusted for inflation. B) A Social Security rider pays additional benefits if the insured is turned down for Social Security disability benefits. C) Adding a return of premium rider results in a lower initial premium. D) Under an option to purchase additional insurance, the insured has the right to buy additional insurance at specified times without evidence of insurability.

C

Previous Edition 14) Which of the following types of risks is normally uninsurable by private insurers? A) personal risks B) property risks C) liability risks D) political risks

D

New 40) Adverse selection occurs A) when an insurance company loses money on its investments. B) when insurance purchasers buy insurance but do not have a loss. C) when catastrophic losses occur as a result of a natural disaster. D) when applicants with a higher-than-average chance of loss seek insurance at standard rates.

D

Previous Edition 45) The Affordable Care Act has a provision that expands a public assistance program designed to make health coverage available to low-income individuals by increasing the maximum amount of income that can be earned and still qualify for benefits. As a result, millions of individuals are eligible for coverage under this program. This public assistance program is called A) Medicare. B) Health Maintenance Organization. C) Health Insurance Marketplace Exchange. D) Medicaid.

D

Previous Edition 16) Which of the following statements about financial risk is (are) true? I. Enterprise risk does not include financial risk. II. Financial risk is easily addressed through the purchase of insurance. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D

Previous Edition 21) David owns a liquor store in a high-crime area. In order to obtain a reduced insurance premium, David promised to have a burglar alarm operating at the store when the store was closed. This agreement, which was incorporated into the insurance contract, is an example of a A) representation. B) binder. C) rider. D) warranty.

D

Previous Edition 25) A contract in which the values exchanged are not equal because chance is involved is called a(n) A) contract of adhesion. B) unilateral contract. C) conditional contract. D) aleatory contract.

D

Previous Edition 41) Ted's insurance claim was denied by XYZ Insurance Company. When Ted inquired why the claim was denied, he was told to, "Read the exclusion on page 5 of the policy." Ted read the exclusion. In his opinion, the exclusion was poorly worded and vague. If a court of law agrees with Ted's assessment of the exclusion, Ted may still be able to have his claim paid by the insurer because insurance contracts are A) personal contracts. B) unilateral contracts. C) aleatory contracts. D) contracts of adhesion.

D

Previous Edition 45) Some states have a law that requires payment of the face amount of insurance to the insured if a total loss to real property occurs from a peril specified in the law. These laws are called A) agreed amount laws. B) replacement cost laws. C) homestead laws. D) valued policy laws.

D

Previous Edition 47) Owen's car is insured under a Personal Auto Policy (PAP). A hail storm occurred one evening, and his car was severely damaged. Which PAP coverage, if Owen purchased it, would cover this damage to his auto? A) property damage liability B) uninsured motorists property damage C) collision D) other-than-collision

D

Previous Edition 11) The effect of an annual out-of-pocket limit in an individual medical expense policy is to A) limit the lifetime benefits payable under the policy. B) put a cap on annual benefits the insurer will pay. C) prevent the insured from receiving duplicate benefits if medical expenses are also covered under workers compensation insurance. D) cover 100 percent of eligible medical expenses after an insured has incurred a specified amount of annual out-of-pocket expenses.

D

Previous Edition 13) Some characteristics of the judicial system and regulatory environment increase the frequency and severity of loss. This hazard is called A) moral hazard. B) physical hazard. C) attitudinal hazard. D) legal hazard.

D

Previous Edition 13) Sue's office building was damaged by a fire caused by a careless tenant. After paying Sue for the loss, the insurance company sued the tenant to recover its loss. This suit is based on the principle of A) warranty. B) insurable interest. C) utmost good faith. D) subrogation.

D

Previous Edition 13) Which of the following statements about a calendar-year deductible is (are) true? I. It requires the insured to pay a specified amount of each claim regardless of when the claim occurs during the year and regardless of any previous claims during the year. II. It is used only in policies which cover direct property losses. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D

Previous Edition 14) Taylor Tobacco Company is concerned that the company may be held liable in a court of law and ordered to pay a large damage award to a smoker harmed by the company's cigarettes. The characteristics of the judicial system that increase the frequency and severity of loss are known as A) moral hazard. B) particular risk. C) speculative risk. D) legal hazard.

