Anesthesia Final Exam
The concentration of a culture medium produced by dissolving 2.5g in 0.4 L of distilled water is: 0.15% 0.625% 0.16% 6.25%
0.625%
A yearling paint colt is admitted for castration. The animal weighs 700lb, and the veterinarian wants to use the following regimen: butorphanol (10mg/mL) IV at 0.2 mg/kg; and ketamine (100mg/mL) IV at 2.2 mg.kg. How much butorphanol should be administered? 0.6mL 1.4mL 3.1mL 6mL
0.6mL
You are asked to prepare a bottle of heparinized saline with a concentraitons of 4 IU heparin/mL to flush indwelling catheters. The stock sodium to flush solution contains 1000 IU/mL. How much of heparin must be added to each 250 mL bottle of sterile physiologic saline (0.9% HaCl) to make the flushing solution? 1 mL 2 mL 3 mL 4 mL
1 ml
How often should manual ventilation be performed on an anesthetized patient? 1 breath every 15 sec 1 breath every 60 sec 1 to 2 breaths every 2 to 5 min 2 breaths every 12 min
1 to 2 breaths every 2 to 5 min
Calculating drug dosages involves routine conversation between units of measure within the metric sysem. Which of the following conversion is not correct? 3 cc = 3 mL 1 ug = 1000 mg 1 kg = 1000 g 1 L = 1000 mL
1 ug = 1000 mg
If a dog that recieves fluids at a rate of 120 mL/hr has a rate reduction of 20%, what would be the new rate in milliliters per hour? 1.6 0.4 24 96
1.6 X
How much drug does 100 mL of a 10% solution contain? 0.1 g 1 g 10 g More information is needed
10 g
How many milliliters of a 50% dextorse solution are needed to make 1000mL of a 5% dextrose solution? 1 10 50 100
100
A 1L sample contains: 1 mL 10 mL 100 mL 1000 mL
1000 mL
A 500kg horse weighs: 250lb 750lb 1100lb 1000lb
1100Lbs
Six blood pressure readings are: 120, 115, 123, 121, 121, and 112 mm Hg. What is the average value? 123 120 121 119
119
During CPR, which of the following ETCO2 levels is indicative of adequate perfusion? 5 mmHg 10 mmHg 13 mmHg 15 mmgHg
15 mmgHg
After initial thoracostomy tube placement, how far should the tube be twisted in each direction to confirm that it is not kinked before securing it? 45 degrees 90 degrees 180 degrees 360 degrees
180 degrees
When a 5-kg animal is placed on a Bain Coaxial Circuit, some rebreathing of waste gas will occur unless the oxygen flow is: 0.5 to 1 times the RVM. 2 to 3 times the RVM. 4 to 5 times the RVM. 6 to 7 times the RVM.
2 to 3 times the RVM.
If the potassium is labeled 5mEq/5mL, how many milliequivalents of potassium are delivered in 2 mL? 2.0 0.2 20 5.5
2.0
At what percent should PVC be maintained in the acutely anemic dog? 40% 20% 10% 30%
20% X
What volume of distilled water must be added to a 5 g vial of thiopental soduim to create a 2.5% solution? 40 mL 200 mL 250 mL 500 mL
200 ml
a dos weighs 55 lb. Its weight can also be stated as: 121 kg 25 g 121 mg 25 kg
25 kg
A cat in end-stage renal disease is receiving epoetin (2000units/mL). The dose is 100 units/kg. Your patient weighs 5.5lb. How many units will you deliver? 250 25 0.25 100
250
The acceptable crystalloid IV infusion rates for a cat in shock would be: 3 to 10 mL/kg 12 to 20 mL/kg 25 to 30 mL/kg 40 to 60 mL/kg
3 to 10 mL/kg X
A 3700cc sample contains: 370mL 37L 0.37L 3.7L
3.7L
When using a sphygmomanometer and a cuff to measure blood pressure, the width of the cuff should be between __ and __ of the circumference of the extremity. 20%; 30% 30%; 50% 10%; 30% 60%; 80%
30%; 50%
A normal awake dog is breathing normally at 30 breaths/min. What is its approximate respiratory minute volume? 100 to 200 mL/kg 225 to 275 mL/kg 300 to 450 mL/kg 500 to 650 mL/kg
300 to 450 mL/kg
Which represents a normal range of platelet counts in an adult cat? 300,000 to 800,000 cells 160,000 to 430,000 cells 6000 to 17,000 cells 5500 to 19,000 cells
300,000 to 800,000 cells
You just administered 1.2 mL of penicillin (300,000 U/mL). How many units idd you administer? 260,000 360,000 360 0.26
360,000
What would be the recommended oxygen flow rate for mask induction of a 25-pound dog? 0.5 mL/kg/min 1 mL/kg/min 2.5 mL/kg/min 4 mL/kg/min
4 ml/kg/min
A 12-fl dr bottle contains approximately - 36 ml - 45 ml - 68 ml - 120 ml
45 ml X
The level of fluid in the 1 L IV bag reads halway between the 4 and 5 marks. How much fluid remains in the bag? 1000 mL 550 mL 450 mL 0.5 L
450 ml X
A 60 oz bottle contains how many milliliters? 480 240 40 1.6
480
To prepare 120 oz of a 1:7 dilution of iodine and alcoho, you would use: 480 oz iodine; 3360 oz alcohol 12.8 oz of iodine; 115.2 oz of alcohol 128 mL of iodien; 896 mL alcohol 480 mL iodine; 3360 mL of alcohol
480 mL iodine; 3360 mL of alcohol
A veterinary technician administers external cardiac compression to a small dog, placing the hands over the heart at the -7th or 8th intercostal space at the costochondral junction -10th intercostal space on the right, at the costochondral junction -9th intercostal space just dorsal to the costochondral junction -4th to 5th intercostal space at the costochondral junction
4th to 5th intercostal space at the costochondral junction
You are asked to prepare a solution that contains potassium chloride at 20 mEq/L. Howm uch of a 2 mEq solution of KCl should be added to a 500 mL bag of fluids to comply with this order? 5 mL 10 mL 20 mL 30 mL
5 mL
Which body condition score could predict that anesthetic procedures may be more complicated due to compromised lung function and decreased functional lung volume? 1 of 5 2 of 5 3 of 5 5 of 5
5 of 5
Due to the naturally elevated respiratory rate of small mammals and pocket pets, the general rule when monitoring anesthesia is to become concerned if the respiratory rate falls by: 10%. 15%. 25%. 50%.
