Anatomy Test 3

None of the above

In the diagram, where is the temporal bone?

Forming a fist, requires the fingers to perform what motion?

flexion

D

In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

G

In the diagram, where is the foramen magnum?

C

In the diagram, where is the foramen ovale?

E

In the diagram, where is the olfactory foramina?

E

In the diagram, where is the palatine bone?

What best describes the meniscus?

Fibrocartilage

F

In the diagram, where is the inferior nuchal line?

B

Where does the secondary ossification center form?

In endochondral ossification, what is the original source of osteoblasts? a) endoderm b) mesenchyme c) mucus connective tissue d) osteoprogenitor cells e) ectoderm

osteoprogenitor cells

What hormone(s) is/are released from the control center when the control center receives cAMP input; also important in increasing blood calcium serum levels. Choose the best answer. a) calcitriol and parathyroid hormone b) parathyroid c) calcitonin d) parathyroid hormone and insulinlike growth factors e) human growth hormone and estrogen

parathyroid

B

In the diagram, where is the lamina of the vertebral arch?

A

Which in the diagram is the coracoid process?

H

Which is the first blood vessel that enters the model?

A

Which is the only part of the clavicle that articulates with the scapula?

A

Which is the site of red blood cell production in adult bones?

E

Which labeled structure in the figure is an osteocyte?

A

Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for permitting the movement of the head seen when saying "yes"?

42. The primary function of the transverse and spinal processes of vertebrae is A) attachment site for muscles. B) calcium storage. C) to support the body of the vertebrae. D) to hold the hyoid in place. E) to create a passageway for the spinal cord

A

48. What is inflammation of one or more costal cartilage called? A) Costochondritis B) Arthritis C) Cartilaginous distension D) Otitis E) Intercostal space distension

A

7. Which of the following types of bone is the femur? A) Long bone B) Short bone C) Flat bone D) Irregular bone E) Sesamoid bone

A

11. An opening or hole in a bone through which blood vessels, nerves and ligaments pass is called a A) fissure. B) foramen. C) fossa. D) meatus. E) sulcus.

B

124. Which condition is characterized by a lateral bending of the vertebral column in the thoracic region? A) herniated disc B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) lordosis E) spina bifida

B

27. This facial bone articulates with teeth. A) Lacrimal B) Palatine C) Vomer D) Maxillae E) Nasal

D

M and L

In the diagram of the femur, the gluteal tuberosity blends into the linea aspera; where are they in the diagram?

A, D

In the diagram of the femur, this serves as points of attachment for the tendons of some of the thigh and buttock muscles

All of the above

In the diagram of the foot, between these bones is where intertarsal joints are found.

A

In the diagram of the foot, this is the largest and strongest tarsal bone.

B

In the diagram of the foot, this is the only bone of the foot that articulates with the fibula and tibia.

D

Where is the spinous process in the diagram?

D

Where is the sternal angle?

G

Where is the superior demifacet?

Which two minerals are needed in large quantities when bones are growing? a) calcium and chlorine b) magnesium and sulfur c) calcium and phosphorous d) manganese and sulfur e) potassium and phosphorous

calcium and phosphorus

A joint united by dense irregular connective tissue that permits a slight degree of movement is a __________. 1. Syndemosis 2. Gomphosis 3. Suture

1

This type of joint lacks a synovial cavity. 1. Fibrous 2. Cartilagenous 3. Synovial

1,3

F

In the diagram of the hand, where is the pisiform bone?

A

In the diagram of the hand, where is the scaphoid bone?

C

In the diagram of the hand, where is the trapezoid bone?

A

In the diagram of the hipbones, this ends anteriorly in a blunt anterior superior iliac spine.

F

In the diagram of the hipbones, this is where the longest nerve in the body passes through.

B

In the diagram of the hipbones, where do the tendons of the gluteal muscles attach?

G

In the diagram of the hipbones, where is the posterior inferior iliac spine?

B, E

In the diagram of the humerus, where do most of the tendons of the forearm attach?

None of the above

In the diagram of the humerus, where is the anatomical neck?

A

In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where is the ulnar tuberosity?

A

In the diagram, where is the foramen rotundrum?

C

In the diagram, where is the foramen spinosum?

E

In the diagram, where is the lacrimonal bone?

K

In the diagram, where is the styliod process?

B

In the diagram, which bone primarily forms the roof the cranial cavity?

B

In the diagram, which part is most often broken during CPR?

