All Nutrition Quizzes for Test #1
The nurse is teaching a class on how to read labels on food. She realizes the class understands the differences in oils when she hears which of the following? Select one: a. "Canola oil is a good oil." b. "Palm oil is a good oil." c. "Palm kernel oil is a good oil." d. "Coconut oil is a good oil."
a. "Canola oil is a good oil." CorrectCanola oil is a good choice. Palm oil, palm kernel oil, and coconut oil are all saturated fats; the only vegetable-based saturated fats and their intake should be limited.
A client has requested ideas for menus on a low-fat diet. The nurse suggests which of the following menus? Select one: a. 1/2 cup of black beans with 1/3 cup of rice and tomatoes, 1 cup of salad with 1 tablespoon of Italian dressing, 1/2 cup of steamed broccoli, 3/4 cup of mandarin oranges, and 1 cup of skim milk b. 3 oz of broiled chicken breast, 1/2 cup of baked potato with 1 teaspoon of margarine, 1/2 cup of steamed broccoli, and 1 cup of hot tea c. 3 oz of broiled steak, 1/2 cup of brown rice, 1 cup of green salad with 1 tablespoon of low-fat ranch dressing, 1/2 cup of fresh strawberries, and 1 cup of steamed spinach d. 3 oz of tuna mixed with lettuce, tomato slices, chopped onions, grated carrots and 2 tablespoons of Thousand Island dressing, 2 slices of whole wheat bread with 1 tablespoon of butter, 2 oz of cheddar cheese sticks, and 1 cup of whole milk
a. 1/2 cup of black beans with 1/3 cup of rice and tomatoes, 1 cup of salad with 1 tablespoon of Italian dressing, 1/2 cup of steamed broccoli, 3/4 cup of mandarin oranges, and 1 cup of skim milk Correct-The composition of a low-fat diet is 74% carbohydrate, 17% protein, and 9% fat. The meal of black beans, rice, tomatoes, salad, broccoli, oranges, and skim milk fits those guidelines the best.
There are many different diets and methods to choose from if you want to lose weight. One method to lose weight is a standard daily calorie level based on your gender. What are the recommended calorie levels, based on gender, to produce a 1- to 2-pound weight loss a week? Select one: a. 1600 cal/day for men and 1200 cal/day for women b. 2000 cal/day for men and 1500 cal/day for women c. 1000 cal/day for men and 1300 cal/day for women d. 1800 cal/day for men and 1400 cal/day for women
a. 1600 cal/day for men and 1200 cal/day for women Correct-The National Institutes of Health recommends low-calorie diets of 1000 to 1200 cal/day for overweight women and 1200 to 1600 cal/day for overweight men.
The nurse is helping a client develop some menus based on MyPlate for a 1200-calorie diet. Which of the following is the better option based on the 1200 cal/day? Select one: a. 3 oz of baked chicken breast, 1 cup of strawberries, 1.5 cups of steamed broccoli, and 4 oz of rice pilaf b. 2 oz of hamburger patty, 1 cup of cottage cheese, 1 cup of skim milk, 1 cup of mixed vegetables, and 2 slices of sourdough bread c. 1.5 cups of corn, 1.5 cups of watermelon, 1 cup of milk, and 4 oz of buffalo chicken wings d. 1 cup of green beans, 1 cup of raw carrot and celery sticks, 1 cup of raspberries with 1 teaspoon of honey, and 5 oz of fried chicken strips
a. 3 oz of baked chicken breast, 1 cup of strawberries, 1.5 cups of steamed broccoli, and 4 oz of rice pilaf Correct-The MyPlate 1200-calorie diet recommends the following: 4 oz grains, 1.5 cups vegetables, 1 cup fruit, 2 cups milk, 3 oz protein, and 3 teaspoon oil. The menu of baked chicken breast, strawberries, broccoli, and rice pilaf fits the recommendations the best.
The nurse is explaining the MyPlate program to a client who wants to start a diet to lose weight. The nurse is suggesting the client start with a 1400 cal/day plan. Which of the following will the client consume? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. 4 oz protein b. 1.5 cups vegetables c. 4 teaspoon oils d. 1 cup fruit e. 3 oz grains f. 3 cups milk
a. 4 oz protein Correct-The 1400 cal/day diet recommends the following: 5 oz grains, 1.5 cups vegetables, 1.5 cups fruit, 2 cups milk, 4 oz protein, and 4 teaspoon oil on a daily basis. b. 1.5 cups vegetables Correct-The 1400 cal/day diet recommends the following: 5 oz grains, 1.5 cups vegetables, 1.5 cups fruit, 2 cups milk, 4 oz protein, and 4 teaspoon oil on a daily basis. c. 4 teaspoon oils Correct-The 1400 cal/day diet recommends the following: 5 oz grains, 1.5 cups vegetables, 1.5 cups fruit, 2 cups milk, 4 oz protein, and 4 teaspoon oil on a daily basis.
The nurse is admitting a client to the hospital unit with a diagnosis of marasmus. This diagnosis is most likely secondary to what? Select one: a. A chronic disease b. A recent trauma c. The influence of affluence d. The quality of the protein in the diet
a. A chronic disease Correct-In the United States, marasmus occurs secondary to chronic diseases such as cancer, AIDS, and chronic pulmonary disease. Kwashiorkor occurs secondary to an acute incidence like a trauma. Affluence and protein quality are not associated with marasmus.
It is recognized that many individuals in the United States do not eat properly; however, it is not always necessary for people to take a vitamin supplement. Who of the following individuals is least likely to need a vitamin supplement? Select one: a. A moderately active adult b. A pregnant teenager c. An elderly woman living alone d. A housewife on a low-calorie diet
a. A moderately active adult Correct-It is recommended that certain populations take supplements to ensure they are getting adequate nutrition to prevent deficiencies. These include women who are pregnant, dieters who consume fewer than 1200 calories, vegans, finicky eaters, and a large portion of adults age 51 years and older.
The nurse is working with a group of clients in a weight loss clinic. The nurse recognizes that the most successful diet plan is which of the following? Select one: a. Individualized to the client's preference and health status b. A low-fat diet (Ornish diet) c. Low-carbohydrate diet (Atkins type) d. Balanced diet (MyPlate)
a. Individualized to the client's preference and health status Correct-The "best" type of diet is individualized to the client's preference and health status. A diet is only successful if the client follows it.
The nurse is aware that particular populations are prone to vitamin deficiencies for various reasons. Why are older adults prone to vitamin D deficiency? Select one: a. Aging reduces the kidneys' ability to activate vitamin D. b. They are more likely to take prescription medicines that interfere with vitamin D absorption. c. Their fixed incomes limit buying enough foods rich in vitamin D. d. They excrete more vitamin D than younger adults do.
a. Aging reduces the kidneys' ability to activate vitamin D. Correct-Vitamin D is unique in that the body has the potential to make all it needs if exposure to sunlight is optimal and liver and kidney functions are normal. Elderly persons are particularly at risk for vitamin D deficiency if they have impaired activation by the liver and kidneys.
The nurse is teaching a client about making better food choices to help her lose weight. Which of the following should the nurse encourage the client to choose? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Apple slices b. Plain yogurt with fruit slices c. Baked chicken without skin d. Enriched bread with butter e. Low-sugar candy f. Bologna and whole wheat bread sandwich
a. Apple slices Correct-Some foods are calorie dense, such as regular soft drinks, most desserts, fried foods, full-fat dairy products, high-fat meat, and processed foods. They are considered calorie dense due to their solid fats and added sugars content. Clients should be encouraged to choose nutrient-dense foods instead. These include items prepared without added fat and sugar. b. Plain yogurt with fruit slices Correct-Some foods are calorie dense, such as regular soft drinks, most desserts, fried foods, full-fat dairy products, high-fat meat, and processed foods. They are considered calorie dense due to their solid fats and added sugars content. Clients should be encouraged to choose nutrient-dense foods instead. These include items prepared without added fat and sugar. c. Baked chicken without skin Correct-Some foods are calorie dense, such as regular soft drinks, most desserts, fried foods, full-fat dairy products, high-fat meat, and processed foods. They are considered calorie dense due to their solid fats and added sugars content. Clients should be encouraged to choose nutrient-dense foods instead. These include items prepared without added fat and sugar.