50%.
At what pressure level should the tank be replaced? 1000 psi 700 psi 500 psi 200 psi
500 psi
A 0.5g/ml sample contains? 5 mg/mL 50g/100mL 5g/100mL 500mg/100mL
50g/100ml
You are asked to infuse intravenously 500 mL of fluids over 6 hours. The administration set is calibrated at 20 dr/mL. After 4 hours you observe that only 150 nL have been given. What should the adjusted drip rate be? 19 dr/mn 25 dr/mn 39 dr/mn 58 dr/mn
58 dr/mn
When considering transdermal use of fentanyl in feline patients, application should take place at least how many hours prior to the start of the procedure? 4 hours 6 hours 12 hours 1 hour
6 hours
When calculating blood volume of small mammals and rodents, in order to correctly approximate the circulating volume, which is the most accurate calculation to use? 70 mL/kg 50 mL/kg 30 mL/kg 10 mL/kg
70 mL/kg
The volume of a stock solution required to prepare 3.5 L of a 1:40 dilution is: 0.14 L 87.5 mL 630 mL 0.875 L
87.5 mL
Body temperatures below which of the following points can cause dangerous CNS depression and changes in cardiac function? 98.6° F 92.4° F 89.6° F 102.5° F
89.6° F
At what angle should the needle be held during cystocentesis on a cat? 45 degrees caudally 45 degrees cranially 90 degrees caudally 90 degrees cranially
90 degrees caudally X
The suggested oxugen flow rate for a circle rebreathing system is 25 to 50 mL/kg/min and 130 to 300 mL/kg/min for a nonrebreathing system. What is the most appropriate flow setting for a 10 lb cat? 0.3 L 900 mL 3 L 0.9 mL
900 ml
In the treatment of DKA, dextrose supplementation is used to keep blood glucose levels at: >300 mg/dL >200 mg/dL <200 mg/dL <300 mg/dL
<200 mg/dL X
Which of the following is incorrect when placing a catheter in a horse? -A 1.5-inch and 18-gauge catheter should be used. -The catheter is almost always placed in the jugular vein. -A small bleb of anesthetic is administered over the site of catheterization. -A 4- to 6-inch, 14- to 16-gauge catheter should be used.
A 1.5-inch and 18-gauge catheter should be used.
Induction with an inhalant anesthetic via a nasotracheal tube would be appropriate for which patient? Question 26 options: A 3-year-old horse undergoing colic surgery A 2-week-old foal undergoing colic surgery A 23-year-old mare undergoing dental surgery A 10-month-old foal undergoing castration
A 2-week-old foal undergoing colic surgery
Which organization was recognized in 1999 by the National Association of Veterinary Technicians in America that offers specialization to credentialed technicians with an interest in veterinary anesthesia and analgesia? -Academy of Veterinary Technician Anesthetists -American College of Veterinary Anesthesia and Analgesia -Association of Veterinary Anaesthetists -International Veterinary Academy of Pain Management
Academy of Veterinary Technician Anesthetists
After administration of etomidate, which organ is it possible to see depressed for several hours? Cardiovascular Adrenal gland Respiratory CNS
Adrenal gland
Which must always be the first step in assessing the traumatic injury patient? Body temperature Fracture assessment Airway Soft tissue or organ damage
Airway
Which of the following statements regarding the use of propofol is TRUE? It is a soy-based product, which can facilitate bacterial growth Too rapid IV administration may cause apnea It can be used as a sole anesthetic for very short procedures It can be used to treat status epilepticus All of the answers listed are true
All of the answers listed are true
Neither the PaO2 nor the SpO2 gives an accurate measure of oxygen if which of the following is present in the patient? Hypoxia Diabetes Anemia Asthma
Anemia
Which phase of the ovarian cycle is the quiet phase in which the uterus undergoes repair? Proestrus Anestrus Diestrus Estrus
Anestrus
Which of the following injuries most likely represents penetrating trauma? Animal has fallen into a hole Animal is hit by a car Animal is stepped on Animal is partially impaled
Animal is partially impaled
The use of which type of the following agents should be avoided in ruminants, as it (they) can make their salvia thick and ropy causing possible airway obstructions? Opioids NSAID's Anticholinergics Dissociative
Anticholinergics
In attempting to make a serologic diagnosis of IMHA, what does a direct Coombs test demonstrate? Antierythrocyte antibody in patient serum Activated complement components in serum Antierythrocyte antibody on RBC surfaces Activated complement components in WBCs
Antierythrocyte antibody on RBC surfaces
Phenothiazines have all of the following effects on the body EXCEPT: Antiemetic Antipruritic Anxiolytic Analgesic
Anxiolytic X
Which type of pneumonia is most frequently associated with megaesophagus? Viral pneumonia Fungal pneumonia Bacterial pneumonia Aspiration pneumonia
Aspiration pneumonia
Which comes first in approaching a traumatic emergency patient? Assessment Reassessment Recognition Action
Assessment X
Application of artificial tears or other forms of ocular lubrication are indicated, especially when which of the following type of drugs are used? Etomidate Hydromorphone Atropine Acepromazine
Atropine
Where is pressure applied to prevent hemorrhage and control brachial artery blood flow in a large dog? Inguinal and femoral canal region Axillary area Area adjacent to and ventral to the mandible Caudal abdomen
Axillary area
Patients with liver disease that have also been diagnosed with hypoproteinemia can experience increased potency with which type of anesthetic agent? Isoflurane Barbiturates Propofol Fentanyl
Barbiturates
All of the following drug classes can be used as anticonvulsants EXCEPT: Bromides Phenothiazines Barbiturates Benzodiazepines
Barbiturates X