D

Previous Edition 19) Which of the following statements about individual disability income policies is true? A) Benefits are typically paid only for disabilities resulting from sickness. B) Benefits paid for partial disabilities are usually greater than benefits paid by the same policy for total disabilities. C) Most policies pay a benefit equal to 100 percent of the disabled person's lost income. D) Many policies provide or make available a residual disability benefit for persons who are able to work but at a reduced income.

D

Previous Edition 20) All of the following statements about Part D (coverage for damage to your auto) of the PAP are true EXCEPT A) Coverage may be purchased with or without collision insurance. B) Losses are paid regardless of fault. C) Coverage applies to a nonowned auto occasionally driven by an insured. D) No coverage is provided for newly-acquired vehicles.

D

Previous Edition 20) All of the following statements about individual disability income policies are true EXCEPT A) Premiums are often waived while a person is disabled but must be resumed if the insured recovers. B) At the time of purchase, the insured can choose the length of the benefit period from among several available options. C) In order to encourage rehabilitation, benefits may be continued during periods of vocational training. D) Most disability income insurance policies contain an elimination period of 10 or fewer days.

D

Previous Edition 21) The purpose of other-insurance provisions is to A) eliminate the need for deductibles. B) penalize those insureds who carry inadequate amounts of insurance. C) specify who will pay losses if the insurer is bankrupt. D) preserve the principle of indemnity.

D

Previous Edition 22) John has an auto which is covered for collision losses subject to a $250 deductible. Kate's auto also has collision coverage but her deductible is $500. Which of the following statements describes how a $2,000 collision loss will be paid if it occurs when John borrows Kate's car because his car is in the shop for repairs? A) John's policy will pay $1,500, and Kate's policy will pay nothing. B) John's policy will pay $1,750, and Kate's policy will pay nothing. C) Kate's policy will pay $1,750, and John's policy will pay nothing. D) Kate's policy will pay $1,500, and John's policy will pay $250.

D

Previous Edition 23) Kevin has three liability policies which provide for contribution by equal shares if other insurance applies to a loss. How much will each policy pay for a $3,000,000 liability judgment if policy A provides $500,000 of coverage, policy B provides $1,000,000 of coverage, and policy C provides $3,000,000 of coverage? A) Each policy will pay $500,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $1,500,000. B) Policy A will pay $500,000, policies B and C will each pay $1,000,000, and Kevin must pay the remaining $500,000. C) Policy A will pay nothing, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $2,000,000. D) Policy A will pay $500,000, policy B will pay $1,000,000, and policy C will pay $1,500,000.

D

Previous Edition 24) All of the following are examples of personal risks EXCEPT A) poor health. B) unemployment. C) premature death. D) loss of business income.

D

Previous Edition 25) All of the following are social costs associated with insurance EXCEPT A) insurance company operating expenses. B) fraudulent claims. C) inflated claims. D) increased cost of capital.

D

Previous Edition 26) Eric's property was damaged in an accident. He phoned his agent to see if the loss was covered under his property insurance policy. The agent said, "As long as the cause of loss is not specifically excluded in the policy, the loss is covered." Based on the agent's answer, what type of insuring agreement appears in the policy? A) unconditional coverage B) named-perils coverage C) extended-perils coverage D) "open-perils" coverage

D

Previous Edition 27) Janet hit a wall causing a large dent in the fender of her car. She was busy at work and delayed reporting the damage to her insurer for 9 months. When she finally reported the claim, her insurer denied payment, stating, "Although such a loss is usually covered, you are required under the terms of the contract to provide prompt notification in case of loss." The prompt notification requirement is an example of a(n) A) declaration. B) definition. C) insuring agreement. D) condition.