129. Sella turcica is a bony depression found in this cranial bone. A) sphenoid B) Frontal C) Temporal D) Ethmoid E) Occipital

A

18. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? A) Parietal B) Nasal C) Maxillae D) Zygomatic E) Palatine

A

Which of the following is a cranial bone that is located anterior to the sphenoid and posterior to the nasal bones and contains foramina for the olfactory cranial nerve? a) ethmoid b) frontal c) palatine d) maxilla e) temporal ethmoid

A

Which of the following is(are) made from dense regular connective tissue? a) Ligaments b) Articular cartilage c) Articular fat pads d) Synovial membrane e) Synovial fluid

A

25. Which cranial bone is called the ìkeystoneî of the cranial floor because it articulates with every other cranial bone? A) Occipital B) Frontal C) Ethmoid D) Nasal E) Sphenoid

E

23. The mastoid process A) is a rounded projection of the parietal bones. B) is the point of attachment for several neck muscles. C) is anterior to the external auditory meatus. D) is both is a rounded projection of the parietal bones and the point of attachment for several neck muscles. E) All of these answer choices are correct.

B

1. The branch of medicine that deals with correction of disorders of the musculoskeletal system is called A) Rheumatics B) Podiatry C) Orthopedics D) Cardiology E) Dermatology

C

10. Which of the following is NOT true of surface markings on bone? A) They allow the passage of nerves and blood vessels. B) They provide sites of attachment for muscles. C) They allow bones to shorten or lengthen. D) They help form joints. E) They can be depressions or projections

C

123. Which condition is characterized by an increase in the thoracic curve of the vertebral column? A) herniated disc B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) lordosis E) spina bifida

C

A vertebrae with no vertebral body, transverse foramina and a potential bifid process would describe a) Sacral vertebrae b) Coccyx vertebrae c) Cervical vertebrae d) Lumbar vertebrae e) Thoracic vertebra

C

12. A rounded articular projection supported on a constricted portion (neck) of a bone is called a A) foramen. B) condyle. C) tuberosity. D) head. E) trochanter.

D

36. Joe was found dead. His hyoid bone was broken. What was the most likely cause of death? A) Natural causes B) Cardiac arrest C) Gun shot D) Strangulation E) Choking

D

38. Ribs that have costal cartilage that attaches directly to the sternum are called A) floating ribs. B) vertebrochondral ribs. C) false ribs. D) true ribs. E) separated ribs

D

Moving the humerus laterally at the shoulder joint is an example of which type of movement? a) Lateral flexion b) Hyperextension c) Adduction d) Abduction e) Gliding

D

B

During fracture repair, what area will have mesenchymal cells that differentiate into fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts?

126. Which of the following bones contains a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity? A) Maxilla B) Sphenoid C) Nasal D) Ethmoid E) Lacrimal

E

E

This is the sharp ridge called a spine that runs across the posterior surface of the scapula

f. endosteum

What area allows communication from the outermost to the innermost? What is the structure?

C

What bone is considered the strongest?

B

What structures are lamellae?

D

Which part of the clavicle articulates with the manibrium?

8. Which following types of bone is the occipital bone? A) Long bone B) Short bone C) Flat bone D) Irregular bone E) Sesamoid bone

c

Which of the following is a type of fibrous joint composed of a thin layer of dense irregular fibrous connective tissue found between the bones of the skull? 1. Syndesmoses 2. Gomphosis 3. Suture a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) Both 1 and 2 e) None of these choices

c

What are the extracellular fluid filled extensions of the lacunae called? a) interosteonic (perforating) canals b) osteonic (Haversian) canals c) concentric lamellae d) canaliculi e) perforating (Sharpey's) fibers

canaliculi

The ______is composed of hyaline cartilage and allows the diaphysis to grow in length. a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) epiphyseal line d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate

epiphyseal plate

During endochondral ossification in a fetus, bones initially develop as a cartilage model that was formed from a) periosteum. b) endosteum. c) perichondrium. d) mesenchyme. e) mucous connectivetissue.

mesenchyme

The lateral walls of your nasal cavity are formed by 1) ethmoid` 2) sphenoid` 3) maxillae` 4) inferior nasal conchae` 5) palatine bones` 6) lacrimal bones 7) temporal bones

1,2,3,4,5

Which of the following tissues are part of bone? 1. epithelial tissues 2. muscular tissues 3. nervous tissues 4. connective tissues

1,3,4

Which statements describe spongy bone? 1. Composed of trabeculae. 2. Made up of osteons 3. Found in higher amounts in the diaphysis. 4. Found lining the superficial regions of all bones. 5. Arranged along lines of force that are encountered. 6. Gaps filled with marrow. 7. Maintains strength with light weight. 8. Has the same purpose structurally as compact bone. 9. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae and canaliculi. 10. Has lamellae, osteocytes, lacunae, canaliculi, and central canals.

