ATC Basics
A frequency which is underlined within a communication box indicates that
No voice transmitted
How is Class A airspace depicted on an En Route Low Altitude Chart?
None
Temporary directions or one-time announcements are made through
Notices.
When a cold front overtakes a warm front, a/an ____________ front is formed.
Occluded
The terminology for stating the frequency 121.5 would be:
One two one point five
DME equipment measures
slant range in nautical miles
May
Optional
Which document prescribes air traffic procedures and phraseology used by flight service specialists?
Order 7110.10
Which document prescribes flight service procedures and phraseology used by the FAA?
Order 7110.10
Which document prescribes air traffic control procedures and phraseology used by the FAA?
Order 7110.65
Which document contains the approved words and phrase contractions used by personnel in the FAA?
Order 7340.1
Which document lists the location identifiers authorized by the FAA, Department of the Navy, and Transport Canada?
Order 7350.7
Unrestricted visibility is coded as
P6SM.
Station identifiers for all weather reporting stations in Alaska will begin with a
PA
Circles parallel to the equator are called
Parallels of Latitude
One purpose of SOP is to
specify jurisdictional boundaries for each position/sector.
The primary radar clutter caused by dropping large amounts of shredded foil is called ________ jamming.
Passive
Two types of radar jamming?
Passive and active
The authority and responsibility for flying in Class G Airspace belong to the
Pilot
Two types of SIDs
Pilot Naviation and Vector
The Airport/Facility Directory is designed primarily as a
Pilot's operational manual
An emergency situation exists if declared by the
Pilot, facility personnel, or aircraft operator
Navigation by reference to visible landmarks is called
Pilotage.
Two movements controlled by control yoke
Pitch and Roll
At the QALQ stage, between what two points would a search area be established when attempting to locate an overdue aircraft?
Point of departure and destination
Will
not a requirement for application of a procedure
An appropriate IFR altitude for an aircraft on a true heading of 178° is
not able to be determined
The OROCA ensures an aircraft of ________ coverage.
obstruction clearance, but no NAVAID/communications
Cloud has prefix nimbo or suffix nimbus
Precipitation
Which radar system relies on reflected radio signals and does NOT require cooperative equipment in aircraft?
Primary Radar
Two types of radar
Primary and secondary
In any option, strips are produced on either special _printers_ or they are _handwritten_.
Printers or handwritten
When may pilots of two different aircraft operate as a formation flight?
Prior arrangements are made, and no paying passengers are aboard.
A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has NOT been assigned and/or ATC has NOT advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?
Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.
Decoder
Processes transponder replies and forwards data to the radar display
Approach is termed precision because it
Provides electronic glideslope information
Which action would cause a change in pitch?
Pushing control yoke
A VOR antenna transmission pattern is
omni-directional
Which facility is equipped and manned to coordinate and conduct search and rescue operations in an area designated by the National Search and Rescue Plan?
RCC
Regional Notices
RENOT
The ability to off-set and relocate a VOR in order to provide a more direct route is an advantage of ________ navigation equipment.
RNAV
What is a radio detection device which provides range, azimuth, and/or elevation information called?
Radar
The En Route Sector team member who scans and manages the flight progress strips and also may accept handoffs via landline communications is the _________ position.
Radar Associate
Ground Control frequencies for airports with control towers are found
on the reverse flap of the Sectional Aeronautical Chart Legend.
In a terminal radar facility, who has the responsibility for the safe and efficient operation of a facility sector?
Radar Team
LOA between two ARTCCs
Radar handoff procedures
An asterisk (*) in the airport data could be used to indicate
part-time status of surrounding airspace.
Seven types of coordination?
Radar handoffs, radar point outs, transfer of control, runway crossings, forwarding flight plan information, arrival information (i.e., inbounds), clearance and instructions
The VOR course deviation needle will indicate the aircraft's position in relation to the selected
Radial
The method of navigation that requires the use of ground-based transmitters is called
Radio Navigation
When is an aircraft on an IFR flight plan considered overdue?
Radio and radar lost +30 minutes since ETA
What are two types of engines that use propellers?
Reciprocating and turboprop
What are the three basic types of engines found on aircraft today?
Reciprocating, turboprop, and turbojet
Should
Recommended
Which control symbol indicates that flight information has been forwarded?
Red Circle and Check mark
Responsibility for approval of a LOA
Regional Service Area Office
Referring to your miscellaneous abbreviations, what does the abbreviation 'RX' stand for?
Report crossing
For the Terminal departure strip, Block 7 is used for what?
Requested Altitude
The Special Use Airspace that overlies an aerial gunnery range is called a ______ Area.
Restricted
Class B operating rules
Reverse side of Terminal Area Chart
An elongated area of high pressure is called a/an
Ridge
What is secondary radar interference caused by an improperly adjusted transponder operating near to the antenna called?
Ring around
Movement around the longitudinal axis is called
Roll
Hazardous conditions occur when the induced roll exceeds the level of what?
Roll control of the aircraft.
Following is a primary control surface
Rudder
Movement around the vertical axis is controlled by the
Rudder
Which are the primary control surfaces on an airplane?
Rudder, ailerons, and elevator
IFR
Rules governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight.
Runway 31C would be spoken as __________.