Which agent is used to preserve vision in acute glaucoma by shrinking the vitreous humor? Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor Beta-adrenergic antagonist Prostaglandin Mannitol
Beta-adrenergic antagonist X
You have been asked to intubate an adult cow. How is the procedure done? -In lateral recumbency, using a laryngoscope -In the same way you would intubate a dog -Manually using a blind technique that includes one hand in the mouth guiding the tube -Blindly using a nasotracheal technique similar to horses
Blindly using a nasotracheal technique similar to horses X
Which of the following is a complication that can be a result of ruminant general anesthesia? Myopathy Neuropathy Bloat Lameness
Bloat
Which of the following is responsible for the speed of induction and recovery of a patient? Vapor pressure Blood-gas partition coefficient Sponge effect MAC
Blood-gas partition coefficient
Which muscle reaction do you expect to see in a patient experiencing myoclonic seizure? Rhythmic jerking movements Increased muscular rigidity Flaccid muscles Brief twitching
Brief twitching
Due to the pH of the feline mucosa, which injectable narcotic can be administered orally for analgesia? Morphine Oxymorphone Hydromorphone Buprenorphine
Buprenorphine
Which of the following opioids has the potential for the longest duration of action in small mammals? Morphine Meperidine Butorphanol Buprenorphine
Buprenorphine
Which opioid should not be administered concurrently with the use of transdermal fentanyl due to risk of partial blockage of opioid receptors and reduced analgesic effect? Morphine Buprenorphine Hydromorphone Oxymorphone
Buprenorphine
Due to their tendency to increase intraocular and intracranial pressure, it is best to avoid the use of opioids in patients with which of the following conditions? Mandibular fracture CNS disorders Gingival hyperplasia Otitis externa
CNS Disorders
Which agent antagonizes the cardiotoxicity of high serum potassium concentrations? -A balanced, isotonic replacement solution -Dextrose with or without regular insulin -Calcium gluconate -IV NaHCO3
Calcium gluconate
Which is the most appropriate response to a hyperkalemic cat with a urinary obstruction? -A balanced, isotonic replacement solution -Dextrose with or without regular insulin -Calcium gluconate -IV NaHCO3
Calcium gluconate X
In order to confirm proper ET tube placement, which of the following monitoring devices can be connected and the results evaluated for confirmation? Pulse oximetry ECG SpO2 Capnograph
Capnograph
Which of the following species are more prone to bloat while under anesthesia? Horses Dogs Cats Cattle
Cattle
Opioid agonist drugs act in which of the following ways? -Peripherally: in the spinal cord and joints -Centrally: to inhibit perception in the brain and sensitization in the spinal cord -Centrally: to increase perception in the brain and spinal cord -Peripherally: in the brain and spinal cord on the opioid receptors
Centrally: to inhibit perception in the brain and sensitization in the spinal cord
Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following? Change in dissociation Change in water solubility Change in chemistry Change in physical dependency
Change in chemistry
Due to the inherent differences in anesthetizing pediatric patients, which of the following is the most appropriate strategy to institute to decrease anesthetic risk? Choose inhalant over injectable anesthetics. Increase fasting time. Decrease glucose supplementation. Choose injectable over inhalant anesthetics.
Choose inhalant over injectable anesthetics.
You have been asked to manage general anesthesia on a horse. What type of system would be most appropriate? Closed rebreathing system Semiclosed rebreathing system Rebreathing system Partial rebreathing system
Closed rebreathing system
Which factor's increase will make it harder for blood to leave the heart, causing a decrease in stroke volume? Preload Afterload Heart rate Contractility
Contractility X
In thoracostomy tube placement, which direction is the chest tube placed for draining fluid, as opposed to air? Cranioventral Craniodorsal Craniocaudal Caudocranial
Craniocaudal X
Peritoneal dialysis can continue for days until the patient's _____ normalizes. Acidosis Hydration Creatinine Blood cell count
Creatinine
In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the: RCMP. DEA. AAHA. AVMA.
DEA
Which treatment relies on electrical repolarization to help the heart resume normal activity? External chest compression Defibrillation Internal chest compression Precordial thump
Defibrillation
Which of the following steps is not considered important in the patient preparation for a successful anesthetic procedure? -Developing a minimum patient database -Determining if the patient has been appropriately fasted -Assuming all necessary equipment and supplies are ready and in working order -Administering the preanesthetic medications ordered by the veterinarian
Determining if the patient has been appropriately fasted X
Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)? Telazol® Zolazepam Diazepam Midazolam
Diazepam
The general anesthesia classification system used today was developed by a U.S. Army doctor during World War I using which inhalant anesthetic? Halothane Isoflurane Sevoflurane Diethyl ether
Diethyl ether
Which step should come first when a patient is in a life-threatening situation? -Discuss cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) code with the owner so that he or she can determine whether to permit the team to proceed with CPR if indicated. -Inform client that immediate stabilization is necessary; verbal and signed consent are obtained. -Inform client of concerns and escort them to exam room for a full TPR. -Obtain history while initializing stabilization.
