AP- Final (22 and 23)
After the age of 30, the adult loses about ___ % of their functional capacity each year.
0.8. It is estimated that degeneration occurs after age 30 when about 0.8% of their functional capabilities is lost each year.
When do the corona radiata cells appear?
12 days. The corona radiata is the group of follicular cells that becomes attached to the zona pellucida around 10-14 days into a cycle.
How many oocytes are there in the ovaries of an adult?
400,000. Only around 400,000 oocytes remain in an adult because of atrophy of some of the primordial follicles and lack or replacement.
Infertility could develop when the sperm cells display
A count of less than 20 million per ml semen. Many sperm cells are required to increase the probability of fertilization; less than 20 million cells seems to be inadequate since an average ejaculation contains 120 million cells per cc (ml) of semen.
Of every 100 secondary oocytes that are exposed to sperm, how many infants are actually born live?
About 31. Upon exposure to sperm, only about 31 live births occur.
How many mature, functional follicles will a female produce in a lifetime?
About 400. At one per month for about 35 reproductive years, 35 x 12 = 420; minus any pregnant time.
The premature separation of the placenta is
Abruptio placentae. During pregnancy, the placenta may begin to prematurely separate from the uterine wall triggered by many factors including trauma or drugs.
Which sperm structure contains enzymes that help penetrate ova?
Acrosome. The acrosome is filled with hyaluronidase.
Aging appears to result from each of these causes except
Adequate nutrition and exercise. This will stall aging.
What is the biological definition of human adulthood?
Adolescence to old age. An adolescent is reproductively mature, and therefore is considered an adult.
At what age do age-related degenerative changes begin in most adults?
Age 30. "Aging" actually begins around 30.
Which extraembryonic membrane encloses the embryo in a fluid filled cavity?
Amnion. The amnion sac, or amnion surrounds the developing offspring. Which membrane plays the greatest role in nutrient and wastes exchanges? Chorion. The chorion is part of the placenta.
The end of the vas deferens is a dilated sac called the
Ampulla. The ampulla is the dilated termination of the vas deferens as it courses behind the bladder.
The ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the pulmonary trunk to the
Aorta. The ductus arteriosus is a shunt lung bypass between the pulmonary trunk and the aorta.
The structure which implants in the endometrium is correctly termed a
Blastocyst. The stage of development at implantation is the blastocyst.
Which of the following is NOT compatible with penile erection?
Blood leaves erectile tissue. Blood enters the erectile corpora tissue in the penis; stimulation is a parasympathetic event but orgasm is sympathetic.
The constriction of ductus arteriosus is related most likely to
Bradykinin. Bradykinins are chemicals secreted by the lungs during the first expansion which has a vasoconstrictive effective on the ductus arteriosus; bradykinin is produced under high oxygen tension.
All of these arise from mesoderm except which one?
Brain. The ectoderm primary germ layer has cells that differentiate into the brain.
The largest ovarian ligament is the _____ ligament.
Broad. The broad ligament is a fold of the peritoneum that is attached to the ovaries, uterine tubes and uterus.
The superior region of the vagina is the
Cervix. The cervix of the uterus protrudes into the superior end of the vagina; the area has spaces that surround the cervix called fornices.
Which sexually transmitted disease is also associated with pelvic inflammatory disease and sterility in females?
Chlamydia infection. Chlamydia spreads internally causing extreme pain.
The portion of the placenta contributed by the embryo is the
Chorion. The chorion becomes the fetal portion of the placenta.
In which process do the cells become progressively smaller?
Cleavage. Cell division takes place so rapidly during cleavage that the cells do not grow between divisions.
The urethra passes through the ____ of the penis.
Corpora spongiosum. The single corpora spongiosum surrounds the penile urethra; the prepuce is the foreskin.
Where is the majority of progesterone produced?
Corpus luteum. After ovulation, the Graafian follicle becomes the corpus luteum which then produces high amounts of progesterone.
Which structure is formed following ovulation?