The nurse is teaching a high school health class on diet and exercise. Which of the following statements can she truthfully make? Select one: a. As the intensity of activity increases, the proportion of energy used increases. b. As the duration of activity increases, the proportion of fat used decreases. c. Physically fit people use more energy and store more fat. d. During the first 1 to 2 minutes of exercise, stored fat is the primary fuel.
a. As the intensity of activity increases, the proportion of energy used increases. Correct-The actual amount of energy expended on physical activity depends on the intensity and duration of the activity and the weight of the person performing the activity. The more intense and longer the activity, the greater is the amount of calories burned.
It has been proven that folate, when consumed in an adequate amount, may help prevent neural tube defects. When is it necessary to consume the folate to have this effect? Select one: a. Before conception and early in pregnancy b. During the second trimester of pregnancy c. During the third trimester of pregnancy d. Throughout pregnancy
a. Before conception and early in pregnancy Correct-Studies show that an adequate intake of folate before conception and during the first trimester of pregnancy reduces the risk of neural tube defects in infants.
The nurse is preparing a client for discharge from the hospital after a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. This includes teaching the client about the importance of eating a low-fat diet. The nurse explains that bile is necessary for which of the following? Select one: a. Bile is an emulsifier, prepping food for digestion. b. Bile digests fats, forming smaller fatty acids. c. Bile binds with pancreatic lipase to digest fat. d. Bile binds with unused fat to be excreted in the feces.
a. Bile is an emulsifier, prepping food for digestion. Correct-Bile, an emulsifier produced in the liver, prepares fat for digestion by suspending the hydrophobic molecules in the watery intestinal fluid. Emulsified fat particles have enlarged surface areas on which digestive enzymes can work. The gallbladder served as a storage place for extra bile to ensure adequate amounts to do the necessary work.
The health class asks the nurse what mineral is the most abundant in the body. What would the correct response be? Select one: a. Calcium b. Phosphorus c. Magnesium d. Iron
a. Calcium Correct-Calcium is the most plentiful mineral in the body, making up about half of the body's total mineral content. Almost all of the body's calcium is found in the bones and teeth.
Eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)and docosahexaenoic acid (DHA)are two fatty acids considered to be n-3 fatty acids. Another name for these fatty acids is omega-3 fatty acids. What are the best sources of omega-3 fatty acids? Select one: a. Cold-water fish, such as mackerel, salmon, sardines, and lake trout b. Meats, such as beef, veal, lamb, and pork c. Foods made with hydrogenated oils, such as cookies, crackers, stick margarine, and shortening d. Milk and milk products
a. Cold-water fish, such as mackerel, salmon, sardines, and lake trout Correct-Rich sources of omega-3 fatty acids are cold-water fish, such as mackerel, salmon, sardines, and lake trout.
Polyols or sugar alcohols are one of the alternatives to naturally occurring sugar that are used widely in the American diet. Some of the sugar alternatives can cause unpleasant side effects in some people if eaten in large amounts. What can large amounts of polyols cause in some people? Select one: a. Diarrhea b. Constipation c. Elevated serum glucose levels d. Nausea
a. Diarrhea Correct-Polyols (e.g., sorbitol, mannitol, and xylitol) are natural sweeteners derived from monosaccharides. Some people experience a laxative effect (abdominal gas, discomfort, or osmotic diarrhea) after consuming polyols. Nausea and constipation are not caused by large intakes of sugar alcohols. Sugar alternatives do not increase serum glucose levels.
During the nutrition class, the nurse asks one of the students to describe the Estimated Average Requirement (EAR). What should the student answer? a. EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half of healthy people in a lifestyle or gender group. b. EAR is the amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of 98% of all people. c. EAR is the amount of a nutrient that meets the needs of all healthy people in a specific population. d. EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is recommended to prevent chronic illness.
a. EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half of healthy people in a lifestyle or gender group. Correct-The EAR is the amount of a nutrient that is estimated to meet the requirement of half of healthy people in a lifestyle or gender group.
Children sometimes get mottled tooth enamel because they ingest more fluoride than is recommended while their teeth are forming. What causes this? Select one: a. Fluoridated toothpaste b. Fluoride supplements c. Drinking water d. Fluoride in foods
a. Fluoridated toothpaste Correct-Children under the age of 8 years are susceptible to mottled teeth enamel if excessive amounts of fluoride are ingested. The swallowing of fluoridated toothpaste has been blamed.
The nurse is teaching a nutrition class at the local high school. The subject for today is calcium. What is a good source of dietary calcium to teach the class? Select one: a. Fortified orange juice b. Organ meats c. Egg yolks d. Potatoes
a. Fortified orange juice Correct-Besides dairy products, calcium is also found in bok choy, broccoli, Chinese/Napa cabbage, collards, kale, okra, turnip greens, fortified breakfast cereal, fortified orange juice, legumes, fortified soy milk, and almonds.
The school nurse is teaching nutrition to a second grade class. In helping the students make better choices, which of the following should be emphasized? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Fresh fruit b. Whole-grain toast c. Low-fat milk d. Granola e. Macaroni and cheese f. Regular hot dogs
a. Fresh fruit Correct-Choosing foods without solid fats, additional sugar, and refined flours are better choices. Granola, macaroni and cheese, and regular hot dogs are high in solid fats and sugars. b. Whole-grain toast Correct-Choosing foods without solid fats, additional sugar, and refined flours are better choices. Granola, macaroni and cheese, and regular hot dogs are high in solid fats and sugars. c. Low-fat milk Correct-Choosing foods without solid fats, additional sugar, and refined flours are better choices. Granola, macaroni and cheese, and regular hot dogs are high in solid fats and sugars.
The nurse is helping a 76-year-old woman develop an exercise program. Which of the following are important to consider? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Include exercises to improve balance. b. Match her activities to her abilities. c. Determine her level of effort. d. Work up to 150 minutes of moderate-intensity aerobic activity per week. e. Work out longer but slower to improve her activity level.
a. Include exercises to improve balance. Correct-When working with older adults, it is important to keep in mind their activity level, their current abilities, and their limitations as far as movement, endurance, balance, and chronic conditions. b. Match her activities to her abilities. Correct-When working with older adults, it is important to keep in mind their activity level, their current abilities, and their limitations as far as movement, endurance, balance, and chronic conditions. c. Determine her level of effort. Correct-When working with older adults, it is important to keep in mind their activity level, their current abilities, and their limitations as far as movement, endurance, balance, and chronic conditions.
The nurse is aware that the Dietary Guidelines for Americans are published every 5 years and are intended for whom? a. Individuals aged 2 years and older b. Children aged 2 to 12 years c. Infants and senior citizens d. Adults aged 18 years and older
a. Individuals aged 2 years and older Correct-The DGA are designed for Americans aged 2 years and older. The 2010 version is intended not just for healthy individuals but also for people at increased risk of chronic disease.
The nurse is working with a group of clients in a weight loss clinic. The nurse recognizes that factors contributing to the obesity problem are related to environment. Which of the following is a factor related to the obesogenic environment? Select one: a. Low-cost, high-calorie foods b. Increased activity levels c. Use of slow cookers at home d. More food choices
a. Low-cost, high-calorie foods Correct-Obesogenic refers to the environment which encourages energy intake and discourages energy expenditure. Factors that contribute are an abundance of readily accessible, low-cost, palatable, high-calorie density foods; increased consumption of soft drinks and snacks; and increased portion size.
The nurse explains to the nutrition group that triglycerides are a class of lipids that are composed of a glycerol molecule as its backbone with fatty acids attached. Which of the following is not an element of triglycerides? Select one: a. Nitrogen b. Carbon c. Hydrogen d. Oxygen
a. Nitrogen Correct-Chemically, triglycerides are made of the same elements as carbohydrate, namely, carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; but because there are proportionately more carbon and hydrogen atoms to oxygen atoms, they yield more calories per gram than carbohydrates.
