ALL OF MGMT FINAL

Referring to core values and fundamental beliefs, which of the following refers to a constant factor that drives behavior in a variable situations? A. knowledge B. Cognition C. Character D. Personality

C

_____ is the process of recalibrating or confirming a firm's strategy in light of changes in the external environment. a. Strategic positioning b. Value chain analysis c. Strategic control d. Benchmarking

c

Organizations lacking abundant high-quality resources are in a better position to successfully confront resistance to change

f

Organizations that focus on both sustainable and disruptive technologies often make bad decisions concerning disruptive innovations.

f

Over time, the process of cultural socialization can result in a decreased level of commitment to an organization.

f

Strong cultures lead to increased performance in both stable and turbulent environments.

f

Sustainable technologies usually have attributes that only a small portion of the population currently values.

f

The functional integration stage of organizational growth is characterized by informal management.

f

The key advantage of the matrix structure is that it creates clear and efficient scenarios for managers working in a functional group as well as across divisions.

f

The only way to increase pay in skill-based pay systems is to switch jobs.

f

Vertical specialization refers to the breadth of activities that are performed in a certain job.

f

While a business is in the harvest stage, investment outweighs profitability.

f

The success of diverse teams increases when their members possess a shared understanding of each other's strengths and limitations.

T

Unlike Maslow, Alderfer believed that individuals could pursue multiple needs at once.

T

Using SCRIPTS allows managers to increase the flexibility and speed of their decisions.

T

For the balanced scorecard to be valuable, measurements from the customer perspective must link directly to financial results.

t

In communicating the model for change, leaders need to appeal to both logic and emotions.

t

In formal organizations, the backbone of culture generally begins with a founder.

t

Interactive control systems promote continuous communication between managers and subordinates throughout the entire organization.

t

Internal business processes are important because they represent the day-to-day operations that deliver products and services to customers.

t

It is the culture of the organizational structure that drives performance.

t

Job analysis can be conducted in a number of ways including self-administered questionnaires.

t

Misalignment between an organization and its strategy often drives change

t

One increasingly prevalent result of globalization is the need for organizations to customize their products and services to local preferences.

t

One of the most important benefits of the functional structure is the efficiency it creates.

t

Progressive organizations view human resources as a valuable resource that can be optimized to create competitive advantage.

t

Realistic job preview provides information to job candidates highlighting the most important conditions of a job including its positive and negative aspects.

t

Successful change leaders often possess the ability to motivate oneself and others.

t

The control cycle helps to make high level strategy more concrete by breaking it down into operational objectives

t

The control cycle includes a mechanism to improve a business's response to the external environment, known as strategic control.

t

The embedded nature of culture often makes change very difficult even in the face of strong competitive pressures.

t

The main components of MBO are derived from goal setting and participation in decision making.

t

The success of outsourcing is driven by a firm's ability to effectively manage people in different locations.

t

When there is no agreement on what is valued in a firm, firms experience weak cultures.

t

A type of interpersonal power that gives someone the ability to punish another for his or her behavior is referred to as _____ power. A. referent B. coercive C. reward D. expert

B

____ teams are composed of a manager and his or her subordinates in the formal chain of command, usually in one functional department. A. Collocated B. Vertical C. .Cross-functional D. Self-directed

B

which of the following aspects of a situation hinders a leader's ability to act a particular way? A. assumptions B. neutralizers C. competitors D. substitues

B

A model of decision making that seeks to maximize economic or other outcomes using a rational choice process is known as the _____ model. A.garbage can B. political C. classical D. administrative

C

A(n) _____ is defined as a group of two or more people with complementary skills who are committed to working together to achieve a specific objective. A. unit B. system C. team D. silo

C

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, hygiene factors: A. correspond to Maslow's hierarchical needs for esteem and self-actualization. B. are the higher-order needs that motivate people to perform better in their work. C. are potential dissatisfiers that, when fulfilled, do not cause people to become satisfied. D. are the direct consequences of doing the job and are the primary cause of satisfaction.

C

As a response to conflict, accommodating involves: A.avoiding conflict because disagreements are perceived to create tension. B. solving a problem together because the positions of both individuals involved are perceived as equally important. C. trying not to upset the other person because maintaining a harmonious relationship is a top priority. D. reaching an agreement quickly because prolonged conflicts can distract people from their work and cause bitter feelings.

C

Employees' active resistance to power refers to: A.pretending to agree but doing nothing. B. doing what is asked without interest. C. failing to do what is asked. D. doing all that is required out of fear.

C

Harry, a firm's marketing head, had certain characteristics that made him gain his team's loyalty. Moreover, he can elicit performance beyond expectations from his team members. He has the ability to motivate his team members through strong communication skills, From this description, it can be inferred that Harry is a ____ leader A. transactional B. bureaucratic C.charismatic D. task-oriented

C

John, a top executive, is in a situation where he has to quickly decide between two projects that came in simultaneously from two major clients. Since his team is not big enough to complete both projects at a time, he cannot accept both. He had a hunch and just like that accepted one of the clients' project without any considerations. This scenario is an example of _____. A. rational decision making B. bounded rationality C. intuitive decision making D. context-independent decisions

C

Of the three primary styles of influence, pushing involves: A. disengaging. B. attracting. C. asserting. D. bridging.

C

A task is considered complex when: A.it involves a lot of uncertainty about possible outcomes. B.additional information is not needed to understand the task. C.standardized procedures are present to conduct the task. D. there are no subtasks that require a range of skills and knowledge.

A

According to Gulati and Sytch, dependence asymmetry exists when: A. a firm is more dependent on a business partner. B. suppliers are less dependent on the customers. C. customers are more dependent on a firm's products. D. a firm and business partner are equally dependent on each other.

A

According to Whetton and Cameron, power that comes from an individual's formal place within an organization's structure is known as _____ power. A. positional B. referent C. personal D. relational

A

Adam, a team lead, while assessing the performance of his team members, came to know that their performance is deteriorating day-by-day. In order to motivate them, Adam adopted the four-drive theory of motivation and differentiated good performers from average and poor performers. Moreover, he designed the reward system such that it was tied clearly to performance. From this scenario, it can be inferred that Adam tried to fulfill the employees' drive to: A. acquire. B. bond. C. comprehend. D. defend.

A

Conflict de-escalation occurs when: A.individuals who are in conflict perceive a common enemy. B. one person's negative behaviors encourage another person's negative behaviors. C. the teams are diverse or there is a history of antagonism among individuals. D. one party perceives the other as the enemy.

A

Edwin, a top manager in a bureaucratic organization, often engages in persuading employees while making decisions and focuses more on his team and provides extra coaching to employees. He also maintains a good reputation both inside and outside the organization. Based on McClelland's acquired needs theory, it can be inferred that Edwin is an example of _____. A. a socialized power-oriented manager B. an affiliation oriented manager C. an achievement oriented manager D. a relations-oriented manager

A

Groupthink refers to: A.extreme consensus during a decision-making process. B. a group's disagreement over work-related issues and ideas. C. the cognitive conflicts that occur between two or more groups. D. the contradicting thought processes that exist between groups.

A

John and Joseph are the finance executives in an organization. They are presently working on a project together. John is task-oriented and he works hard to complete the project on time. However, Joseph takes his own time and tends to ignore the project deadline. As a result, John has a conflict with Joseph and warns him that he'll complain about him to the head. This scenario is an example of _____ conflict. A.cognitive B. role C. affective D. intergroup

A

Leadership substitutes refer to: A. aspects of a situation that make leadership unnecessary B. aspects that influences the external environemtn affecting leadership C. aspects that overlook a crucial aspect of the leadership construct D. aspects that hinder a leader's ability to act a particular way

A

Mary, a team leader, found that few of her team members' performance had been deteriorating. They had been coming late to work and had not been completing tasks on time. In order to improve her team's performance, Mary identified three options to deal with these underperformers: firing them, training them, or transferring them to another team. After these three options are identified, what is the next step Mary should pursue in rational decision making? A. She should rate the options to see which one will improve her team's performance B. She should identify the objectives and goals of her decision related to the problem. C. She should immediately fire all the underperformers to solve the problem. D. She should understand the problem or opportunity that has to be dealt with.

A

Of the three variables of expectancy theory, valence includes: A. the evaluation of whether the available outcomes are attractive to the employee. B. the evaluation of whether putting in effort will lead to commensurate performance. C. the evaluation of whether poor effort will lead to limited performance and rewards. D. the evaluation of whether successful performance will lead to a desired reward.

A

The acronym ERG in Alderfer's theory of motivation refers to: A. existence, relatedness, and growth. B. empowerment, reliance, and greatness. C. engagement, responsibility, and governance. D. employment, recognition, and gain.