Corpus luteum. Follicular cells that remain in the ovary form the corpus luteum.
Which of the following is NOT part of the clitoris?
Corpus spongiosum. The clitoris is the analog to the penis but does not contain the urethra and corpus spongiosum around it.
The female Bartholin glands correspond to the male
Cowper's. The male Cowper's glands and female Bartholin glands are vestibular, mucus-secreting glands that are more extensive in the female.
The failure of a testes to descend is referred to as
Cryptorchidism. Failure of the testes to descend or cryptorchidism may result in sterility.
Which of these is a maternal component?
Decidua basalis. The decidua basalis is the portion of the endometrium that is associated with the chorionic villi.
Which of these is NOT a function of estrogen?
Decreases adipose. Estrogens not only increase blood flow and sex development but seem to favor the deposition of adipose tissue.
What normally inhibits testosterone production?
Decreasing ICSH. Testosterone controls its own levels by a feedback pattern that causes a decrease in hypothalamic GnRH and ICSH in response to rising testosterone levels, and increases ICSH with low levels.
Testosterone is converted to _____ in the prostate.
Dihydrotestosterone. Testosterone is converted to derivatives such as dihydrotestosterone in the prostate, seminal vesicle or penis.
Which of the following is true of blastomeres?
Divide by cleavage. The blastomere is a relatively undifferentiated cell that results from cleavage in the zygote to blastocyst stages.
Within the fetus, much of the circulating blood bypasses the lungs and flows through the
Ductus arteriosus. The ductus arteriosus shunts blood from the pulmonary trunk to the aorta.
The ligamentum venosum is the remnant of the
Ductus venosus. The ductus venosus in the liver atrophies into the closed ligamentum venosum.
Within the female ovary, primordial follicles begin their development
During prenatal development. Female germ cells originate prior to birth.
When will the embryo take on a human appearance?
Eighth week. Human structures become evident and differentiated by the eighth week; prior to this time the embryo passes through stages that seem to resemble other mammals.
The embryonic period lasts from the second week through _____ week.
Eighth. The embryonic period begins when two distinct cell layers form and proceeds until around the eighth week when differentiation ends.
Epithelial linings of the digestive tract, respiratory tract, urinary bladder, and urethra all form the ____ layer of the gastrula.
Endoderm. Linings of passageways with an external connection come from endoderm.
What are experiences the greatest changes in a menstrual cycle?
Endometrium. The endometrium is the inner mucous lining of the uterus that changes drastically during a cycle and bleeds at the end.
Where do sperm cells attain fertilization competence and motility?
Epididymis. The sperm cells are produced in the seminiferous tubules but must progress to the epididymis outside the testis to gain maturity and motility capabilities.
Which of the following is NOT able to freely cross the placental membrane?
Erythrocytes. Many substances freely pass through the placental barrier except through red blood cells and certain antibodies or proteins.
Which hormone thickens the lining of the uterus?
Estrogen. Estrogen is an anabolic steroid that directly stimulates the mitosis and growth of the endometrium (proliferation).
Which hormone is produced throughout a menstrual cycle?
Estrogen. Estrogens by all of the follicles including the corpus luteum.
Which of the following is a steroid?
Estrogen. The hormones such as FSH are gonadotropins that target the ovary causing it to produce its steroids; FSH and LH are peptides.
Which hormone stimulates the secondary sex organs?
Estrogen. The purpose of FSH and LH is to prepare the ovary to produce its estrogens which will then target secondary sex organs.
Which factor will inhibit the secretion of estrogens?
Estrogens. Rising levels of estrogens cause an inhibition of FSH production by negative feedback.
Which of the following is the most accurate sequence of hormones?
FSH, estrogen, LH, progesterone. FSH stimulates estrogen secretion during the first half of a cycle; LH then causes an increase in progesterone during the second half.
The ossification of the skull is completed by full term.
False. Although much of the skull is ossified, it will not become complete until several months after birth.
The human life span and life expectancy have both increased in the last one thousand years.