When properly preparing food, the client must be cognizant that vitamins and minerals differ in that minerals are what? Select one: a. Not destroyed by heat and light b. Are destroyed by heat and light c. Released from foods only by cooking d. Need to be supplemented in the diet because they are destroyed by cooking
a. Not destroyed by heat and light Correct-Unlike vitamins, minerals are not destroyed by light, air, heat, or acids during food preparation. Minerals are lost only when foods are soaked in water.
Obesity is a disease that is running rampant in the United States. A nurse is speaking to a civic group about overweight and obesity. One of the subjects is the complications associated with obesity. What is one of the complications of obesity? Select one: a. Obstructive sleep apnea certain cancers. b. Kidney stones c. Intestinal polyps d. Pancreatitis
a. Obstructive sleep apnea Correct-Obesity is associated with a wide variety of comorbidities, including diabetes, hyperlipidemia, fatty liver disease, obstructive sleep apnea, GERD, vertebral disk disease, osteoarthritis, and increased risk of
There are many health risks associated with obesity. What are the most common complications of obesity? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. Respiratory dysfunction b. Dyslipidemia c. Cystitis d. Hypotension e. Cholecystitis
a. Respiratory dysfunction Correct-Obesity is associated with a wide variety of comorbidities including diabetes, hyperlipidemia, fatty liver disease, obstructive sleep apnea, GERD, vertebral disk disease, osteoarthritis, and increased risk of certain cancers. b. Dyslipidemia Correct-Obesity is associated with a wide variety of comorbidities including diabetes, hyperlipidemia, fatty liver disease, obstructive sleep apnea, GERD, vertebral disk disease, osteoarthritis, and increased risk of certain cancers. e. Cholecystitis
The class is discussing the various elements that are essential for life. Water is a vital element for the human body. What is one of its functions? Select one: a. Serves as a solvent for vitamins and glucose b. Prepares nutrients for transportation to cells c. Makes cell walls without shape and structure d. Provides energy
a. Serves as a solvent for vitamins and glucose Correct-Water occupies essentially every space within and between body cells and is involved in virtually every body function, to include serves as a solvent for vitamins, minerals, glucose, and amino acids; provides shape and structure to cells; regulates body temperature; aids in digestion and absorption of nutrients; and transports nutrients and oxygen to cells.
It is well recognized that most Americans have become more sedentary than in the past. Many sit at desks working at computers all day. This sedentary lifestyle has increased the risk for various diseases and complications. What have experimental studies shown that prolonged sitting can do? a. Suppress insulin activity in the muscles b. Decreases the risk of osteoporosis c. Increases the use of stored fat for energy d. Increases the effect of menopause
a. Suppress insulin activity in the muscles Correct-Experimental studies show that prolonged sitting suppresses lipase and insulin activity in muscles, leading to metabolic abnormalities.
The nurse is discussing the various effects of calories on the body. The caloric cost of digesting, absorbing, and metabolizing food is called what? Select one: a. The thermic effect b. The metabolic effect c. The basal metabolic rate d. The resting metabolic rate
a. The thermic effect Correct-The thermic effect of food is an estimation of the amount of energy required to digest, absorb, transport, metabolize, and store nutrients.
The nurse is teaching a class where they are discussing the amount of fat that should be included in the daily diet to prevent chronic disease. Which of the following is correct? Select one: a. There is no set amount due to insufficient data. b. The amount depends on the client's age. c. The amount depends on the type of fat. d. The amount depends on the client's past medical history.
a. There is no set amount due to insufficient data. Correct-Neither an AI nor RDA is set for total fat due to insufficient data to define a level of fat intake at which risk of deficiency or prevention of chronic disease occurs.
In the past few years, much has been made of trans-fatty acids. The American public has been warned to attempt to eliminate "trans fats" from their diets. Why has this been encouraged? Select one: a. Trans-fatty acids raise the level of "bad" cholesterol in the blood. b. Trans-fatty acids lower the level of "bad" cholesterol in the blood. c. Trans-fatty acids are found in coconut, palm, and palm kernel oils. d. Trans-fatty acids account for most fat calories in the average American's diet.
a. Trans-fatty acids raise the level of "bad" cholesterol in the blood. Correct-Like saturated fat, trans fats raise low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, the "bad" cholesterol, which increases the risk of developing coronary heart disease. Even worse, trans fats may also lower high-density lipoprotein cholesterol, the "good" cholesterol, which is protective against heart disease. Trans fats do not lower the level of "bad" cholesterol in the blood; are not found in coconut, palm, or palm kernel oils; and do not account for most fat calories in the average American's diet.
The nurse is admitting a client onto the unit with a diagnosis of manganese toxicity. What symptoms would be expected in this client? Select one: a. Tremors b. Flexibility c. Unaltered gait d. Tetany
a. Tremors Correct-Manganese toxicity is an occupational hazard for miners who inhale manganese dust, leading to central nervous system abnormalities with symptoms similar to parkinsonism.
A nurse is conducting a weight management class at a local clinic for clients who have lost weight and are now trying to maintain a healthy BMI. Which of the following statements indicate the class understands the guidelines? Select one: a. We should eat approximately three servings of whole grains every day. b. We should eat approximately three servings of whole grains every week. c. We should eat whole-grain products at least once a day. d. We can eat both whole-grain and enriched refined-grain products in moderation.
a. We should eat approximately three servings of whole grains every day. Correct-Cross-sectional and prospective epidemiologic studies show that whole-grain intake is associated with lower risk of obesity and weight gain. Fourteen cross-sectional studies show that a daily intake of approximately three servings of whole grains is associated with lower BMI in adults. Studies have also shown that those who consumed more whole grains consistently weigh less.
The nurse is helping a client try to understand why the family is now putting on weight after a recent move and change in environment. The nurse suggests which of the following may be contributing to this problem? Select one: a. Weight gain can develop when exposure to an obesogenic environment occurs. b. Weight gain is determined by family genetics. c. Weight gain is short-term and related to the recent move. d. Weight gain is nothing to worry about.
a. Weight gain can develop when exposure to an obesogenic environment occurs. Correct-Research has shown that some people have a genetic predisposition to weight gain and obesity; however, the severity is largely determined by lifestyle and environmental conditions.
People who are overweight or obese often want to see the weight "fall off" their bodies. However, the recommended rate of weight loss for the first 6 months of treatment is what? Select one: a. 0.5 pounds a week b. 1 to 2 pounds a week c. 2 to 3 pounds a week d. 3 to 4 pounds a week
b. 1 to 2 pounds a week Correct-A gradual weight loss of 1 to 2 pounds each week for the first 6 months is recommended for a total of 10% weight loss.
The client is overweight and following a low-carbohydrate/high-fat diet. What would be an appropriate breakfast on this diet? Select one: a. 1/2 cup of orange juice, 1 small banana, 1/4 cup of scrambled egg beaters, 2 slices of whole wheat toast, and 2 teaspoons of butter b. 1/2 cup of orange juice, 2 scrambled eggs cooked in 2 teaspoons of butter, and 1 oz of pork sausage c. 1/2 cup of orange juice, 1 oz of shredded wheat, 2 slices of whole wheat toast, 1 cup of skim milk, and 2 teaspoons of butter d. 2/3 cup of plain yogurt with 3/4 cup of blueberries, and 3 graham crackers
b. 1/2 cup of orange juice, 2 scrambled eggs cooked in 2 teaspoons of butter, and 1 oz of pork sausage Correct-A low-carbohydrate/high-fat diet limits the carbohydrate intake at 20 g/day. The breakfast of orange juice, eggs, butter, and pork sausage fits the best. The other choices each contain items that are high in carbohydrates.
MyPlate recommends Americans limit their intake of solid fats and added sugars to no more than what of their total caloric intake? Select one: a. 10% b. 15% c. 20% d. 25%
b. 15% Correct-MyPlate recommends Americans limit their intake of solid fats and added sugars to no more than 15% of their total caloric intake.
The nurse is counseling a young female adult who needs approximately 2000 cal/day to maintain her weight. She would like to lose a few pounds and asks what she would need to limit her intake to if she wanted to lose a pound a week. How should the nurse respond? Select one: a. 1000 cal/day b. 1500 cal/day c. 1600 cal/day d. 1800 cal/day
b. 1500 cal/day Correct-A pound of body fat is equivalent to 3500 calories. An "extra" 500 cal/day for a week can result in a 1-pound weight gain. By reversing this, 500 cal/day decrease should result in a weight loss of 1 pound per week.