Discuss cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) code with the owner so that he or she can determine whether to permit the team to proceed with CPR if indicated. X
Adding which class of drugs to a protocol for swine will result in a more predictable and heavier sedation and even a short anesthesia in some pigs? NSAIDs Dissociatives Opioids Sedatives
Dissociatives
A veterinary team begins performing CPR on a dog. At what point should intubation be performed? After establishing a heartbeat Before beginning chest compressions In recovery, so as not to interfere with CPR During CPR procedure
During CPR procedure
Which of the following is not a common cause of cardiac arrhythmias? Adverse drug reactions Anesthetic induction Hypoxemia EKG lead placement
EKG lead placement
Which of the following devices is used to accurately monitor the heart rhythm of an anesthetized patient? Stethoscope Esophageal stethoscope Electrocardiograph Ultrasound
Electrocardiograph
A feline patient with pulmonary edema is intubated, and the tube immediately fills with a foamy edema fluid. What is the best immediate response? Elevate hind end and chest Administer oxygen therapy Administer diuretic therapy Administer mechanical ventilation
Elevate hind end and chest
A small dog has been hit by a car, and the surgeon plans to repair the fractured pelvis. What would be the recommended type of block? Paravertebral Intrathecal Brachial plexus Epidural
Epidural
Which of the following is a complication to nasotracheal intubation in a healthy horse? Regurgitation Epistaxis Difficulty in placing the tube Vomiting
Epistaxis
Which test is most useful for monitoring a patient's ventilation during anesthesia or resuscitation, as well as confirming tube placement? Arterial BP Pulse oximetry EtCO2 monitoring CVP measurements
EtCO2 monitoring
How often should patients on anticonvulsant drugs be seen to monitor their medication dose? Every 2-3 months Every month for the first 6 months Every 6 months - 1year Every 2 years
Every 2-3 months X
Patients that have undergone major surgery should have their pain assessed how frequently?: Every 60 seconds Every 2 minutes Every 60 minutes At shift changes
Every 60 minutes
While performing external cardiac compression on a large dog, the veterinary technician's arms are: -One on top of the other, elbows crossed -Used to hold the dog firmly against the technician, elbows bent for a firm grasp -Wrapped around the patient's chest -Extended and locked
Extended and locked
The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists? First- and fifth-degree AV block Second- and fifth-degree AV block First- and second-degree AV block Fifth-degree AV block only
First- and second-degree AV block
All parts of the anesthesia machine need to be handled carefully, but which part should the technician take extra care to not overtighten? Flowmeter The wing nut holding the E-tank in place Line pressure gauge Oxygen flush valve
Flowmeter
Which of the following devices reduces the pressure of the gas from about 50 to 15 psi, the optimal pressure for entry into the breathing circuit? Pressure-reducing valve Flowmeter Vaporizer Line pressure gauge
Flowmeter
Which is the cornerstone of treatment for pancreatitis? Synthetic colloids Fluid therapy Crystalloids Plasma
Fluid therapy
A patient with insulinoma is given IV 50% dextrose at 1 to 4 mL/kg diluted 1:1 with sterile water for hypoglycemia and consequently has an increase in insulin secretion, driving blood glucose lower. Which is the preferred response to this reaction? -Frequent feedings + prednisone and prednisolone (0.25 mg/kg PO bid) -Infusion of 2.5% dextrose diluted 1:1 with sterile water -Infusion of 5% dextrose diluted 1:1 with sterile water -Frequent feedings high in complex carbohydrate
Frequent feedings high in complex carbohydrate
A dog with type 3 von Willebrand's disease is scheduled for surgery. Which agent is ideal for controlling severe bleeding during the procedure? Fresh frozen plasma Fresh whole blood Cryoprecipitate DDAVP
Fresh frozen plasma X
Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the: CNS. GABA. CSA. DEA.
GABA
A patient with significant GI complaints undergoes electrolyte and venous blood gas analysis, which demonstrates the presence of metabolic acidosis. Which dysfunction does this test result most likely indicate? Altered perfusion Gastric obstruction Proximal duodenal obstruction Significant third-spacing of fluids
Gastric obstruction X
Cholinergic agonists may be used to treat all of the following EXCEPT: Urinary retention Myasthenia gravis Organophosphate toxicity Glaucoma
Glaucoma X
Due to having higher levels of atropinase, which of the following would be the preferred drug to use as an anticholinergic in rabbits? -Atropine -Glycopyrrolate -Ketamine -Acepromazine
Glycopyrrolate
Anemia is often caused by hemorrhage, hypoplasia, or _____ (increased red blood cell destruction). Erythropoiesis Coagulopathy Hemostasis Hemolysis
Hemolysis
Dissociative anesthetics should be used with caution in patients with what underlying metabolic condition due to their redistribution and metabolism properties? Hepatic insufficiency Cardiac insufficiency Neurologic insufficiency Respiratory insufficiency
Hepatic insufficiency
Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions? Hepatitis and renal dysfunction Renal dysfunction and pruritis Hepatitis and cardiovascular disease Pruritis and cardiovascular disease
Hepatitis and renal dysfunction
Which clinical sign is associated with a peripheral vestibular disorder? Depression Somnolence Horner's syndrome Postural reaction deficit
Horner's syndrome
Which term will most likely be noted during assessment of a patient who presents with conjunctival congestion? Hyphema Hyperemia Buphthalmos Exophthalmos
Hyperemia
Which symptom in particular may indicate that a patient's panophthalmitis is a secondary sign of a systemic illness? Hyphema Melanosis Hypopyon Conjunctival congestion
Hypopyon
Patients undergoing mask inductions are more likely to have prolonged time in which anesthetic stage causing a release of epinephrine? 0 II III IV
II
Which lead of the standard ECG machine is most commonly used by itself to evaluate heart rhythm? I II aVR aVL
II
Which is the best route for delivering calcium chloride for hypocalcemia? SC IM IV PO
IV
Human exposure to minute amounts of which agent is known to cause rapid onset of unconsciousness, respiratory failure, and death? Romifidine Immobilon Dexmedetomidine Detomidine
Immobilon
A patient is diagnosed with paraphimosis. Which sign or symptom would indicate this? Inability to retract the penis Inflammation of one or both testicles Protrusion of the urethra through the urethral orifice Inflammation of the long coiled tube attached to the upper part of the testicle
Inability to retract the penis
Which of the following techniques provide(s) the safest and most effective means of providing anesthesia in rodents? Propofol Ketamine/diazepam Inhalation agents Cyclohexamine agents
Inhalation agents
Which technique is limited to use in young foals, especially those that are very ill? -Induction by injectable anesthesia followed by endotracheal intubation -Induction by injectable anesthesia followed by nasotracheal intubation -Inhalation induction via a nasotracheal tube -Inhalation induction via an endotracheal tube
Inhalation induction via a nasotracheal tube
Which assessment or management measure should be avoided with a possible traumatic brain injury (TBI)? Instrument sweep of the mouth Laryngoscopy Gagging response Intubation
Instrument sweep of the mouth X
During recovery, a patient can be provided with passive provision of oxygen. What is the term used for this process? Rescue breathing Ventilation Insufflation Bagging
Insufflation
Which is the most common cause of spinal cord injury? Fibrocartilaginous embolic myelopathy (FCEM) Intervertebral diskherniation (IVDH) Neoplastic compression Vascular accident
Intervertebral diskherniation (IVDH)
A patient exhibits signs of severe sympathetic blockade leading to flushing and increased skin temperature. What would be the recommended treatment for this condition? -Intravenous colloid fluid administration at a rate of 5 mL/kg for 1 hr -Intravenous colloid fluid administration at a rate of 20 mL/kg for 20 min -Intravenous crystalloid fluid administration at a rate of 5 mL/kg for 1 hr -Intravenous crystalloid fluid administration at a rate of 20 mL/kg for 20 min
Intravenous crystalloid fluid administration at a rate of 20 mL/kg for 20 min
Which is not an appropriate question when taking a patient's history, according to the AMPLE mnemonic? When was the patient's Last meal, urination/defecation, and medication? Does the animal have Allergies? Is the patient in any Pain? What Medications does this animal take regularly?