False. Although the life expectancy has generally increased for the total population because of technology and medical care, the theoretical point of death has not increased.
Childhood typically ends when the person is six years of age.
False. Childhood is the period form one year to the time of puberty and is therefore variable, but usually falls between one year and 11 years.
Senescence usually ends in death because of neurological changes and degeneration.
False. Death usually results from failures and degenerative changes in the cardiovascular system; a person may have brain death but still remain alive.
Dizygotic twins share the same placenta.
False. Dizygotic twins result from the separate fertilization of two oocytes and a not identical (fraternal twins); monozygotic twins resulted from a single egg and are identical.
Emission is the release of semen from the body during the process of orgasm.
False. Emission refers to the movement of sperm cells caused by peristaltic smooth muscle waves through the ducts; ejaculation is the forceful ejection of semen from the body during orgasm and is facilitated by penile skeletal muscle bands.
For most women who decide to breastfeed, it will be easier to become pregnant during the first month after delivery than it will be one year later.
False. Especially if the woman breastfeeds, hormones such as FSH are suppressed during the first few months after delivery, preventing the resumption of normal cycles.
Female athletes usually experience menstrual cycles with excessive loss of blood.
False. Female athletes usually display a drop in estrogen levels that leads to decreases in menstrual bleeding or oligomenorrhea, even cessation or amenorrhea.
Females produce hundreds of oocytes each month in comparison to the millions of sperm cells produced in the same age male.
False. Females only produce around 450 secondary oocytes in their lifetime; only about one is produced monthly.
The ovarian follicle cells will develop into the oocytes each month.
False. Follicular cells support the oocytes, which are present before birth.
The amount of elastic fibers increases during the aging process causing the lung tissue to regress and constrict.
False. In aging, the amount of elastic tissue in the lungs deceases making it more difficult to exhale, from the loss of elastic recoil.
Postpartum meconium refers to the discharge of fluid from the skin or lungs.
False. Meconium is the first fecal discharge of a newborn before food or milk has been ingested.
Meiosis is defined as the process by which sperm cells give rise to four daughter cells each.
False. Meiosis is the splitting of the nucleus.
Older persons require fewer calories and can survive well on small portion of food.
False. Older persons require less calories but still require an adequate intake of vitamins, minerals, and other essential nutrients which may not be present in a typical small portion of food.
Sperm cells die immediately when they are released from the body and are placed in a petri plate.
False. Sperm cells can remain viable for several days outside of the body and several years if frozen at -100 degrees C.
Spermicidal foams and creams are an effective means of contraception.
False. Spermicidal contraceptives are effective when used with another method such as the insertion of a diaphragm.
Testosterone injections are used to treat prostate cancer.
False. Testosterone seems to stimulate the growth of cancerous tissue while administration of female hormones such as estrogens inhibit cancer, in the male.
The inner cell mass of the blastocyst will become the extraembryonic membranes and part of placenta.
False. The ICM becomes the embryo proper.
The testes in the male and ovaries in the female can both be found in the pelvic cavity of an early fetus.
False. The cells that become the gonads originate in the abdominal cavity near the kidney.
Collagen synthesis decreases with age and the collagen molecules become soft and degenerated.
False. The collagen fibers actually form cross-links and become stiffer and less flexible, contributing to the dysfunctions seen in the elderly.
In a pregnancy, the corpus luteum will last from 3 to 6 months.
False. The corpus luteum last a maximum of about 3 months.
The cortical granules of the ovum membrane cause the increase in sperm acrosomal activity and penetration.
False. The cortical granules actually have a lysosomal-like activity that cause the zona pellucida to harden, preventing penetration by another sperm.
Because of the ductus arteriosus, greater amounts of oxygenated blood can travel to the brain.
False. The ductus arteriosus is connected to the descending portion of the aortic arch past the branching of the arteries that convey blood to the vein.
All of the fetal veins contain deoxygenated blood.
False. The ductus venosus contains highly oxygenated blood from the placenta.
