Anatomy and Physiology Exam 3 CH 8, 9, 10

Which muscles is (are) contracted to exhale forcibly? A) diaphragm alone B) internal intercostals and rectus abdominus C) external intercostals and diaphragm D) rectus abdominis and diaphragm

B

Which of the following describes the suprahyoid muscles? A) They depress the larynx and hyoid bone if the mandible is fixed. B) They are a group of muscles that lie superior to the hyoid bone and help form the floor of the oral cavity. C) They move the pharynx superiorly during swallowing. D) They are often called strap muscles.

B

Which of the following is not a part of the synovial joint? A) joint cavity B) tendon sheath C) articular cartilage D) articular capsule

B

Which of the following muscles is involved in crossing one leg over the other while in a sitting position? A) the gastrocnemius B) the sartorius C) all of the hamstrings D) the quadriceps femoris

B

Which of the following muscles is not a rotator cuff muscle? A) supraspinatus B) levator scapulae C) teres minor D) subscapularis

B

Which of the following surrounds the individual muscle cell? A) perimysium B) endomysium C) epimysium D) fascicle

B

Which of these is not a way of classifying muscles? A) muscle location B) the type of muscle fibers C) the type of action they cause D) muscle shape

B

Which of the following muscles is involved in producing horizontal wrinkles in the forehead? A) the medial pterygoid B) the zygomaticus major C) the frontal belly of the epicranius D) the temporalis

C

A nursing infant develops a powerful sucking muscle that adults also use for whistling. What is this muscle called? A) platysma B) masseter C) zygomaticus D) buccinator

D

T/F: Although all skeletal muscles have different shapes, the fascicle arrangement of each muscle is exactly the same.

false

T/F: Both first- and second-class levers operate at a mechanical disadvantage.

false

T/F: Dislocations in the TMJ almost always dislocate posteriorly with the mandibular condyles ending up in the infratemporal fossa.

false

T/F: During isometric contraction, the energy used appears as movement.

false

T/F: Hinge joints permit movement in only two planes.

false

T/F: Muscle contraction will always promote movement of body parts regardless of how they are attached.

false

T/F: Muscles that help to maintain posture are often called synergists.

false

T/F: Once a motor neuron has fired, all the muscle fibers in a muscle contract.

false

T/F: Pronation is a much stronger movement than supination

false

T/F: Symphyses are synarthrotic joints designed for strength with flexibility.

false

T/F: The deltoid is a prime mover of the arm that acts in adduction.

false

T/F: The only movement allowed between the first two cervical vertebrae is flexion.

false

T/F: The wrist joint can exhibit adduction and eversion movements.

false

The abnormal protrusion of the small intestine through a weak point in the muscle of the abdominal wall is called a ________.

hernia

The end of the muscle that typically moves when a muscle contracts is called the ________.

insertion

The ________ runs deep to the external oblique.

internal oblique

Turning the foot medially at the ankle would be called ________.

inversion

The joint between the frontal and parietal bones is classified by material as a ________ joint.

suture

The ________ is a synergist of the latissimus dorsi; it extends, medially rotates, and adducts the humerus.

teres major

A smooth, sustained contraction from rapid stimulation is called ________.

tetanus

T/F: The amount of movement permitted by a particular joint is the basis for the functional classification of joints.

true

T/F: The arrangement of a muscle's fascicles determines its range of motion and power.

true

T/F: The articular surfaces of synovial joints play a minimal role in joint stability.

true

T/F: The broadest muscle of the back is the latissimus dorsi.

true

T/F: The calcaneal tendon (Achilles tendon) is the largest, strongest tendon in the body.

true

T/F: The effect of a neurotransmitter on the muscle cell membrane is to modify its ion permeability properties temporarily.

true

T/F: The force of muscle contraction is controlled by multiple motor unit summation or recruitment.

true

T/F: The gripping of the trochlea by the trochlear notch constitutes the "hinge" for the elbow joint.