Is the patient in any Pain?
Which of the following is believed to be the least toxic inhalation agent? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Halothane Methoxyflurane
Isoflurane
Which is true in determining a patient's mean arterial pressure? It equals the systolic minus the diastolic pressure. It is the average pressure during the cardiac cycle. It is the minimum pressure maintained between contractions. It is the pressure against the arteries generated by ventricular contraction.
It is the average pressure during the cardiac cycle.
What may happen if acepromazine is given IV as a premedication in ruminants? It may cause recumbency. It may produce ataxia. It may increase regurgitation. It may increase saliva production.
It may increase regurgitation.
When using a double drip in ruminants, what drugs are commonly used? Ketamine and xylazine Ketamine and guaifenesin Diazepam and ketamine Acepromazine and xylazine
Ketamine and guaifenesin
Predisposition to which of the following conditions can contribute to difficulty in intubation of feline patients? Smaller body size Selection of different induction agents Laryngospasm Decreased visibility
Laryngospasm
"Your dog doesn't eat much food, does he?" This is an example of which type of question? Simple, direct question Question that can be answered with yes or no Leading question Open-ended question
Leading question
Which type of block is performed by inserting the needle into the tissue and gradually withdrawing the needle while injecting a small amount of local anesthetic? Splash block Ring block Epidural Line block
Line block
During the use of nitrous oxide as an anesthetic agent, which type of leak test(s) should be performed? Low-pressure test Low-pressure and high-pressure tests Negative-pressure test Negative-pressure and high-pressure tests
Low-pressure test X
Which provides direct therapy to reduce increased ICP and improve cerebral blood flow? Mannitol Meclizine DimenhydrinateMaropitant citrate Maropitant citrate
Mannitol
Which occurs most frequently? Maternal dystocia in dogs Maternal dystocia in cats Fetal dystocia in dogs Fetal dystocia in cats
Maternal dystocia in dogs
Which antiemetic is preferable for a patient who has uncontrolled hypotension? Acepromazine Chlorpromazine Metoclopramide Prochlorperazine
Metoclopramide
Which form of analgesic is preferred for constant rate infusion in a patient with chest trauma? Catecholamine Lidocaine Bupivacaine Morphine
Morphine
Which category of drug is most useful in dilating the pupil to allow the lens to fall behind the iris in anterior lens luxation? Mydriatics Antiinflammatories Antiinflammatories Anti-proteinase EDTA
Mydriatics
Which is a common antidote for acetaminophen toxicity? Ethanol Atropine Flumazenil N-acetylcysteine
N-acetylcysteine
Which is least important to include on an incoming patient whiteboard in the treatment room? Condition Patient name Estimated time of arrival Name and title of admitting staff member
Name and title of admitting staff member
An activated charcoal canister is least effective at removing which of the following anesthetics? Sevoflurane Isoflurane Nitrous oxide Methoxyflurane
Nitrous oxide
Which is not part of the five-tier Emergency Severity Index (ESI)? Emergent Nonurgent Resuscitation Nonemergent
Nonemergent
Which best describes micturition? Normal urination Straining to urinate Presence of blood in the urine Passing small amounts of urine frequently
Normal urination
The compressed air service delivers three green cylinders to your practice. What type of gas is in these tanks? CO2 O2 N2O Medical air
O2
Which is used to express the level of oxygen consumed in relation to DO2? SaO2 PaO2 OER DO2Crit
OER
During physical examination on small mammals and pocket pets, what is an alternative parameter that should be assessed to help evaluate overall health? Body weight Mentation Ocular/nares appearance Respiratory rate and pattern
Ocular/nares appearance
What is usually the only indication for peritoneal dialysis? Oliguria or anuria Metabolic acidosis Hyperphosphatemia Nonregenerative anemia
Oliguria or anuria
Where is the tag placed in a tag inventory system? On the lid of the box of supplies On the last item in each box or cabinet On the first item in each box or cabinet On a specific item whose use will indicate that reordering is needed
On the lid of the box of supplies X
How frequently should the abdominal dressing be evaluated on a patient with open abdominal drainage? Once a day 3 times per day Every 3 to 5 days Every 6 to 8 hours
Once a day X
"How much water does your pet drink per day?" would be an example of which type of question? Simple, direct question Question that can be answered with yes or no Leading question Open-ended question
Open-ended question
Which is considered the respiratory component of a blood gas? BE PaO2 HCO3 PaCO2
PaCO2
Which is considered a vital sign? Breathing Pain Airway Circulation
Pain
Which is the most likely diagnosis in a patient whose blood glucose is 20 mg/dL higher than the abdominal fluid glucose? Peritonitis Biliary tract leak Pancreatic disease Small intestinal disorder
Pancreatic disease X
A 4-year-old Holstein is in dystocia. What block would be used to allow the veterinarian to perform a cesarean section? Paravertebral block Cornual block Line block Intercostal block
Paravertebral block
Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed? Peripheral vasodilation Antiarrhythmic effect Penile prolapse Excitement
Peripheral vasodilation
The plasma concentrations of which of the following solutes must be kept in a very narrow range in order to maintain normal muscle and heart functions? Magnesium and calcium Sodium and magnesium Potassium and magnesium Potassium and calcium
Potassium and calcium
The use of preemptive analgesia is likely to: cause anthropomorphization. prevent "windup." include the "five freedoms." lead to increased morbidity and/or mortality.