D

Previous Edition 28) ABC Appliance offers a warranty requiring an annual fee. The warranty may be purchased at the time of sale or at any time within the first year after the appliance was purchased. The warranty fee after the date of purchase is twice the time-of-purchase fee. When asked why the fee was higher after the date of purchase, ABC's president said, "Buying a warranty is voluntary. We've noted that those who buy the warranty after the purchase date have a greater need for service." Charging the same rate or a lower rate after the date of purchase would expose ABC to what problem that also impacts private insurers? A) excessive premiums B) reduced claims C) bad investments D) adverse selection

D

Previous Edition 30) Shauna hurt her back and was unable to work. She filed a claim under her disability income insurance policy. Under terms of the policy, a period of time must pass between when the injury occurred and when the insurer begins to replace lost earnings. This time period is called a(n) A) grace period. B) enrollment period. C) probationary period. D) elimination (waiting) period.

D

Previous Edition 31) What is the practical effect of an insurance contract being a contract of adhesion? A) The insurer can refuse to pay claims if the insured has not complied with all policy provisions. B) The insured can assign the policy only with the insurer's consent. C) The insurer can sue the insured for failure to pay any premiums. D) The policy is interpreted in the insured's favor if the policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties.

D

Previous Edition 33) From the insured's perspective, the use of deductibles in insurance contracts is an example of A) risk transfer. B) risk control. C) risk avoidance. D) risk retention.

D

Previous Edition 33) Ken purchased a PAP with liability limits of 100/300/50, medical payments coverage, and collision coverage. Ken fell asleep while driving late at night. He crossed the center line and hit a car approaching from the other direction. The following losses occurred. —The driver of the other car suffered $30,000 in bodily injuries. —Ken's car sustained $5,000 in damages. —Ken incurred $5,000 in medical expenses. —The car that Ken hit was a total loss. Which of Ken's Personal Auto Policy (PAP) coverages will cover the damage to the car that Ken hit? A) bodily injury liability B) collision coverage C) medical payments coverage D) property damage liability

D

Previous Edition 36) According to the law of large numbers, what should happen as an insurance company increases the number of loss exposures that it insures? A) Fewer losses should be expected to occur. B) The amount of premiums needed to cover losses should decrease. C) The volatility of the insurance company's underwriting results should increase. D) The difference between actual and expected results should decrease.

D

Previous Edition 38) Dennis was involved in an accident. He believes the damage to his auto is $7,000. His insurer believes the damage is only $3,500. Which PAP provision is designed to handle disputes between the insurer and the insured over the amount of the loss? A) other insurance provision B) agreed amount endorsement C) coinsurance provision D) appraisal provision

D

Previous Edition 4) The exclusion of flood in a homeowners policy is an example of an A) excluded activity. B) excluded condition. C) excluded property. D) excluded peril.

D

Previous Edition 4) The loss settlement under which of the following supports the principle of indemnity? A) life insurance B) valued policies C) replacement cost property insurance D) actual cash value property insurance

D

Previous Edition 40) The section of the insurance policy that includes provisions that qualify or limit the insurer's promise to perform is the A) definitions. B) insuring agreement. C) exclusions. D) conditions.

D

Previous Edition 44) Jim and Paula Franklin started a dry cleaning business. The business may be successful or it may fail. The type of risk that is present when either a profit or loss could occur is called A) pure risk. B) subjective risk. C) nondiversifiable risk. D) speculative risk.

D

Previous Edition 45) Which statement concerning towing and labor coverage under the PAP is (are) true? I. There's no coverage for towing if the auto breaks down—towing is only covered if the auto needs to be towed after a collision has occurred. II. Towing and labor coverage pays for repairs at a service station or garage. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D

Previous Edition 46) Property insurance policies contain declarations, conditions, definitions, exclusions, and an insuring agreement. However, some policy terms, such as subrogation, cancellation, other insurance, and assignment do not fall into these categories. The part of an insurance contract in which these provisions can be found is the A) endorsements. B) binders. C) conditions. D) miscellaneous provisions.

D

Previous Edition 48) All of the following statements about subrogation are true EXCEPT A) The general rule allows the insurer to recover up to the amount paid to its insured under the policy. B) Subrogation does not apply in life insurance. C) Interfering with the insurer's subrogation rights can jeopardize indemnification of the insured. D) The insurer reserves the right to subrogate against its own insureds.