true

T/F: The major head flexors are the sternocleidomastoid muscles, with the help of the muscles attached to the hyoid bone

true

T/F: The major role of ligaments at synovial joints is to help direct movement and restrict undesirable movement.

true

T/F: The muscle that prevents the biting of the cheek when chewing is the buccinator.

true

T/F: The muscles of facial expression insert into skin or other muscles, not bones.

true

T/F: The soleus is a synergist of the gastrocnemius during plantar flexion.

true

T/F: The structural classification of joints is based on the composition of the binding material and the presence or absence of a joint cavity.

true

T/F: The thin filaments (actin) contain a polypeptide subunit G actin that bears active sites for myosin attachment.

true

T/F: When a muscle fiber contracts, the I bands diminish in size, the H zones disappear, and the A bands do not diminish in length.

true

Only ________ muscle cells commonly branch.

cardiac

T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis would be suffering loss of the synovial fluids.

false

T/F: All joints permit some degree of movement, even if very slight.

false

Moving your jaw forward, causing an underbite, is called ________.

protraction

) In an isotonic contraction, the muscle ________. A) changes in length and moves the "load" B) does not change in length but increases tension C) never converts pyruvate to lactate D) rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

A

A muscle that opposes, or reverses, a particular movement is a(n) ________. A) antagonist B) fixator C) synergist D) agonist

A

Articulations permitting only slight degrees of movement are ________. A) amphiarthroses B) synarthroses C) diarthroses D) synovial joints

A

Excitation-contraction coupling requires which of the following substances? A) Ca2+ and ATP B) Ca2+ only C) ATP only D) ATP and glucose

A

If a lever operates at a mechanical disadvantage, it means that the ________. A) load is far from the fulcrum and the effort is applied near the fulcrum B) lever system is useless C) effort is farther than the load from the fulcrum D) load is near the fulcrum and the effort is at the distal end

A

In symphysis joints the articular surfaces of the bones are covered with ________. A) hyaline cartilage B) synovial membranes C) fibrocartilage D) tendon sheaths

A

Muscle tissue has all of the following properties except ________. A) secretion B) contractility C) extensibility D) excitability

A

Paralysis of which of the following muscles would make an individual unable to flex the knee? A) hamstring muscles B) gluteal muscles C) brachioradialis D) soleus

A

Tendon sheaths ________. A) act as friction-reducing structures B) are lined with dense irregular connective tissue C) are extensions of periosteum D) help anchor the tendon to the muscle

A

The giant protein titin maintains the organization of the ________ assisting in muscle stretching. A) A band B) I band C) Z disc D) M line

A

The ligaments that protect the alignment of the femoral and tibial condyles and limit the movement of the femur anteriorly and posteriorly are called ________. A) cruciate ligaments B) patellar ligaments C) anterior ligaments D) tibial collateral ligaments

A

The most powerful muscle in the body is the ________. A) quadriceps femoris B) rectus abdominis C) gastrocnemius D) gluteus maximus

A

The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________. A) actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping B) the shortening of thick filaments so that thin filaments slide past C) actin and myosin lengthening in order to slide past each other D) the Z discs sliding over the myofilaments

A

What is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane called? A) abduction B) adduction C) inversion D) dorsiflexion

A

What is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle called? A) a sarcomere B) a myofilament C) a myofibril D) the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

What is the primary function of wave summation? A) produce smooth, continuous muscle contraction B) increase muscle tension C) prevent muscle relaxation D) prevent muscle fatigue

A

What muscle is primarily responsible for preventing foot drop? A) extensor digitorum longus B) tibialis anterior C) extensor hallucis longus D) fibularis tertius

A

What part of the sarcolemma contains acetylcholine receptors? A) motor end plate B) end of the muscle fiber C) part adjacent to another muscle cell D) any part of the sarcolemma

A

What structure in skeletal muscle cells functions in calcium storage? A) sarcoplasmic reticulum B) mitochondria C) intermediate filament network D) myofibrillar network

A

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part of a muscle's name, what does it tell you about the muscle? A) The muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively. B) The muscle is able to change direction twice, three times, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively. C) The muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively. D) The muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively.

