AP Questions
A net movement of water into the beaker occurs in which of the following dialysis tubes? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6
E
The contents of which dialysis tube are initially isotonic to the distilled water in the beaker? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5
E
DNA Replication is essential to the survival and maintenance of an organism.Answer the following questions about this process. Briefly explain the process of DNA Replication. (4pts) Explain why this process is described as semi-conservative. (3 pts) Explain the base pairing rules that were discovered by Chargaff. ( 3pts)
Essay
In eukaryotes the organelles of the endomembrane system include: the nuclear membrane, the endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, vesicles, endosomes and the cell membrane. Explain how the roles of TWO of these organelles and discuss how they interrelate to maintain homeostasis within the cell. (3 pts)
Essay
A protein that spans the phospholipid bilayer one or more times is a. an integral protein. b. a transmembrane protein. c. a peripheral protein. d. a glycoprotein.
a
A represents the dominant allele and a represents the recessive allele of a pair. If, in 1000 offspring, 500 are aa and 500 are of some other genotype, which of the following are most probably the genotypes of the parents? a. Aa and aa b. Aa and Aa c. AA and Aa d. AA and aa e. aa and aa
a
During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? a. Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes. b. Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. c. Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. d. Overproduction of offspring leads to a struggle for survival. e. Only favorable adaptations have survival value.
a
High blood glucose triggers cells in the pancreas to release the hormone insulin, which lowers blood glucose levels. Type 2 diabetes occurs when cells no longer respond to insulin. The blood glucose levels of several diabetic rats are measured and the rats are then fed a high carbohydrate meal. Which statement explains how a rat's blood glucose levels will most likely be affected by the high-carbohydrate meal? a. The rat's blood glucose level will increase after eating and, even after the rat is given an insulin injection, will remain higher than the pre-meal level. b. The rat's blood glucose level will increase after eating, which will cause insulin levels to rise until blood glucose decreases below the pre-meal level. c. The rat's blood glucose level will increase after eating and, after the rat is given an insulin injection, will quickly decrease to the pre-meal level. d. The rat's blood glucose level will increase for several hours after eating, and then will gradually decrease over several hours to the pre-meal level
a
Mammalian blood contains the equivalent of 0.15 M NaCl. Seawater contains the equivalent of 0.45 M NaCl. What will happen if red blood cells are transferred to seawater? a. Water will leave the cells, causing them to shrivel and collapse. b. NaCl will be exported from the red blood cells by facilitated diffusion. c. The blood cells will take up water, swell, and eventually burst. d. NaCl will passively diffuse into the red blood cells. e. The blood cells will expend ATP for active transport of NaCl into the cytoplasm.
a
Synaptic signaling involves a. neurotransmitters b. autocrine signals c. paracrine signals d. endocrine signals
a
The molecular switch that controls gene expression is known as the a. operon b. controller c. promoter d. repressor e. inducer
a
The secretion of antibodies by lymphocyte B cells provides a. humoral immunity b. permanent immunity c. cell-mediated immunity d. passive immunity
a
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for a high rate of crossing-over between two genes? a. The two genes are far apart on the same chromosome. b. The two genes are both located near the centromere. c. The two genes are on different chromosomes. d. The two genes are sex-linked. e. The two genes code for the same protein.
a
Which of the following types of chemical signals is secreted in the blood and travels long distances to its target. a. Hormones b. Target proteins c. Neurotransmitters d. Cytokines
a
Which of these evolutionary agents is most consistent at causing populations to become better suited to their environments over the course of generations? a. Natural Selection b. Gene flow c. Nonrandom mating d. Mutation e. Genetic Drift
a
Which of these is NOT a reason for cell division? a. Grow too few to survive b. Grow too large for food and waste to enter and exit c. Overworking the DNA d. Reproduction e. Repair
a
The defenses of the body to the entry and establishment of a pathogen ( disease-causing organism) can be divided into nonspecific responses and specific responses. A) Explain how THREE types of nonspecific defenses can prevent the entry and/or establishment of a pathogen in a person's body. ( 3 pts) B) Discuss how the immune system responds to an initial pathogenic exposure and how this initial exposure can lead to a quicker response following a second exposure to the same pathogen. (2 pts) C) Explain the biological mechanism that leads to the rejection of transplanted organs. (2 pts)
Essay A) The three types of nonspecific defenses are barriers, phagocytosis, and traps. Barriers would be skin. Phagocytosis is when the cell engulfs the antigen. Traps is things like coughing, sneezing, and mucus. B) The antigen is first recognized by macrophages. Helper T cells will help the process of getting rid of the antigen. Then cytotoxic T-cells will then eliminate it. Memory cells will remember the antigen. C) The body will reject an organ if the DNA of the organ doesn't match enough with the DNA in the body.
Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis. Be sure to include the following: (3 points each) A. Purpose of each B. All steps involved in each process in the correct order C. Differences between the prophase of mitosis and meiosis D. Differences between the metaphase of mitosis and meiosis E. End results of each process
Essay A: meiosis happens in the reproduction area only. Mitosis happens everywhere. Mitosis is to grow and repair. B:Mitosis-prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase. Meiosis-prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase 2, metaphase 2, anaphase 2, telophase 2. C: the difference in prophase is that in meiosis crossover and pairing happens. D: The difference between the metaphase is that in meiosis there are twice as many chromosomes. In mitosis it is single chromosomes but meiosis has the pairs. E: in mitosis two identical cells are produced and in meiosis 4 haploid a are produced.
For the following questions refer to the DNA strand below 3' TAC-CGC-GTA-AAA-CCT-TTT-UAG 5' A. Write the complimentary strand of DNA B. Write the mRNA strand that would be transcribed from the given DNA C. Write the sequence of tRNA anticodons derived from the mRNA D. Write the amino acid sequence created as a final result E. Create another mRNA strand resulting in the same amino acid sequence
Essay A) ATG-GCG-CAT-TTT-GGA-AAA-TTC B) AUG-GCG-CAU-UUU-GGA-AAA-UUC C) UAC-CGC-GUA-AAA-CCU-UUU-AAG D) Met. Ala. His. Phe. Gly. Lys. Phe. E) AUG-GCC-CAC-UUU-GGA-AAA-UUU
A laboratory assistant prepared solutions of 0.8 M, 0.6 M, 0.4 M, and 0.2 M sucrose, but forgot to label them. After realizing the error, the assistant randomly labeled the flasks containing these four unknown solutions as flask A, flask B, flask C, and flask D. Design an experiment, based on the principles of diffusion and osmosis, that the assistant could use to determine which of the flasks contains each of the four unknown solutions including (A) a description of how you would set up and perform the experiment (3 pts) (B) the results you would expect from your experiment (2 pts) (C) an explanation of those results based on the principles involved. ( 3pts)
Essay question A). I would get four semipermeable membranes and fill each up with the solutions. I would weigh each one and put them in water. After awhile I would take them out the water and weigh them again. B). My results would result in the 0.8 M weighing the most. The 0.6 would weigh the second most. The 0.2 would weigh the least. C). Water would go inside of the membranes based on how much sucrose is in it.
Identify TWO differences between plant and animal cells. Using the requirements of either plants an animals, jusitfy the need for each difference identified. (4 pts)
Essay question Two differences between animal and plant cells are cell walls and chloroplasts. Cell walls and chloroplasts are in plant cells. The cell walls help hold the shape of a plant. Chloroplasts are what makes the sugar the plant survives off.