Runway three one center
Severe icing NOT associated with thunderstorms is criteria for issuance of what type of aviation weather advisory?
SIGMET
What is the difference between SKC and CLR?
SKC is reported at manual stations when the sky is clear and CLR is reported at automated stations when no clouds below 12,000 feet are reported.
What must air become before condensation or sublimation can occur?
Saturated
What is a radar-based system that uses both a ground-based interrogator and an aircraft-based transponder?
Secondary Radar
Positive Control
Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control.
In a METAR report, the temperature/dew point group follows the _______ element.
Sky condition
Which characteristic is typical of clear ice?
Smooth
Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as
Special Use
Flight Plan
Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally or in writing with air traffic control
What are the three basic wing shapes or configurations?
Straight, swept, delta
A cloud type belonging to the low cloud family and occurring ONLY at the surface to 6,500 feet is
Stratus
Most tornadoes are a product of which type of thunderstorm?
Supercell
What document is used to consolidate instructions from different levels into a single directive to avoid having instructions scattered among several directives?
Supplements
Which of the following is NOT found in a communication box?
Symbol indicating the availability of ATIS broadcasts
Control of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control is called ______ control.
positive
Upon request of authorized officials, personnel holding an ATC tower operators certificate shall
present the certificate
What are the three factors that affect the density of the air?
Temperature, atmospheric pressure, and humidity
The upper limit of Class G Airspace is ________.
The base of the overlying airspace.
After locating the volume, the specialist should verify
The currency of the volume
The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in
pressure.
How would the date/time group "012350" be decoded?
The first at two three five zero
If the specialist being relieved recognizes an inaccuracy immediately after relinquishing position responsibility, who should be notified?
The relieving specialist and any appropriate position
How are all NDBs, except compass locators, identified?
Three-letter identifier in Morse code
What runway marking consists of eight longitudinal white stripes of uniform dimensions arranged symmetrically on either side of the runway centerline?
Threshold
The type of clearance that provides for intermediate stops while en route is a/an ________ Clearance.
Through
For an aircraft to maintain a constant airspeed and maintain straight and level flight, what must be in balance?
Thrust and drag; lift and weight
Another name for jet blast.
Thrust stream turbulence.
Referring to your clearance abbreviations, what is the meaning of 'Z'?
Tower jurisdiction
Clouds with extensive vertical development include what two types?
Towering cumulus and cumulonimbus
What is the action in which the responsibility for separation of an aircraft is changed from one controller to another?
Tranfer of control
Name the components of a primary radar system.
Transmitter, antennae, receiver, display
What DME equipment on the ground is required to respond to the aircraft interrogator?
Transponder
What are the three basic types of landing gear?
Tricycle, tail dragger, and tandem
Which control allows the pilot to relieve manual pressure on the primary controls?
Trim tab
Jet Stream narrow, high-speed river of wind found near
Tropopause
Most weather occurs in which layer of the atmosphere?
Troposphere
An elongated area of low pressure is called a/an
Trough
14. When separating a departing aircraft from a preceding departing aircraft using the same runway, ensure that the takeoff roll does NOT begin until the preceding departing aircraft has crossed the runway end.
True
20. Nondirectional radio beacons are adversely affected by lightning and precipitation static.
True
A Localizer approach is less accurate than an ILS approach because NO electronic altitude guidance is provided.
True
An aircraft's design function, type of power plant or engine used, and materials used are all factors that influence the shape of the fuselage.
True
Automated Flight Service Stations receive and process IFR flight plans.
True
Every aircraft generates a wake turbulence while in flight regardless of its size.
True
Marker beacons are depicted in the Planview section of an Instrument Approach Chart
True
Minimum Sector Altitudes (MSAs) are for emergency use only and do NOT ensure NAVAID frequency reception
True
Specific STAR may serve several airports
True
The two configurations of landing gear are fixed and retractable.
True
There are three types of precision approaches: ILS, MLS and PAR
True
AIRMET TANGO advisories are issued for which condition?
Turbulence
TACAN frequencies
UHF band
Light brown shading indicates the presence of
Uncontrolled Airspace
Why is the controller not responsible for anticipating the existence or effects of wake turbulence?
Unpredictable
What is the upper limit of a low altitude VOR airway?
Up to but NOT including 18,000 MSL
In which emergency condition would a pilot transmit "PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN, PAN-PAN?"
Urgency
The World Aeronautical Chart and the Sectional Aeronautical Chart are alike because they both
Use similar symbols
What letter precedes the airway number for a VOR airway? How is it pronounced?
V "Victor"
The letters 'OTP' on a strip stand for
VFR conditions-on-top
The primary use for Sectional Aeronautical Charts is ____ navigation by ____ speed aircraft.
VFR; slow and medium
The primary NAVAIDs for the nation's airways in the National Airspace System are
VORs/Vortacs
Reportable cloud layer types are
VV, FEW, SCT, BKN, OVC.
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at any given place is called
Variation.
6. Which type of separation in the en route environment, other than visual, would allow you to place two aircraft with the least distance between aircraft?
Vertical Separation. 1000 feet.
If a route has NOT been assigned, or if ATC has NOT advised that a route may be expected, what action will the pilot take in the event of radio failure?