A

Which group of muscles flexes and rotates the neck? A) the scalenes B) the iliocostalis C) the spinalis D) the splenius

A

Which ligament of the knee initiates the knee-jerk reflex when tapped? A) the patellar ligament B) the medial patellar retinacula C) the lateral patellar retinacula D) the extracapsular ligament

A

Which of the following best describes the orbicularis oris? A) It closes, purses, and protrudes the lips. B) It pulls the lower lip down and back. C) It draws the eyebrows together. D) It closes the eye.

A

Which of the following is a correct statement about development of joints? A) Joints develop in parallel with bones. B) By the end of the fourth week, fetal synovial joints resemble adult joints. C) All fibrous joints are in the adult form by the time of birth. D) Joints develop independent of bone growth.

A

Which of the following is a true statement regarding gliding movements? A) Gliding movements occur at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints. B) Gliding movements allow flexibility of the upper limbs. C) Gliding movements are multiaxial. D) An example of a gliding movement is nodding one's head.

A

Which of the following is not a member of the hamstrings? A) gracilis B) semitendinosus C) semimembranosus D) biceps femoris

A

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events for muscle contractions? A) motor neuron action potential, neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke, sliding of myofilaments B) neurotransmitter release, muscle cell action potential, motor neuron action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, sliding of myofilaments, ATP-driven power stroke C) muscle cell action potential, neurotransmitter release, ATP-driven power stroke, calcium ion release from SR, sliding of myofilaments D) neurotransmitter release, motor neuron action potential, muscle cell action potential, release of calcium ions from SR, ATP-driven power stroke

A

Which of the following is true about smooth muscle? A) Certain smooth muscle cells can actually divide to increase their numbers. B) Smooth muscle, in contrast to skeletal muscle, cannot synthesize or secrete any connective tissue elements. C) Smooth muscle cannot stretch as much as skeletal muscle. D) Smooth muscle has well-developed T tubules at the site of invagination.

A

Which of the following muscles does not act in plantar flexion? A) popliteus B) tibialis posterior C) flexor digitorum longus D) gastrocnemius and soleus

A

Which of the following muscles is involved in inversion at the ankle joint? A) tibialis anterior B) extensor digitorum longus C) peroneus tertius D) peroneus longus

A

Which of the following muscles is not a member of the hamstrings group? A) vastus intermedius B) semitendinosus C) semimembranosus D) biceps brachii

A

Which of the following statements is most accurate? A) Muscle tension remains relatively constant during isotonic contraction. B) T tubules may be sliding during isotonic contraction. C) The I band lengthens during isotonic contraction. D) Myofilaments slide during isometric contractions.

A

An anaerobic metabolic pathway that results in the production of two net ATPs per glucose plus two pyruvic acid molecules is ________. A) the citric acid cycle B) glycolysis C) hydrolysis D) the electron transport chain

B

An example of an interosseous fibrous joint is ________. A) the clavicle and the scapula at the distal ends B) the radius and ulna along its length C) between the vertebrae D) between the humerus and the glenoid cavity

B

Compared to the shoulder, displacements of the hip joints are ________. A) common due to the weight bearing the hip endures B) rare because of the ligament reinforcement C) common in all people who are overweight D) rare because the rotator cuff stabilizes the hip joint

B

Connective tissue sacs lined with synovial membranes that act as cushions in places where friction develops are called ________. A) menisci B) bursae C) ligaments D) tendons

B

During muscle contraction, myosin cross bridges attach to which active sites? A) myosin filaments B) actin filaments C) Z discs D) thick filaments

B

Extracapsular ligaments stabilizing the knee include ________. A) the patellar ligament extending from femur to patella B) lateral and medial collateral ligaments preventing lateral or medial angular movements C) cruciate ligaments, which help secure the articulating bones together D) the oblique popliteal crossing the knee anteriorly