1. Process in which a protein is assembled at a ribosome. Selected: b. TRANSLATIONThis answer is correct. 2. Process in which naked DNA is taken up by a bacterial or yeast cell Selected: d. TRANSFORMATIONThis answer is correct. 3. Process in which RNA is produced by using a DNA template Selected: a. TRANSCRIPTION
Answer on first slide
A form of vitamin D-resistant rickets, known as hypophosphatemia, is inherited as an Xlinked dominant trait. If a male with hypophosphatemia marries a normal female, which of the following predictions concerning their potential progeny would be true? a. None of their daughters would inherit the disease b. All of their daughters would inherit the disease c. About 50% of their daughters would inherit the disease d. About 50% of their sons would inherit the disease e. All of their sons would inherit the disease
b
A male fruit fly (Drosophila melanogaster) with red eyes and long wings was mated with a female with purple eyes and vestigial wings. All of the offspring in the F1 generation had red eyes and long wings. These F1 flies were test crossed with purple-eyed, vestigial-winged flies. Their offspring, the F2 generation, appeared as indicated below. F2 Generation 125 red eyes, long wings 124 purple eyes, vestigial wings 18 purple eyes, long wings 16 red eyes, vestigial wings 283 Total If in the F1 and F2 generations the same characteristics appeared in both male and females, it would be safe to assume that these traits for eye color and wing length... a. follow the Mendelian rule of independent assortment b. are autosomal characteristics c. are sex-linked d. are sex-influenced characteristics e. vary in dominance according to sex
b
Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a 0.15 M salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are a. hypotonic to fresh water but hypertonic to the salt solution. b. hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution. c. hypotonic to both fresh water and the salt solution. d. isotonic with fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution. e. hypertonic to both fresh water and the salt solution.
b
In humans, red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. If a man and a woman produce a color-blind son, which of the following must be true? a. The father carries the allele for color blindness. b. The mother carries the allele for color blindness. c. Neither parent carries the allele for color blindness. d. The father is color-blind. e. Both parents carry the allele for color blindness.
b
In peas the trait for tall plants is dominant (T) and the trait for short plants is recessive (t). The trait for yellow seed color is dominant (Y) and the trait for green seed color is recessive (y). A cross between two plants results in 296 tall yellow plants and 104 tall green plants. Which of the following are most likely to be the genotypes of the parents? a. TTYY x TTYY b. TtYy x TTYy c. Ttyy x TTYy d. TtYy x TtYy e. TtYY x Ttyy
b
Most extracellular signal molecules act on cell-surface rather than intracellular receptors because they are: a. too hydrophilic to pass directly across the plasma membrane. b. either too large, too hydrophilic, or both to pass directly across the plasma membrane. c. too hydrophobic to pass directly across the plasma membrane. d. too small to pass directly across the plasma membrane.
b
The portion of the cell cycle most associated with DNA synthesis is a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M
b
The two following questions refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B. If the father has blood type AB, which of the following statements is correct about the mother? a. She is homozygous for the IB allele. b. She contributes an i allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele. c. She contributes an IB allele, which is codominant to the father's IA allele. d. She contributes an i allele, which is codominant to the father's IB allele. e. She contributes an IB allele, which is recessive to the father's IA allele.
b
What would be the sequence of bases of an mRNA molecule that was transcribed from the sequence of DNA bases shown below? GTAGTAGGT a. UCGUCGUUC b. CAUCAUCCA c. CATCATCCA d. GTAGTAGGT e. AUGAUGAAU
b
When cells respond to an extracellular signal, they most often convert the information from one form to another. This process is called: a. Signal Transformation b. Signal Transduction c. Signal Amplification d. Signal Interference
b
When the hormone insulin is released into the bloodstream, what form of cell-to-cell signaling is being used? a. Exocrine b. Endocrine c. Peracrine d. Juxtacrine
b
Which is the correct order of the cell cycle? a. G1 - G2 - S - M b. G1 - S - G2 - M c. S - M - G2 - G1 d. M - S - G1 - G2
b
Which statement about natural selection is most correct? a. Adaptations beneficial in one habitat should generally be beneficial in all other habitats as well. b. Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool, than do poorly adapted individuals. c. Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times as well. d. Different species that occupy the same habitat will adapt to that habitat by undergoing the same genetic changes. e. Natural selection is the sole means by which populations can evolve.
