AWS Course - Mini Quizes - Q7

S21/Q01: Auto Scaling in EC2 and DynamoDB are examples of? A. Horizontal scaling B. Vertical scaling

Correct Answer: A Auto Scaling in EC2 allows you to have the right number of instances to handle the application load. Auto Scaling in DynamoDB automatically adjusts read and write throughput capacity, in response to dynamically changing request volumes, with zero downtime. These are both examples of horizontal scaling.

S20/Q05: A hybrid company would like to provision desktops to their employees so they can access securely both the AWS Cloud and their data centers. Which AWS service can help? A. WorkSpaces B. AppStream 2.0 C. Site-to-Site VPN D. Sumerian

Correct Answer: A Amazon WorkSpaces is a fully managed, secure cloud desktop service. You can use Amazon WorkSpaces to provision either Windows or Linux desktops in just a few minutes and quickly scale to provide thousands of desktops to workers across the globe.

S19/Q01: A company would like to use their on-premises Microsoft Active Directory to connect to its AWS resources. Which service can it use? A. Directory Services B. Single Sign-On C. Direct Connect D. Cognito

Correct Answer: A AWS Directory Service makes it easy for you to setup and run directories in the AWS cloud, or connect your AWS resources with an existing on-premises Microsoft Active Directory.

S20/Q03: A company would like to create 3D applications for its customers. Which AWS service can it use? A. Sumerian B. SageMaker C. Polly D. Elastic Transcoder

Correct Answer: A Amazon Sumerian is a managed service that lets you create and run 3D, Augmented Reality (AR) and Virtual Reality (VR) applications. You can build immersive and interactive scenes that run on AR and VR, mobile devices, and your web browser.

S21/Q06: Which AWS service is the key to Operational Excellence? A. CloudFormation B. EC2 C. OpsWork D. CodeDeploy

Correct Answer: A CloudFormation is a key service to Operational Excellence as it prepares, operates, and evolves, but also performs operations as code.

ESQ/Q09: Which service would be used to send alerts based on Amazon CloudWatch alarms? A. Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS) B. AWS CloudTrail C. AWS Trusted Advisor D. Amazon Route 53

Correct Answer: A Amazon SNS and Amazon CloudWatch are integrated so users can collect, view, and analyze metrics for every active SNS. Once users have configured CloudWatch for Amazon SNS, they can gain better insight into the performance of their Amazon SNS topics, push notifications, and SMS deliveries.

S21/Q03: Which of the following are design principles of Performance Efficiency? A. Go global in minutes & experiment more often B. Analyze and attribute expenditure & stop spending money on data center operations C. Make frequent, small, reversible changes & anticipate failure D. Automate security best practices & keep people away from data

Correct Answer: A - Go global in minutes & experiment more often Performance Efficiency design principles include: democratize advanced technologies, go global in minutes, use serverless architecture, experiment more often, mechanical sympathy. Wrong Answer: B Wrong Answer: C - Make frequent, small, reversible changes & anticipate failure These are design principles of Operational Excellence. Wrong Answer: D

S19/Q03: A company just created a new mobile application and wants to add a simple and secure user sign-up, sign-in, and access control. Which AWS service can it use? A. IAM B. Cognito C. Directory Services D. Single Sign-On

Correct Answer: B Amazon Cognito lets you add user sign-up, sign-in, and access control to your web and mobile apps quickly and easily.

S20/Q01: You would like to convert an S3 file so it can be played on users' devices. Which AWS service can help? A. Transcribe B. Elastic Transcoder C. AppStream 2.0 D. Sumerian

Correct Answer: B Amazon Elastic Transcoder is media transcoding in the cloud. It is used to convert media files from their source format into versions that will play back on devices like smartphones, tablets, and PCs.

S21/Q02: AWS Trusted Advisor can provide guidance against the 5 Well-Architected pillars and architectural best practices. A. True B. False

Correct Answer: B The AWS Well-Architected Tool helps you review the state of your workloads and compares them to the latest AWS architectural best practices. It is based on the 5 pillars of the Well-Architected Framework (Operational Excellence, Security, Reliability, Performance Efficiency, and Cost Optimization). AWS Trusted Advisor is an online tool that provides you real time guidance to help you provision your resources following AWS best practices (Cost Optimization, Performance, Security, Fault Tolerance, and Service Limits).

ESQ/Q08: Which service can identify the user that made the API call when an Amazon EC2 instance is terminated? A. AWS Trusted Advisor B. AWS CloudTrail C. AWS X-Ray D. AWS Identity and Access Management (AWS IAM)

Correct Answer: B AWS CloudTrail helps users enable governance, compliance, and operational and risk auditing of their AWS accounts. Actions taken by a user, role, or an AWS service are recorded as events in CloudTrail. Events include actions taken in the AWS Management Console, AWS Command Line Interface (CLI), and AWS SDKs and APIs

ESQ/Q02: Which AWS service would simplify the migration of a database to AWS? A. AWS Storage Gateway B. AWS Database Migration Service (AWS DMS) C. Amazon EC2 D. Amazon AppStream 2.0

Correct Answer: B AWS DMS helps users migrate databases to AWS quickly and securely. The source database remains fully operational during the migration, minimizing downtime to applications that rely on the database. AWS DMS can migrate data to and from most widely used commercial and open-source databases.