B

Fatigued muscle cells that recover rapidly are the products of ________. A) intense exercise of long duration B) intense exercise of short duration C) slow exercise of long duration D) slow exercise of short duration

B

Hypothetically, if a muscle were stretched to the point where thick and thin filaments no longer overlapped, ________. A) cross bridge attachment would be optimum because of all the free binding sites on actin B) no muscle tension could be generated C) maximum force production would result because the muscle has a maximum range of travel D) ATP consumption would increase because the sarcomere is "trying" to contract

B

In the classification of joints, which of the following is true? A) Immovable joints are called amphiarthroses. B) All synovial joints are freely movable. C) Synarthrotic joints are slightly movable. D) In cartilaginous joints, a joint cavity is present.

B

Most skeletal muscles contain ________. A) muscle fibers of the same type B) a mixture of fiber types C) a predominance of slow oxidative fibers D) a predominance of fast oxidative fibers

B

Of the following muscle types, which has only one nucleus, no sarcomeres, and rare gap junctions? A) visceral smooth muscle B) multiunit smooth muscle C) cardiac muscle D) skeletal muscle

B

Pointing the toes is an example of ________. A) circumduction B) plantar flexion C) pronation D) protraction

B

Smooth muscle is characterized by all of the following except ________. A) it appears to lack troponin B) there are more thick filaments than thin filaments C) there are no sarcomeres D) there are noncontractile intermediate filaments that attach to dense bodies within the cell

B

The gliding motion of the wrist uses ________ joints. A) hinge B) plane C) pivot D) condyloid

B

The muscle cell membrane is called the ________. A) endomysium B) sarcolemma C) perimysium D) epimysium

B

The supraspinatus is named for its location on the posterior aspect of the scapula above the spine. What is its action? A) to help hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid cavity and rotate the humerus laterally B) to stabilize the shoulder joint and help prevent downward location of the humerus and to assist in abduction C) to extend and medially rotate the humerus and to act as a synergist of the latissimus dorsi D) to flex and adduct the humerus and to act as a synergist of the pectoralis major

B

The term aponeurosis refers to ________. A) the bands of myofibrils B) a sheetlike indirect attachment to a skeletal element C) the rough endoplasmic reticulum D) the tropomyosin-troponin complex

B

The terms inversion and eversion pertain only to the ________. A) hands B) feet C) arms D) hands and the feet

B

Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their size, speed, and endurance. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of red fibers? A) a sprint by an Olympic runner B) a long, relaxing swim C) playing baseball or basketball D) gym climbing

B

What are the levers that operate at a mechanical advantage called? A) speed levers B) power levers C) functional levers D) dysfunctional levers

B

What does excess postexercise oxygen consumption represent? A) amount of oxygen needed for aerobic activity to accomplish the same amount of work B) the difference between the amount of oxygen needed for totally aerobic muscle activity and the amount actually used C) the amount of oxygen equal to the oxygen already used D) the amount of oxygen taken into the body immediately after the exertion

B

What is a muscle that provides the major force for producing a specific movement called? A) a synergist B) an agonist C) an antagonist D) a fixator

B

What is the functional role of the T tubules? A) stabilize the G and F actin B) enhance cellular communication during muscle contraction C) hold cross bridges in place in a resting muscle D) synthesize ATP to provide energy for muscle contraction

B

What is the role of tropomyosin in skeletal muscles? A) Tropomyosin is the chemical that activates the myosin heads. B) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the myosin binding sites on the actin molecules. C) Tropomyosin serves as a contraction inhibitor by blocking the actin binding sites on the myosin molecules. D) Tropomyosin is the receptor for the motor neuron neurotransmitter.