1,5,6,7,9

Which functional classes of joint allow movement? 1.synarthroses 2.amphiarthroses 3.diarthroses

2,3

The epiphyseal plate in a long bone is an example of this type of joint. 1. gomphosis 2. synotosis 3. synchondrosis 4. suture

3

125. Which condition is the protrusion of the nucleus pulposus posteriorly or into one of the adjacent vertebral bodies in the vertebral column? A) herniated disc B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) lordosis E) spina bifida

A

127. The union of these two bones forms the zygomatic arch. A) temporal and zygomatic B) sphenoid and maxilla C) temporal and mandible D) temporal and frontal E) temporal and parietal

A

13. A prominent ridge or elongated projection on a bone is called a A) crest. B) trochanter. C) sulcus. D) fossa. E) tubercle.

A

15. Bones in the following area protect the brain. A) Cranium B) Vertebral column C) Sacrum D) Face E) Ribcage

A

41. The two primary curves of the adult vertebral column are the A) thoracic and sacral curves. B) lumbar and sacral curves. C) cervical and lumbar curves. D) cervical and thoracic curves. E) cervical and sacral curves

A

46. Which gender shows the coccyx pointed inferiorly? A) Females B) Males C) Both genders D) The coccyx does not point inferiorly in either gender

A

130. The pituitary gland is contained in a depression found in this cranial bone. A) Ethmoid B) Sphenoid C) Lacrimal D) Temporal E) Parietal

B

2. How many named bones are found in the adult human skeleton? A) 200 B) 206 C) 212 D) 227 E) 250

B

21. These cranial bones form the inferior lateral aspects of the cranium and part of the cranial floor. A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Parietal D) Occipital E) Nasal

B

22. These cranial bones contain the organs of hearing and balance, and articulate with the mandible. A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Parietal D) Occipital E) Nasal

B

35. The hyoid bone is suspended by ligaments and muscle that extend from the _______ of the temporal bone. A) mastoid process B) styloid process C) occipital condyle D) zygomatic process E) superior nuchal line

B

40. What is the purpose of the nucleus pulposus region of intervertebral discs? A) To compress the vertebral bones B) To help absorb vertical shock to the spinal column C) Calcium storage D) Spinal fluid reservoir E) Muscle attachment

B

44. Which of the vertebrae listed below would be the largest and strongest vertebra in adult humans? A) C5 B) L4 C) T4 D) C7 E) T12

B

19. Which of the following statements is NOT true with regard to bones of the skull? A) Some skull bones are covered with a mucous membrane. B) The only movable bone in the skull is the mandible. C) The bones of the skull contain foramina but no fissures. D) The facial bones provide support for the entrance of the digestive system. E) Some bones of the skull contain sinus cavities

C

39. The tubercle found on the neck of a rib articulates with a facet found on the A) spinous process of a thoracic vertebra. B) spinous process of a lumbar vertebra. C) transverse process of a thoracic vertebra. D) xiphoid process of the sternum. E) manubrium of the sternum.

C

43. What bone marking found on the second cervical vertebra projects superiorly into the anterior portion of the vertebral foramen of the atlas? A) Primary projection B) Occular process C) Odontoid process D) Cervical projection E) Cervix

C

47. The junction between the manubrium and the body of the sternum forms the A) suprasternal notch. B) xiphoid process. C) sternal angle. D) sternoclavicular joint. E) mandibular joint.

C

5. Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton? A) Tarsals B) Tibia C) Sphenoid D) Scapula E) Clavicle

C

122. Which condition is characterized by an increase or exaggeration of the lumbar curve of the vertebral column? A) herniated disc B) scoliosis C) kyphosis D) lordosis E) spina bifida

D

128. What are the three correct components of the nasal septum? A) inferior nasal concha, vomer and lacrimal bone B) vomer, superior nasal concha, and septal cartilage C) inferior nasal concha, septal cartilage, perpendicular plate of ethmoid D) vomer, septal cartilage, and perpendicular plate of ethmoid E) vomer, septal cartilage, and crista galli of ethmoid

D

14. The tube-like passageway found in the temporal bone that allows sound waves to reach the eardrum is an example of which of the following bone surface markings? A) fissure. B) foramen. C) fossa. D) meatus. E) sulcus.