Cleavage is an early process of division that causes an increase in the size of the embryo.
False. The early stages of zygote division are called cleavage periods and do not increase the size of the mass.
The epididymis is a coiled tubule in the testes that stores sperm cells.
False. The epididymis is external to the testes.
The first female menstrual cycle is called thelarche.
False. The first cycle is menarche and the last occurs in menopause; thelarche is early breast development.
The kidneys of a neonate are immature and therefore do not excrete large amounts of water.
False. The kidneys are immature and do not excrete large amounts of electrolytes and thus produce dilute urine increasing the chances for dehydration.
The ovarian medulla contains cells that will differentiate into oocytes.
False. The ovarian outer cortex layer contains the primitive oocytes and the medulla is comprised of blood vessels and nerves.
The ligamentum arteriosum forms in the neonate as a remnant of the ductus arteriosus.
False. The process of scar formation in the replacement of the ductus arteriosus requires several months to complete; the term ligamentum arteriosum is more appropriate in an adult heart.
The dartos muscle assists sperm development by helping maintain a testes temperature close to 98.6o F.
False. The purpose of the smooth muscles in and outside the testis is to help maintain a scrotal temperature below that of the body.
The outer layer of an ovary is similar to the tunica albuginea outer testis layer.
False. The tunica albuginea is made of tough white fibrous connective tissue while the outer layer of the ovary is a thin layer of soft germinal epithelial cells.
The umbilical cord contains maternal and fetal components.
False. The umbilical cord is derived from the embryonic stalk, but the placenta has both maternal and fetal components.
The vagina is anterior to the bladder and posterior to the rectum.
False. The vagina is posterior to the urinary bladder and anterior to the rectum.
The vas deferens connects to the urethra at the base of the penis.
False. The vas deferens connects to the ejaculatory duct, not the urethra, at the prostate.
All of the muscle associated with the vagina is involuntary and smooth.
False. There is a ring of skeletal, voluntary muscle that surrounds the opening called the bulbospongiosus; there are several skeletal muscles around, but not in, the vagina.
Perinatology is a branch of medicine that studies
Fetus and neonate. The domain of perinatology is the 24 week fetus through the first four weeks after birth.
What is the first structure to receive the oocyte?
Fimbriae. The oocyte enters the fimbriae border of the infundibulum of the uterine tubes.
When is a developing individual most susceptible to genetic birth defects from smoking?
First trimester. The first trimester is the most critical time period in all of development.
When is the most hemoglobin of the adult type?
Four months. The fetal hemoglobin has been replaced by adult hemoglobin by the fourth month.
The chemical theory of aging involves the formation of
Free radicals. Free radicals are highly reactive atoms such as H or O that are produced during metabolic reactions; since they combine randomly with anything, they can cause random DNA mutations.
The superior portion of the uterus is the
Fundus. The fundus is the upper dome of the body of the uterus that will expand during pregnancy; the infundibulum is the funnel shaped part of the uterine tube.
Which hormone initiates the changes in puberty?
GnRH. Gonadotropin releasing hormone from the hypothalamus is the first to initiate the sequence of pituitary hormone releases.
A number of hormonal secretions begin to increase during puberty. Which hormone appears to initiate the process of puberty?
Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). The hypothalamus controls the other glands.
What is the term for the primary human sex organs?
Gonads. Gonads mean testes or ovaries.
The mature follicle is also called a
Graafian follicle. The Graafian follicle is the mature follicle prior to ovulation; the granulosa cells are the early cells that surround an oocyte.
What normally prevents the expulsion of an embryo by a menstrual flow?
HCG. HCG causes the corpus luteum to remain, which in turns secretes progesterone thus preventing menses.
What portion of the sperm cell contains the twenty-three chromosomes?
Head. The head of the sperm is analogous to the nucleus.
In the process of in vitro fertilization, the woman is given ______ to induce follicle development.
Human menopausal gonadotropin. HMG or related compounds will stimulate the ovary to produce follicles; HCG is then used to induce ovulation.