D

Previous Edition 57) Frazier Electric keeps a paper copy of business records at the company's headquarters. The company also has two back-up copies of business records stored in electronic files. The electronic files are kept in the event the paper records are damaged or destroyed. The back-up files illustrate which of the following risk control techniques? A) loss prevention B) loss reduction C) diversification D) duplication

D

Previous Edition 8) What is the purpose of the extended nonowned liability coverage endorsement to the PAP? A) to provide liability coverage for an insured's employer when an insured uses his or her auto for business purposes B) to provide liability coverage for an insured who occasionally operates a nonowned auto C) to provide liability coverage for anyone who loans a covered auto to another driver D) to provide liability coverage for an insured who operates a nonowned auto on a regular basis

D

Previous Edition 8) Why is a large number of exposure units generally required before a pure risk is insurable? A) It prevents the insurer from losing money. B) It eliminates intentional losses. C) It minimizes moral hazard. D) It enables the insurer to predict losses more accurately.

D

Previous Edition 9) All of the following statements about endorsements and riders are true EXCEPT A) They are usually written. B) They can be used to add or delete policy provisions. C) They normally take precedence over other conflicting policy provisions. D) They are primarily used to circumvent legislation requiring specific policy provisions.

D

Previous Edition 34) JKL Insurance Company estimates that 14 out of every 100 homeowners it insures will file a claim each year. Last year, JKL insured 200 homeowners. According to the law of large numbers, what should happen if JKL insures 2,000 homeowners this year? A) The total number of claims filed by JKL policyowners should decrease. B) The total dollar value of claims will decrease. C) The average size of loss will decline in value. D) The actual results will more closely approach the expected results.

D

Previous Edition 14) Dirk required surgery for a kidney impairment. His total bill for medical services was $50,000. Dirk has a medical expense policy with a $1,000 calendar-year deductible and a $5,000 annual out-of-pocket limit. His coinsurance percentage is 20 percent. The out-of-pocket limit applies to coinsurance only. Assuming this surgery and hospitalization were the first medical care that Dirk received during the year and that all of the hospital services were eligible for coverage under the policy, how much of the $50,000 bill will the insurer pay? A) $39,000 B) $39,200 C) $40,000 D) $44,000

D

Previous Edition 16) The tendency for unhealthy people to seek life or health insurance at standard rates is an example of A) moral hazard. B) fundamental risk. C) attitudinal hazard. D) adverse selection.

D

Previous Edition 19) Joyce was injured by an uninsured drunk driver while she was riding in a friend's car. Joyce and her friend each have a PAP with an uninsured motorists limit of $50,000. How much will be paid by each policy if it is determined that Joyce has $70,000 of bodily injuries? A) Each policy will pay $35,000. B) Joyce's policy will pay $50,000, and the friend's policy will pay nothing. C) Joyce's policy will pay $50,000, and the friend's policy will pay $20,000. D) The friend's policy will pay $50,000, and Joyce's policy will pay $20,000.

D

Previous Edition 26) One provision of the Affordable Care Act provides creates in each state a transparent and competitive insurance marketplace where individuals and small firms can purchase affordable and qualified health coverage. This marketplace is called a A) Medicaid plan. B) Medicare plan. C) Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). D) Health Insurance Marketplace.

D

Previous Edition 27) Why does the insured get the benefit of the doubt if an insurance policy contains any ambiguities or uncertainties? A) because insurance contracts are aleatory B) because insurance contracts are unilateral C) because insurance contracts are conditional D) because insurance contracts are contracts of adhesion

D

Previous Edition 36) Jacob sold his house to Shelia for $140,000 in cash. Jacob "threw in" insurance on the house as part of the deal and did not bother telling the insurer that there was a new owner. Four months after Shelia purchased the home, a windstorm damaged the roof. Which of the following legal characteristics of insurance contracts could the insurer use to legally deny payment for the damage to the roof? A) Insurance contracts are unilateral contracts. B) Insurance contacts are contracts of adhesion. C) Insurance contracts are aleatory contracts. D) Insurance contracts are personal contracts.