B

What produces the striations of a skeletal muscle cell? A) a difference in the thickness of the sarcolemma B) the arrangement of myofilaments C) the sarcoplasmic reticulum D) the T tubules

B

When a muscle is unable to respond to stimuli temporarily, it is in which of the following periods? A) relaxation period B) refractory period C) latent period D) fatigue period

B

Which muscle group is involved when a "pulled groin" occurs? A) quadricepts B) thigh adductors C) lateral rotators D) hamstrings

B

A joint united by dense fibrocartilaginous tissue that usually permits a slight degree of movement is a ________. A) suture B) syndesmosis C) symphysis D) gomphosis

C

After nervous stimulation stops, what prevents ACh in the synaptic cleft from continuing to stimulate contraction? A) calcium ions returning to the terminal cisternae B) the tropomyosin blocking the myosin once full contraction is achieved C) acetylcholinesterase destroying the ACh D) the action potential stops going down the overloaded T tubules

C

Articular cartilage found at the ends of the long bones serves to ________. A) attach tendons B) produce red blood cells (hemopoiesis) C) provide a smooth surface at the ends of synovial joints D) form the synovial membrane

C

Bending your head back until it hurts is an example of ________. A) flexion B) extension C) hyperextension D) circumduction

C

First-class levers ________. A) have load at one end of the lever, fulcrum at the other, and effort applied somewhere in the middle B) are typified by tweezers or forceps C) in the body can operate at a mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage, depending on specific location D) are the type using joints forming the ball of the foot as formed in raising the body on the toes

C

If L = load, F = fulcrum, and E = effort, what type of lever system is described as LEF? A) first-class lever B) second-class lever C) third-class lever D) fourth-class lever

C

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the ________ period during which the neurotransmitter is released by exocytosis, diffuses across the synaptic cleft, and binds to its receptors. A) contraction B) relaxation C) latent D) refractory

C

Muscle tone is ________. A) the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements B) the feeling of well-being following exercise C) a state of sustained partial contraction D) the condition of athletes after intensive training

C

Myoglobin ________. A) breaks down glycogen B) is a protein involved in the direct phosphorylation of ADP C) stores oxygen in muscle cells D) produces the end plate potential

C

Rigor mortis occurs because ________. A) the cells are dead B) sodium ions leak into the muscle causing continued contractions C) no ATP is available to release attached actin and myosin molecules D) proteins are beginning to break down, thus preventing a flow of calcium ions

C

Synarthrotic joints ________. A) are found only in adults B) are cartilaginous joints C) permit essentially no movement D) have large joint cavities

C

Synovial fluid is present in joint cavities of freely movable joints. Which of the following statements is true about this fluid? A) It contains enzymes only. B) It contains lactic acid. C) It contains hyaluronic acid. D) It contains hydrochloric acid.

C

Tennis players often complain about pain in the arm (forearm) that swings the racquet. What muscle is usually strained under these conditions? A) the triceps brachii B) the anconeus C) the brachioradialis D) the flexor digitorum profundus

C

The cruciate ligaments of the knee ________. A) tend to run parallel to one another B) are also called collateral ligaments C) prevent hyperextension of the knee D) attach to each other in their midportions

C

The mechanism of contraction in smooth muscle is different from skeletal muscle in that ________. A) actin and myosin interact by the sliding filament mechanism B) the trigger for contraction is a rise in intracellular calcium C) the site of calcium regulation differs D) ATP energizes the sliding process

C

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. What does the term levator mean? A) The muscle flexes and rotates a region. B) The muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joint. C) The muscle elevates D) The muscle functions as a synergist

C

The oxygen-binding protein found in muscle cells is ________. A) hemoglobin B) ATP C) myoglobin D) immunoglobin

C

The strongest muscle contractions are normally achieved by ________. A) increasing stimulus above the threshold B) increasing stimulus above the treppe stimulus C) increasing the stimulation up to the maximal stimulus D) recruiting small and medium muscle fibers

C

What are menisci? A) cavities lined with cartilage B) small sacs containing synovial fluid C) semilunar cartilage pads D) tendon sheaths

C

What do the genioglossus, hyoglossus, and styloglossus muscles have in common? A) All names reflect direction of muscle fibers. B) Each acts synergistically to elevate the jaw. C) All act on the tongue. D) All names indicate the relative size of the muscle.