The nurse is teaching a nutrition class on how to estimate the total number of calories expended by a person per day according to the rule-of-thumb formula. What is the estimated total calorie expenditure for a 160-pound man who does little activity? a. 1920 b. 2112 c. 2288 d. 3220
b. 2112 Correct-First, calculate the BMR: For men, multiply the weight by 11 (160 × 11 = 1760); next, calculate the estimated total calories based on the activity level (sedentary activity level is indicated at 20%) (1760 × 0.20 = 352). Add the BMR calories and PA calories to determine the total calories for the day: 1760 + 352 = 2112 calories.
A client has been told to monitor his sodium intake. What is the Upper Limit (UL) set for adults for sodium Adequate Intake (AI)? Select one: a. 1700 mg b. 2300 mg c. 2500 mg d. 3000 mg
b. 2300 mg CorrectThe Upper Limit set for adults for sodium intake is 2300 mg.
People who are overweight often set unrealistic and unattainable weight loss goals. What is an achievable and attainable initial weight loss goal? Select one: a. Less than 5% of body weight b. 5% to 10% of body weight c. 10% to 15% of body weight d. 15% to 20% of body weight
b. 5% to 10% of body weight Correct-A modest weight loss of 5% to 10% of usual body weight is associated with significant improvements in blood pressure, cholesterol and plasma lipid levels, and blood glucose levels.
It is important to know how many calories make 1 pound so you can figure out how many calories to cut back each day to reach your weekly weight loss goal. How many calories per day deficit would you need to produce a 1-pound weight loss per week? Select one: a. 250 calories b. 500 calories c. 1000 calories d. 2000 calories
b. 500 calories Correct-One pound of body fat equals approximately 3500 calories. To lose 1 pound each week, one would need to ingest 3500 fewer calories each week. Therefore, 3500 calories ÷ 7 days/week = 500 calorie deficit per day.
The nurse is discussing calories and the effect they can have on the body. The nurse explains that a person who takes in too many calories on a consistent basis is in what? Select one: a. A negative caloric balance b. A positive energy balance c. A negative energy balance d. A positive caloric balance
b. A positive energy balance Correct-A positive energy balance occurs when calorie intake exceeds calorie output, whether the imbalance is caused by overeating, low activity, or both.
Behavior modification is part of the treatment plan for obesity. Which behavior modification technique is appropriate in the treatment of obesity? Select one: a. Skipping meals b. Using a small plate c. Never eating forbidden foods d. Eating rapidly
b. Using a small plate Correct-There are a variety of activities that can be done to help with the weight loss program; using a smaller plate to give the appearance of eating a full plate of food is just one.
The nurse is discussing protein with a client. The nurse describes that protein is formed from essential and nonessential amino acids. The client is having difficulties understanding the difference. The nurse should explain that essential amino acids are what? Select one: a. The only amino acids necessary for growth and tissue maintenance b. Amino acids that must be consumed in the diet c. Amino acids that are found only in animal products and soy d. Amino acids that are more important than nonessential amino acids
b. Amino acids that must be consumed in the diet Correct-The body cannot make essential amino acids so they must be supplied through the diet. All amino acids are necessary for growth and tissue maintenance. Essential amino acids can be found in other than animal products and soy. Essential amino acids are not more important than nonessential amino acids.
Body mass index (BMI) is a ratio of weight to height and is used for assessing the relative health status of the person. What is a disadvantage of assessing weight with BMI? Select one: a. Measuring BMI requires skill and time. b. BMI can be elevated for reasons other than excess fat. c. Measuring BMI is invasive to the client. d. Special equipment is needed.
b. BMI can be elevated for reasons other than excess fat. Correct-BMI is based on weight. Because muscle, bone, fat, and water all contribute to a body's weight and muscle can weigh more than fat, an individual may actually be in excellent condition.
The client is interested in making dietary changes to limit the intake of saturated fat. The nurse suggests that experts recommend limiting what to cut saturated fat intake in the diet? Select one: a. Butter b. Beef c. Cakes and cookies d. French fries
b. Beef Correct-To cut saturated fat intake, experts recommend limiting meat intake, especially red meat, and choosing lean varieties. The other foods do not provide as much fat in the diet as meat does.
Trace minerals in the body, although small in quantity, play large roles in its functioning. Trace minerals have been hard to study because of what factor? Select one: a. Food composition data are not necessary for all trace minerals. b. Bioavailability varies within the context of the total diet. c. The comparability of trace mineral content of foods is high. d. Reliable and valid indicators of trace element status are readily available.
b. Bioavailability varies within the context of the total diet. Correct-Various factors complicate the study of trace minerals. They include high variability of trace mineral content, food composition data are not available for all trace minerals, bioavailability varies within the context of the total diet, and reliable and valid indicators of trace elements status are not available.
The RDA for carbohydrates is based on the minimum amount of glucose used to fuel the brain. This is not an appropriate guideline for determining carbohydrate intake. It is more appropriate to use the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR). What is the suggested carbohydrate intake put forth by the AMDR? Select one: a. Carbohydrates should make up 25% to 50% of total dietary calories. b. Carbohydrates should make up 45% to 65% of total dietary calories. c. Carbohydrates should make up 50% to 75% of total dietary calories. d. Carbohydrates should make up 65% to 85% of total dietary calories.
b. Carbohydrates should make up 45% to 65% of total dietary calories. Correct-A more useful guideline for determining appropriate carbohydrate intake is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range. It suggests carbohydrates provide 45% to 65% of total calories.
The nurse is teaching the high school health class the benefit of drinking milk because it is known that a chronically low intake of calcium can do what? Select one: a. Cause low blood calcium levels b. Compromise bone integrity c. Cause tetany d. Impair protein synthesis
b. Compromise bone integrity Correct-A chronically low calcium intake compromises bone integrity without affecting blood calcium levels.
Each of us has a specific energy need for our body to function optimally. Once this energy need is met, what will our body do with any excess protein consumed? Select one: a. Store it unchanged as protein. b. Convert it to fatty acids and store it. c. Excrete it unchanged in the urine. d. Convert it to urea and excrete it in the feces.
b. Convert it to fatty acids and store it Correct-When protein is consumed in excess of need, the liver converts protein to fatty acids that form triglycerides for storage in adipose tissue. The body does not store protein. Protein is not excreted unchanged in the urine. Nitrogenous wastes are converted to urea for excretion by the body, not protein.
Research has shown that the placement of body fat may be a more reliable indicator of what than the degree of total body fatness? Select one: a. Obesity b. Disease risk c. Chronic disease process d. Body composition
b. Disease risk Correct-Recent evidence indicates that waist circumference may be an acceptable alternative to BMI measurement. In fact, the location of excess body fat may be a more important and reliable indicator of disease risk than the degree of total body fatness.
The nurse is making recommendations to a client with a diagnosis of chronic constipation on ways to increase the fiber intake in his diet. Which of the following could be one of those recommendations? Select one: a. Drink organ juice instead of orange drink. b. Eat legumes two or three times per week. c. Eat cream of wheat instead of white toast. d. Eat pretzels instead of potato chips.
b. Eat legumes two or three times per week. Correct-To increase the intake of fiber, encourage clients to eat dried peas and beans two or three times per week. Dried peas and beans are excellent sources of both insoluble and soluble fibers and are a fat-free alternative to meat. Orange juice and potato chips are not high sources of fiber, whereas cream of wheat and pretzels are made from refined grains rather than whole grains.
The nurse is conducting client education with a group of clients newly diagnosed with hypertension. While discussing sodium and its actions in the body, the nurse teaches that a healthy body maintains sodium balance by adjusting the amount of sodium in what manner? Select one: a. Absorbed b. Excreted in the urine c. Excreted in the feces d. Deposited on bones
b. Excreted in the urine Correct-The only way the body can rid itself of excess sodium is to increase urinary sodium excretion. For most people, the higher the intake of sodium, the greater is the amount of sodium excreted in the urine.