Via route filed in the flight plan
An aircraft is cleared from Alfa to Kilo airport by other than the filed routing. How will the pilot proceed if radio failure occurs?
Via routing received in last ATC clearance
What contraction denotes wind shear?
WS
Of speed, configuration, and weight, which one has the greatest impact on wake turbulence?
Wake
What is the name for the turbulent phenomenon created by aircraft passing through the atmosphere?
Wake Turbulence
What causes temperature inversion clutter on primary radar systems?
Warm air over cold air deflecting the radar signal
What type of Special Use Airspace is found over international waters?
Warning Area
Where is the FAA Administrator's office located?
Washington, DC
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) and Transcribed Aviation Weather Broadcast (TWEB) are products produced by the
Weather Forecast Office
The AFSS position that records meteorological data by documenting it accurately and promptly is the ______ position.
Weather Observer
Which factor has the greatest impact on wake turbulence?
Weight
Forces acting on helicopter are lift, thrust, ___, and ____.
Weight and Drag.
True heading is true courseed for effects of
Wind
What would 651224 indicate in the FB?
Wind 150 degrees at 112 knots temperature -24 degrees Celsius
The circular patterns created by wake turbulence are often known as what?
Wingtip or wake vortices
What symbol should be used to delete any unwanted or unused altitude information?
X
To delete any unused or unwanted symbols or items a/an ________ or ________ should be used
X; -
If you were holding two aircraft at different fixes, one at 6,000 feet, and one at 7,000 feet, but the holding pattern airspace(s) overlapped each other, would you have separation? If so, what kind?
Yes - vertical separation
If you had two aircraft AT FL310, would you be correct in assigning one of the aircraft an altitude of FL320?
Yes, if both are RVSM equipped. Otherwise, 2000 feet.
An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall
proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable.
Coordinated Universal Time is also referred to as ______ time.
Zulu
In a TAF, the FM contraction is used to indicate
rapid changes
A VFR flight plan filing is
recommended.
aircraft in the air or on airport surfaces
air traffic.
Of an aircraft on approach to an airport or an aircraft cruising during en route, which condition will create a greater wake turbulence effect?
aircraft on approach to airport
The most hazardous aspect of structural icing
airfoil distortion.
In the airport data "4500 L 72 122.95," "4500" is the
airport elevation above sea level.
What aircraft operating within the United States are subject to FAR, Part 91?
all aircraft
Height of obstructions depicted on Instrument Approach Procedure Charts are
always MSL
The two TAF report types are routine and
amended
An Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) is designed to provide
an IFR descent to a point where a safe landing can be made.
Nonradar separation is used in preference to radar separation when
an operational advantage will be gained.
A Mode C Area, which requires an aircraft to have Mode C equipment onboard, is depicted by
an unshaded area outlined by a solid blue line.
Hyperventilation
results from anxiety or tension
A Letter of Agreement is required to implement the delegation of responsibility for ______ control service.
approach
An IFR Area Chart displays communications information for airports with
approach and departure control services.
DME displayes
as slant range distance
The mission of the Traffic Management System is to
balance air traffic demand with system capacity.
After the relieving specialist has assumed responsibility for the sector, the relieved specialist
reviews all information for omissions or inaccuracies
VC indicates the location of a weather phenomena is
between 5 and 10 miles of the observation point.
13. Direction signs have a yellow background with a _______ inscription.
black
10. A _______ is identified by large chevrons pointing in the direction of the threshold bar.
blast pad
An unusable portion of runway which appears usable and is marked with large yellow chevrons identifies a
blast pad.
A pilot can receive Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) broadcasts via the voice portion of a navigational aid if its communications box has a(n)
blue filled-in circle with a white H.
taxiway edge lights are
blue.
The height of an obstruction is indicated on the chart in feet above
both ground level and sea level.
PIREPs are used by FSSs to
brief pilots on weather conditions.
11. A taxiway _______ is identified by a continuous yellow line.
centerlne
The distance from clouds for VFR flights in Class B airspace is
clear of clouds.
The first three items in an ATC departure clearance are aircraft identification,
clearance limit, and departure procedure
A wind shear produces the greatest hazards to aircraft
conducting takeouffs, approaches, and landings
The centerline of a taxiway is marked with a ____ line.
continuous yellow
A controller monitors assigned radio frequencies
continuously.
The FMS constantly updates its position information by
selecting the most appropriate combination of conventional navigational aids.
First priority is given to
separating aircraft.
Military Operations Areas consist of airspace of defined dimensions established for the purpose of
separating certain military training activities from IFR traffic.
A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to
current altimeter setting of station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft.
One of the characteristics of the MLS is
curved approach paths
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated by water vapor already in the air is
dew point
The term "ATC" should be included in clearances relayed through a/an
dispatcher
9. A/an _______ consists of white arrows which point in the direction of landing, replacing the runway centerline, and beginning at the nonlanding portion to the threshold bar.
displaced threshold
An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in
distress
Extension of flaps causes an increase in
drag
A pilot should file a DVFR flight plan if flight will
enter coastal ADIZ.
AIRMET advisory bulletins are issued
every 6 hours
The purpose of a STAR is to
expedite ATC arrival procedures
Instrument Departure Procedure Routes have been established at certain airports to
facilitate transition between takeoff and en route operations.