b
While the initial release of oxytocin, the hormone that triggers the onset of childbirth, is not fully understood, scientists do know that high levels of the hormone estrogen lead to the formation of receptors for the oxytocin on the uterus late in pregnancy. Oxytocin causes the uterus to contract, and uterine contractions stimulate the pituitary gland to release more oxytocin. Which statement best explains how the uterus and the pituitary gland work together during childbirth? a. Oxytocin is released only in response to uterine contractions via a positive feedback loop, which causes the frequency and intensity of uterine contractions to be consistent until birth occurs. b. Oxytocin causes uterine contractions, which cause the pituitary gland to secrete more oxytocin and cause more uterine contractions via a positive feedback loop, which increases the frequency and intensity of the contractions until birth occurs. c. Uterine contractions signal the pituitary gland to release more oxytocin via a negative feedback loop, which causes the frequency and intensity of uterine contractions to be maintained at a constant rate until birth occurs. d. Uterine contractions cause the pituitary gland to release oxytocin via a negative feedback loop, which increases the frequency and intensity of uterine contractions until birth occurs.
b
A TATA box is seen in ______________ cells and is the site where _______________________. a. bacterial; RNA polymerase binds b. eukaryotic; DNA ligase cleaves introns c. eukaryotic; RNA polymerase binds d. both bacterial and eukaryotic; transcription factors bind
c
A plant has stunted growth and yellowing leaves because it is unable to synthesize key proteins due to a nutrient deficiency. In which nutrient is the plant most likely deficient? a. Oxygen, because it is an essential element in both nucleic acids and proteins. b. Phosphorus, because it is an essential element of nucleic acids. c. Nitrogen, because it is an essential element of amino acids. d. Carbon, because it is an essential element in all organic molecules
c
A protein kinase activating many other protein kinases is an example of _____. a. a cellular response b. deactivation c. amplification d. mutualism e. sensitization
c
An allergy is caused when a person's immune system overreacts to a normally harmless substance, such as plant pollen, dust, or pet dander. Substances that trigger an allergic reaction are called allergens. An allergic reaction is triggered when the immune system recognizes an allergen as foreign and tries to destroy it by releasing histamines, much like it would if it encountered a harmful virus or bacteria. Histamines cause localized swelling, and result in allergy symptoms such as itchy eyes, a runny nose, and sneezing. Which statement best explains how an allergen causes an allergic reaction? a. Prolonged exposure to the allergen interferes with a negative feedback loop in the immune system, which results in the immune system releasing histamines more aggressively with increased allergen exposure. b. The initial exposure to the allergen causes a negative feedback mechanism in the immune system to become overactive and leads to the release of histamines that destroy immune cells. c. The initial exposure of the allergen causes a positive feedback mechanism in the immune system to become overactive and leads to the release of histamines in an attempt to destroy the allergen. d. Repeated exposure to the allergen interferes with a positive feedback loop in the immune system, which results in the immune system reacting less aggressively with increased allergen exposure.
c
During which phase does crossing over occur? a. Metaphase II b. Prophase II c. Prophase I d. Metaphase I
c
Many of the extracellular signal molecules that regulate inflammation are released locally at the site of infection. What form of cell-to-cell signaling is being used? a. Endocrine b. Exocrine c. Paracrine d. Juxtacrine
c
Plants and animal cells differ in how they do a. Anaphase b. Metaphase c. Cytokinesis d. Prophase e. Interphase f. Telophase
c
When the concentration of solutes in the blood (blood osmolarity) is high, the pituitary gland releases antidiuretic hormone (ADH). ADH stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb water in order to increase blood volume and decrease blood osmolarity. A person takes a long hike on a hot day without water. At the end of the day, the hiker drinks enough water to replace what was lost during the hike. Which statement explains the most likely physiological response that the hiker's body will experience after drinking the water? a. The increased blood volume will prevent the release of ADH and cause the kidneys to excrete less water in a negative feedback loop. b. The high blood volume will increase the release of ADH and cause the kidneys to increase reabsorption of water in a positive feedback loop. c. The pituitary gland will stop secreting ADH because drinking water will cause blood volume to increase, and an increased blood volume will cause the pituitary gland to stop releasing ADH in a negative feedback loop. d. The pituitary gland will secrete ADH because drinking water will cause blood volume to increase, and an increased blood volume will cause the pituitary gland to release more ADH in a positive feedback loop
c
Which of the following is NOT part of the M portion of the cell cycle? a. Anaphase b. Cytokinesis c. Interphase d. Telophase e. Prophase f. Metaphase
c
Which of the following is NOT related to the process of meiosis? a. ends with 4 haploid cells b. starts with a diploid cell c. ends with 2 diploid cells d. copies DNA once
c
Which of the following is the correct order of events in signal transduction? a. Chemical Signal --> Receptor --> Target Proteins --> Intracellular Proteins --> Cell Response b. Receptor --> Chemical Signal --> Target Proteins --> Intracellular Proteins -->Cell Response c. Chemical Signal --> Receptor --> Intracellular Proteins --> Target Proteins --> Cell Response d. Chemical Signal --> Target Proteins --> Receptor --> Intracellular Proteins -->Cell Response
c
Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? a. All organisms show heritable variation. b. All organisms have undergone evolution. c. All organisms use essentially the same genetic code. d. All organisms require energy. e. All organisms reproduce.