A

The most effective leaders: A. display both transactional and transformational leadership behaviors B. tend to adopt a more task-oriented than relations-oriented leadership style C.adopt a leadership style that makes them relations-oriented charismatic leaders D. show extreme active and passive management-by-exception behavior patterns

A

The study of the incentives and needs that motivate people to perform in a certain way are called _____ theories of motivation. A. content B. path-goal C. reinforcement D. process

A

Which of the following is a characteristic of an integrative negotiation? A. Creating value for both negotiators B.Lack of interpersonal trust C.What one wins, the other loses D.Focus on single issue

A

Which of the following is required to sustain power? A.Emotional detachment B. Inflated view of self C. Sense of entitlement D. Willingness to use others

A

Which of the following is the last step in rational decision making? A. Computing the optimal decision B. Rating each course of action on each of the objectives C. Weighing the objectives according to importance D. Identifying possible courses of action

A

Which of the following refers to the "Great Man" theory? A. A theory of leadership that explained leadership by examining the traits and characteristics of renowned leaders of human history B. A theory in which leaders are more effective depending on the favorability of leadership situation, which is described by leader-member relations and task struture C. a theory of leadership in which leaders treat each member differently, and as a result, develop unique relationships with each member D. a theory of leadership that tries to reveal a set of universal traits and skills that are relevant in all leadershlp situations

A

Which of the following statements about the goal-setting theory is true? A .Tight deadlines for goal completion lead to a more rapid work pace. B. Difficult goals often tend to direct attention toward goal-irrelevant activities. C. Difficult goals generally lead to lesser effort, persistency, and focus. D. Easily achievable goals are the significant motivators of performance.

A

Which of the following statements best describes the theory of operant conditioning? A. Both positive and negative reinforcement increase behavior while punishment and extinction decrease behavior B. People will compare their circumstances with those of similar others and that this behavior motivates them to seek fairness in the way they are rewarded for performance C. Individuals have multiple needs that must be fulfilled in a specific hierarchical order to ensure the greatest level of satisfaction D. Employees expect that high effort should lead to good performance and that good performance, in turn, should lead to reward

A

Which of the following statements is true about leadership skills? A. interpersonal skills refer to leader's ability to interact with others B. Cognitive skills are developed through experience C. Technical and interpersonal skills are more innate D. Cognitive skills refer to a leaders knowledge about an organization

A

Which of the following statements is true of managing geographically distributed teams? A. Managers should be skilled at managing a collocated team first. B. Managers needn't deal with conflicts as they do not occur in geographically distributed teams. C. Managers should not disclose team members' background information. D. Managers seldom set guidelines as there are no timelines for virtual teams.

A

Which of the following statements is true of the bargaining zone framework? A. The reservation point is the number below or above which the negotiator would prefer. B. In a positive bargaining zone there is no settlement that will be acceptable to both parties. C. The bargaining zone framework is a unique characteristic of integrative negotiations. D. In a negative bargaining zone, negotiators' acceptable positions overlap.

A

Which of the following teams is the best example of a team in the norming stage of development? A. A team with members sharing their personal opinion with others and group members being more open to one another's ideas and suggestions B. A team with members arguing with each other due to interpersonal issues arising from differences in the perspectives of each team member C. A team that has completed its task and dispersed, with some members feeling sad at the separation from the team on which they have been so dependent D. A team that comes together and team members get to know about their tasks and responsibilities, and each of their team member's competencies

A

Which of the following terms refers to alternative presentations of the same information that can significantly alter a decision? a. Framing b. Discounting c. Satisficing d. Defecting

A

_____ leadership is defined as the set of behaviors that leaders use to change their organization and individuals for the better. A. tranformational B. relations-oriented C. transacational D. charismatic

A

_____ refers to the extent to which individuals engage in the process of generating solutions and articulating their opinions and perspectives. A. Participation B. Conformity C. Influence D. Social loafing

A

1. An emotional response that occurs when interests, perspectives, and behaviors of one individual or group explicitly differ from those of another individual or group is called _____. A. framing B. conflict C. satisficing D. negotiation

B

A theory of leadership that tries to reveal a set of universal skills that are relevant in all leadership situations is referred to as the _____ theory of leadership. A. path-goal B. traits-based C. contingency D. Great Man

B

According to Douglas McGregor, managers who conform to Theory Y: A. use fear, intimidation, and threats of punishment to drive motivation. B. focus on participatory rather than command-and-control styles of leadership. C. tend to believe that employees are principally motivated by extrinsic rewards. D. believe that employees inherently dislike work and need to be constantly monitored.

B

As a response to conflict, avoidance must be used when: A.faced with a crisis. B. the issue is trivial. C. a temporary solution is needed D. an issue is more important to the other party.

B

Conflict escalation occurs when: A. the teams are not diverse or there is no history of antagonism among individuals. B. one person's negative behaviors encourage another person's negative behaviors. C. individuals who are in conflict perceive a common enemy. D. time elapses and the conflict is reduced or eliminated.

B

During the strangers phase of relationship cycle: A. leaders and followers know they can depend on each other and subordinates perform additional assignments B. leaders rely on rules and contractual obligations to motivate performance and their interactions with subordinates are formal C. leader tests the subordinate's ability to cope with more responsibility, and the subordinate decides whether the leader is worth the extra effort D. leader offers the subordinate a chance to increase his or her responsibility in the group and the subordinate accepts the new role

B

Hersey and Blanchard believed that : A. leaders are fixed in their leadership style and that situation should be changed to match the leaer B. leaders have the flexibility and range of skills to adapt their behavior to the maturity of their subordinates C. the most important aspect of leadership is the followers belief that they can complete a task and that they will gain rewards and satisfaction upon completion D. each situation is characterized by certain variables that make the situation either favorable or unfavorable

B

John is an orgainzation's marketing lead. He has sound knowledge about the organizational activities and can make effective job-related decisions, However, his team members are unable to achieve sales target that he sets without and delay his team members complain that John does not respond or ever pay attention to their problems and interests. This shows that John lacks _____ skills of leadership. A. cognitive B. interpersonal C. techincal D. intellectual

B

Kevin is leading a team whose members came together and got to know about their tasks and responsibilities, and got an idea about each of their team member's competencies.Which of the following should Kevin typically do during this stage of team development? A.Disband team B.Provide resources C. Manage feelings of sadness D. Help the team evaluate work

B

Maria and Jose have worked together in the same office in the same position for quite some time. They have similar educational backgrounds and have been in the job for about the same period of time. Maria works extremely hard and often notices that Jose is taking long breaks and not putting in the same effort as she is. Thus, when she learns that Jose is paid $8000, more than what she earns, she gets very upset and decides to reduce her effort and take long breaks as well. Which of the following theories explains this behavior? A.Expectancy theory B. Equity theory C. ERG theory D. Goal-setting theory

B

Mark, an employee, belongs to the marketing department in an organization. However, he often interacts with people in all other departments including top management, which helped him improve professionally and personally. By maintaining many informal networks within the organization, he manages to get his job done more effectively than others. From this description, it can be inferred that Mark demonstrates _____ power. A. positional B. relational . C. referent D. coercive

B

Peter is a senior manager in an organization that is currently laying off its employees. It is Peter's responsibility to convey this message to the laid off employees. Harry is one among them with whom Peter had a conflict a year ago. Therefore, in an attempt to avoid any such conflicts again, Peter requested a human resources representative to convey the message instead. In this case, Peter uses the _____ heuristic. A. intuitive B. availability C. representativeness D. adjustment

B

Technical skills of leadership refer to: A. a leader's ability to make decisions with sound reasoning B. a leader's knowledge about an organization and job related activities C. a leader's ability to understand the internal and external environments D. a leader's ability to interact with others

B

The _____ theory, proposed by Abraham Maslow, states that individuals have multiple needs that must be fulfilled in a specific order to ensure the greatest level of satisfaction. A. acquired needs B. hierarchy of needs C. four-drive D. two-factor

B

The factor that differentiates work groups from teams is that work groups: A. possess the authority to manage their own work processes. B. involve individual accountability and clearly defined leadership. C. involve individuals working together to achieve a common goal. D. are preferred when the task is complex and sophisticated.

B

The factor that distinguishes conditions of risk from conditions of uncertainty is that in conditions of risk: A. individuals have all of the information they need to make the best possible decision. B. individuals have information about the potential courses of action. C. individuals have the information to make optimal decisions that are clear and obvious. D. individuals have information about the possible outcomes for each course of action.

B

The management in an organization wanted to reduce employee turnover by increasing their job satisfaction. Therefore, they provided employees with a safe work environment and a sense of job security. However, the turnover rate did not decrease even after implementing these changes. During exit interviews, the employees complained that they do not have any opportunities for achievement and personal recognition. From this scenario, according to Herzberg's theory, it can be understood that: A. hygiene factors are lacking in the organization. B. the organization falls short of motivators. C. all employees are self-actualized individuals. D. the employees' higher-order needs are met.

B

The realistic conflict theory proposes that: A. conflict can escalate when disagreements become personal. B. limited resources will lead to conflict between groups. C. intergroup conflict emerges when the other group is viewed as the enemy. D. group members of an in-group will seek to find negative aspects of an out-group.

B

Tom, the head of human resources in an organization, is working on an important project for which he develops a team of five middle level managers one from each department-finance, IT, marketing, logistics, and the manufacturing department. The five managers will be reporting to Tom, who heads the team, and will coordinate among themselves to complete the project on time. This scenario shows that: A. the managers belong to a functional team. B. Tom has formed a horizontal team. C. Tom has formed a geographically distributed team. D. the managers belong to a self-directed team.