C

What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction? A) form hydroxyapatite crystals B) reestablish glycogen stores C) bind to regulatory sites on troponin to remove contraction inhibition D) increase levels of myoglobin

C

What type of muscle assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts? A) an antagonist B) a prime mover C) a synergist D) an agonist

C

Which generalization concerning movement by skeletal muscles is not true? A) Muscles produce movement by pulling on bones. B) The bones serve as levers. C) During contraction the two articulating bones move equally. D) The movements produced may be of graded intensity.

C

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate? A) skeletal B) cardiac C) smooth D) no muscle can regenerate

C

Which of the choices below does not describe how excess postexercise oxygen consumption (oxygen deficit) restores metabolic conditions? A) converts lactic acid back into glycogen stores in the liver B) resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP in muscle fibers C) increases the level of lactic acid in the muscle D) replaces the oxygen removed from myoglobin

C

Which of the following are cartilaginous joints? A) Syndesmoses B) Sutures C) Synchondroses D) Gomphoses

C

Which of the following describes the cells of unitary smooth muscle? A) They depend upon recruitment using the autonomic nervous system. B) They are used for vision and hair raising. C) They exhibit spontaneous action potentials. D) They consist of muscle fibers that are structurally independent of each other.

C

Which of the following is a factor that affects the velocity and duration of muscle contraction? A) number of muscle fibers stimulated B) size of the muscle fibers stimulated C) load on the fiber D) muscle length

C

Which of the following movements does not increase or decrease the angle between bones? A) abduction B) extension C) rotation D) circumduction

C

Which of the following muscles is a flexor of the thigh? A) tibialis posterior B) vastus lateralis C) adductor magnus D) gluteus maximus

C

Which of the following statements is false or incorrect? A) Cardiac muscle contracts when stimulated by its own autorhythmic muscle cells. B) Under normal resting conditions, cardiac muscle tissue contracts and relaxes about 75 times per minute. C) Cardiac muscle fibers depend mostly on anaerobic cellular respiration to generate ATP. D) Cardiac muscle fibers can use lactic acid to make ATP.

C

Which of the following statements is true? A) Cardiac muscle cells have many nuclei. B) Smooth muscle cells have T tubules. C) Striated muscle cells are long and cylindrical with many nuclei. D) Cardiac muscle cells are found in the heart and large blood vessels.

C

A cute, little curly-haired child is sitting behind you in church. You turn around for a moment and she sticks her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle did she use? A) orbicularis oris B) stylohyoid C) hyoglossus D) genioglossus

D

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is called a ________ joint. A) syndesmosis B) suture C) synchondrosis D) gomphosis

D

Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by ________. A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin B) forming a chemical compound with actin C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP

D

During vigorous exercise, there may be insufficient oxygen available to completely break down pyruvic acid for energy. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to ________. A) a strong base B) stearic acid C) hydrochloric acid D) lactic acid

D

Fibrous joints are classified as ________. A) pivot, hinge, and ball and socket B) symphysis, sacroiliac, and articular C) hinge, saddle, and ellipsoidal D) sutures, syndesmoses, and gomphoses

D

Football players often sustain lateral blows to the extended knee. Which of the ligaments is (are) damaged as a result? A) oblique popliteal and extracapsular ligament B) suprapatellar C) arcuate popliteal and the posterior cruciate D) medial collateral, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate

D

On the basis of structural classification, which joint is fibrous connective tissue? A) symphysis B) synchondrosis C) pivot D) syndesmosis

D

Paralysis of which of the following would make an individual unable to flex the thigh? A) biceps femoris B) vastus medialis C) soleus D) iliopsoas and rectus femoris

D

Presence of a synovial cavity, articular cartilage, synovial membrane, and ligaments are characteristics of what type of joint? A) suture B) synchondrosis C) symphysis D) hinge joint

D

Saddle joints have concave and convex surfaces. Identify the saddle joint of the skeleton. A) Interphalangeal joint of the finger. B) Meatcarpophalangeal joint of the finger. C) Carpometacarpal joint of the phalanges. D) Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb.