Airmen's information is disseminated via Aeronautical Charts and
flight information publications
A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury stated in three digits is referred to as
flight level.
The direction of the relative wind is determined by the
flight path of the aircraft.
No person may operate aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless they have filed a
flight plan and received an ATC clearance.
Prevailing visibility is the _______ distance that can be seen throughout at least half of the horizon circle.
greatest
An air mass may be modified by
heating or cooling from below
15. To clear aircraft to hold over different fixes at the same altitude, you must ensure that all
holding pattern airspace areas do not overlap.
5. An "H" inside a large cross is the recommended marking for a ______ heliport.
hospital
Convective SIGMETs advisories are issued
hourly
Cloud heights are reported in
hundreds of feet.
A form of induction system icing would be
ice blocking air flow into an engine carburetor
A pilot in command may deviate from FAR, Part 91 if
if emergency requires immediate action.
Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of
increased separation and traffic management delays.
Decision Height
is the height at which a decision must be made to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach.
Hypoxia is a condition of the body that exists when there is
lack of oxygen in body tissue.
In comparison to the Terminal strip, the En Route strip is
larger with more blocks.
A SPECI is issued when the visibility decreases to ______ miles.
less than 3
Turbulence intensities are classified as
light, moderate, severe, and extreme
An airport identified by flashing white and yellow rotating beacon is
lighted water.
Prime Meridian
line located at zero degrees longitude
What is the prefix for a domestic general aviation aircraft when the aircraft type, model name, and/or manufacturer's name are unknown?
"November"
Decode R17/M0600FT.
"RUNWAY ONE SEVEN RVR LESS THAN SIX HUNDRED."
Decode +TSRAGR.
"THUNDERSTORM, HEAVY RAIN, HAIL."
Decode TORNADO E30.
"TORNADO ENDED AT THREE ZERO PAST THE HOUR."
Decode 32012G22KT 280V350.
"WIND THREE TWO ZERO AT ONE TWO, GUSTS TWO TWO, WIND VARIABLE BETWEEN TWO EIGHT ZERO AND THREE FIVE ZERO."
The surface wind is from 170 degrees at 20 knots. This would be stated as:
"Wind one seven zero at two zero."
If the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is NOT prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft, the minimum visibility for an IFR departure is ________ mile(s).
1
An aircraft is overdue on a VFR flight plan. An INREQ will be sent ________ after ETA if the aircraft has NOT been found.
1 hour.
The vertical dimensions of a low altitude VOR airway are from
1,200 feet AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 feet.
When there is a two-way radio failure, what is a pilot expected to do when the aircraft arrives at a clearance limit from which an approach begins?
1. Commence down and approach as close as possible to the EFC time if issued. 2. If no EFC, commence down and approach as close as possible to the ETA.
A nautical mile equals _____ statute miles (SM).
1.15
11. Radar separation at or above FL600 requires ______ miles separation between aircraft.
10
The standard minimum longitudinal separation between two aircraft using DME is ____ minutes or ____ miles.
10 minutes or 20 miles
8. The minimum vertical separation for IFR flight at and below FL280 is _______ feet.
1000
An aircraft travels at 450 knots for 2 hours, 30 minutes. How many nautical miles has the aircraft traveled?
1125
FB forecast altitudes are in true altitude through ________ feet.
12,000
A pilot requesting Lake Island Reporting Service will report every 10 minutes. Search and rescue must be initiated if NO report in received in ________ minutes.
15
The "standard" surface temperature at sea level is considered to be ______ degrees Celsius (______ degrees Fahrenheit).
15, 59
At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing's upper surface?
15-20
Time zones are established for every
15° of longitude.
What is the general speed range for CAT II aircraft?
160 - 250 knots
An aircraft NOT on a flight plan fails to arrive at its destination and a reliable source reports that the flight was due to arrive at 1500 UTC. This aircraft is considered overdue at
1600
At 1 PM DST in New York City, the time is _____ UTC. (Conversion factor is +5).
1700
The minimum age required to obtain an ATC tower certificate is
18
The base of the Jet Route structure is ________ feet MSL.
18,000
When NO altitude is depicted, the MEA on a Jet Airway is
18,000
The vertical dimensions of the Jet Route System is from
18,000 MSL up to and including FL450
An appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 6,500 feet MSL and more than 3,000 feet AGL would be ________ degrees.
190
Maximum valid time for a CWA is __ hours.
2
The Flight Service option has ______ designations for their strips.
2
The standard lapse rate in the Troposphere is how many degrees per thousand feet?
2 degrees Celsius
With no wind, vortices within 100 feet to 200 feet of the ground will move ___2___ to ___3___ knots laterally across the ground.
2 to 3 knots
17. In a TAF, wind shear is given in hundreds of feet AGL up to and including ________ feet.
2,000
What is generally the vertical limit of Class D Airspace?
2,500 feet above airport
Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall NOT be more than ______ knots.
200
What is the maximum speed of VFR aircraft below Class B airspace?
200 knots
What is the maximum speed of an aircraft operating within Class C or D airspace?