B

Which of the following in an intrinsic reward? A. Recognition B. Interesting task C. Employee benefits D. Incentives

B

Which of the following is a characteristic of an organization's climate with high employee engagement? A. Negative reinforcement B. Training and development C. High power distance D. Centralized decision making

B

Which of the following is a core benefit of relations-oriented leadership style? A. improved performance B. Employee satisfaction C. Close monitoring D. Clearer objectives

B

Which of the following is one of the main components of a team process? A. Dominating discussions B. Constructive conflict C. Increased conformity D. Blocking behaviors

B

Which of the following is the best example of a team in the storming stage of development? A. A team that has completed its task and dispersed, with some members feeling sad at the separation from the team on which they have been so dependent B. A team with members arguing with each other due to interpersonal issues arising from differences in the perspectives of each team member C. A team with members sharing their personal opinion with others and group members being more open to one another's ideas and suggestions D. A team that comes together and team members get to know about their tasks and responsibilities, and each of their team member's competencies

B

Which of the following is the best example of a vertical team? A. Jane, Jack, and Maria, as members of a team, have the authority and responsibility to make decisions and to participate in processes that help the team succeed. B. Kevin, a manager in the marketing department, had Jim and Jake, team members from the same department, reporting to him on the progress of an ongoing project. C. Sam, Ben, and Nick are team members working from three different locations on the same project, relying mainly on telephone calls and e-mails to interact with each other. D. Mike, the project manager, developed a team of middle managers from the marketing, finance, and production departments to work on a project together.

B

Which of the following is the most preferred reaction to power? A. Passive resistance B. Commitment C. Active resistance D. Compliance

B

Which of the following models should managers use while making tough calls? A.Garbage can model B. SCRIPTS model C. Administrative model D. Political model

B

Which of the following statements about affective and cognitive conflicts is true? A. Affective conflicts tend to have a positive influence on the team. B. Tasks that are very complex tend to lead to cognitive conflict. C. In affective conflict situations the focus is on the task at hand. D. In most cases, cognitive conflicts are extremely destructive.

B

Which of the following statements about negotiating across cultures is true? A. In high-context cultures information is explicit and meaning is clear. B. People in low-context cultures prefer to communicate directly. C. People in hierarchical cultures are more comfortable with confrontation. D. Individualistic cultures support collective interests above individual rights.

B

Which of the following statements about the managerial grid is true? A. It holds that task-oriented and relations-oriented behaviors are two ends of the same spectrum B. It holds that quality of leadership stle depends on the level of each behavior portrayed C. It holds that leader's personal history and knowledge can seldom influence his or her stle D. It holds that effective leaders should exhibit either task- oriented leadership styles

B

Which of the following statements best describes power? A. it is often defined as the exercise of control and the effective use of influence B. it is the potential of one individual to influence the behavior of another individual C. it is the means of vehicle by which control is exercised D. is is the ability of a leader to appropriately size up a situation and to appeal to the needs of followers

B

Which of the following statements is true about Fiedler's contingency model? A. a low least-preferred-coworker score indicates a leader who is more relationship-orineted B. depending on the favorability of the situation, a different style of leadership is required C. Fiedler suggests that leaders should adapt themselves to match the situation D. relationship-oriented leaders are more successful at the extremes of leadership situations

B

Which of the following statements is true about charismatic leaders? A. they usually possess an unwillingness to take personal risks. B. Not all charismatic leaders are positive role models C. Charismatic leaders often lack confidence about their abilities D. They do not promote any disillusioned ideals to gain power

B

Which of the following statements is true of distributive negotiation? A. Both parties expect to benefit by building a long-term relationship. B. In these negotiations, what one person wins, the other person loses. C. Each party makes trade-offs in an effort to create more value for each negotiator. D. Distributive negotiations focus on multiple issues.

B

Which of the following theories focuses on the process of using rewards or punishments to induce behaviors? A. Equity theory B. Reinforcement theory C.Acquired needs theory D. Expectancy theory

B

Which of the following theories is a variant on Maslow's hierarchy theory that involves three instead of five levels? A. Expectancy theory B. Alderfer's ERG theory C. Goal-setting theory D. McClelland's acquired needs theory

B

Which of the following theories proposes that group members of an in-group will seek to find negative aspects of an out-group to enhance their self-image? A. Traits-based theory B. Social identity theory C. Great man theory D. Realistic conflict theory

B

The _____ heuristic contends that individuals tend to look for traits in another person or situation that correspond with previously formed stereotypes. A. availability B. adjustment C. representativeness D. playfulness

C

The act of choosing a solution that is good enough is called _____. A.framing B. reasoning C. satisficing D. discounting

C

The deliberate, temporary relaxation of rules to explore many possible alternatives is called _____. A. representativeness B. framing C. playfulness D. satisficing

C

The extent to which group members need to work with and rely on each other to produce the collective work of the group is referred to as _____. A. task complexity B. individual accountability C. task interdependence D. conformity

C

The process by which a negotiator attempts to gain benefits or concessions for his or her position is called _____. A.create value B.integrated negotiation C. claim value D. de-escalation

C

The status quo bias is best described as: a. the tendency to seek information that confirms a decision. b. the tendency to seek information that disconfirms a decision. c. the tendency to favor the 'here and now' and to reject potential change. d. the tendency to make decisions using information that is more powerful and important.

C

The three objectives of charismatic leader are to: A. mark, motivate, and monitor B. involve , intergrate, and implement C. envision, empathize , and empower D. support, sympathize, and solve

C

Thomas is an executive in a firm's IT department. He has immense knowledge in IT and has come up with many technological innovations, which had helped the organization to perform its activities more efficiently. Moreover, he has the ability to solve all types of issues that arise on a daily basis with relative ease. As a result, the individuals in the organization developed great respect for him. Identify the kind of power demonstrated by Thomas. A.Referent power B. Reward power C. Expert power D. Coercive power

C

To fulfill employees' drive to defend, managers should: A. provide competitive salary and benefits. B. value collaboration and teamwork. C. increase transparency of all processes. D. design jobs that have distinct roles in the organization.

C

Under _____, individuals have information about objectives, priorities, and potential courses of action, but they do not have all the information about the possible outcomes for each course of action. A. conditions of certainty B. conditions of rationality C. conditions of risk D. conditions of unambiguity

C

Under conditions of uncertainty: A. individuals have complete information about alternative courses of action. B. individuals have all of the information they need to make the best possible decision. C. individuals have information related to an organization's objectives and priorities. D. individuals have the information to make optimal decisions that are clear and obvious.

C

Vinita buys a stock assuming that she can make profit out of it. However, shortly thereafter the stock value drops and she loses a lot of money. Her financial planner thinks the stock value will drop further and advices her to sell the stock. However, she has lost so much money already and therefore she doesn't want to sell. Instead she holds onto the stock in hopes to regain her loss. Instead she loses more. This phenomena is referred to as: A. intuitive decision making B. representativeness heuristic C. escalation of commitment D. rational decision making

C

When a leader rewards an employee in terms of increased pay for completing a project much ahead of time, the leadership technique can be referred to as ____ leadership. A. transformational B. relations - oriented C. transactional D. charismatic

C

Which of the following best describes collocated teams? A. Teams composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from several different departments in the organization B. Teams composed of a manager and his or her s Subordinates in the formal chain of command C. Teams that use a significant amount of face-to-face communication to make operating decisions D. Teams that determine their own objectives and the methods by which to achieve them

C

Which of the following conditions in organizations tend to induce competition? A. Unskilled employees B. Long-term rewards C. Disagreements D. Abundance of resources

C

Which of the following individuals best represents a person with referent power? A. John, the finance head, is the deciding authority on various organizational activities. B. Harry, a marketing manager, often punishes his subordinates when they fail to follow the organization's rules and regulations. C. Vinita, an executive, has a great personality and everyone in the organization respects and admires her for her intelligence. D. Susan, a team lead, motivates her team members by giving them incentives and promotions on improved performance.

C

Which of the following is a benefit of task-oriented leadership style? A. employee satisfaction B. more creativity C. improved performance D. deeper commitment

C

Which of the following is a characteristic of teams? A. They deal with simple tasks B. Members work independently on tasks C. They have clear task objectives D. There is no specific timeline for task completion

C

Which of the following is a component of personal power according to Whetton and Cameron? A. Flexibility B. Relevance C. Expertise D. Visibility

C

Which of the following is a symptom of groupthink? A.Underestimation of the group's opinion B. Open-mindedness C. Pressures toward uniformity D. High interpersonal conflicts

C

Which of the following is one of the three needs of McClelland's acquired needs theory? A. Need for motivation B. Need for challenge C. Need for power D. Need for safety

C

Which of the following is the best example of a geographically distributed team? A. Jane, Jack, and Maria, team members with different cultural backgrounds, are responsible for contributing information to a project based on cultural diversity. B. Mike, a project manager, developed a team of middle managers from the marketing, finance, and production department to work on a project together. C. Sam, Ben, and Nick are team members working from three different locations on the same project, relying mainly on telephone calls and e-mails to interact with each other. D. Tom, a manager in the marketing department, had Jim and Jake, project members who came from another country, reporting to him on the progress of an ongoing project.

C

Which of the following is the final step involved in diagnosing disagreement? A. Identifying the factors that may underlie the disagreement B. Determining whether both parties had access to the same information C. Identifying the state to which the disagreement has evolved D. Determining the nature of the difference among the people involved

C

Which of the following is the first step in rational decision making? A. Identifying possible courses of action B. Identifying the objectives C. Defining a problem or opportunity D. Computing the optimal decision

C

Which of the following is the first step involved in an effective negotiation process? A.Evaluating the zone of possible agreement B. Assessing the other party's best alternative to a negotiated agreement C. Assessing one's best alternative to a negotiated agreement D. Calculating the other party's reservation value

C

Which of the following questions should be addressed first while diagnosing a disagreement? A.Do both parties have access to the same information? B. Is conflict simply anticipated, or has it escalated to full-blown tension? C. Is the disagreement related to facts, goals, methods, or values? D. Do both parties perceive the information in the same way?