D

20. Which of the following bones is NOT visible from the anterior view of the skull? A) Parietal B) Frontal C) Mandible D) Occipital E) Maxilla

D

24. These projections found on both sides of the foramen magnum articulate with depressions on the first cervical vertebrae. A) Mastoid processes B) Mandibular condyles C) Foramen magnum D) Occipital condyles E) Sella turcica

D

28. Which of the following is NOT a facial bone? A) Vomer B) Palatine C) Lacrimal D) Occipital E) Mandible

D

34. Which bone of the axial skeleton does NOT articulate with any other bone? A) Vertebrae B) Ethmoid C) Sternum D) Hyoid E) Ilium

D

4. Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? A) Hyoid B) Ribs C) Vertebrae D) Carpals E) Sternum

D

Which suture articulates with the most bones? A. Sagittal suture B. Squamousal suture C. Lambdoid suture D. Coronal suture

D

3. Which of the following statements is NOT true? A) The axial skeleton has 80 bones. B) The appendicular skeleton has 126 bones. C) The axial skeleton is composed of the bones that run through the axis of the body. D) Children have more bones than adults. E) The appendicular skeleton does not include the pelvic and pectoral girdles.

E

9. Which following types of bones comprise the ankles and wrists? A) Long bone B) Sutural bone C) Irregular bone D) Sesamoid bone E) Short bone

E

Which of the following bones houses a sac that collects tears and passes them into the nasal cavity? a) maxilla b) sphenoid c) nasal d) ethmoid e) lacrimal

E

J

In the diagram of the femur, where is the Intercondylar fossa?

B

In the diagram of the femur, where is the intertrochanter line?

E and K

In the diagram of the femur, where is the lateral epicondyle?

H

In the diagram of the femur, where is the medial condyle?

F

In the diagram of the foot, where is the first cuneiform?

C

In the diagram of the foot, where is the navicular?

G

In the diagram of the hand, where is the capitate bone?

D

In the diagram of the hand, where is the lunate bone?

G

In the diagram of the hipbones, where do the tendons of the iliacus muscles attach?

H

In the diagram of the hipbones, where is the Ischial tuberosity?

A

In the diagram of the humerus, this receives the head of the radius when the forearm is flexed.

None of the above

In the diagram of the humerus, where is the olecranon fossa?

D

In the diagram of the humerus, where is the trochlea?

B

In the diagram of the humerus, which is the lateral epicondyle?

F

In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, this forms an articulation with the talus bone and forms a protrusion on the medial surface of the ankle

E

In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, this forms the prominence on the lateral surface of the ankle.

A and B

In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, what articulates with the condyles of the femur to form the tibiofemoral joint?

A

In the diagram of the tibia and fibula, where is the lateral condyle?

C

In the diagram of the tibia and the fibula, where is the tibial tuberosity?

None of the above

In the diagram of the ulna and radius, this is where the head of the ulna articulates with the radius

D

In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where are the attachment sites for tendons of the deep skeletal muscles of the forearm?

B

In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where is the radial tuberosity?

E

In the diagram of the ulna and radius, where is the styloid process of the radius?

F

In the diagram, where is the cribiform plate?

None of the above

In the diagram, where is the crista galli?

G

In the diagram, where is the ethmoid bone?

D

In the diagram, where is the mandibular fossa?

B

In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

J

In the diagram, where is the mastoid process?

D

In the diagram, where is the nasal bone?

C

In the diagram, where is the pterygoid process?

E

In the diagram, where is the superior nuchal line?

B

In the diagram, where is the trabeculae?

F

In the diagram, where is the vomer?

D, proximal

In the diagram, where is the zone of resting cartilage and does it demonstrate proximal or distal epiphysis?

H

In the diagram, where is the zygomatic bone?

C

In the diagram, which bone includes the foramen magnum?

E

In the diagram, which bone is considered the keystone of the cranial floor?

C

In the diagram, which bone is the flat bone?

B

In the diagram, which bone is the short bone?

C

What are the canaliculi?

C

Where is the Supraspinous fossa in the diagram?

C

Where is the clavicular notch?

F

Where is the coronoid process in the diagram?

C

Where is the facet for articular part of the tubercle of the rib?

F

Where is the inferior articular process in the diagram?

D

Where is the lamina?

B

Where is the mandibular notch in the diagram?

C

Where is the mental foramen in the diagram?