200 knots
7. The minimum vertical separation required for non-RVSM aircraft between FL290 and FL410 is _______ feet.
2000
The minimum IFR altitude at which a pilot may fly over a designated mountainous area is ________ feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of ________ nautical miles.
2000; 4
TAFs are normally valid for how many hours?
24
The GPS constellation of ______ satellites is designed so that a minimum of five are always observable by a user anywhere on Earth.
24
The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is ______ knots.
250
What should the altimeter be set at in an aircraft maintaining FL310?
29.92
Standard Barometric Pressure
29.92 in/hg
A VFR flight at 4,500 MSL within Class E airspace requires a flight visibility of ______ mile(s).
3
A Warning Area is established beyond ______ miles from the coast of the United States.
3
No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than
3 SM.
A hovering helicopter creates a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?
3 times diameter of rotors
When air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing versus the bottom, this will result in ________ the wing.
lower pressure above
In a TAF, PROB30 is used when the occurrence of an event is ________ percent.
30
6. A runway with a magnetic heading of 003 degrees should be designated Runway
36
In the standard atmosphere, the Troposphere is considered to extend from the surface of the Earth to approximately ________ feet.
36,000
A TACAN station projects
360 usable magnetic radials
VOR station projects
360 usable magnetic radials
The GPS receiver needs at least _______ satellites to yield three-dimensional information, including position, velocity, time, and altitude.
4
A transponder code consists of four numbers from zero to seven with _________ possible codes.
4096
An aircraft in the small weight class has a maximum certified takeoff weight of ___ pounds or less.
41,000
1. To apply the departure divergence rule, you must assign headings which diverge by at least ______ degrees.
45
10. To apply the lateral departure divergence rule, you must assign headings which diverge by at least _____ degrees.
45
Emergency Locator Transmitters (ELTs) are designed to operate continuously for at least ______ hours.
48
12. An en route facility providing radar separation between two aircraft at FL270 must provide NOT less than ______ miles separation.
5
2. The minimum en route radar separation required for two aircraft between FL180 and FL600 is ______ miles.
5
The ALNOT search area is generally described as:
50 miles either side of the route of flight from the last reported position to destination.
Terrain contour lines on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are depicted every ____ feet.
500
The distance from clouds for VFR flights in Class C and D airspace is
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
The Airport/Facility Directory is published every ______ days.
56
U.S. Terminal Procedure Charts
56 day
En Route Low Altitude Charts are published every ________ days and are for use below ________ feet MSL.
56; 18,000
The proposed departure time on a Terminal departure strip can be found in which block?
6
How many minutes are there in 1 degree of latitude?
60 Minutes
A tropical storm is reclassified as a hurricane when the wind speeds exceed what?
64 knots or 74 MPH
Which document provides direction and guidance for operating and managing air traffic facilities and offices?
7210.3
Transponder code for hijacked aircraft.
7500
An appropriate VFR altitude on a magnetic course of 250 degrees, and more than 3,000 feet above the surface, would be ______ feet.
8,500
For Terminal arrival strips, altitude information is found in which block?
9
On a Terminal overflight strip, altitude and route of flight can be found in which block?
9
Vortices from large aircraft will sink approximately 300 feet to 500 feet per minute and level off below the flight path at approximately
900 feet.
In which block would you find the destination airport on a Terminal arrival strip?
9A
A pilot in command operating in VFR conditions shall NOT cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in Class ______ Airspace.
A
Aircraft
A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air.
Reporting Point
A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.
Flight Level
A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury.
ATC
A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe, orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic.
The base of the Jet Route structure is ________ feet MSL.
AFSS
Widespread IFR conditions due to ceiling and fog would be described by what type of aviation weather advisory?
AIRMET
The transfer of search for an overdue aircraft to RCC is done after
ALNOT search has been completed with negative results.
Which facility has search and rescue responsibility for aircraft on a Special VFR flight plan?
ARTCC
Which facility is responsible for receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to the appropriate authorities?
ARTCC
The ATC facility that provides air traffic control services to aircraft on IFR flight plans during the en route phase of flight is
ARTCC.
When should a pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance, due to an emergency, notify ATC of that deviation?
ASAP
What prefix phrase should you use to relay a clearance to an aircraft through another aircraft?
ATC Clears
Who may be delegated the authority to approve a Letter of Agreement?
ATREPs, RADLOs, Air Traffic Managers
How do you convert local Daylight Savings Time to UTC?
Add the conversion factor, then subtract 1 hour.
Name some advantages and disadvantages of secondary radar.
Advantages - less vulnerable to blind spots, provides longer range, display not degraded by weather echoes or ground clutter. Disadvantages - Only displays aircraft with transponders, does not provide weather information, return is affected by aircraft operation.
13. In which document would you find factors affecting flight safety?
Aeronautical Information Manual
Which document provides the aviation community with basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the United States National Airspace System (NAS)?
Aeronautical Information Manual
Where is the RVR value reported in a METAR or SPECI report?
After the visibility element
The operation of the Traffic Management System is the responsibility of the
Air Traffic Control System Command Center (ATCSCC)
Radar Display
Airborne receiver/transmitter
Which item is always included in a clearance?
Aircraft Identification
The minimum information required for handling an emergency is
Aircraft identification and type, nature of the emergency, and pilot's desires.