C

Which of the following results in losing power? A.Strong attention to detail B. Engaging in constructive conflict C. Inflated view of self D. Emotional detachment

C

Which of the following should a team lead in the adjourning stage of team development do? A.Set task goals B. Reduce blocking behaviors C. Manage feelings of sadness D. Help teams establish explicit ground rules

C

Which of the following situations is the best example of an interpersonal conflict? A. An organization's marketing team had a conflict with the production team due to the delay in the arrival of finished products. B. The employees in an organization had a conflict with their employer for not improving their work environment which is highly hazardous and unhygienic. C. Jane and Jack, executives of a firm's finance department, had a conflict with their teammate, John, who failed to submit an important report on time. D. A cosmetics manufacturing company had a conflict with its competitor, when they made false negative statements about the company's products.

C

Which of the following statements about Maslow's hierarchy of needs theory is true? A. Job security and fringe benefits are considered belongingness needs in organizations. B. Most people can easily arrive at the level of self-actualization. C. Lower-order needs must be satisfied before higher-oRder needs can be addressed. D. The second level in Maslow's hierarchy encompasses physiological needs.

C

Which of the following statements about extrinsic and intrinsic rewards is true? A. Intrinsic rewards are specific, tangible, and easy to compare. B. Extrinsic rewards include interesting and challenging work. C. Intrinsic rewards generally provide personal satisfaction. D. Extrinsic rewards are based on individuals' conception of their worth.

C

Which of the following statements about nonprogrammed decisions is true? A. These decisions generally do not require a higher-level employee to execute. B. These decisions are made under conditions of certainty. C. These are made in response to novel, poorly defined, or unstructured situations. D. These decisions are made in response to recurring organizational problems.

C

Which of the following statements about teams and workgroups is true? A. All teams may not be a work group, but all work groups are necessarily teams. B. Unlike teams, work groups are not effective at achieving a group's goals. C. Teams are better than work groups when the task is complex and sophisticated. D. Teams tend to have a clearer structure than workgroups.

C

Which of the following statements about the reinforcement theory is true? A. Negative reinforcements tend to decrease certain behaviors. B. Successful organizations generally build employee engagement by focusing on punishment. C. Ceasing to reward the behavior that was previously rewarded causes extinction. D. Positive reinforcement involves removing an aversive condition in response to a desired behavior.

C

Which of the following statements best describes the appropriateness framework? A. The process that individuals use to save time when making complex decisions B. The process by which individuals make choices based on a certain starting point C. The process of making decisions based on societal norms or expectations D. The process of identifying issues and making choices from alternative courses of action

C

Which of the following statements best describes the political model of decision making? A. A model of decision making that seeks to maximize economic or other outcomes using a rational choice process B. A model of decision making that acknowledges that managers may be unable to make economically rational decisions even if they want to because they lack sufficient information on which to base their decisions C. A model of decision making that acknowledges that most organizational decisions involve many managers who have different goals and who have to share information to reach an agreement D. A model of decision making whereby problems, solutions, participants, and choices flow throughout an organization

C

Which of the following statements refers to House's path goal theory? A. a theory of leadership that explained leadership by examining the traits and characterisitics B. a theory in which leaders are more effective depending on the favorability of a leadership situation, which is described by leader- member- relations, task structure, and positional power of the leader C. a theory that states that the most important aspect in leadership is the follower's expectation that task can be accomplished and that it will lead to rewards D. a theory based on the interplay between the amount of task-related behaviors a leader exhibits and the level at which followers are mature enough to perform a specific task

C

_____ involves completing tasks that have been assigned but without a sense of excitement or personal buy-in. A. Commitment B. Empowerment C. Compliance D. Resistance

C

_____ is the process of identifying issues and making choices from alternative courses of action. . A.Problem solving B. Environmental scanning C. Decision making D. Strategic positioning

C

_____ refers to the desire, stimulus, or incentive to pursue a particular course of action. A. Participation B. Influence C. Motivation D. Reinforcement

C

influence refers to the: A. means by which an employee becomes a leader B. ability of leaders to achieve organizational goals C. vehicle by which leaders exercise their power D. potential of groups to impact others behavior

C

A core network includes: A.people who provide career guidance and help in obtaining visible assignments. B.the exchange of specific job-related resources such as information and expertise. C.people who share a common background or interest. D. relationships that are characterized by close bonds and reciprocity.

D

According to Douglas McGregor, managers who conform to Theory X: A.believe that employees are not slackers, but are motivated to do their best and to work to their potential. B. are more inclined to focus on participatory rather than command-and-control styles of leadership. C. seek consensus and try to create an open atmosphere where employees are free to experiment and innovate. D. tend to believe that employees are principally motivated by extrinsic rewards, especially compensation.

D

According to Robert Cialdini's principle of scarcity: A. people should repay in the future what another person has done for them in the present. B. someone will be more willing to say yes to an individual whom they like. C. someone will follow orders based on the other person's position in the formal organizational hierarchy. D. opportunities seem more valuable when it feels like a "once-in-a-lifetime situation".

D

Bounded rationality refers to: A. decisions being based on a certain starting point. B. simple and straightforward rational decisions. C. decisions made easily without any restrictions. D. making decisions within a set of constraints.

D

For teams to be considered effective: A. they must follow a set of standard rules and procedures. B. they must enhance the ability of other teams. C. they must enable team members to work independently. D. they must satisfy team members.

D

Rules of thumb or short-cuts that individuals use to save time when making complex decisions are known as _____. A. biases B. rationales C. intuitions D. heuristics

D

The boundary manager determines: A. whether the team's leader has the ability to effectively manage the team. B. the size and composition of a team to make sure it efficiently reaches its goals. C. the roles and task responsibilities of each team member during the forming stage. D. how a team works with others who have an interest in the team's performance.

D

The distinguishing factor between programmed and nonprogrammed decisions is that: A. programmed decisions are made based on heuristics and intuitive judgment. B. programmed decisions helps managers to solve organizational problems. C. programmed decisions are highly susceptible to social and political influences. D. programmed decisions require managers to rely on habit and rational analysis.

D

The process of sharing power with subordinates and pushing decision making and implementation to the lowest possible level, increasing the influence and autonomy of all employees is referred to as _____. A. commitment B. involvement C. disenfranchisement D. empowerment

D

Theories that explain why people behave in ways to satisfy their needs and how they evaluate their overall level of satisfaction after they have attempted to fulfill their needs are called _____ theories of motivation. A.social identity B. content C. reinforcement D. process

D

Which of the following aspects characterizes transformational leaders? A. Extreme task orientation B. Times and resource management C. Passive management-by-exception D. Individualized consideration

D

Which of the following individuals best represents a person with reward power? A. Eric, the marketing head, is the deciding authority of various organizational activities and his employees have great respect for him. B. Henry, a finance manager, often punishes his subordinates when they fail to follow the organization's rules and regulations. C. Sonia, an executive, has a great personality and everyone in the organization respects and admires her for her intelligence. D. Maria, a team lead, motivates her team members by giving them incentives and promotions on improved performance.

D

Which of the following is an extrinsic reward? A. Autonomy B. Challenging task C. Self-direction D. Job security

D

Which of the following is the best example of a self-directed team? A .Mike, the project head, developed a team of middle managers from the marketing, finance, and production departments to work on a project together. B. Tom, a manager in the marketing department, had Jim and Jake, team members from the same department, reporting to him on the progress of an ongoing project. C. Sam, Ben, and Nick are team members working from three different locations on the same project, reporting to their project manager through telephone calls and e-mails. D. Jane, Jack, and Maria, as members of a team, have the authority and responsibility to make decisions and to participate in processes that help the team succeed.

D

Which of the following is the first step in exercising power through influence? A. Building sources of power B. Using specific influence principles C. Assessing performance D. Choosing an influence style

D

Which of the following models does not view a decision process as a sequence of steps that begins with a problem and ends with a solution? A.Classical model B. Administrative model C. Political model D. Garbage can model

D

Which of the following organizational factors will most likely lead to intense levels of conflicts? A.Long-term rewards B. Decentralized organizational structure C. Equal power distribution D. A competitive organizational culture

D

Which of the following responses to conflict must be adopted when a person is faced with a crisis situation? A. Avoidance B. Accommodating C. Compromising D. Forcing

D

Which of the following situations is the best example of an intergroup conflict? A. Sam tends to argue a lot with his colleague Tom over minor issues and at an extreme situation both started attacking each other physically and were suspended for a weak. B. The employees in an organization had a conflict with their employer for not improving their work environment which is highly hazardous and unhygienic. C. Jane and Jack, executives of a firm's finance department, had a conflict with their teammate, John, who failed to submit an important report on time. D. An organization's marketing team had a conflict with the production team due to the delay in the arrival of finished products.

D

Which of the following statements about team size is true? A.The optimal size of a team ranges from 20-30. B.It is generally better to have too many than too few members. C. As the size of a team increases beyond 20 members, the tendency to collaborate increases. D. Team size should reflect the nature of the task.

D

Which of the following statements about the components of positional power is true? A. Relevance refers to how pivotal an individual's role is in an organization. B. Visibility gives individuals access to information. C. Centrality allows individuals to interact with influential people. D. Flexibility refers to the freedom to exercise judgment.