I

Where is the pedicle?

F

Where is the superior vertebral notch?

F

Where would dense irregular CT be found?

A,B

Where would you find red bone marrow in an adult?

F

Which illustration and radiograph in the figure shows a Colles' fracture?

E

Which illustration and radiograph in the figure shows a Pott's fracture?

B

Which of the cervical vertebrae are responsible for the ability to move your head from side to side signifying "no"?

A, B, C, D, E

Which of the following in the diagram serve as attachment sites for tendons of the shoulder muscles?

E

Which structure secures dense irregular and osteogenic layers to the bone matrix?

C

Which was once osteoprogenitor cell?

) Which of the following selections correctly lists the sequence of events that occur during intramembranous ossification? a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. b) Calcification > Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum. c) Ossification center develops > Formation of trabeculae > Calcification > Development of new periosteum. d) Development of new periosteum > Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae. e) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Development of new periosteum > Formation of trabeculae.

a) Ossification center develops > Calcification > Formation of trabeculae > Development of new periosteum.

Which statement describes blood calcium levels accurately? a) Blood calcium levels increase when bone breaks down, and decreases when bone is built. b) Blood calcium levels decrease when bone breaks down, and increases when bone is built. c) Blood calcium levels remain constant regardless of whether bone is built or broken down.

a) blood calcium levels increase when bone breaks down, and decreases when bone is built up

Which of the following important body functions is calcium involved? Select all that apply. a) blood clotting. b) nervous cell stability. c) muscle cell stability d) acting as a cofactor in some enzymatic reactions. e) being the primary cation that regulates osmotic balance in cells.

a,b,c,d

Place the events of a fracture repair in order. A: A hematoma will form and will form a temporary connection between the ends of the bones. B: Fibroblasts and chondroblasts migrate from the periosteum and begin to produce fibrocartilage to connect the ends of the bones. C: Osteoclasts resorb dead portions of the new bony area, and compact bone replaces spongy bone. D:Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts and produce spongy bone. E: Phagocytes and osteoclasts begin to remove dead and damaged tissue.

a,e,b,d,c

Which of the following are functions of the skeletal system? Select all that apply. a) Support b) Protection c) Thermoregulation d) Vitamin D production e) Assistance in movement f) Mineral homeostasis g) Blood cell production h) Osmotic balance i) Triglyceride storage j) Communication

abefgi

The ______is composed of hyaline cartilage and reduces friction between bones involved in a joint. a) periosteum b) distal epiphysis c) epiphyseal line d) articular cartilage e) epiphyseal plate

articular cartilage

*The glenoid labrum is part of the ______ joint while the acetabular labrum is part of the _____ joint. a. elbow, knee b shoulder, hip c. shoulder, knee d. elbow, hip e. shoulder, elbow

b

Why would running and jumping have a larger effect on bone health than walking? a) Osteoblasts are less active and osteoclast are more active when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. b) Osteoblasts are more active and osteoclast maintain normal activity when there is mechanical stress placed on bones. c) Mechanical stress does not have an influence on osteoblast and osteoclast activity. d) Running and jumping will prevent demineralization over time.

b) Osteoblasts are more active and osteoclast maintain normal activity when there is mechanical stress placed on bones.

Which of following selections lists bone cells in the order from unspecialized stem cell to highly specialized mature bone cell? a) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoclasts, osteocytes b) osteoclasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes c) osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes, osteoblasts d) osteoblasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteocytes e) osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts

b) osteoclasts, osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes

What statements describe osteoblasts? Select all that apply. a) Bone resorbing cells b) Bone building cells c) Active when blood calcium levels are high d) PTH causes these cells to become more active e) Made from ~50 fused monocytes f) Differentiates from osteoprogenitor g) Stem cells h) Over activity can contribute to hypocalcemia

b,c,f,h,d

How are osteons in compact bone tissue aligned? How does the osteon arrangement affect bone strength? a) horizontal to the metaphysis; the epiphyseal plate resists tearing due to the arrangement of osteons. b) parallel to the epiphysis; the spongy bone follows the alignment of the osteons increasing the strength of the bone ends. c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis; the shaft resists bending even when stresses are applied in certain directions. d) randomly between the epiphyseal plates; the random arrangement of osteons makes the shaft strong no matter what direction the bone is stressed. e) parallel to the perforating canals; the osteons running adjacent to the canals protects the vessels and nerves from becoming damaged.

c) parallel to the length of the diaphysis; the shaft resists bending even when stresses are applied in certain directions.