c
Which of the following would most likely be checked by the M checkpoint? a. DNA Replication b. Extra space around cells c. Alignment of chromosomes d. None of the above
c
A large population of cichlids, a freshwater fish, was introduced into an African lake. Approximately 32% of the population was homozygous recessive for a certain trait. After twenty generations of random mating, approximately 32% of the cichlids are still homozygous recessive for the trait. Which statement best explains why the frequency of the alleles in the cichlid population has remained constant over time? a. Most cichlids are heterozygous for the trait, and this ensures that the proportion of individuals who are homozygous will not change over time. b. Genetic drift could not occur in the cichlid population because no new individuals were introduced into the lake to alter the gene pool. c. The rate of mutation in the cichlid population is very low and the genotypes in a population will not change without frequent mutations. d. The two different phenotypes are equally adaptive in the lake environment, and this suggests that there has been no selective pressure acting on genotypes.
d
A(n) _____ is an example of a signal molecule that can bind to an intracellular receptor and thereby cause a gene to be turned on or off. a. protein b. ion c. nucleic acid d. steroid e. carbohydrate
d
During which phase are spindles formed? a. Interphase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. ProphaseThis answer is correct. e. Telophase
d
During which phase do sister chromosomes split and move towards opposite ends of the cell? a. Prophase b. Telophase c. Interphase d. Anaphase e. Metaphase
d
Molecules whose concentration fluctuates during the cell cycle to aid in regulation are a. Kinetochores b. Kinases c. Spindle fibers d. Cyclins
d
Molecules whose concentration remains constant to assist in regulating the cell cycle are a. Cyclins b. Kinetochores c. Spindle fibers d. Kinases
d
This type of extracellular receptor causes a transporter to open or close to allow particles through once a chemical signal binds. a. G couple Protein b. JAK Kinase c. Tyrosine Kinase d. Ligand Gated Ion Channel
d
Which of the following would most likely be checked by the G1 checkpoint? a. Alignment of chromosomes b. None of the above c. DNA Replication d. Extra space around
d
Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird? a. Tail fin of a flying fish b. Wing of a butterfly c. Hind limb of a kangaroo d. Flipper of a whale e. Dorsal fin of a shark
d.
The electrophoretic separation of the pieces of DNA in each of the four samples was achieved because of differential migration of the DNA fragments in an electric field. This differential migration was caused by the a. solubility of each fragment b. relative amounts of radioactivity in the DNA c. overall positive charge of each fragment d. number of cleavage points per fragment e. size of each fragment
e
The two following questions refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B. The father must have which of the following blood types? a. AB or A or O b. Either AB or B c. AB only d. Either AB or O e. Either AB or A
e
Which of the following best describes the parents in a testcross? a. Both individuals have the dominant phenotype. b. Both individuals have an unknown phenotype. c. Both individuals have the recessive phenotype. d. Both individuals are heterozygous. e. One individual has the dominant phenotype and the other has the recessive phenotype.
e
Which phase requires the precise alignment of sister chromatids to proceed correctly? a. Cytokinesis b. Metaphase c. Interphase d. Telophase e. Prophase f. Anaphase
f
To model a plant cell, a permeable, nonflexible case is placed around each piece of dialysis tubing. The greatest pressure potential will develop within dialysis tube number a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6
C