D

Which of the following statements best describes negotiation? A. A cognitive response that occurs when interests and behaviors of one individual explicitly differs from that of another individual B. An increase in conflict that occurs when one person's negative behaviors encourage or foster another person's negative behaviors C. A situation that is characterized by uncertainty and risk and where the optimal decision is not clear or obvious D. A process by which two parties attempt to reach agreement on an issue by offering and reviewing various courses of action

D

Which of the following statements is true about hard and soft power? A. While senior leaders exert hard power, only middle managers exert soft power. B. Soft power is more formal and is mostly vested within the individual. C. Hard power is based on a person's expertise as well as likability. D. The best leaders combine elements of both hard and soft power.

D

Which of the following statements is true of agreements that create value? A.They involve a distributive negotiation process. B.They weaken the relationship between negotiators. C.They involve bargaining over interests. D. They often result in higher-quality agreements.

D

Which of the following statements is true of diverse teams? A.Diverse team members generally lack complementary information and expertise. B. Collocated teams tend to be more diverse than geographically distributed teams. C.Dysfunctional conflicts are less likely to be experienced by diverse teams. D. Diverse team members tend to produce more creative and innovative solutions.

D

Which of the following statements is true of team composition? A. All members should necessarily agree on how a problem has to be solved. B. Team members should not be open to new ideas as they might cause confusion. C. It is not necessary for teams to be composed of members with a common purpose. D. Effective teams include members with technical and interpersonal skills.

D

Which of the following styles of influence is helpful when the requestor and the other person share common goals? A. Disengaging B. Persuading C. Asserting D. Attracting

D

__ skills refer to leader's ability to understand the internal and external environments, use sound reasoning to make decisions, and communicate effectively. A. research B. techincal C. Financial D. Cognitive

D

_____ decisions are made in response to recurring organizational problems that require individuals to follow established rules and procedures. A. Emotional B. Unstructured C. Intuitive D. Programmed

D

issues. Both belong to the same team and Jane often insults Maria by passing rude comments for no reason and Maria in turn threatens Jane. This scenario is the best example of an _____ conflict. A. cognitive B. intergroup C. task-related D. affective

D

which of the following is one of the most common leadership traits? A. self-sacrifciing nature B. sense of humor C. Contextual intelligence D. self-confidence

D

Steve, the marketing lead in an organization, treats each of his team members differently and maintains unique relationships with them, Jerry and Henry are members of his team. He assigns more interesting tasks to Jerry and offers him more rewards. On the other hand, Henry is simply required to comply by formal rules and receives the standard benefits of the job. From this scenario it can be inferred that : A. Steve belongs to Jerry's out-group B. Henry belongs to Steve's in group C. Henry belonds to Jerry's out-group D. Jerry belongs to Steve's in-group

D.

According to Douglas McGregor, managers who conform to Theory X tend to use a blend of extrinsic and intrinsic rewards to motivate employees.

F

According to Joseph Nye, the best leaders always use more hard power than soft power.

F

According to Maslow, the two higher-order needs include the physiological and belongingness needs.

F

As a response to power, compliance involves employees doing their work because they want to, not because they have to.

F

As the size of a team increases beyond 20 members, the tendency to collaborate increases as coordination activities increase.

F

Building sources of interpersonal power is the final step involved in exercising power through influence.

F

Claim value is the process of expanding the opportunities or issues that can be evaluated in a negotiation.

F

Confirmation bias means that people tend to seek information that disconfirms a decision before seeking information that confirms a decision.

F

Conflict de-escalation occurs when one person's negative behaviors encourage another person's negative behaviors.

F

Identifying a few possible courses of action is the first step involved in the rational decision making process.

F

In contrast to intrinsic motivation, extrinsic motivation is derived from aspects of "doing the job."

F

In many cases, interpersonal conflict arises when there is competition among groups over scarce resources.

F

In the forming stage of team development, team members experience conflicts about interpersonal issues.

F

Individuals who are motivated by personalized power like to make an impact on and influence others.

F

It is not necessary for effective teams to satisfy their team members.

F

Legitimate power is the perception that someone can provide positive consequences or remove negative ones for certain behavior.

F

Performance to outcome expectancy includes the evaluation of whether putting in effort will lead to commensurate performance.

F

Positional power is often more influential and effective than personal power.

F

Social identification is an attempt to define the norms of the in-group in a way that favors the in-group at the expense of the out-group.

F

The bounded rationality framework contends that individuals make decisions under conditions of certainty.

F

The first step in preparing to negotiate is to assess the other party's best alternative to a negotiated agreement.

F

The representativeness heuristic contends that individuals make choices based on a certain starting point.

F

Vertical teams are composed of employees from about the same hierarchical level but from several different departments in the organization.

F

Work groups are better than teams when the task is complex and sophisticated.

F

All charismatic leaders tend to be positive role models

False

Leaders with low personal integrity often adhere to a strong set of principles

False

Leadership substitutes are aspects taht hinder a leader's ability to act a particular way

False

Task-oriented leadership behaviors contribute to subordinates' job satisfaction

False

Transactional leaders are capable of producing effects that are rarely seen in groups led by different types of leaders

False

Unlike technical skills cognitive skills are developed through experience and practice

False

According to Herzberg, fulfilling potential dissatisfiers causes people to become less dissatisfied.

T

An arbitrator is an individual who listens to both sides of a disagreement and makes a final decision based on the arguments.

T

Collaborating is an appropriate response to conflict when both parties' views are too important to abandon.

T

Conformity occurs when people behave in line with a group's expectations and beliefs.

T

Dependence asymmetry exists when a firm is more dependent on a business partner than a business partner is on a firm.

T

Egalitarianism versus hierarchy distinguishes between hierarchical cultures that emphasize differentiated social status from egalitarian cultures that do not.

T

Equity theory assumes that individuals know what effort and skills are required to receive a certain reward threshold from their employer.

T

Extinction is the idea that a behavior stops because it has ceased to be rewarded or punished.

T

Goal-setting theory states that the mere setting of difficult but achievable goals is a significant motivator of performance.

T

Heuristics are the short-cuts that individuals use to save time when making complex decisions.

T

In a distributive negotiation, the terms that need to be negotiated are experienced as limits by both parties.

T

In an increasingly heterogeneous workplace, differences of opinion become more apparent.

T

In the context of positional power, relevance is specific to those individuals who are engaged in activities that are closely aligned with an organization's priorities.

T

Intuitive decision making often emerges from subconscious activity.

T

Making a decision on how to integrate a newly acquired firm is an example of a nonprogrammed decision.

T

One way in which weaker parties can gain strength and power in organizations is through the formation of coalitions.

T

Programmed decisions generally do not require a manager or higher-level employee to execute.

T

Referent power is based on the personal liking an individual has for another.

T

Social loafing occurs when team members fail to contribute to the team's recommendations by disengaging from the team process.

T

Tasks that are very complex are more likely to lead to cognitive conflict than tasks that are relatively simple.

T

Teams that include members whose primary language is different face more challenges.

T

Teams that include members with divergent agendas often struggle to come together to accomplish their assigned task.

T

The classical model of decision making seeks to maximize economic outcomes using a rational choice process.

T

Fiedler's contingency model suggest that the situation should be changed to match the leader

True

The best leaders display both transactional and transformational leadership behaviors

True

according to the leader-member exchange theory, leaders treat each member differently

True

social compentency includes a leaer's ability to be aware of how other people's attitudes are related to their behaviors

True

A _____ structure is an organizational structure where key decisions are made at all levels of the firm, not mandated from the top. a. decentralized b. multinational c. centralized d. bureaucratic

a

A process by which change emerges from individuals or teams as they innovate, solve problems, or seek more effective ways to accomplish their work is referred to as _____ change. a. organic b. transformative c. planned d. incremental

a

_____ is defined as the pattern of organizational roles, relationships, and procedures that enable coordinated action among employees. a. Organizational structure b. Value chain c. Synergy d. Organizational culture

a

GudGadgets is a leading manufacturing company. It used a particular raw material as the base for manufacturing most of its products. Due to some recent events, the government banned the overall supply of that raw material. As a result, the company had to switch to another raw material. This called for a change in the machines and other processes involved in manufacturing its products. The company stopped the production of few established products and introduced some new products to remain competitive. This scenario is an example of _____ change. a. transformative b. organic c. incremental d. planned

a

Inertia refers to the: a. inability of organizations to change as rapidly as the environment. b. process by which change emerges from individuals as they innovate. c. ability to send massive amounts of data in increasingly unique formats. d. process where change efforts are planned from top-down directives.

a

The final stage in the selection process often tends to be: a. reference checks. b. situational interviews. c. personality tests. d. cognitive ability tests.

a

The management of an organization is in the process of reorganizing the firm's activities with a more customer-centric focus. They are mainly focused on activities that involve helping and training employees improve their skills needed to better serve their customers. Identify the customer-centric activity used by the management. a. Capability development b. Coordination c. Cooperation d. Connection

a

The process of matching a firm's structure, systems, human resources, and management practices to the competitive landscape is called _____. a. external fit b. customization c. offshoring d. vertical integration

a

The process of understanding how work gets done and how individuals should interact is called _____. a. socialization b. internalization c. identification d. adaptation

a

Thomas is the top manager of a firm which is going to acquire another firm in the similar industry. Which of the following should Thomas do after acquiring the company in terms of culture? a. Thomas should preserve those elements of each culture that are essential to the company's well-being. b. Thomas should completely sacrifice his organizational culture and adopt the culture of the acquired company. c. Thomas should encourage employees to follow both cultures in an attempt to avoid any conflict situations. d. Thomas should stick to his own organization's culture regardless of whether the acquired company's culture is efficient or not.