D

Spasms of this straplike muscle often result in wryneck or torticollis. A) serratus anterior B) zygomaticus C) platysma D) sternocleidomastoid

D

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are ________. A) microtubules B) mitochondria C) T tubules D) myofibrils

D

The hip joint is a good example of a(n) ________ synovial joint. A) nonaxial B) uniaxial C) biaxial D) multiaxial

D

The major function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle contraction is to ________. A) make and store phosphocreatine B) synthesize actin and myosin myofilaments C) provide a source of myosin for the contraction process D) regulate intracellular calcium concentration

D

What is the main factor that determines the power of a muscle? A) the length B) the shape C) the number of neurons innervating it D) the total number of muscle cells available for contraction

D

What is the major factor controlling how levers work? A) the structural characteristics of the muscles of the person using the lever B) the weight of the load C) the direction the load is being moved D) the difference in the positioning of the effort, load, and fulcrum

D

What is the most distinguishing characteristic of muscle tissue? A) the design of the fibers B) the ability to respond to nervous stimulation C) the diversity of activity of muscle tissue D) the ability to transform chemical energy into mechanical energy

D

Which of the following is a true statement? A) The head of the humerus articulates with the acromion process. B) The greater tubercle of the humerus articulates at the coracoid process of the scapula. C) The rotator cuff is responsible for the flexible extensions at the elbow joint. D) The annular ligament surrounds the head of the radius.

D

Which of the following is not a component of the standard treatment for muscle strain? A) rest of the muscle B) ice on the muscle C) elevation of the limb D) stretching of the muscle

D

Which of the following is not a connective tissue sheath that wraps individual muscle fibers? A) endomysium B) perimysium C) epimysium D) aponeurosis

D

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to keeping the articular surfaces of diarthroses in contact? A) structure and shape of the articulating bone B) arrangement and tension of the muscles C) strength and tension of joint ligaments D) number of bones in the joint

D

Which of the following is not a muscle primarily involved in the breathing process? A) diaphragm B) external intercostal C) internal intercostal D) latissimus dorsi

D

Which of the following is not a role of ionic calcium in muscle contraction? A) triggers neurotransmitter secretion B) binds with troponin C) removes contraction inhibitor D) activates epinephrine released from adrenal gland

D

Which of the following muscles fixes and depresses the ribs and stabilizes the pelvis during walking? A) internal oblique B) external oblique C) transversus abdominis D) rectus abdominis

D

Which of the following muscles inserts by the calcaneal tendon? A) the semitendinosus B) the sartorius C) the tibialis anterior D) the gastrocnemius

D

Which of the following muscles serves as a common intramuscular injection site, particularly in infants? A) the vastus intermedius B) the vastus medialis C) rectus femoris D) the vastus lateralis

D

Which of the following statements best describes angular movements? A) They allow movement only in one plane. B) They allow movement in several planes. C) They occur only between bones with flat articular processes. D) They change (increase or decrease) the angle between two bones.

D

Which of the following statements defines synchondroses? A) amphiarthrotic joints designed for strength and flexibility B) interphalangeal joints C) joints that permit angular movements D) cartilaginous joints where hyaline cartilage unites the ends of bones

D

Which of the following would be recruited later in muscle stimulation when contractile strength increases? A) motor units with the longest muscle fibers B) many small motor units with the ability to stimulate other motor units C) large motor units with small, highly excitable neurons D) motor units with larger, less excitable neurons

D

________ is a powerful forearm extensor.

Triceps brachii

T/F: A motor neuron and all the muscle cells that it stimulates are referred to as a motor end plate.

false

Which type of lever is demonstrated by using scissors? A) a first-class lever B) a second-class lever C) a third-class lever D) a fourth-class lever

a

In the synaptic cleft of a neuromuscular junction, an enzyme called ________ is always present.