A client is at the clinic for a routine checkup. The nurse is asked how much time would have to be devoted to an exercise program to lose some weight. Which of the following is the best response to this client's question? a. Just increase the intensity of the activity the client is already doing. b. Exercise at least 300 minutes/week and adjust diet. c. Increase energy expenditure by 2500 or more calories per week. d. Reduce daily calorie intake by 350 cal/day to lose a pound a week.
b. Exercise at least 300 minutes/week and adjust diet. Correct-For additional and more extensive health benefits, adults should increase their aerobic physical activity to 300 minutes/week of moderate intensity. Adjusting the diet to eliminate 500 cal/day should result in a loss of a pound per week.
Sugar comes in several different forms and is handled by the body in different ways. Which one, when burned by the body, does not leave an end-product to be excreted by the body? Select one: a. Sucrose b. Glucose c. Fructose d. Maltose
b. Glucose Correct-Glucose is burned more efficiently and more completely than either protein or fat, and it does not leave an end product that the body must excrete. The other sugars all break down, leaving end products that the body must excrete.
Much has been learned in the field of nutrition about nutritional intake and how to work toward making our diets nutritionally optimal. When it comes to carbohydrate intake, the latest findings indicate that Americans should do what? Select one: a. Decrease their intake of fiber and increase their intake of complex carbohydrates. b. Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars. c. Eat total carbohydrates consisting of 50% fiber and 50% simple sugars. d. Eat a diet based on plenty of fruits and vegetables and limit carbohydrates.
b. Increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars. Correct-For optimal carbohydrate intake, Americans are urged to increase their intake of fiber and limit consumption of added sugars. Decreasing the intake of fiber is not recommended. Total carbohydrate consumption should not consist of 50% fiber and 50% simple sugars. Fruits and vegetables are sources of carbohydrates.
The nutrition class is discussing how some nutrients are necessary for various chemical substances in the body. What is an essential component of thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3)? Select one: a. Iron b. Iodine c. Zinc d. Selenium
b. Iodine Correct-Iodine is an essential component of T3 and T4, the thyroid hormones responsible for regulating metabolic rate, body temperature, reproduction, growth, the synthesis of blood cells, and nerve and muscle function.
The nurse is conducting a nutrition class when one of the clients questions the accuracy of using BMI to determine obesity. The client is surprised to see his BMI is high but he does not feel he is overweight. What is a drawback of using body mass index to determine obesity? Select one: a. It is nonthreatening. b. It does not take body composition into account. c. It requires special equipment to measure. d. It does not take diet into account.
b. It does not take body composition into account. Correct-BMI does not take body composition into account; an athlete may have a high BMI even though he or she has well-developed muscle mass and little fat tissue. An elderly person may have a healthy BMI but actually have increased fat tissue compared to muscle mass.
The nutrition class is discussing the various elements that are important to be found in the diet to ensure proper nutrition. It is pointed out that protein is different from carbohydrates and fat because it contains what? Select one: a. Hydrogen b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Calcium
b. Nitrogen Correct-Protein differs from carbohydrate and fat in that it contains nitrogen. Amino acids, which are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms, are the building blocks of protein. All living tissue contains hydrogen and oxygen; calcium is a mineral that is not contained in protein.
A client is found to have a BMI of 37. This indicates the client is in which category? Select one: a. Obesity class 1 b. Obesity class 2 c. Obesity class 3 d. Obesity class 4
b. Obesity class 2 Correct-The BMI categories are as follows: 30 to 34.9 is obesity class 1; 35 to 39.9 is obesity class 2; and 40 or greater is obesity class 3. There is no obesity class 4.
Nitrogen balance in specific groups of people can be a concern. What is the state of nitrogen balance in infants, children, adolescents, and pregnant and lactating women? Select one: a. Neutral nitrogen balance b. Positive nitrogen balance c. Negative nitrogen balance d. Metabolic turnover
b. Positive nitrogen balance Correct-A positive nitrogen balance exists during growth, pregnancy, or recovery from injury. Therefore, infants, children, adolescents, and pregnant and lactating women are in a state of positive nitrogen balance. This indicates that protein synthesis exceeds protein breakdown.
Many people throughout the world are practicing vegetarians. Their diet is rich in fruits and vegetables so it is also likely to be rich in which mineral? Select one: a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Iron d. Iodine
b. Potassium Correct-Potassium is naturally present in most foods, such as fruits, vegetables, whole grains, meats, milk, and yogurt.
People who are chronically "on a diet" are at risk for nutrient deficiencies. What nutrient increases satiety, making a person feel fuller and better able to stick to a low-calorie regimen? Select one: a. Calcium b. Protein c. Carbohydrates d. Potassium
b. Protein Correct-Weight loss diets with 25% to 30% protein may provide greater satiety.
The school nurse is working with a 16-year-old high school student who is interested in starting a vegetarian diet. The nurse explains the importance of getting enough protein in the diet. The student will need to learn which proteins are complete and incomplete. Which of the following is a source of complete protein? Select one: a. Gelatin b. Soy c. Kidney beans d. Peanut butter
b. Soy Correct-A source of complete protein is soy. Soy protein is the only complete plant protein. Gelatin, kidney beans, and peanut butter are incomplete proteins. Complete proteins provide all nine essential amino acids.
The client is being evaluated for dehydration. The nurse is aware that several conditions increase the loss of fluid from the body. What is one of the conditions that might increase the fluid loss? Select one: a. Thirst b. Strenuous exercise c. Congestive heart failure d. Controlled diabetes
b. Strenuous exercise Correct-Extreme environmental temperatures (very hot or very cold), high altitude, low humidity, and strenuous exercise increase insensible water losses from respirations and the skin.
The nurse is caring for a client with a severe protein deficiency. What other deficiency would the nurse expect to find in this client? Select one: a. Selenium b. Sulfur c. Chromium d. Molybdenum
b. Sulfur Correct-The major source of inorganic sulfate is body protein turnover of methionine and cysteine. The need for sulfur is met when the intake of sulfur amino acids is adequate. A sulfur deficiency is likely only when protein deficiency is severe.
Part of the Dietary Reference Intakes is the Tolerable Upper Intake Level (UL). What is it? a. The recommended level of intake for that nutrient b. The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects c. The nutrient intake amount determined to be most beneficial for preventing chronic disease d. The estimated amount of nutrient that will meet the needs of 90% of a given population
b. The highest level of daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects Correct-The UL is the highest level of average daily nutrient intake that is likely to pose no risk of adverse health effects to almost all individuals in the general population.
Fat is classified as either "good" fat or "bad" fat, or saturated or unsaturated fatty acids. What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids? Select one: a. The number of carbon atoms b. Unsaturated fatty acids have at least one double bond between carbon atoms. c. The way they are absorbed d. Saturated fats are found only in animal products.
b. Unsaturated fatty acids have at least one double bond between carbon atoms. Correct-As dictated by nature, each carbon atom in a fatty acid chain must have four bonds connecting it to other atoms. When all the carbon atoms in a fatty acid have four single bonds each, the fatty acid is said to be "saturated" with hydrogen atoms. An "unsaturated" fatty acid does not have all the hydrogen atoms it can potentially hold; therefore, one or more double bonds form between carbon atoms in the chain.
The nurse is admitting a new client to the unit. The client is 17 years old and weighs 120 pounds. What is her basal metabolic rate (BMR) using the rule-of-thumb guideline? Select one: a. 600 b. 900 c. 1200 d. 1800
c. 1200 Correct-One imprecise, rule-of-thumb guideline for estimating BMR is to multiply healthy weight (in pounds) by 10 for women and 11 for men. Because this client weighs 120 pounds, 120 × 10 = 1200.
The nurse is counseling a male client about decreasing his caloric intake to treat his obesity. He has a BMI of 31.8. What would be the best level of caloric intake for this client? Select one: a. 1000 to 1200 cal/day b. 1100 to 1500 cal/day c. 1200 to 1600 cal/day d. 1300 to 1700 cal/day
c. 1200 to 1600 cal/day Correct-The NIH recommends low-calorie diets of 1000 to 1200 cal/day for overweight women and 1200 to 1600 cal/day for overweight men.