Which of the following is NOT a result of menopause?
Increase in calcium deposition. The reduction in steroids causes a decrease in many sexual organs, but also decreases bone calcium deposition leading to the development of osteoporosis.
The reason why blood no longer passes through the foramen ovale, is initially explained by the
Increase in left atrial pressure. The increase in let atrial pressure during inspiration causes the septum primum valve to close to the foramen ovale.
What is a major cause of death in less-developed countries?
Infections. Implantation occurs after ovulation, which means the uterus is in the secretory phase.
The umbilical arteries are branches of the
Internal iliac arteries. The internal iliac arteries or hypogastric arteries give rise to the two umbilical arteries that will travel towards the placenta.
The target of ICSH is the
Interstitial cells. ICSH (LH) is the gonadotropin called interstitial cell stimulating hormone because it causes these cells to produce their sex hormones or androgens.
What is the source of the male sex hormones?
Interstitial cells. The interstitial cells of Leydig occur outside the seminiferous tubules and secrete the androgens such as testosterone.
Which of these is NOT true of implantation?
Is in the uterine tube. The trophoblast of the blastocyst embeds itself within the endometrium of the uterus.
Many changes occur in the newborn infant as it adapts to a life apart from its mother. What happens to the umbilical vein?
It closes off to become the ligamentum teres. The umbilical vein remains as a ligament attached to the liver.
Which factor causes the act of ovulation?
LH levels. It is the surge in LH at the middle of a cycle that causes the antrum to rupture and release the oocyte.
What structure corresponds to the scrotum in the male?
Labia major. The labia major are the folds of skin, adipose and smooth muscle that border the pudendal cleft.
The foramen ovale allows blood from the right atrium to enter the
Left atrium. The fetal interatrial wall is incomplete and has an opening called the foramen ovale.
In the first days of life, what is the primary source of energy?
Lipid. The infant must utilize its stored lipids for energy because of the inability to produce sufficient milk by the mother until about three days.
Which of these is NOT a function of testosterone?
Loss of body hair. The steroid testosterone has many anabolic effects; loss of scalp hair has been associated with testosterone but general body hair is stimulated.
Ovulation appears to be triggered by a midcycle surge in
Luteinizing hormone. LH levels peak just prior to ovulation.
What is the major cell process in the fetus?
Mitosis. Differentiation has ended with the onset of the fetus and all growth processes are mitotic in nature.
Which of these is the first to develop?
Morula. The morula is the early ball of cells that will become the blastocyst.
The largest component of the uterus by weight is the
Myometrium. The myometrium is the thick smooth muscle layer of the uterus; the broad ligament is wider but lighter.
Which of these is NOT a significant factor explaining what causes the first breath of life?
Neonatal adrenalin. The initiation of breathing occurs from stimulation of the brain stem; epinephrine is produced and rises because of the stress of delivery and is important for increasing the ability of the lungs to expand.
The period immediately after birth to four weeks of age is called the _____ period.
Neonatal. The first month of extrauterine life is the neonatal period.
The result of oogenesis is
One secondary oocyte. Spermatogenesis produces four spermatozoa for every parent cell but oogenesis produces only one secondary oocyte because of the loss of cells called polar bodies from unequal meiosis.
During ovulation, the oocyte passes into the
Pelvic cavity. Following release from the ovary, the oocyte first enters the pelvic cavity fluid around the ovary; it is then drawn into the uterine tubes.
The outer serosal layer of the uterus is the
Perimetrium. The perimetrium is the outer layer of the uterus that is continuous with the ligaments.
Which of the following is NOT a source of estrogen?
Pituitary. Estrogens are produced by the adrenal gland and ovary; the pituitary does not synthesize steroids.
What prevents the maternal and embryonic blood cells from mixing?
Placental membrane. The placental membrane is a layer of epithelial cells that separates the villi from the maternal endometrium.
What is the purpose of polar bodies during oogenesis?