D

Previous Edition 38) Jenna opened a successful restaurant. One night, after the restaurant had closed, a fire started when the electrical system malfunctioned. In addition to the physical damage to the restaurant, Jenna lost profits that could have been earned while the restaurant was closed for repairs. The lost profits are an example of A) direct loss. B) nondiversifiable risk. C) speculative risk. D) indirect loss.

D

Previous Edition 40) Which of the following statements is (are) true with respect to the collision damage waiver on rented cars? I. It is inexpensive and is provided at no charge by most rental car companies. II. It waives the renter's liability for bodily injury liability arising out of use of the rented auto. A) I only B) II only C) both I and II D) neither I nor II

D

Previous Edition 49) Powers specifically conferred on an agent to act on behalf of a principal are A) incidental authority. B) apparent authority. C) implied authority. D) express authority.

D

Previous Edition 6) A total loss under a valued policy is settled on the basis of the A) market value of the loss. B) actual cash value of the loss. C) replacement value of the loss. D) amount of insurance covering the loss.

D

Previous Edition 33) Barb was injured in an auto accident. She was totally disabled and collected disability income benefits for 8 months. She would like to return to work on a part-time basis to see if her recovery is complete. During this period, her insurer will pay reduced disability income benefits. This type of disability is called A) recurrent disability. B) presumptive disability. C) permanent disability. D) partial disability.

D

Previous Edition 28) The extra expense incurred by a business to stay in operation following a fire is an example of a(n) A) fundamental risk. B) speculative risk. C) direct loss. D) indirect loss.

D

Previous Edition 35) One long-term care insurance benefit trigger considers whether the insured needs supervision to protect against threats to health or safety due to memory loss or disorientation. This benefit trigger is referred to as a(n) A) activities of daily living trigger. B) medical necessity trigger. C) needs test trigger. D) severe cognitive impairment trigger.

D

Previous Edition 44) An insurance company that sells earthquake insurance in an area where earthquakes are possible has subjected itself to the risk of insolvency if a severe earthquake occurs. An insurer can safely sell earthquake insurance in this area if it shifts the risk of catastrophic loss to another insurer. The shifting of insured risk from one insurer to another insurer is called A) underwriting. B) casualty insurance. C) coinsurance. D) reinsurance.

D

Previous Edition 53) Bob purchased insurance on his home with an insurer that was not licensed to do business in the state. In this case, which requirement to form a binding insurance contract is lacking? A) exchange of consideration B) offer and acceptance C) legal purpose D) competent parties

D

Previous Edition 54) A student who has skipped many classes and not studied the course material was surprised to learn there was a test when he showed-up for class. The student's mental uncertainty about whether or not he will pass the test is called A) objective risk. B) objective probability. C) subjective probability. D) subjective risk.

D

Previous Edition 12) Carelessness or indifference to a loss is an example of A) physical hazard. B) objective probability. C) moral hazard. D) attitudinal hazard.

D

Previous Edition 52) After the Personal Auto Policy has been in force for 60 days (or is a renewal policy), all of the following are grounds for the insurer to cancel the policy EXCEPT A) nonpayment of premiums B) the insured's license to drive is suspended C) the insurer discovers material misrepresentation by the insured in the application process D) the insured received a traffic ticket

D

Revised 25) Which of the following statements about mandatory provisions in individual health insurance policies is true? A) Insurers are not permitted to place time limits on filing claims or providing proof of loss. B) The time limit on certain defenses provision prohibits the insurance company from denying a claim based on a fraudulent misstatement by the applicant after the policy has been in force three months. C) The usual length of the grace period is 180 days. D) Under the reinstatement provision, a health insurance policy that has lapsed can be put back in force.

D

Revised 29) The inability of the insured to perform some but not all of the important duties of his or her occupation is called A) residual disability. B) total disability. C) recurrent disability. D) partial disability.

D

Revised 48) All of the following are characteristics of the liability risk that most people face EXCEPT A) a lien may be placed on your income and assets to satisfy a legal judgment. B) substantial legal expenses may be incurred defending the claim. C) there is no upper limit on the amount of the loss. D) owning liability insurance eliminates the possibility of being held legally liable.

D