In order for structural icing to form on an aircraft in flight, which of the following must occur?
Aircraft must be flying through visible moisture
Who is responsible for observing and reporting the conditions of the landing area of an airport?
Airport manager/operator
Instrument affected if pilot tube became clogged
Airspeed indictor
High volume pilot training
Alert Area
After approval by the Service Area Office, the Air Traffic Manager is responsible for
All of the above
What chart(s) or publication would you use to find out if an airport has a control tower, and the tower frequency?
All of the above
What are the four colors of colored airways?
Amber, blue, green, and red
What is the phraseology for American Airlines Flight 52?
American 52
Airpot
An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.
Air Traffic Clearance
An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.
To accept a clearance for the DANDD 1 arrival to Denver, the pilot must be in possession of the __________________ for that STAR.
Approved Chart
Each primary office is managed by a/an
Associate Administrator
For fixed-wing aircraft, vortices begin at what stage of flight?
At rotation or when lift begins
At what stage of flight do vortices end for fixed-winged aircraft?
At touchdown or when lift ends
Instrument NOT connected to pitot-static system?
Attitude Indicator
When included in the airport data, (A) means
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is available.
The center responsible for issuing Area Forecasts, AIRMETs, and SIGMETs iTs the
Aviation Weather Center
The airspace that generally extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL and surrounds a busy airport is designated as Class ______ Airspace.
B
On all Terminal strips, Block 5 is used for what purpose?
Beacon code
The statement, "the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases" is a part of
Bernoulli's Principle
For an En Route Strip, in which block does the aircraft type appear?
Block 4
On a Flight Service flight progress strip, in which block is the departure point information recorded ?
Block 4
What phenomenon is most likely to reduce visibility to near zero?
Blowing Snow
The boundary of Class B Airspace is always depicted in what color?
Blue
Airports with approved Instrument Approach Procedures are depicted in the colors
Blue and Green
Frequencies for approach and departure control functions can be found on what charts?
Both A and C
3. For a terminal facility to provide visual separation between two arriving IFR aircraft, the following condition must exist:
Both aircraft must be visually observed by the tower.
What position in the Automated Flight Service Station records and disseminates HIWAS summaries?
Broadcast
Antenna
Broadcasts interrogator transmission
A large downburst producing an outflow of wind in excess of 2.5 miles horizontally, lasting 5 to 30 minutes with speeds to 134 MPH are called
macrobursts
What category do helicopters fall under?
CAT I
A small, twin-engine, turboprop aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less will fall under which category?
CAT II
A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category?
CAT III
What category do turbojet engine aircraft fall under?
CAT III
As part of the TAF sky conditions, which cloud type(s) is/are forecast?
CB
When an inflight advisory has NOT yet been issued, but conditions meet the criteria to issue an advisory, a/an ________ may be issued.
CWA
What is the difference between a Center Weather Advisory and a Meteorological Impact Statement?
CWA: Now to 2hrs. MIS: 2-12 hours
Turbojet engines are limited to what weight class of aircraft?
Can be found on all
What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?
Carburetor icing
Providing forecast, weather consultation, and advice to managers is the role of the
Cener Weather Service Unit
The addition, deletion, or modification of information or instructions within an order are made through a
Change.
Which radar feature reduces or eliminates echoes from precipitation?
Circular Polarization
What type of polarization would be used to reduce areas of heavy precipitation from the radar display?
Circular polarization
SIDs and STARs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Publication - first under ______ then under ______.
City, Airport name
Jet routes are included in what airspace?
Class A
What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an operational control tower?
Class C
What airspace contains Federal VOR airways?
Class E
Glideslope component of ILS is inoperative.
Classified as a Localizer approach
Authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace is called an ATC
Clearance.
The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the
Collective.
Airports with control towers
Color blue
An NDB use with an Instrument Landing System (ILS)
Compass Locator
Which of the following duties is NOT the function of the Clearance Delivery position in the Tower?
Compiling statistical data
When a bomb threat has been received involving an aircraft you are working, you should inform the pilot of the threat and
Comply with any pilot requests
Solid triangles indicate
Compulsory reporting points
8. What runway marking identifies the full-length runway pavement area?
Continuous side stripes
What is a major difference between uncontrolled and controlled airspace?
Controlled airspace is a defined area where air traffic services are provided and aircraft operators are subject to certain qualifications, rules, and requirements. In uncontrolled airspace, air traffic control exercises no authority and has no responsibility for aircraft flying within it.
Which weather advisory would be used to describe embedded thunderstorms over Indiana and Ohio?
Convective SIGMET
What force deflects air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere?
Coriolis Force
The wind circulation around an area of low pressure in the Northern Hemisphere is
Counterclockwise and toward center
An authorization for a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance is a/an ________ Clearance.
Cruis
Cloud type frequently produces anvil shape and most hazardous to aviation
Cumulonimbus
The primary purpose of the Air Traffic Control System is to
D. all of the above.
What method of navigation requires flying a predetermined course, taking into account the effects of wind?
Dead Reckoning
What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?
Degrees of bank
The Terminal strip has three different uses including:
Departure, Arrival, and Overflight.