a

Which of the following best describes an organization's artifacts? a. Day-to-day behaviors that can be observed b. The underlying essence of why members of an organization act as they do c. Relational factors between an organization's culture and its performance d. Aspects deemed important by members of an organization

a

Which of the following entities offers the most resistance in the implementation of change? a. Values b. Products c. Rules d. Customers

a

Which of the following firms is most likely to benefit from the clan approach? a. A firm with highly uncertain working conditions b. A firm with work activities that can be easily measured c. A firm which lacks diverse working styles d. A firm operating in a price-competitive industry

a

Which of the following firms is most likely to have a greater employee resistance to change? a. A firm's change process that creates an uncertain environment causing a sense of fear among employees b. A firm undergoing a change process that would result in employees getting increased pay or promotion c. A firm undergoing a change process that does not require any reevaluation of roles, priorities, and processes d. A firm in the process of change where change leaders communicate the reasons for change to employees

a

Which of the following is an advantage of a strong culture? a. A strong culture has been linked to better levels of performance. b. Strong cultures increase performance even in turbulent environments. c. Organizations with strong cultures only encourage ethical behavior. d. It is a simple and easy task to change the strong culture of an organization.

a

Which of the following levels of organizational culture refers to the visible organizational structures, processes, and languages? a. Artifacts b. Values c. Assumptions d. Beliefs

a

Which of the following questions should individuals address while making decisions about their career? a. What are my strengths and values? b. Who is my role model? c. With whom will I work effectively? d. From whom should I learn?

a

Which of the following statements about the balanced scorecard is true? a. Balanced scorecard can be adapted to align with unique company goals. b. It does not enable managers to make any qualitative measurements. c. A company with many business units needs only a single balanced scorecard. d. Company mission plays an instrumental role in the balanced scorecard.

a

Which of the following statements is true about the financial perspective of a balanced scorecard? a. Economic value added refers to a measure of the value a company provides to its shareholders. b. During the growth stage, profitability outweighs investment. c. When an organization introduces a new product, business is in the sustain phase. d. The harvest stage is the stage of business where the company is investing and extracting money.

a

Which of the following statements is true of the bureaucratic approach? a. Bureaucracies can withstand a diverse workforce and high turnover. b. Bureaucracies are not suitable for large, complex organizations. c. Bureaucracies are often considered the most inefficient methods of control. d. Bureaucracies are more suited to creative and innovative environments.

a

Which of the following statements is true of the levels of organizational culture? a. Assumptions are deeply embedded in an organization's culture. b. It is quite difficult to note the artifacts present in an organization. c. Assumptions are the meanings that members of an organization attach to artifacts. d. Values are visible organizational structures, processes, and languages.

a

_____ analysis is the process of tracking the results of one's own key actions and decisions. a. Feedback b. Strategic c. Trend d. SWOT

a

_____ is an international control mechanism that pursues high-quality products by ensuring high-quality processes. a. ISO 9000 b. Benchmarking c. Six Sigma d. Total Quality Management

a

_____ refers to a four-stage process that provides the mechanisms and systems that monitor the transformation process, ensuring that outputs are produced to the desired quality, quantity, and specification of an organization. a. Control cycle b. Trend analysis c. Scenario building d. SWOT analysis

a

_____ refers to a long-term ongoing process of training that improves an employee's personal abilities over time. a. Development b. Offshoring c. Participation d. On-the-job training

a

Which of the following statements about globalization is true? a. Customization becomes easy as global competitors seek production efficiencies. b. Globalization has led to a host of new competitors on the global stage. c. It is not necessary for firms to customize their products to expand globally. d. Globalization hasn't changed the dynamics of the workforce

b

According to the formula that makes up the change equation, the combination of dissatisfaction with the status quo, new model for the organization, and the process for change must be: a. equal to the resistance to change and cost of change that employees experience. b. greater than the resistance to change and cost of change that employees experience. c. greater than the resistance to change and lesser than the cost of change that employees experience. d. lesser than the resistance to change and cost of change that employees experience.

b

ColorZone, a cosmetics manufacturing company, introduced a new range of cosmetics targeting the younger population. The company spent a lot on advertisements in an attempt to reach more customers and increase sales. However, the money invested on promotion overweighed the sales profit in the initial months. From this scenario it can be inferred that the company is in the _____ of business. a. final phase b. growth stage c. strategic phase d. harvest stage

b

In a functional structure: a. a firm groups diverse functions into separate divisions. b. a firm is organized in terms of the main activities that need to be performed. c. a firm gives equal authority to both divisional and functional managers. d. a firm categorizes its employees based on their performance and commitment.

b

In business, only two things can be observed, measured, and monitored: a. suppliers and customers. b. behavior and outputs. c. resources and growth. d. employee satisfaction and loyalty.

b

In the change process, _____ refer to the manner in which employees work together and set priorities about what is important. a. resources b. values c. assets d. models

b

The _____ perspective identifies the infrastructure and skills needed to carry out business processes, interact with customers, and achieve long-term financial growth. a. customer b. learning and growth c. financial d. business process

b

The elements that constitute organizational commitment are: a. Artifacts, beliefs and values, and assumptions b. Compliance, identification, and internalization c. Job descriptions, strategic planning, and socialization d. Vision, mission and objectives

b

The factor that differentiates behavior and output is that: a. outputs include the decisions of individual employees. b. behavior is controlled at the local level. c. outputs are more flexible and diverse. d. behavior can be specified for an entire organization.

b

The factor that differentiates outcomes from drivers in business is that: a. outcomes can be efficiently measured without drivers. b. outcomes are generic measurements commonly used. c. outcomes are key areas to predict future success. d. outcomes are more unique to company strategy.

b

The factor that distinguishes job-based pay from skill-based pay is that job-based pay policies: a. are often used in organizations with lower hierarchical structures. b. are often used in organizations where tasks are narrowly defined. c. require individuals to use their personal judgment to make decisions. d. tend to be best suited for organizations with more decentralized authority.

b

The management of Z-Cosmetics, after identifying key measurements, decided to set performance targets for its business. In order to fulfill the purpose, it adopted a process which required the management to collect data from Color Cosmetics, a leading manufacturer in the industry. The managers of Z-Cosmetics believed that adopting the best practices across the industry would help them achieve their goals more effectively. Identify the process used by Z-Cosmetics to set performance targets. a. Activity-based costing b. Benchmarking c. Total Quality Management d. Budgeting

b

To motivate change, managers should create effective models that are: a. sophisticated and assessable. b. desirable, feasible, and relevant. c. complicated and implementable. d. clear, structured, and expensive.

b

Which of the following evolves over three stages—from compliance to identification to internalization? a. Internal integration b. Organizational commitment c. Cultural socialization d. External adaptation

b

Which of the following helps organizations to socialize employees? a. The intermediaries used to reach customers b. Role modeling, leader examples, and coaching c. Technologies used in manufacturing a firm's product d. Employee characteristics such as age and experience

b

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a strong culture? a. A strong culture seldom influences an organization's performance. b. A strong culture tends to be difficult to change. c. In a strong culture, the goals are unclear. d. A strong culture requires more coordination and monitoring.

b

Which of the following is a disadvantage of realistic job previews? a. Communicate only positive job aspects b. Result in smaller pool of applicants c. Provide poor job description d. Cause increase in turnover

b

Which of the following is a key advantage of the clan approach? a. Clearly defined roles and responsibilities b. Self-regulating characteristics of employees c. Close personal surveillance of superiors over subordinates d. Extreme job specialization

b

Which of the following is an internal driver for change? a. Globalization b. Inertia c. Technology d. Competition

b

Which of the following is the first step involved in the change process? a. Communicating change model b. Creating dissatisfaction c. Developing an implementation process d. Creating a desirable model

b

Which of the following provides a more precise job description and defines the characteristics of the ideal candidate for the position? a. Mission statement b. Job analysis c. Job evaluation d. Balanced scorecard

b

Which of the following stages of organizational growth is characterized as being highly entrepreneurial and informal? a. Functional growth b. Initiation phase c. Controlled growth d. Strategic integration

b

Which of the following statements about 360-degree feedback is true? a. 360-degree feedback is often effectively used to determine pay raises. b. Employees receive feedback from their superiors, peers, and subordinates. c. It often provides employees with an unrealistic view of their skills. d. 360-degree feedback is not effective for the leadership development process.

b

Which of the following statements about strong cultures is true? a. Strong cultures often result in greater role ambiguity. b. Strong cultures allow a company to run more smoothly and quickly. c. Strong cultures lead to decreased performance in stable environments. d. In strong cultures, there are low levels of agreement among employees.

b

Which of the following statements about the divisional structure is true? a. Coordination among functions in a divisional structure is less fluid than it is in a functional structure. b. It allows for greater accountability because each division is a separate self-contained entity. c. The general manager of a functional form has a broader purpose than the general manager in the divisional form. d. Employees tend to identify more with their function than with their division.

b

Which of the following statements best describes sustainable technologies? a. They focus on developing overall scale economies and global efficiency instead of catering to local tastes. b. They improve the performance of established products, along the dimensions of performance that mainstream customers in major markets have historically valued. c. They are the processes that organizations go through to better achieve their purpose by adapting themselves according to internal phenomena. d. They are the innovative forces that usually appear in market peripheries and have attributes that only a small portion of the population currently value.

b

Which of the following statements is an advantage of a network structure? a. It is quite inexpensive for virtual teams to use communication technology. b. It enables a firm adapt to a change in the marketplace. c. Virtual teams often require very less coordination. d. It promotes greater accountability than divisional structure.