The nurse is teaching a client how to determine the caloric content of his favorite foods. His favorite salad dressing contains 14 g of fat and no protein or carbohydrate in one tablespoonful. How many calories, per tablespoon, will he consume? Select one: a. 76 calories b. 98 calories c. 126 calories d. 140 calories
c. 126 calories Correct-All fat, whether saturated or unsaturated, cis or trans, provides 9 cal/g, more than double the amount of calories as an equivalent amount of either carbohydrate or protein. A tablespoon of oil that contains 14 g of fat and no protein or carbohydrate provides 126 calories (14 g × 9 cal/g = 126 calories).
The nurse is admitting a healthy 35-year-old woman to the outpatient surgery department for the removal of a plantar wart. She consumes approximately 2000 cal/day. What is her recommended intake of water? Select one: a. 1000 mL of fluid per day b. 1500 mL of fluid per day c. 2000 mL of fluid per day d. 2500 mL of fluid per day
c. 2000 mL of fluid per day Correct-There are three methods to estimate fluid needs. When the amount of calories per day is known, then the method of 1 mL/cal consumed can be used. Because this client consumes 2000 cal/day, 2000 cal/day × 1 mL/cal = 2000 mL/day.
The nurse is teaching a nutrition class at the local high school. The subject for today is "Dietary Supplements and Caloric Intake." One of the class activities is to answer the following question: "An amino acid supplement that provides 15 g of protein and no other nutrients provides how many calories?" Which of the following is the correct response? Select one: a. 0 calories because the amino acids are in pill form b. 30 calories c. 60 calories d. 80 calories
c. 60 calories Correct-Protein provides 4 cal/g. An amino acid supplement that provides 15 g of protein and no other nutrients provides 60 calories (4 cal/g × 15 g = 60 calories).
The nurse is teaching a nutrition class, and the subject for today is the basal metabolic rate (BMR). What percentage range would the nurse tell the students the BMR accounts for in the total energy requirements for most people? Select one: a. 10% b. 25% c. 60% d. 75%
c. 60% Correct-For most people, the BMR accounts for approximately 60% to 70% of the total calories expended.
It is important for good health that an individual consume enough of all nutrients to meet the needs of the body. If there is insufficient intake for the energy needs of the body, then the body is in what? Select one: a. A negative energy balance b. A positive energy balance c. A negative calorie balance d. A positive caloric balance
c. A negative calorie balance Correct-A negative calorie balance occurs when calorie output exceeds intake, whether the imbalance is from decreasing calorie intake, increasing physical activity, or preferably both.
The client has a BMI of 36. He has comorbidities of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. He has tried restrictive dieting and has not been able to lose the weight he needs to lose. What would be the best suggestion for this client to lose weight? Select one: a. Orlistat (Xenical) b. Bariatric surgery c. Behavior modification d. Phentermine (Fastin)
c. Behavior modification Correct-The current criterion for performing bariatric surgery is a BMI of 40 or greater or a BMI of 35 to 39.9 for clients who have major comorbidities.
The nurse is asked to explain the concept of variety within a major food group. Which would be the best example to give to illustrate the concept of variety within a major food group? a. Orange juice, fresh grapefruit, lemonade b. Hamburger roll, waffle, saltine crackers c. Chicken, black beans, walnuts d. Margarine, butter, mayonnaise
c. Chicken, black beans, walnuts Correct-Chicken, black beans, and walnuts are all found in the protein group. This example shows the greatest variety of choices. Following a variety helps ensure more essential nutrients are consumed.
It has been found that increasing a client's nutrition knowledge and skills may improve their food choices. Part of this increase in knowledge and skills is controlling calorie intake. What is a recommended strategy to help control calorie intake? Select one: a. Switch from butter to margarine. b. Eat casseroles instead of plain foods. c. Estimate portion sizes of all foods. d. Eat fruit in place of vegetables.
c. Estimate portion sizes of all foods. Correct-The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recognizes portion control as an important strategy to prevent weight gain as well as an integral component of weight loss programs. Providing clients with common household equivalents to estimate portion sizes is a useful tool.
The nurse is lecturing to a class of nursing students about diet adherence in the obese client. She explains that adding structure to low-calorie diets improves adherence to the diet. The students are given an assignment to break into groups and make a list of strategies that can be used to encourage clients to stick with their diets. What strategy would you expect to see on every list? Select one: a. Give the client a list of ingredients for suggested recipes b. Give the client a list of restaurants with low-calorie menu items c. Give the client preprinted menus d. Give the client a list of "potential diet buddies"
c. Give the client preprinted menus Correct-Structure can be added by providing meal plans and actual grocery lists, menus, and recipes or reliable websites where they can be found.
If a client is overweight or obese, setting the goal of reaching the "ideal" weight may be very hard to accomplish. To achieve health benefits from weight loss, how much weight does an individual actually have to lose? Select one: a. Health benefits occur only when ideal body weight is achieved. b. Health benefits do not always occur, even if weight loss is significant, if obesity is chronic. c. Health benefits can be realized with only a modest weight loss. d. Health benefits cannot be measured.
c. Health benefits can be realized with only a modest weight loss. Correct-A modest weight loss of 5% to 10% of usual body weight is associated with significant improvements in blood pressure, cholesterol and plasma lipid levels, and blood glucose levels.
One of the major messages conveyed by the Dietary Guidelines for Americans includes the consumption of alcohol. What is the message about alcohol? a. Drink alcohol to ward off heart disease. b. If you drink alcohol, include it in your empty calories. c. If you drink alcohol, drink in moderation. d. Drink alcohol to lessen your risk of colon cancer.
c. If you drink alcohol, drink in moderation. Correct-If alcohol is consumed, it should be consumed in moderation—up to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men—and only by adults of legal drinking age.
A client is asking the nurse to explain the Healthy People 2020. What should the nurse say are the overall goals of Healthy People 2020? Select one: a. Improve community health b. Increase health disparities among Americans c. Improve quality and years of healthy life d. Increase quantity of health disparities among Americans
c. Improve quality and years of healthy life Correct-Healthy People 2020 is a program that focuses on improving the health of all Americans and eliminating health disparities.
The nurse is teaching a basic class of nutrition to clients in a weight loss program. After discussing the complex process of carbohydrate digestion, the nurse recognizes the class understood when he hears a client state that the primary site of carbohydrate digestion occurs where? Select one: a. In the mouth b. In the stomach c. In the small intestine d. In the large intestine
c. In the small intestine Correct-Most carbohydrate digestion occurs in the small intestine, where pancreatic amylase reduces complex carbohydrates into shorter chains and disaccharides. Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth, but its effects are halted by the acids in the stomach. Carbohydrates are digested before they reach the large intestine.
The nurse is teaching a high school health class, and the subject for today is calcium. What would the nurse teach the students to eat to promote the absorption of calcium? Select one: a. Protein b. Fiber c. Lactose d. Fat
c. Lactose Correct-Milk is a "nearly perfect" source because it contains vitamin D and lactose, which promote calcium absorption.
The health-care provider has suggested that the client use a particular vitamin in megadoses to help lower serum cholesterol. Which vitamin is it? Select one: a. Thiamin b. Riboflavin c. Niacin d. Folic acid
c. Niacin Correct-Large doses of niacin in the form of nicotinic acid (1-6 g/day) are used therapeutically to lower total cholesterol and LDL cholesterol and raise HDL cholesterol.
The nurse is assessing the client's BMI during a routine physical examination. The client is a 19-year-old male who stands 6 ft tall and weighs 235 pounds. The nurse determines the client falls into which BMI category? a. Healthy weight b. Overweight c. Obesity class 1 d. Obesity class 2
c. Obesity class 1 Correct-To determine the BMI, the weight in pounds is divided by the height in inches squared and multiplied by 703 (235 / 5184 × 703 = 31.8). According to the BMI chart, a BMI score of 18.5 to 24.9 is healthy weight; 25 to 29.9 is overweight; 30 to 34.9 is obesity class 1; 35 to 39.9 is obesity class 2; and 40 and above is obesity class 3.
A person's body mass index (BMI) tells whether or not the person is in a healthy weight range. What would someone with a BMI of 25 be considered? Select one: a. Underweight b. Of normal weight c. Overweight d. Obese
c. Overweight CorrectA BMI of 25 to 29 is considered overweight.