Prevent "windup"
Which instrument estimates the saturation of hemoglobin and expresses it as a percentage of the total binding sites? Sphygmomanometer Photoplethysmograph Oscillometric monitor Pulse oximeter
Pulse oximeter
Caution should be used when interpreting which of the following parameters as it does not always correspond well with blood pressure measurements and it is a subjective measurement? Temperature Pulse strength CRT Heart rate
Pulse strength
Due to their tendency to hold their breath while stressed, premedication prior to chamber induction is recommended for which animal species? Rabbits Rats Mice Gerbils
Rabbits
The use of phenothiazines and benzodiazepines in small mammals, such as rodents and rabbits, often produces which of the following results? Sedation Immobilization Sedation with immobilization Complete anesthesia
Sedation
What constitutes a closed-loop communication technique? -Sender and receiver confirm accuracy of communication. -Communication travels a closed loop of team members only. -Circle or closed loop of communication is between practitioner and client only. -Confidentiality is legally binding and occurs between practitioner and client only.
Sender and receiver confirm accuracy of communication.
Which test can best help a practitioner tailor IV fluid volumes in a patient with traumatic hypovolemic shock? Arterial BP Electrocardiography Serial CVP measurements End-tidal CO2 monitoring
Serial CVP measurements
Which heart rhythm is created when the heart rate cyclically increases during inspiration and decreases during expiration? First-degree atrioventricular block Normal sinus rhythm Second-degree atrioventricular block Sinus arrhythmia
Sinus arrhythmia
A 6-month-old Labrador is being prepared for an ovarian hysterectomy. When given the anesthetic agent the animal becomes disorientated and begins struggling. This is indicative of which stage of anesthesia? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage I
A dog has been induced and begins to paddle its legs. Which stage of anesthesia is the dog at? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage II
There is a risk of cardiac arrhythmias or cardiac arrest due to epinephrine release making which stage a potentially hazardous stage of anesthesia for patients? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage II
A patient has flaccid muscle tone and widely dilated, unresponsive pupils. This patient would be at which stage of anesthesia? Stage I Stage II Stage III Stage IV
Stage IV
A kitten is born with the conjunctiva adhering to the lid and the eyeball. Which is the appropriate diagnosis? Ectropion Chalazion Cherry eye Symblepharon Ectropion
Symblepharon Ectropion X
Which of the following is a characteristic of stage 1 parturition? Expulsion of allantochorion Rupture of the chorioallantoic fluid Temperature drop of approximately 2° F (~1° C) Decrease in plasma progesterone levels to <2 ng/mL
Temperature drop of approximately 2° F (~1° C)
Which of the following agents should be used as a local anesthetic for ophthalmic cases? Lidocaine Tetracaine Bupivacaine Procaine
Tetracaine
Which of the following is necessary to acquiring a diagnostic ECG tracing during an anesthetic procedure? -The patient must be in right lateral recumbency. -The patient must be in left lateral recumbency. -The patient must be in dorsal recumbency. -The patient must be on a nonconductive surface.
The patient must be on a nonconductive surface.
After seeming to recover from an infection, a dog is brought to the clinic with a client complaint that "he's bleeding more" and presents at the clinic with a low platelet count, brought on by the infection itself. Which condition does this suggest? von Willebrand's disease Thrombocytopenia Thrombopathia Hemophilia
Thrombocytopenia
Which type of muzzle is usually preferred in treating a dog with a traumatic injury? -Tie or belt wrapped around the dog's muzzle -Standard professional muzzle that fits firmly over the bridge of the nose -Plastic muzzle with holes that covers entire nose and mouth -Soft blanket or large jacket to cover the animal's head
Tie or belt wrapped around the dog's muzzle X
Which of the following are two reasons it is necessary to monitor a patient undergoing an anesthetic procedure? To keep the patient safe and to protect the surgeon from liability To keep the patient safe and to regulate anesthetic depth To protect the patient from waking up during a procedure and to protect the surgeon from liability To prevent permanent brain damage and/or death
To keep the patient safe and to protect the surgeon from liability X
What is the purpose of administering the patient's own serum as an eye drop to treat a melting ulcer? To enable attachment of new epithelial cells To transpose cornea and sclera To stop all collagenic activity To debride the ulcer
To stop all collagenic activity
Etomidate is best defined as an: -ultrashort-acting nonbarbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects. -ultrashort-acting, controlled, nonbarbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects. -ultrashort-acting barbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects. -ultrashort-acting, controlled, barbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
Ultrashort-acting nonbarbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects
In diagnosing pyometra, which test is used to differentiate the disease from pregnancy or hydrometra? -Bloodwork -Radiography -Ultrasonography -Blood gases and electrolytes
Ultrasonography X
Which surgery is most often recommended for laryngeal paralysis? Unilateral arytenoid lateralization Internal rib fixation Thoracentesis Thoracotomy
Unilateral arytenoid lateralization
Which of the following is the most easily obtained diagnostic tests in small mammals and rodents? Blood work Urinalysis Radiographs Sonography
Urinalysis
The use of morphine administered through an epidural route is most likely to illicit which adverse effect? Excitement Respiratory depression Urine retention Sedation
Urine retention
What is the first response to blood vessel injury in primary hemostasis? Procoagulant secretion Platelet adhesion Platelet activation Vasoconstriction
Vasoconstriction
In treating hypothermia, the core should be warmed because warming the periphery leads to Narrowed blood vessels Vasodilation Reduced blood flow Core hyperthermia
Vasodilation X
Which drug's strong a-adrenergic properties cause arterial vasoconstriction? Lidocaine Vasopressin Epinephrine Atropine
Vasopressin X
What is commonly incorporated into a large animal anesthetic machine? -Non-rebreathing circuit -Ventilator -Suction system -2-L bag
Ventilator
Compressed gas cylinders should always be stored in which position? Horizontal and unchained/unbelted Vertical and unchained/unbelted Horizontal and chained/belted Vertical and chained/belted
Vertical and chained/belted
The use of alpha2-adrenoreceptor-agonists in small mammals typically does not produce which of the following side effects? Hyperglycemia Respiratory depression Cardiovascular depression Vomiting
Vomiting
If the veterinarian suspects that a patient has liver disease, what color would you expect blood serum to be after centrifugation? Yellow White Clear Red
Yellow
Doxapram is best categorized as an: alpha2-antagonist. analeptic agent. alpha2-agonist. opioid antagonist.