b

Which of the following statements is true about the various customer metrics? a. The new customer metric is measured by the total number of positive feedbacks received from new and existing customers. b. Some companies find it valuable to monitor the amount customers spend on their products relative to all other products. c. Retaining existing customers to maintain or increase market share is not an easy task. d. Customer satisfaction is one of the metrics that is the most objective and quantitative.

b

Which of the following statements is true of adapting culture to a new contextual landscape? a. In times of crisis, a company's culture cannot change quickly. b. Culture tends to be a competitive differentiator. c. External adaptation addresses how work is accomplished in a firm. d. Culture cannot be a strong inhibitor to change.

b

Which of the following statements is true of division of labor? a. Horizontal specialization refers to how much an employee creates, executes, and administers activities in a certain area of the firm. b. The repetitive nature of specialized jobs lends itself to quick and efficient training of new resources. c. Extreme job specialization tend to increase the level of job satisfaction among workers. d. Vertical specialization refers to the breadth of activities that are performed in a certain job.

b

Which of the following terms refers to a functional unit that operates according to its own rules and guidelines and does not openly share information with other units? a. Artifact b. Silo c. Claim value d. Synergy

b

_____ allows employees to make their own choices about a wide array of benefit options. a. Profit-sharing b. Cafeteria plan c. Flexible work option d. Gain-sharing

b

_____ is a quantitative approach that uses a method known as DMAIC, which stands for define, measure, analyze, improve, and control. a. Benchmarking b. Six Sigma c. Budgeting d. Total Quality Management

b

_____ is defined as the process of evaluating behaviors and outputs to see whether standards have been met or objectives have been obtained. a. Benchmarking b. Measurement c. De-escalation d. Strategic control

b

_____ is the process of managing employees by outlining a series of specific milestones that they are expected to meet in a defined time period. a. Off-the-job training b. Management by objectives c. Total Quality Management d. 360-degree feedback

b

_____ refer to the meanings that members of an organization attach to visible aspects of a firm. a. Artifacts b. Values and beliefs c. Assumptions d. Objectives

b

the management of an organization realized that their employees' performance kept deteriorating and many employees decided to quit due to unknown reasons. After probing, they realized that their competitors were offering a better compensation which attracted most of the employees. Therefore, the management made reasonable changes to the compensation system that enabled good performers to get more incentives and recognition. Identify the change that has been implemented. a. Organic change b. Reactive change c. Transformative change d. Incremental change

b

Which of the following terms refers to a structure where both divisional and functional managers have equal authority in the organization? a. Functional structure b. Divisional structure c. Matrix structure d. Network structure

c

_____ is a process designed to reduce inefficiency and waste that builds up in an organization over time in an effort to be more competitive. a. Offshoring b. Outsourcing c. Downsizing d. Customizing

c

A-Recruitz is an organization that allows its employees to work from home. Most of the interaction between the employees and the organization takes place through email. Moreover, the organization is able to maintain increased employee performance and satisfaction. Identify the work option offered by A-Recruitz to its employees. a. Variable work schedules b. Flexible work schedules c. Telecommuting d. Job sharing

c

According to Kotter, which of the following should leaders do first while implementing change? a. Develop a vision b. Institutionalize changes in the culture c. Establish a sense of urgency d. Plan for and create short-term wins

c

An organization's _____ defines how people think, feel, and act and it moves at an almost subconscious level. a. structure b. design c. culture d. strategy

c

Based on the results of SWOT analysis, the corporate strategy department of an organization made some changes to the organizational structure in an attempt to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the organizational activities. This scenario is an example of _____ change. a. organic b. reactive c. planned d. transformative

c

Color Cosmetics manufacturers, whose target market comprised only female customers, have now introduced a new range of products for the male population. They came up with new strategies and advertisements to reach the new target market. They did so to maintain a competitive advantage in the industry. Which of the following strategies did the company apply to compete more effectively? a. Globalization b. Environmental scanning c. Organizational change d. Strategic review process

c

External adaptation refers to: a. how work is accomplished in a firm. b. how ceremonies help to socialize organizational members. c. how environmental changes impact a firm's strategy. d. how an organization's founder influences its culture.

c

Innovative forces that usually appear in market peripheries and have attributes that only a small portion of the population currently value are referred to as _____. a. sustainable technologies b. core competencies c. disruptive technologies d. value propositions

c

Of the four activities that make a firm customer-centric, connection involves: a. helping employees at the firm develop the right skills needed to better serve customers. b. creating structural mechanisms at the firm that allow workers to organize their activities to focus more exclusively on creating value for customers. c. developing relationships with parties outside the firm to increase the value of the firm's offerings. d. using informal methods such as culture and incentives to encourage people in the organization to come together in the spirit of serving customers.

c

The accounting system used to assess the specific cost components of producing a product or service is known as _____. a. economic value added b. return on equity c. activity-based costing d. economies of scale

c

The process by which firms impact the nature of their overarching industrial environment and alter their organization in response to evolving contextual factors is called _____. a. business process reengineering b. vertical specialization c. mutual adaptation d. horizontal specialization

c

When a company outsources a business activity to a contractor in a foreign country, it is called _____. a. gain-sharing b. customizing c. offshoring d. downsizing

c

Which of the following aspects of a leader's role in relation to culture is deemed critically important to an organization's success? a. Acquire more companies and adopt all elements of the acquired company's weak culture b. Reward employees and managers with pay based on commitment and continue raising the bar c. Empower employees to make independent decisions and to find ways to improve operations d. Inspire managers and employees to work as they wish in an attempt to reduce their job related stress

c

Which of the following creates the spark needed to begin the change process? a. Innovation b. Differentiation c. Dissatisfaction d. Inertia

c

_____ is a process of building and aligning human resource practices in support of the company's strategy. a. Scenario building b. Downsizing c. Internal fit d. Strategic positioning

c

Which of the following individuals is a best example of a successful change leader? a. A change leader who offers rewards in terms of increased pay and promotion to those employees who support the change process b. A firm's change leader who communicates the positive results of the change process to the employees and hides the negative ones c. A change leader who engages and listens to his employees and motivates them by showing concern and sharing credit d. A firm's change leader who pays all attention to the structural and procedural changes needed for the transformation

c

Which of the following is a characteristic of an organization's culture? a. Culture is unchangeable b. It is unrelated to performance c. Culture is dynamic d. It can be easily copied by competitors

c

Which of the following is a characteristic of successful change leaders? a. Firmly continuing with existing power bases and norms b. Personal initiative to move within boundaries c. Sense of humor about themselves and the situation d. Ability to keep the reasons for change strictly confidential

c

Which of the following is a main function of a control cycle? a. It improves the skills of employees needed to carry out business processes. b. It helps managers create a set of quantitative measurements that are unrelated. c. It helps to make high level strategy more concrete and tangible. d. It enables employees to identify gaps in capabilities or resources.

c

Which of the following is a most cited reason why organizations initiate change? a. To satisfy customers b. To motivate employees c. To improve performance d. To avoid monotony

c

Which of the following is one of the most important internal business process measures? a. On-base percentage b. Activity-based costing c. Six Sigma d. Return on equity

c

Which of the following is the best example of an organization with a strong culture? a. TechPark is a company characterized by low levels of agreement among employees about what is valued in the organization. b. The employees of Z-Gadgets, a manufacturing company, experience role ambiguity and therefore they require more coordination and monitoring. c. The performance of ElectronicZone tends to fluctuate, wherein, it's good under stable environments and very poor under turbulent environments. d. Z-Furn's organizational culture is very flexible and can be easily changed in response to changing environments.

c

Which of the following is the first step involved in benchmarking? a. Harvesting and analyzing data b. Finding the best companies for each process c. Identifying the processes to benchmark d. Creating plans for improvement

c

Which of the following is the most valuable benefit of the balanced scorecard? a. Its usefulness in creating the vision, mission, and objectives of a firm b. Its creation of a strong culture which provides role clarity to employees c. Its facilitation of communication about strategy throughout an organization d. It flexibility toward employees allowing them to make their own decisions

c

Which of the following is the ultimate goal of Total Quality Management? a. Producing sustainable revenue b. Setting strategic priorities c. Satisfying customer needs d. Improving employee performance

c

Which of the following perspectives refers to the framework that identifies the infrastructure and skills needed to carry out business processes, interact with customers, and achieve long-term financial growth? a. Internal business process perspective b. Customer perspective c. Learning and growth perspective d. Financial perspective

c

Which of the following refers to an organization's assumptions? a. Aspects deemed important by members of an organization b. Relational factors between an organization's culture and its performance c. The underlying essence of why members of an organization act as they do d. Day-to-day behaviors that can be observed

c

Which of the following refers to the quantitative and qualitative things that are most important to customers? a. Financial economies b. Core competencies c. Value propositions d. Internal business processes

c

Which of the following requirements should be met for human resources to become a competitive advantage? a. They must be easily imitable by other companies b. They need to be substitutable by another resource c. They must add value to the organization d. They should exist outside of the company

c

Which of the following statements is a disadvantage of group-based pay systems? a. Group-based systems cannot be fully customized to a particular department. b. They do not allow managers to modify their targets and formulas. c. Group-based pay systems tend to result in a diffusion of responsibility. d. All group-based pay programs are generally difficult to calculate and monitor.

c

Which of the following statements is an advantage of external recruiting? a. External candidates often make a quicker impact in the new role. b. Companies know better about the skills of external candidates. c. Many employers find new talent through external recruiting. d. External candidates tend to perform better than existing candidates.