acetylcholinesterase

T/F: A pair of tweezers is a good example of a second-class lever.

false

The hip joint, like the shoulder joint, is a ________ joint.

ball-and-socket

The ________ helps keep food between the grinding surfaces of the teeth during chewing.

buccinator

Fluid-filled fibrous sacs lined with a synovial membrane and occurring where ligaments, muscles, and tendons rub together are called ________.

bursae

The time in which cross bridges are active is called the period of ________

contraction

Using the functional classification, a freely movable joint would be called a ________ joint.

diarthrosis

The ________ extends the great toe.

extensor hallucis longus

The ________ is the main chewing muscle.

masseter

The ________ tightens the neck and draws the corners of the mouth downward as in expressing horror.

platysma

The quadriceps femoris is composed of three "vastus" muscles and the ________.

rectus femoris

The type of joint between the carpal and the first metacarpal is a ________ joint.

saddle

Which cells help repair injured skeletal muscle fibers and allow regeneration of dead skeletal muscle?

satellite cells

The ________ is known as the boxer muscle.

serratus anterior

Only ________ muscle cells are always multinucleated.

skeletal

T/F: A ball-and-socket joint is a multiaxial joint.

true

T/F: A contraction in which the muscle does not shorten but its tension increases is called isometric contraction.

true

T/F: A person who has been diagnosed with a sprained ankle has an injury to the ligaments that attach to that joint.

true

T/F: A resting potential is caused by a difference in the concentration of certain ions inside and outside the cell.

true

T/F: Although there are no sarcomeres, smooth muscle still possesses thick and thin filaments.

true

T/F: An increase in the calcium ion level in the sarcoplasm starts the sliding of the thin filaments. When the level of calcium ions declines, sliding stops.

true

T/F: Bending of the tip of the finger exhibits flexion.

true

T/F: Cardiac muscle has a limited regenerative capacity.

true

T/F: Cells of unitary smooth muscle are found in the longitudinal and circular muscle layers of the intestine.

true

T/F: Deep muscles of the thorax promote movements for breathing.

true

T/F: Eccentric contractions are more forceful than concentric contractions.

true

T/F: Electromyography is the recording and interpretation of graphic records of the electrical activity of contracting muscles.

true

T/F: Flexion of the ankle so that the superior aspect of the foot approaches the shin is called dorsiflexion.

true

T/F: In order to propel food down to the esophagus, the pharyngeal constrictor muscles are used.

true

T/F: Most superficial thorax muscles are extrinsic shoulder muscles.

true

T/F: Movement at the hip joint does not have as wide a range of motion as at the shoulder joint

true

T/F: Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space is called circumduction.

true

T/F: Muscle cells store more creatine phosphate than ATP resulting in the muscle having a reserve source of energy.

true

T/F: Muscle power does not depend on the direction of the fascicles.

true

T/F: Muscle spasms of the back often are due to the erector spinae contraction.

true

T/F: Muscle tone is the small amount of tautness or tension in the muscle due to weak, involuntary contractions of its motor units.

true

T/F: Muscles are only able to pull, they never push.

true

T/F: Muscles connecting to the hyoid bone are important for swallowing and speech.

true

T/F: Muscles that help maintain upright posture are fixators.

true

T/F: One of the functions of skeletal muscle contraction is production of heat.

true

T/F: Peristalsis is characteristic of smooth muscle.

true

T/F: Regardless of type, all levers follow the same basic principle: effort farther than load from fulcrum = mechanical advantage; effort nearer than load to fulcrum = mechanical disadvantage

true

T/F: Smooth muscles relax when intracellular Ca2+ levels drop but may not cease contractions.

true

T/F: Supination is the movement of the forearm in which the palm of the hand is turned from posterior to anterior..

true

T/F: Synovial fluid contains phagocytic cells that protect the cavity from invasion by microbes or other debris.

true

T/F: Synovial fluid is a viscous material that is derived by filtration from blood.

true