The stability of fats is influenced by their degree of unsaturation. Which fats are most susceptible to rancidity? Select one: a. Saturated fats b. Monounsaturated fats c. Polyunsaturated fats d. Trans fats
c. Polyunsaturated fats Correct-Although all fats can become oxidized when exposed to light and oxygen over time, the greater the number of double bonds, the greater the susceptibility to rancidity. Therefore, polyunsaturated fats are most susceptible to rancidity, saturated fats are least susceptible, and monounsaturated fats are somewhere in between.
Numerous health agencies in the United States have issued dietary recommendations so that Americans can choose diets aimed at what? a. Reducing their weight b. Increasing their activity levels c. Reducing their risk of chronic disease d. Reducing the risk of acute heart disease
c. Reducing their risk of chronic disease Correct- Healthy eating and regular exercise are essential for reducing the risk of chronic disease. Many health agencies have published guidelines or recommendations to meet these goals.
The nurse is talking to a third-grade class about protein digestion during a nutrition class. The nurse explains that the principal site of protein digestion is where? Select one: a. Mouth b. Stomach c. Small intestine d. Large intestine
c. Small intestine Correct-Most protein digestion occurs in the small intestine.
The nurse is speaking to an exercise class when one of the participants asks, "Why should I do strength training?" Which of the following would be a proper response to this question? a. In strength training, warm-up and cool-down periods are not required. b. Strength training gives you a really good body. c. Strength training improves bone density. d. Strength training decreases the metabolic rate.
c. Strength training improves bone density. Correct-Changes in body composition are positive outcomes of muscle-strengthening activities that are not reflected on the scale, as are improved bone density.
The nurse works with several clients who routinely take nutritional supplements. The nurse is aware that which of the following statements about vitamins is true? Select one: a. Most Americans do not consume adequate amounts of thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin. b. Most Americans do not consume adequate amounts of vitamin C. c. Taking large doses of vitamin A is potentially harmful. d. Because of the potential health benefits, beta-carotene supplements are routinely recommended.
c. Taking large doses of vitamin A is potentially harmful. Correct-Extremely high doses of vitamin A (at least 30,000 μg/day) consumed over months or years may cause central nervous system changes, bone and skin changes, and liver abnormalities that range from reversible to fatal. In high doses during pregnancy, vitamin A is also teratogenic, so supplementation is not recommended during the first trimester unless there is specific evidence of vitamin A deficiency.
When teaching the nutrition class, the nurse explains the old Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) and the new Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs). What would the nurse tell the class is the reason for changing from the RDAs to the DRIs? Select one: a. The DRIs are expanded versions of the RDAs associated with dietary excesses. b. The DRIs are updated versions of the RDAs associated with dietary excesses. c. The DRIs have an expanded focus of reducing chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses. d. The DRIs have a more limited focus of reducing chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses.
c. The DRIs have an expanded focus of reducing chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses. Correct-The old RDAs have been replaced with a new set of standards, the DRIs, which incorporate an expanded focus of reducing the risk of chronic diseases associated with dietary excesses.
The nurse is a member of a panel discussing the optimal type of weight loss diet. It is pointed out that the macronutrient distribution of the diet does not affect the amount of weight that is lost. A member of the audience asks what really matters with weight loss. What would be the best response? Select one: a. The source of the calories consumed b. The nutritional content of the calories consumed c. The amount of the calories consumed d. The meal at which the calories are consumed
c. The amount of the calories consumed Correct-The first priority in obesity treatment is to decrease calorie intake. Obesity occurs when calorie intake exceeds calorie expenditure.
The nurse is explaining to the client that at rest, the body uses energy that is included in the basal metabolic rate (BMR). What is the BMR? a. The caloric cost of day-to-day activities b. The caloric cost of mild activity c. The caloric cost of staying alive d. The caloric cost of studying
c. The caloric cost of staying alive
The nurse is aware that the production of pale yellow urine is assumed to be a reliable indicator of adequate fluid intake. However, in some populations the sensation of thirst comes after significant fluid loss. In which population is this a factor? Select one: a. Teenagers b. Middle-aged adults c. The elderly d. The obese
c. The elderly Correct-In healthy adults, thirst is usually a reliable indicator of water need, and output of pale yellow urine indicates intake is adequate. For some, the sensation of thirst is blunted and not a reliable indicator of need. For the elderly and children, and during hot weather or strenuous exercise, drinking fluids should not be delayed because fluid loss may be significant.
The nurse is asked to speak about weight loss drugs to a group of bariatric clients. What would they be told about phentermine, an FDA-approved drug for weight loss? Select one: a. It works by making the body think it is full. b. It is approved for approximately 6 months of use. c. Tolerance may develop after only a few weeks. d. It is a peripheral nervous system drug.
c. Tolerance may develop after only a few weeks. Correct-The FDA has approved several appetite suppressants; phentermine is one. Tolerance may develop after only a few weeks, and there is a risk of abuse.
A person who is relatively healthy and has a history of restrictive dieting but has failed to achieve successful weight loss has other options in fighting obesity. What is one of these other options? Select one: a. Using the American Diabetic Exchange lists b. Using the MyPlate plan to control food intake c. Using a nondiet approach to weight control d. Counting fat grams
c. Using a nondiet approach to weight control Correct-A lifestyle approach that includes nutrition therapy, physical activity, and behavior modifications is the basis of comprehensive weight management. Pharmacotherapy and surgery may also be used, based on the individual's BMI and comorbidity.
Vitamin deficiency in the United States is not common. However, inadequate gastric acid secretion secondary to gastric resection, use of medications that suppress gastric acid, or gastric infection with Helicobacter pylori is the most common cause of which of the following? Select one: a. Thiamine deficiency b. Riboflavin deficiency c. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Folic acid deficiency
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency Correct-Factors that increase the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency include gastric resection, use of medications that suppress gastric acid secretion, and gastric infection with H. pylori.
The nurse is aware that vitamins are organic compounds that differ in function and availability. When discussing the difference with a client, which of the following statements would best describe vitamins? Select one: a. Vitamins are composed of long chains of molecules linked together. b. Vitamins provide energy. c. Vitamins are susceptible to destruction by factors such as heat, air, and light. d. Vitamins exist in only one active form.
c. Vitamins are susceptible to destruction by factors such as heat, air, and light. Correct-Vitamins are susceptible to destruction and subsequent loss of function due to vulnerability to heat, light, oxidation, acid, and alkalis. Vitamins are individual molecules. They do not provide energy but are needed for metabolism of energy. They are extremely complex chemical substances that differ widely in structure.
Drugs are available to aid in weight loss, but they are not for everyone. When is a person a candidate for drug therapy in the treatment of obesity? Select one: a. When a man's waist is 35 inches or more b. When the person has not been able to lose weight any other way c. When a BMI is 30 or greater d. When the person can maintain a 1500-calorie diet for at least 1 month
c. When a BMI is 30 or greater Correct-In conjunction with lifestyle changes of diet, behavior modification, and physical activity, pharmacotherapy is recommended for people with a BMI of 30 or greater or for people with a BMI of 27 or more with comorbid conditions.
Compared with legitimate nutritional advice, a "fad" diet is more likely to make unrealistic claims and severely restrict caloric intake. What is a realistic caloric intake for a 28-year-old woman wishing to lose weight? Select one: a. 1800 to 2100 cal/day b. 1500 to 1800 cal/day c. 1200 to 1500 cal/day d. 1000 to 1200 cal/day
d. 1000 to 1200 cal/day Correct-The NIH recommends low-calorie diets of 1000 to 1200 cal/day for overweight women and 1200 to 1600 cal/day for overweight men and heavier (more than 165 pounds) or more active women.
The client is beginning an exercise program for the health benefits and to aid in preventing weight gain. How many minutes per week should the client plan on performing moderate-intensity physical activity to meet the recommended number of minutes? a. 60 minutes/week b. 90 minutes/week c. 120 minutes/week d. 150 minutes/week
d. 150 minutes/week Correct- For substantial health benefits, adults should do at least 150 minutes (2 hours and 30 minutes) a week of moderate-intensity aerobic physical activity. Aerobic activity should be performed in episodes of at least 10 minutes and spread throughout the week.