analeptic agent
Which response is avoided in an animal struggling to breathe? Bandage any tracheal laceration anesthesia and intubation Transtracheal or nasotracheal O2 Awake tracheostomy
anesthesia and intubation X
Proper handling and use of alfaxalone and propofol include: refrigeration. subcutaneous injection as a premedication. intramuscular injection as a CRI. antiseptic technique.
antiseptic technique.
A reversible partial collapse of the alveoli that can occur in an anesthetized patient is called: hypoxia. atelectasis. tachypnea. hypercapnia.
atelectasis.
A dog has been induced with an anesthetic agent and shows signs of the loss of spontaneous muscle movement. This animal is: between Stage I and Stage II. between Stage II and Stage III. between Stage III and Stage IV. just entering Stage I.
between Stage II and Stage III.
In regard to opioids, pure agonists are known to: -partially stimulate the opioid receptors. -not stimulate the mu receptors; they only stimulate the kappa receptors. -bind to and stimulate the mu or kappa receptors. -bind to but not stimulate mu or kappa receptors.
bind to and stimulate the mu or kappa receptors. X
Lidocaine is commonly combined with which other local anesthetic drug to increase duration of action? Tetracaine Bupivacaine Proparacaine Benzocaine
bupivicaine
In an emergency, which is the preferred treatment for severe hypocalcemia? -Calcium gluconate -Phosphate enema -Calcium chloride -Vitamin D
calcium chloride X
When halogenated agents are exposed to desiccated carbon dioxide absorbent, the results include: carbon dioxide production. carbon monoxide production. oxygen production. water production.
carbon monoxide production.
Which of the other opioid drugs is 10,000 times more potent than morphine & would kill a human almost instantaneously if accidentally injected? carfentanil methadone loperamide apomorphine
carfentanil
The NSAID that acts as a potent analgesic for both somatic and visceral pain is: carprofen. acetylsalicylic acid. butorphanol. tramadol.
carprofen.
Perception of pain takes place in the: spinal cord. cerebral cortex. sensory nerves. nociceptors.
cerebral cortex.
All of the following benzodiazepines are commonly used in the treatment of behavior disorders EXCEPT: alprazolam midazolam chlorazepate lorazepam
chlorazepate X
The primary function of a scavenging system is to: provide a professionally installed ASA regulatory system. collect waste gas from the machine in order for exact analysis. deliver halogenated anesthetic agents. collect waste gas from the machine and conduct it to a disposal point outside the building.
collect waste gas from the machine and conduct it to a disposal point outside the building.
An accidental hematoma from unsuccessful jugular catheterization in a camelid may cause: nasal congestion. epistaxis. compression of the trachea. bloat.
compression of the trachea.
The first anesthetic agent used successfully in a tumor removal surgery as a means of creating a state of insensibility and pain relief was: chloroform diethyl ether nitrous oxide halothane
diethyl ether
While monitoring a feline patient being treated for urinary obstruction, bradycardia is noted. The most likely source given the patient's condition is: electrolyte and/or acid-base disturbance. use of anticholinergics. use of flow-by oxygen. hyperthermia.
electrolyte and/or acid-base disturbance.
Which drug is preferred for the treatment of supraventricular arrhythmias? Atropine Propranolol epinephrine Calcium gluconate
epinephrine X
A standard ECG machine records the electrical impulses of the heart muscle using __ different leads. three four six eight
four
The most common adverse side effect secondary to morphine administration is likely to be: histamine release. gastrointestinal upset. respiratory depression. excitement.
gastrointestinal upset.
In the presence of DKA, which perceived deficiency initiates lipolysis? Ketones Glucose Catecholamine Growth hormone
glucose
When positioning a horse in lateral recumbency, it is important to: -always place the animal in left recumbency. -always place the animal in right recumbency. -have the front limb closest to the table pulled back. -have the front limb closest to the table pulled forward.
have the front limb closest to the table pulled forward.
Which factor in systolic function is multiplied by stroke volume to determine the volume of blood pumped in 1 minute (i.e., cardiac output)? Preload Afterload Heart rate Contractility
heart rate
Caution should be taken with rapid intravenous injection of morphine in canine patients due to the potential for: histamine release. locomotor activity. dysphoria. restlessness.
histamine release.
Failure to prevent a patient from inhaling excessive levels of CO2 is likely to result in: -opisthotonus. -physiologic anemia. -pleural effusion. -hypercapnia.
hypercapnia.