Polar bodies serve both as a dumping ground for extra sets of chromosomes and ensure that the ovum will have most of the cytoplasm. Polar bodies are "waste".
Which hormone prevents a second pregnancy during gestation?
Progesterone. High progesterone levels prevent the start of another reproductive cycle.
Which hormone causes the uterus to increase glycogen?
Progesterone. Progesterone stimulates the increase in lipids and glycogen in the endometrium necessary to insure implantation of the embryo.
What factor will inhibit LH secretion?
Progesterone. Rising levels of progesterone act on the hypothalamus to inhibit production of LH by negative feedback.
Which male accessory gland lies inferior to the urinary bladder and surrounds the urethra like a donut?
Prostate gland. The prostate surrounds the urethra.
Which of the following has no homolog in the female?
Prostate. There is no prostate homolog structure in the female; the penis is related to the clitoris and there are well developed bulbourethral glands in the female; the scrotum compares to the labia.
Large amounts of blood do NOT enter the fetal lungs because their
Resistance is high. The resistance to blood flow in the fetal lungs is higher than the right ventricle blood flow pressure which cannot overcome the resistance to any great extent.
Which function is most critical in the neonate?
Respiratory. During the first month of life, the exchange of gases is critical; the liver is one of the last organs to mature.
Where do the testes originate in a fetus?
Retroperitoneal space. The testes begin their descent from an area behind the parietal peritoneum near the kidneys (retroperitoneal).
When does the amnion first appear?
Second week. The rudimentary amnion appears in the second week and becomes fluid-filled.
Which cell has been fertilized by a sperm cell?
Secondary oocyte. The oogonia develop into oocytes; the secondary oocyte completes its meiosis only when it is fertilized and becomes the ovum.
During ovulation, a ______ is released from the ovary.
Secondary oocyte. The secondary oocyte is released during ovulation.
During spermatogenesis, which stage is the first to be haploid in number of chromosomes?
Secondary spermatocyte. The secondary spermatocyte is haploid.
The main function of the prostate seems to be
Secretion of alkaline mucous. The alkaline mucus is required to neutralize the acidity in the sperm fluids and vaginal tract; sperm viability requires an alkaline pH.
Which term includes the other terms?
Semen. Semen is the collective term for all of the components including the sperm cells and the alkaline pH, mucus and fructose.
The ejaculatory duct is the union of the vas deferens and
Seminal vesicle. Each vas deferens enters the prostate and merges with the seminal vesicle ducts to form the ejaculatory ducts.
The substrate used for sperm metabolism is produced by the
Seminal vesicle. The seminal vesicles produce a secretion rich in fructose which is used for sperm cell metabolism to provide energy.
Males have a number of internal accessory organs. Which one is responsible for secreting fluid containing fructose and prostaglandins?
Seminal vesicles. Seminal vesicles make fructose and prostaglandins.
The target of FSH is the
Seminiferous tubule. Follicle stimulating hormone is needed to stimulate sperm cell development and spermatogenesis in the seminiferous tubules.
Spermatogenesis is a function of the
Seminiferous tubule. The thin seminiferous tubules are within the testis and are lined with germinal epithelial cells.
Testicular cancer usually arises from the
Seminiferous tubules. Abnormal cell division can occur in the seminiferous tubules causing a serious cancer that may warrant orchiectomy.
The shedding and bleeding of the decidua during menses is directly caused by low levels of
Sex steroids. Low levels of estrogens and progesterone cause the decidua or uterine lining to die from the lack of stimulation, resulting in menses and bleeding.
Which cells are the earliest in the male sequence of sperm production?
Spermatogonia. Spermatogonia are male stem cells.
The main factor that may NOT allow a 24 week fetus to survive independently is the
Surfactant. Surfactant is the lipid in the lungs that prevents collapse and allows the fetus to breathe; premature infants often lack this ability and must be sustained artificially until their surfactant is sufficient.
Which factor favors spermatozoa development?
Temperature of 34 degrees Celsius. Spermatozoa mature best below body temperature.