The shaft of a long bone is the a) diaphysis. b) epiphysis. c) metaphysis. d) periosteum. e) medullary cavity.

diaphysis

Articular discs 1. maintain the stability of a joint. 2. direct flow of the synovial fluid to areas of greatest friction. 3. are made of hyaline cartilage. 4. are only found in the vertebral column. a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2 E

e

Which of the following structures is used to reduce friction in joints? 1. Bursae 2. Synovial fluid 3. Accessory ligaments 4. Elastic fibers a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 3 only d) 4 only e) 1 and 2

e

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in the repair of a bone fracture? a) fracture hematoma, bony callus formation, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling b) fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, bone remodeling c) bony callus formation, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bone remodeling d) bone remodeling, fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

e) fracture hematoma, fibrocartilaginous callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling

Which region of a long bone articulates with other bones? a) diaphysis b) epiphysis c) proximal metaphysis d) epiphyseal plate e) distal metaphysis

epiphysis

) Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of __, which would inhibit ___. a) hGH; osteoclast activity b) estrogen; osteoclast activity c) IGFs; chondrocyte activity d) PTH; osteoblast activity e) Calcitonin; osteoclast activity

estrogen; osteoclast activity

Bending over and touching your toes describes what movement in reference to your intervertebral discs?

flexion

Which type of fracture is considered a partial fracture and is only seen in children? a) open b) comminuted c) impacted d) greenstick e) stress

greenstick

The _______ is the region of long bone that contains hyaline cartilage used for growth in length. a) epiphyseal plate b) epiphyseal line c) metaphysis d) diaphyseal e) articular cartilage

metaphysis

If bone is analogous to a bank, calcium is analogous to ______. a) deposits b) withdrawals c) money d) bank teller e) automatic teller machine

money

When you snap your thumb against your middle finger and forefinger, what motion is being performed?

opposition

The cells active in fracture repair during the production of the hard (spongy bone) callus. a) fibroblasts b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts

osteoblasts

PTH will increase _______activity while Calcitonin will decrease __________activity. a) Osteoblast; osteoclast b) Osteoclast; osteoblast c) Osteoblast; osteoblast d) Osteoclast; osteoclast

osteoclast, osteoclast

Cells active to resorb bone when blood Ca2+ levels are low in fracture repair a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts

osteoclasts

This cell is active once the matrix of bone calcifies. The cells sits in a lacunae. a) osteoprogenitor cells b) osteoclasts c) osteocytes d) osteoblasts e) chondroblasts

osteocytes

Bone mass reduction is promoted by which hormone? a) calcitriol b) calcitonin c) human growth hormone d) parathyroid hormone e) insulin

parathyroid hormone

Which hormone is the MOST important for Ca2+ regulation? a) parathyroid hormone b) calcitriol c) thyroid hormone d) calcitonin e) aldosterone

parathyroid hormone

What area of long bone is composed of dense irregular connective tissue and osteogenic cells? a) periosteum b) endosteum c) medullary cavity d) epiphyseal plate e) articular cartilage

periosteum

The radial head articulating with the radical notch of the ulna represents what type of synovial joint?

pivot joint

To peer over a fence, the calf muscles help you stand on your feet. What movement is being performed?

plantar flexion

When you cross your right arm across your body to shake an individual's left hand, what motion does the joint between your scapula and clavicle perform?

protraction

Which of the following hormones are more important post-puberty for bone growth? a) insulinlike growth factors b) thyroid hormones c) human growth hormone d) insulin e) sex hormones

sex hormones

Mary, an avid runner, was complaining that her lower leg hurt. After going to the doctor, they did not see anything on x-rays of her tibia or fibula. The doctor ordered a bone scan and saw tiny fissures throughout her tibia without any other tissue damage. What is Mary's likely diagnosis? a) Pott fracture b) Colles fracture c) Impacted fracture d) Comminuted fracture e) Stress fracture

stress fracture

If collagen is removed from bone, what happens to the bone? Choose the best answer. a) The bone becomes stiff and brittle. b) The bone becomes soft and flexible. c) The bone shows no noticeable difference. d) The bone will break into numerous pieces

the bone becomes stiff anf brittle

Why do greenstick fractures commonly occur in children? a) Their bones contain higher amounts of collagen. b) Their bones contain higher amounts of hydroxyapatite. c) Their bones are still composed of hyaline cartilage. d) Their bones are still composed of mesenchymal tissue

their bones contain higher amounts of collagen