Drugs that have the ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone are characterized as: disruptive anesthetics. injectable anesthetics. reversible anesthetics. induction anesthetics.
injectable anesthetics.
The most commonly utilized dissociative anesthetic in veterinary medicine is: morphine. sevoflurane. phencyclidine. ketamine.
ketamine.
Bradycardia secondary to vagal stimulation is unlikely to occur during: endotracheal intubation. ocular surgery. manipulation of viscera. manipulation of femur.
manipulation of femur.
Nonpharmacologic analgesic therapies that can be used to manage both acute and chronic pain include: -massage therapy. -topical anesthetics. -NSAIDs. -NMDA agonists.
massage therapy.
The patient's blood pH is elevated to 7.47 but has a normal PaCO2 level, which indicates the patient has: metabolic alkalosis. metabolic acidosis. hypoxemia. hyperventilation.
metabolic alkalosis.
Stimulation of which of the following opioid receptors provides the best analgesia for our patients? mu receptors kappa receptors delta receptors sigma receptors
mu receptors
The concept of utilization of pain management therapies to target two or more receptors is: primary hyperalgesia. mediators. secondary hyperalgesia. multimodal therapy.
multimodal therapy.
Stridor can be best defined as: noisy respirations. pooling of blood in the dependent lung and tissues. the area responsible for maintaining consciousness in the awake animal. the postanesthetic period.
noisy respirations.
The reduced anesthetic requirements for geriatric patients are typically not related to: decreased ability to thermoregulate. normohydration. decreased hepatic function. decreased renal function.
normohydration.
When collecting information from a client regarding a patient's history, it is best to ask: -simple, direct questions -questions that can be answered with yes or no -leading questions -open-ended questions
open-ended questions
Aversive sensory and emotional experience that elicits protective motor actions, results in learned avoidance, and may modify species-specific behavior traits, including social behavior, is best known as: modulation. distress. pain. nociception.
pain
The term "fourth vital sign" refers to: temperature. pulse. respiration. pain.
pain
The abnormal sensation of tingling, pain, or irritation that may occur from local anesthesia is: paresis. paresthesia. paralysis. cauda equina.
paresthesia.
The minimum database consists of the following: patient history and signalment, patient's name, complete physical examination findings, and the results of the preanesthetic diagnostic workups patient history and signalment, owner's income, and complete physical examination findings patient history and signalment, complete physical examination findings, and results of the preanesthetic diagnostic workups patient name, gender, and complete physical examination findings
patient history and signalment, complete physical examination findings, and results of the preanesthetic diagnostic workups
Which of the following is optional when obtaining a minimum laboratory database for a patient? -Blood glucose -PCV -Total solids -Hematocrit
pcv X
Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly seen in: cats. dogs. guinea pigs. pigs.
pigs
Perioperative analgesia is the concurrent use of: -preemptive analgesia and pain assessment. -pain assessment and multimodal therapy. -pharmacologic analgesia therapy and pain assessment. -preemptive analgesia and multimodal therapy.
preemptive analgesia and multimodal therapy.
Administration of anesthetic agents and adjuncts to calm and prepare the patient for anesthetic induction is known as: premedication. induction. intubation. titration.
premedication
Which of the following induction drugs is effective in ruminants but is usually only used on small ruminants and camelids as it is not economical to use on adult cattle? Xylazine Diazepam Ketamine Propofol
propofol
The term REL refers to: reactive exposure limit. relative exposure limit. recommended exposure limit. redistributed exposure limit.
recommended exposure limit.
Which factor is a measure of how much the ventricle is stretched at the end of diastole? Preload Heart rate Afterload Contractility
reload
Transmission of pain takes place in the: spinal cord. cerebral cortex. sensory nerves. nociceptors.
sensory nerves.
A complete signalment includes: species, breed, age, coloring, and reproductive status species, temperament, coloring, and reproductive status species, breed, age, sex, and reproductive status breed, age, markings, and sex
species, breed, age, sex, and reproductive status
Vapor pressure is best defined as: -the amount of pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance when the gas and liquid states are in equilibrium. -both agent and temperature dependent. -how readily the liquid condenses in the anesthetic machine. -the causative agent for use of a precision vaporizer.
the amount of pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance when the gas and liquid states are in equilibrium.
The main anesthetic risk in ruminants is due to: their unique respiratory system. their unique digestive anatomy and physiology. their overall large size. their calm demeanor.
their unique digestive anatomy and physiology.
Anticholinergics should not be used in ruminants because: -they decrease saliva production and make intubation difficult. -they do not decrease saliva but make it thick and ropy, increasing the risk of aspiration. -they can lead to anaphylactic shock in ruminants. -they have no effect and are not economical.
they do not decrease saliva but make it thick and ropy, increasing the risk of aspiration.
The ECG tracing shows a chaotic tracing with an irregular baseline and no recognizable QRS complexes. This patient is in: ventricular premature complex. atrial fibrillation. ventricular fibrillation. third-degree AV block.
third-degree AV block. X
In the blood-brain barrier, capillaries in the brain have tight junctions that prevent the passage of particles that are: Too small Uncharged Water soluble Unbound to plasma proteins
too small X
Anticonvulsant therapy is always initiated as soon as possible after the first seizure episode false true
true
Dissociative anesthetic drugs like ketamine should be combined with other drug classes to combat the severe hallucinogenic and skeletal muscle effects of the dissociative drug true false
true
The loading dose of a medication is intended to quickly achieve therapeutic drug concentrations of drug in the blood & is larger than the normal dose true false
true
The opioid drug butorphanol can be administered sub-lingually in cats and absorbs through the mucous membranes true false
true
The reversal drug for dexmedetomidine is atipamezole true false
true
The term referring to variables that indicate the response of the animal's homeostatic mechanisms to anesthesia is: reflex. anesthetic depth. vital signs. muscle tone.
vital signs.
Which is most effective for resuscitation for a patient in shock from blood loss? Interstitial crystalloids Synthetic colloids Whole blood Hydroxyethyl starch combination
whole blood