Which of the following is NOT true at full term?
Testes begin to descend. The testes begins to descend around the eight month but may not be completed until after birth.
Which layer of the uterus is shed once monthly during menstruation?
The endometrium. The internal layer of the uterus is the endometrium.
When does bone start to replace cartilage?
Third month. Endochondral ossification and intramembranous ossification begin around week 10.
When is it first possible to distinguish the sex of a fetus?
Third month. The sex of the fetus begins differentiation around week 8 or 9.
A sudden increase in uterine size could indicate the development of a hydatid mole.
True. A hydatid mole or cyst is an abnormal growth of chorionic tissue that might be excessive enough to replace the fetus and even mimic pregnancy.
Endometriosis is the increase in uterine tissue which causes excessive bleeding and possible infertility.
True. Endometriosis is the growth of excess endometrium which can spread into the uterine tubes, vagina, or pelvic cavity; fertilization becomes more difficult, but the condition is sometimes cured with a pregnancy.
Estrogen stimulates fat deposition and duct development in the breasts.
True. Estrogen develops the ducts of the mammary gland while progesterone stimulates the alveolar milk producing glands.
Heart failure is a common form of death in first neonatal month.
True. Failure of the ductus arteriosus to collapse will result in a deficiency of oxygen to the heart relative to a high demand.
Females are taller and stronger than males when they are both in early adolescence.
True. Females reach a peak earlier than males, but males develop a growth spurt in late adolescence that causes them to exceed female size and strength.
Amniocentesis is a technique for examining genetics of fetal skin cells.
True. In amniocentesis, a needle is inserted into the amniotic cavity and fluid withdrawn; the fluid generally contains cells that have been sloughed off and can be used for microscopic and genetic studies to screen for possible defects.
The hormone inhibin acts to decrease the production of FSH.
True. Inhibin is produced by the corpus luteum and causes an inhibition of FSH therefore prevents the development of another follicle prematurely.
A mammogram can be used to screen for but not diagnose breast cancer.
True. Mammograms are X-ray photographs of breast tissue and can visualize lumps and changes, but a positive diagnosis of cancer depends upon blood tests and tissue examinations.
The study of abnormal fetal development is teratology.
True. Many factors could cause birth defects and deformities; the study of these is called teratology.
Semen contains chemicals that cause female smooth muscle to contract.
True. Semen contains prostaglandins which cause smooth muscle to constrict in the female tract to possibly aid fertilization.
Testosterone increases the number of red blood cells.
True. Testosterone is an anabolic steroid that stimulates cell division in many populations including erythrocytes which partially explains the higher RBC count in males compared to females.
The average female has a shorter adolescent period than males?
True. The attainment of sexual and physical maturity occur sooner in females, who usually attain puberty earlier.
Infant respiratory distress syndrome is less common if the mother had normal labor and delivery.
True. The contractions of the uterus seem to increase the fetal ability to secrete surfactant; babies taken by caesarean delivery may have a higher incidence of respiratory distress syndrome.
The cardiovascular system increases synthesis of some lipids during the aging process.
True. The coronary artery lumens are decreased by the addition and synthesis of cholesterol-laden plaques made by the artery.
The crura of the corpora cavernosa attach the penis to the bones of the pubic arch.
True. The crura (legs) of the penis are the segments of the corpora cavernosa that are attached to the pubic arch; the corpora spongiosum becomes the bulb at the base.
The placenta is comprised of maternal and fetal portions.
True. The fetal chorion and the maternal endometrium combine to form the placenta.
The fossa ovalis is the depression in the heart that was the foramen ovale.
True. The foramen ovale closes shortly after birth and becomes a solid depression called the fossa ovalis.
Fetal hemoglobin is different from the adult and has a higher oxygen carrying capacity.
True. The hemoglobin of the fetus has a 50% greater oxygen affinity than the maternal blood which favors fetal uptake.
During orgasm, the muscle of the uterus and uterine tubes undergo rhythmic contractions.