What term denotes a magnetic compass error that is caused by materials within the aircraft which possess magnetic properties?
Deviation
The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated is called
Dew Point
Which of the following is an advantage of a Secondary Radar System?
Displays are NOT degraded by weather echoes or ground clutter
An aircraft threatened by serious and/or imminent danger which requires immediate assistance is considered as a/an ________ condition.
Distress
When is an aircraft on a VFR flight plan considered overdue?
ETA + 30 minutes
What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?
Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
Why might the same turbulence be considered "light" by one aircraft and "severe" by another?
Effect on the aircraft varies depending on size and weight.
A Nonprecision approach does NOT provide
Electron glideslope information
Transponder
Electronic presentation of radar derived information
The first priority during coordination or during the transfer of information is ___.
Emergencies
What is the basic purpose of the autorotation maneuver?
Emergency Landing
Name the words you would use to interrupt a lower priority message when you have an emergency or control message to transmit.
Emergency and Control
A pilot would most likely be issued a STAR from a/an _______ controller.
En Route
IFR Area Charts use the same symbols as those found in the
En Route Low and High Altitude Charts
The reference line for measuring north-south distances is the
Equator
IFR Area Charts are published
Every 56 days
What is the call sign for a civil aircraft with the President aboard
Executive One
What is the primary reason SIDs have been developed?
Expedite clearance delivery and facilitate transition to en-route operations.
Under whose authority are the FARs issued?
FAA Administrator
Communications search for missing aircraft, under the SAR plan, is the primary responsibility of the
FAA.
9. Two thousand feet vertical separation is required for IFR flight above ______ to FL600.
FL410
The upper vertical limit of Class A Airspace is
FL600
The facility responsible for accepting, classifying, and disseminating Notices to Airmen is
FSS
When a VFR aircraft becomes overdue, who initiates the QALQ message?
FSS
Which facility has initial search and rescue responsibility for aircraft on a VFR flight plan?
FSS
Classification and dissemination of NOTAMs is the responsibility of
FSSs.
A (T) next to facility name
Facility is terminal class NAVAID
Who is responsible for originating Notices to Airmen?
Facility responsible for monitoring or controlling the navigational aid
Additional services are optional on the part of the controller.
False
All airports have Instrument Departure Procedures to allow transition from the terminal environment to the en route environment.
False
An aircraft must be in instrument flight conditions to execute an Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP).
False
Flight progress strips are only used as an aid and are NOT a legal document.
False
Helicopters do NOT fall into a category because they are not fixed-wing aircraft.
False
Localizer approach is a Precision approach.
False
Most CAT I aircraft will generally operate within the 300 to 550 knots speed range.
False
On a hot, humid day, an aircraft's landing ground speed is slower than on a cool, dry day.
False
Pilots are required to include the phrase, "No SID," on their flight plans if they do NOT want ATC to assign a SID to their flights.
False
Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to taxi.
False
What pre-flight action does FAR, Part 91 require pilots to take before beginning a flight?
Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight
What are the two requirements necessary to operate an aircraft in IFR flight in controlled airspace?
File an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance.
The AFSS position that initiates required search and rescue situations is the ______ position.
Flight Data/NOTAM/Coordinator
Frequencies placed just above a communication box on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart are used to contact which type of facility?
Flight Service Station
Used to determine angle of attack
Flight path and wing chord
Most common/persistent weather hazard in aviation?
Fog
Which of the following is NOT a form of precipitation?
Fog
Which statement best expresses Newton's Third Law of Motion?
For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
What must a helicopter be doing in order to generate wingtip vortices?
Forward Flight
How often are TAFs scheduled for issuance per day?
Four times
Two different air masses meet
Front
General Notices issued by Washington
GENOT
An ILS approach becomes a nonprecision approach when the ___________ fail(s).
Glideslope
The component of the ILS which provides the descent angle is the
Glideslope
Who is responsible for initiating coordination and obtaining approval of an aircraft to cross an active runway?
Ground Controller
Interrogator
Ground-based transmitter/receiver
Which is a gyroscopic instrument?
Heading indicator
An aircraft capable of 300,000 pounds of takeoff weight, but which currently only has a takeoff weight of 225,000 pounds, would fall into what weight class?
Heavy
The greatest wake turbulence is associated with which aircraft configuration?
Heavy, clean, slow
The different classes of VORs are
High, low, terminal
Three basic wing placement positions
High-wing, mid-wing, low-wing
What needs to be added to the letter 'S' when hand printed?
Horizontal line below the letter
In a TAF, what does the four-digit time appended to the FM contraction indicate?
Hour and minute the change is expected to begin.
Who is responsible for ensuring the uniform designations of aircraft throughout the world aviation community?
ICAO
What type of aviation hazard is considered cumulative in nature?
Icing
The purpose of the marker beacon is to
Identify a particular location.
An INREQ message is sent
If QALQ reply is negative
The weather-related hazard to aircraft that can accelerate forward and downward speeds, causing aircraft to crash on departure or landing is called a
microburst
The Rescue Coordination Center is operated by the
military.
Turbulence which causes changes in altitude and/or attitude, but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times should be identified as
moderate
When may a pilot deviate from an ATC clearance?