c

Which of the following statements is true about the different types of training? a. Informal training programs, in particular, are easy to measure. b. Formal training is seldom valuable to an employee's learning. c. Informal training of employees includes coaching or mentorship. d. Formal training often tend to be much more effective than informal training.

c

Which of the following statements is true of organizational strategy in terms of structure and design? a. An organization's execution is not as significant as it's strategy to enable long-term success. b. Competitors often easily imitate another firm's unique organizational configuration that drives excellent implementation and performance. c. Companies implement their strategies by analyzing the organizational culture, human capital, and measurement. d. It is not possible for competitors to steal or adopt another company's strategic perspective.

c

Which of the following statements is true of the organizational design and the life-cycle of a firm? a. Once a firm reaches maturity, the emphasis on coordination generally increases. b. The nature of leadership should remain stable as the firm keeps evolving. c. As a firm matures, it tends to emphasize division of labor. d. Start-up firms are characterized by more job specialization.

c

A process in which change is initiated based on some anticipatory event or opportunity on the horizon is known as _____ change. a. planned b. organic c. incremental d. proactive

d

A process in which small improvements or changes are made to processes and approaches on an ongoing basis is known as _____ change. a. transformative b. reactive c. organic d. incremental

d

Fine Gadgets, a gadgets manufacturing company, has an organizational structure where the employees have to strictly follow rules and regulations stated by the management. Moreover, only the top management is allowed to make key decisions regarding organizational activities. Fine Gadgets is an example of a _____ organization. a. decentralized b. global c. diversified d. centralized

d

In a _____ structure, "knowledge workers" are organized to work as individual contributors or to be a part of a work cluster that provides a certain expertise for the organization. a. functional b. divisional c. matrix d. network

d

Internal business processes are important because: a. they are the quantitative and qualitative things that customers value most. b. they link key customer-based metrics such as market share to the financial performance of a firm. c. they focus mainly on choosing the financial measurements that are important for reaching strategic goals. d. they represent the day-to-day operations that deliver products and services to customers.

d

Internal integration refers to: a. how environmental changes impact a firm's strategy. b. how rituals reinforce an organization's culture. c. how stories and myths convey an organization's values. d. how work is accomplished in a firm.

d

John, an organization's HR manager, is making plans to offer training to his employees. To effectively proceed with the training process John should first: a. determine target audience. b. design the training curriculum. c. assess the effectiveness of training. d. understand the goals of training.

d

Of the five stages of organizational growth, strategic integration involves: a. technical specialization and increased formality. b. concentrating on controlled growth and developing more formal procedures and increasing focus on professional management. c. developing multiple product groups and integrating various functional aspects like accounting to provide more autonomy to divisions. d. focusing on flexibility, adaptability, and incorporation across business functions.

d

Of the four activities that make a firm customer-centric, cooperation involves: a. helping employees at a firm develop the right skills needed to better serve customers. b. creating structural mechanisms at the firm that allow workers to organize their activities to focus more exclusively on creating value for customers. c. developing relationship with parties outside the firm to increase the value of the firm's offerings. d. using informal methods such as incentives to encourage people in the organization to come together in the spirit of serving customers.

d

Of the four activities that make a firm customer-centric, coordination involves: a. using informal methods such as culture and incentives to encourage people in the organization to come together in the spirit of serving customers. b. developing relationship with parties outside a firm to increase the value of the firm's offerings. c. helping employees at a firm develop the right skills needed to better serve customers. d. creating structural mechanisms at a firm that allow workers to organize their activities to focus more exclusively on creating value for customers.

d

The factor that distinguishes functional organizational structure from divisional is that: a. a functional structure is organized around the outputs a firm produces. b. a functional structure is best suited to deal with environmental change. c. a functional structure groups diverse functions into separate divisions. d. a functional structure is organized in terms of main activities performed.

d

The most important provision of the Civil Rights Act, Title VII is that it: a. established minimum conditions for health, safety, and general well-being of workplaces. b. established a federal minimum wage, set maximum hours for a workweek, and officially banned child labor. c. allows employees to take unpaid leave of absence for family and medical reasons without losing their job. d. prohibits employment discrimination based on race, sex, color, religion, and national origin.

d

Thomas, a top-executive of an organization, is responsible for managing the transformational change process that the organization is about to undergo soon. Which of the following should Thomas do in order to combat the employees' resistance to change and to create a sustainable change? a. He should keep the reasons for change confidential. b. He should set up a bonus plan to reward employees for the change. c. He should fire employees who complain about the change process. d. He should engage employees in the change process.

d

Thomas, the head of the marketing department in an organization, has structured his department in such a way that the roles and responsibilities of his workers are loosely defined. Moreover, he does not exert too much control over his workers and encourages two-way communication. His workers tend to be highly satisfied with their jobs when compared to those in the finance department, headed by John who exerts more control. From this scenario it can be inferred that Thomas has adopted a _____ mechanism for coordinating. a. bureaucratic b. authoritative c. centralized d. behavioristic

d

Which of the following characterizes a weak culture? a. Employees require less coordination and monitoring b. High role clarity c. Allows a company to run more smoothly and quickly d. No agreement on the firm's values

d

Which of the following firms is most likely to benefit from a bureaucratic approach? a. A firm with constantly changing, dynamic markets b. A start-up firm with less complexity c. A firm involving creativity and innovation d. A firm with high turnover and a diverse workforce

d

Which of the following helps change leaders build dissatisfaction? a. Creating proper alignment between an organization and its strategy b. Improving experimentation while simultaneously reinforcing efficiency and cost effectiveness c. Reducing the involvement of pivotal individuals in the process and concealing the vision for change. d. Engaging in benchmarking or internal and external performance/opportunity gap analyses

d

Which of the following is a disadvantage of a divisional structure? a. It is not suited to competitive situations where coordinated action is needed for innovation. b. This structure does not allow for much accountability. c. It is not suited to business environments marked by high degrees of uncertainty. d. Core functions are duplicated, preventing the development of economies of scale.

d

Which of the following is a weakness of the matrix structure? a. In matrix structure, the divisional managers have more authority than the functional managers, which causes an imbalance of power. b. A manager cannot use a matrix structure when resources need to be shared and optimized across divisions and within functions. c. When a firm's internal interrelationships are complex, it is not possible for managers to adopt a matrix structure. d. It often creates confusing and inefficient scenarios for managers working in a functional group as well as across divisions

d

Which of the following is an advantage of realistic job previews? a. Large number of applicants to choose from b. All candidates tend to be highly skilled c. Communicate only positive jobs aspects d. Decrease turnover in many organizations

d

Which of the following questions should a manager address while acquiring a company in terms of culture? a. Which culture is the best? b. How socialized are the employees? c. Is culture linked to performance? d. Where are the similarities and differences?

d

Which of the following questions should the managers address as they design control systems? a. What it is? b. Who should design? c. How to design? d. Is it relevant?

d

Which of the following statements about outsourcing and offshoring is true? a. Offshoring guarantees higher profits for a business. b. Managers always account for the risks in offshoring a process. c. Outsourcing is not a complicated issue. d. Offshoring is used to lower costs in a firm's value chain.

d

Which of the following statements is true of the role of founders in influencing culture? a. The founders take the least risk and therefore do not feel as much anxiety as their employees. b. In allowing values to trump economics, founders tend to have a weak influence on the company's culture. c. A founder cannot make any risky decisions as he is required to account to everyone in the organization. d. Founders are uniquely situated to be innovative and to exemplify innovation to their employees.

d

_____ directly impact culture in the manner in which they encounter big problems, solve those problems, and see the effects of their solutions. a. Suppliers b. Competitors c. Customers d. Teams

d

hich of the following is a source from which a firm's culture develops? a. The employees' skill set b. The suppliers and customers c. The organization's competitors d. The founder of the organization

d

A wise manager of an acquiring company should incorporate the company into another in such a way that the culture of the acquired company gets sacrificed.

f

Along the horizontal dimension of decision rights, a manager must decide whether decisions are made in a centralized or decentralized manner.

f

As firms expand and grow in complexity, they reorganize into a functional structure.

f

Assumptions are the meanings that members of an organization attach to artifacts.

f

Benchmarking involves allocating and measuring expected quantitative and qualitative outcomes of a firm

f

Competitors can easily imitate a firm's unique organizational configuration that drives excellent implementation and performance

f

External fit is a process of building and aligning human resource practices in support of the company's strategy.

f

ISO 9000 is a program that focuses on improving the firm's products but not the processes involved.

f

In switching jobs, individuals should always be going "from" rather than "to"

f

Inertia refers to the ability of organizations to change as rapidly as the environment.

f

Market share of target customers may increase at the same time there is an increase in non-target markets, showing that the company is not meeting strategic objectives.

f

Measuring drivers without outcomes leads to confusion and wasted resources.

f

Once a behavior has become an assumption, it is even more visible.

f

Organic change is a process where change is initiated in response to some known external threat or opportunity.

f

A crucial part of employee development is providing feedback.

t

A key component of a new manager's job is to understand the informal structure of the organization.

t

An appreciation of the company's values helps in deciphering the roots of a company's culture.

t

Behaviorists are those who support a more open organizational structure where roles and responsibilities are loosely defined.

t

Changes in work practices or informal structures tend to result in greater efficiency.

t

Connection involves developing relationships with parties outside a firm to increase the value of the firm's offerings

t