True. The muscles of the uterus, uterine tubes and vagina undergo a rhythmic pulse of contractions that probably helps move semen towards the site of fertilization.
Exposure to sunlight and other forms of radiation may increase the rate of aging.
True. The rate of aging is influenced by the speed of DNA mutation formation; radiation increases the probability of mistakes in DNA synthesis that lead to cancer or aging.
Ciliated epithelium and peristaltic waves help move the oocyte through the Fallopian tubes.
True. The uterine (Fallopian) tubes are lined with ciliated simple columnar epithelial cells that move mucus towards the uterus; the walls of contain peristaltic smooth muscle.
The number of umbilical arteries is directly related to the structure of the fetal internal circulatory system.
True. There is a strong correlation between umbilical arteries and fetal circulation; many heart and vessel defects associated with having only one artery, which is why the umbilical vessels are counted at birth.
Within six days following fertilization, the blastocyst contains cells that are fated to become the infant.
True. Within six days, the process of differentiation has resulted in the inner cell mass which will develop into the human embryo.
Choosing from the following list, the most effective means of preventing conception is
Tubal ligation. Tubal ligation is considered a permanent method of contraception.
When can the male and female organs be distinguished first?
Twelfth week. By the twelfth week the external genitalia are distinguishable.
When do the tested begin to descend?
Two months prior to birth. The testes begin to leave the peritoneal space and descend through the inguinal canal before birth but their descent may not be completed until sometime after birth.
The superior vesical arteries are remnants of the
Umbilical arteries. A portion of the umbilical arteries persist in the neonate as the superior vesical arteries that supply blood to the bladder.
The ligamentum teres is the remnant of the
Umbilical vein. The ligamentum teres is the fibrotic degeneration of the umbilical vein from the umbilicus to the liver.
Which of these has the greatest oxygen content?
Umbilical vein. The umbilical vein transports blood from the maternal placenta which is highly oxygenated; the fetal aorta contains blood of an intermediate saturation.
Which vessel transports blood rich in oxygen and nutrients to the fetus?
Umbilical vein. The umbilical vein travels toward the heart of the fetus and is thus a vein, however it is coming from the placenta where it picked up oxygen and nutrients.
Which structure is NOT found within the spermatic cord?
Urethra. The spermatic cord enters the scrotum.
The process of capacitation usually occurs in the
Vagina. The process of weakening the acrosomal cap occurs in the female tract as the sperm cells attain penetration ability or capacitance.
Where does the epididymis direct sperm cells into?
Vas deferens. The sperm proceed from the rete testis into the epididymis and through the long vas deferens tubule; the vas deferens tubules are within the testis.
The ductus venosus transports blood to the
Vena cava. The ductus venosus is a vessel in the fetus that bypasses the liver circulation sending some of the umbilical vein blood to the inferior vena cava, then heart.
The _____ is the space between the labia minor.
Vestibule. The vestibule is the space in front of the vaginal orifice bordered by the labia minor and included within the greater area called the pudendal cleft.
Which of these includes the other terms?
Vulva. The vulva is the anatomical term for all of the collective female external genitalia.
When can the term fetus be correctly used?
When body systems have been established. The embryonic stage ends, and the fetal stage begins, once all body systems have generated.
Specifically, where are sperm cells formed within the testes?
Within the seminiferous tubules. The spermatogonia are in the walls of the seminiferous tubules.
Within which extraembryonic membrane are blood cells formed in the early stages of development?
Yolk sac. The first blood cells come from the yolk sac.
What is the origin of fetal blood cells?
Yolk sac. The yolk sac appears in the second week and is the origin of the fetal blood cells and gametes that will migrate into the fetus.
The outside layer of the oocyte is the
Zona pellucida. The zona pellucida is a glycoprotein coat around the oocyte; the antrum is the space formed inside of a follicle.
A cell called the _____ is a fertilized cell with 46 chromosomes.
Zygote. The union of the 23 chromosome sperm and oocyte produces the fusion cell or zygote.