One of the students in a nutrition class asks the nurse to explain the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Ranges (AMDRs). Which of the following is the best answer? Select one: a. AMDRs are specific ranges for essential nutrients. b. AMDRs are specific ranges for trace minerals. c. AMDRs are nonspecific broad ranges for major nutrients. d. AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient.
d. AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient. Correct-The AMDRs are broad ranges for each energy nutrient, expressed as a percentage of total calories consumed.
Amino acids, the building blocks of proteins, have the ability to act as buffers in the body. This means that proteins can maintain normal blood pH. By maintaining normal blood pH, the body's proteins are protected from being what? Select one: a. Neutralized b. Naturalized c. Deneutralized d. Denatured
d. Denatured Correct-Because amino acids contain both an acid (COOH) and a base (NH2), they can act as either acids or bases depending on the pH of the surrounding fluid. The ability to buffer or neutralize excess acids and bases enables proteins to maintain normal blood pH, which protects body proteins from being denatured. Proteins are not neutralized, naturalized, or deneutralized
A student in the nutrition class is giving a report on "Promoting Exercise Adherence in Obese Clients." What strategy would be expected to be included in the report? Select one: a. Exercise at least 20 minutes at a time. b. Join a gym. c. Walk with a buddy at the mall. d. Exercise at home instead of a gym.
d. Exercise at home instead of a gym. Correct-Exercise adherence seems to improve with less structure, possibly by eliminating the barriers of lack of time or financial expense.
When the body does not have enough glucose, fat cannot be completely burned for energy. What happens to fat oxidation without adequate glucose? Select one: a. Fat oxidation goes to completion because it draws on the body's store of glucagon. b. Fat oxidation stops prematurely, and fat is excreted in the body's waste. c. Fat oxidation goes to completion because it forces the body into ketosis. d. Fat oxidation stops prematurely at the intermediate step of ketone formation.
d. Fat oxidation stops prematurely at the intermediate step of ketone formation. Correct-Fat normally supplies about half of the body's energy requirement. Yet glucose fragments are needed to efficiently and completely burn fat for energy. Without adequate glucose, fat oxidation prematurely stops at the intermediate step of ketone body formation. Fat oxidation does not go into completion without adequate glucose. Fat oxidation does not draw on the glucagon stores of the body. Fat oxidation does not stop prematurely and fat is excreted in the body's waste.
A client is having difficulties understanding the difference between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. The nurse explains which of the following is one of those differences? Select one: a. Fat-soluble vitamins must be consumed daily. b. Fat-soluble vitamins are absorbed directly into the bloodstream. c. Fat-soluble vitamins are excreted in the urine when consumed in excess of need. d. Fat-soluble vitamins are stored, primarily in the liver and adipose tissue.
d. Fat-soluble vitamins are stored, primarily in the liver and adipose tissue. Correct-There are multiple differences between fat-soluble and water-soluble vitamins. Fat-soluble vitamins are stored, primarily in the liver and adipose tissue. The remainder choices are true of water-soluble vitamins.
Bottled water is high on the list of purchases made by American consumers. The nurse is aware that children who drink bottled water might need what? Select one: a. Chlorine supplement b. Magnesium supplement c. Iron supplement d. Fluoride supplement
d. Fluoride supplement Correct-Fluoride promotes the mineralization of developing tooth enamel prior to both eruption and the remineralization of surface enamel in erupted teeth. Studies show that water fluoridation reduces tooth decay by approximately 25% over a person's lifetime. Bottled water may not be fluoridated.
The human body uses checks and balances to maintain homeostasis. When the body is in the postprandial state, a slight fall in blood glucose stimulates the pancreas to release what? Select one: a. Glucose b. Amylase c. Bile d. Glucagon
d. Glucagon Correct-In the postprandial state, as the body uses the energy from the last meal, the blood glucose concentration begins to drop. Even a slight fall in blood glucose stimulates the pancreas to release glucagon, which causes the liver to release glucose from its supply of glycogen. The result is that blood glucose levels increase to normal. The pancreas does not release glucose or bile. The pancreas does release amylase but not in response to a fall in serum glucose levels.
Food has a definite effect on the blood glucose concentration. Some foods may quickly raise glucose levels; raise glucose levels to various amounts; and return to normal at different rates. What is this response called? Select one: a. Glycemic index b. Glycemic indication c. Glycemic load d. Glycemic response
d. Glycemic response Correct-The glycemic response is the effect a food has on the blood glucose concentration; how quickly the glucose level rises, how high it goes, and how long it takes to return to normal. The glycemic index is a numeric measure of the glycemic response of 50 g of a food sample. The glycemic load is a food's glycemic index multiplied by the amount of carbohydrate it contains to determine impact on blood glucose levels.
The body does not truly store protein. It does, however, maintain recycled amino acids from broken-down body proteins. What is this called? Select one: a. Metabolic store b. Protein turnover c. Amino acid store d. Metabolic pool
d. Metabolic pool Correct-Although protein is not truly stored in the body as are glucose and fat, a supply of each amino acid exists in a metabolic pool of free amino acids within cells and circulating in blood. This pool consists of recycled amino acids from body proteins that have broken down and also amino acids from food.
Sodium is a necessary nutrient and the major extracellular cation in the body. What is one of its functions? Select one: a. Cardiac stability b. Muscular stability c. Immune system functioning d. Nerve impulse transmission
d. Nerve impulse transmission Correct-Sodium is largely responsible for regulating fluid balance. It also regulates cell permeability and the movement of fluid, electrolytes, glucose, insulin, and amino acids. Sodium is pivotal in acid-base balance, nerve transmission, and muscular irritability.
The client is interested in starting an exercise program that will provide the most benefit. What type of exercise is known to raise the metabolic rate? a. Intense aerobic exercise b. Low-impact aerobic exercise c. Flexibility exercise d. Resistance exercise
d. Resistance exercise CorrectMuscle-strengthening activities, which include strength training, resistance training, and strength and endurance exercises, build muscles, which helps to raise metabolic rate.
The Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs) are a set of standards that include reference values that are based on what? a. The concepts of dietary-related chronic diseases b. The concepts of preventing nutritional deficiencies c. The concepts of balance and need d. The concepts of probability and risk
d. The concepts of probability and risk Correct-The DRIs is a group name that includes four separate reference values that are based on the concepts of probability and risk. They include updated RDAs, EAR, AI, and UL.
The nurse is aware that magnesium deficiency is a potential nutritional problem in the United States. What is the cause of this potential problem? Select one: a. Low intake of milk and dairy products b. Not eating enough citrus fruits in our diet c. Not drinking enough enriched orange juice d. The use of refined grains over whole grains
d. The use of refined grains over whole grains Correct-A low magnesium intake is related to the intake of refined grains over whole-grain breads and cereals because magnesium is lost during the refining process and not replaced.
Thiamin acts as a coenzyme when the body metabolizes carbohydrates. It also has another important function. What is that other function? Select one: a. Thiamin is important in the metabolism of fats. b. Thiamin is important in the digestive process. c. Thiamin is important in liver functioning. d. Thiamin is important in nervous system functioning.
d. Thiamin is important in nervous system functioning. Correct-Thiamin (vitamin B1) is a coenzyme in the metabolism of carbohydrates and branched-chain amino acids. In addition, thiamin is important in the nervous system functioning.
The diet is influenced by all foods and drinks consumed, which includes alcohol. What is the current recommendation for alcohol consumption according to the various published guidelines? Select one: a. One drink each day for men and women b. One drink each day for men, two drinks each day for women c. Two drinks each day for men and women d. Two drinks each day for men, one drink each day for women
d. Two drinks each day for men, one drink each day for women Correct-The American Heart Association, the American Cancer Society, and the American Institute for Cancer Research recommended that alcohol consumption be limited to one drink per day for women and two drinks per day for men.
Some chemical reactions within the body create free radicals. These free radicals destroy cells in our body. Some vitamins act as antioxidants to prevent this destruction of cells by free radicals. Which vitamin is a major antioxidant? Select one: a. Vitamin B6 b. Thiamin c. Folate d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C Correct-Vitamins that function as major antioxidants are vitamin C, vitamin E, and beta-carotene. Each has a slightly different role in the body.