In an emergency
Between a Restricted Area and a Prohibited Area, which one would be the most dangerous to aircraft? Why?
In restricted areas, hazardous activities are conducted within the designated airspace. Prohibited areas do not have such activities and are established only to keep aircraft out.
Where is the transponder located?
In the aircraft
Controllers solicit PIREPs when ________ is reported.
moderate turbulence
The AFSS position that provides local airport advisories is the ______ position.
Inflight
Which of the following is an optional component of an ILS?
Inner marker beacon
What are the five major components of the secondary radar system?
Interrogator, transponder, antennae, decoder, display
Which of the following would NOT require the development of a Letter of Agreement?
Intrafacility coordnation
The primary function of the Traffic Management Unit is to
monitor and balance traffic flows within their area of responsibility in accordance with traffic management directives.
What type of lines connect points of equal difference between true and magnetic north?
Isogonic
Jet route 35 would be spoken as:
J Thirty-Five
Station identifiers for all weather reporting stations in the conterminous United States will begin with a/an
K
MEFS depict the elevation of the highest
Known feature within each section of the chart
Using Lines of Position (LOPs) to determine an aircraft's location is a characteristic of ________ navigation.
LORAN
Which air force base is responsible for search and rescue coordination for the inland region of the conterminous states?
Langley AFB
If an aircraft has a 250,000 pound maximum certified takeoff weight, what would its weight class be?
Large
When coordinates are used to define position, is latitude or longitude stated first?
Latitude
Prohibited Area
Letter P
What is the prefix for a civilian airborne ambulance flight?
Lifeguard
What is created when an airfoil is moved through the air?
Lift
What position in the Tower initiates control instructions?
Local Control
The component of the ILS which gives lateral course guidance to the runway is the
Localizer
Which component of an ILS makes the ILS approach NOT authorized if it fails?
Localizer
Which of the following components of an ILS is designed to provide the pilot with directional azimuth guidance to the runway?
Localizer
Which pressure system is likely to produce the most severe weather? Why?
Low pressure because you have convergence, therefore, you have lift.
MLS identification is a four-letter designation starting with the letter
M
A routine hourly observation that meets special criteria will be reported as a
METAR
What is an Aviation Routine Weather Report called?
METAR
An asterisk () before an altitude along a low altitude airway indicates a(n)
MOCA
A Mach speed of .8 is spoken as:
Mach point eight
Because of precession, the heading indicator is periodically set by the pilot to agree with the
Magnetic compass
Shall
Mandatory
Precipitation begins in which stage of a thunderstorm?
Mature
What type of turbulence is caused by any obstruction placed in the path of wind?
Mechanical turbulence
What causes anomalous propagation clutter on primary radar systems?
Moisture in the air bending the radar signal
Name the electronic device that permits radar presentations only from targets in motion.
Moving Target Indicatior
Responsibility for validating NOTAM data and operating the National NOTAM System belongs to
NFDC.
A NOTAM that is locally disseminated is classified as a
NOTAM L
Which one of the following items is NOT required on a VFR flight plan?
Name of each occupant
How are Automated Flight Service Stations (AFSSs) identified?
Name of facility followed by "radio"
How do you identify an airport traffic control tower?
Name of facility followed by "tower"
A provision for the effective utilization of all available facilities for search and rescue missions is called a
National Search and Rescue Plan
An interagency agreement that provides for the effective utilization of all facilities during search and rescue missions is called a/an
National Search and Rescue Plan
Which agency/office collects and analyzes meteorological and hydrological data, and subsequently prepares weather forecasts?
National Weather Service
The primary purpose of an IFR Area Chart is to furnish
terminal data for IFR flights
Supervising the regional collection and dissemination of NOTAMs is the responsibility of
the Service Area Office.
In the airport data "450 L 51 122.7," the letter "L" indicates
the airport has runway lighting.
If NO changeover point is depicted along an airway, it means that
the changeover is to be made at the halfway point between the two NAVAIDs.
RVR
the horizontal distance a pilot will see down the runway from the approach end.
Prohibited Area vertical airspace begins at
the surface of the Earth
The lower limit of Class B Airspace is
the surface.
A controller shall use the prefix phrases "ATC CLEARS," "ATC ADVISES," or "ATC REQUESTS" at the time that a clearance, advisory, or request is relayed
through a non-ATC facility
Each PIREP must include the type of aircraft, altitude, location, and
time
7. A _______ consists of markings of pairs of three, then two, and then one rectangular bar(s) on each side of the runway centerline, 500 feet apart.
touchdown zone
PIREPs are used by ________ to expedite the traffic flow in the vicinity of an airport.
towers
True heading is the
true course corrected for the effects of the wind.
When operating an aircraft at an airport that has an operating control tower, the pilot must have
two-way radio
Convective currents usually caused by
uneven heating of the Earth's surface.
Revised, reprinted, or new pages in Orders 7110.10, 7110.65, and 7210.3 are indicated by bold
vertical lines.
Counteracts lift
weight
SIGMET advisories are issued
when required.
In a METAR report, the visibility element follows the _______ element.
wind
A change in wind speed and/or direction in a short distance is
wind shear
The three principal airfoils on an aircraft that produce lift are
wing, propeller, and horizontal tail surfaces
An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical examination every
year.