ESQ/Q05: Which of the following is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model? A. Configuring third-party applications B. Maintaining physical hardware C. Securing application access and data D. Managing guest operating systems

Correct Answer: B Maintaining physical hardware is an AWS responsibility under the AWS shared responsibility model.

ESQ/Q06: Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use to ensure low-latency delivery? A. AWS Regions B. Edge locations C. Availability Zones D. Virtual Private Cloud (VPC)

Correct Answer: B To deliver content to users with lower latency, Amazon CloudFront uses a global network of points of presence (edge locations and regional edge caches) worldwide.

S21/Q05: Testing recovery procedures, stopping guessing capacity, and managing changes in automation are design principles of Performance Efficiency. A. True B. False

Correct Answer: B (False) Testing recovery procedures, stopping guessing capacity, and managing changes in automation are design principles of Reliability. Performance Efficiency design principles include: democratize advanced technologies, go global in minutes, use serverless architecture, experiment more often, mechanical sympathy.

S21/Q04: Which of the following is NOT an AWS Partner Network (APN) type? A. APN Technology Partners B. APN Services Partners C. APN Consulting Partners D. APN Training Partners

Correct Answer: B - APN Services Partners This is a distractor. This type of AWS Partner Network does not exist. It is made up with words related to the AWS Partner Network. Wrong Answer: A - APN Technology Partners APN Technology Partners provide hardware, connectivity services, or software solutions that are either hosted on, or integrated with, the AWS Cloud.

S21/Q08: AWS Cost Explorer and AWS Trusted Advisor are services examples of which Well-Architected Framework pillar? A. Security B. Operational Excellence C. Cost Optimization D. Performance Efficiency

Correct Answer: C AWS Cost Explorer and AWS Trusted Advisor are Cost Optimization services examples. It also includes AWS Budgets, Cost and Usage Reports, etc.

S20/Q02: You would like to access desktop applications through a browser. Which AWS service would you use? A. Outposts B. Workspaces C. AppStream 2.0 D. EC2 Instance Connect

Correct Answer: C Amazon AppStream 2.0 is a fully managed non-persistent application and desktop streaming service that provides users instant access to their desktop applications from anywhere.

ESQ/Q07: How would a system administrator add an additional layer of login security to a user's AWS Management Console? A. Use Amazon Cloud Directory B. Audit AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles C. Enable multi-factor authentication D. Enable AWS CloudTrail

Correct Answer: C Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a simple best practice that adds an extra layer of protection on top of a username and password. With MFA enabled, when a user signs in to an AWS Management Console, they will be prompted for their username and password (the first factor—what they know), as well as for an authentication code from their MFA device (the second factor—what they have). Taken together, these multiple factors provide increased security for AWS account settings and resources.

S19/Q02: Which of the following services can help you manage multiple AWS accounts? A. IAM B. Directory Services C. Organizations D. Single Sign-On

Correct Answer: C Organizations helps you to centrally manage billing; control access, compliance, and security; and share resources across your AWS accounts.

S21/Q09: Implementing Security Groups, NACLs, KMS, or CloudTrail reflects which Well-Architected Framework Pillar? A. Reliability B. Performance Efficiency C. Security D. Cost Optimization

Correct Answer: C The Security pillar includes the ability to protect information, systems, and assets while delivering business value through risk assessments and mitigation strategies.

ESQ/Q01: Why is AWS more economical than traditional data centers for applications with varying compute workloads? A. Amazon EC2 costs are billed on a monthly basis. B. Users retain full administrative access to their Amazon EC2 instances. C. Amazon EC2 instances can be launched on demand when needed. D. Users can permanently run enough instances to handle peak workloads.

Correct Answer: C The ability to launch instances on demand when needed allows users to launch and terminate instances in response to a varying workload. This is a more economical practice than purchasing enough on-premises servers to handle the peak load.

S20/Q04: Which AWS service is serverless and lets you connect billions of devices to the AWS Cloud? A. Transit Gateway B. Connect C. Elastic Transcoder D. IoT Core

Correct Answer: D AWS IoT Core lets you securely connect IoT devices to the AWS Cloud and other devices without the need to provision or manage servers.

S19/Q04: A company would like to centrally manage access to multiple AWS accounts and business applications. Which service can it use? A. Organizations B. Cognito C. Directory Service D. Single Sign-On

Correct Answer: D AWS SSO is an AWS service that enables you to makes it easy to centrally manage access to multiple AWS accounts and business applications and provide users with single sign-on access to all their assigned accounts and applications from one place.

ESQ/Q03: Which AWS offering enables users to find, buy, and immediately start using software solutions in their AWS environment? A. AWS Config B. AWS OpsWorks C. AWS SDK D. AWS Marketplace

Correct Answer: D AWS Marketplace is a digital catalog with thousands of software listings from independent software vendors that makes it easy to find, test, buy, and deploy software that runs on AWS.

ESQ/Q04: Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS? A. AWS Config B. Amazon Route 53 C. AWS Direct Connect D. Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

Correct Answer: D Amazon VPC lets users provision a logically isolated section of the AWS Cloud where users can launch AWS resources in a virtual network that they define.

ESQ/Q10: Where can a user find information about prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure? A. AWS Trusted Advisor B. AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) C. AWS Billing Console D. AWS Acceptable Use Policy

Correct Answer: D The AWS Acceptable Use Policy provides information regarding prohibited actions on the AWS infrastructure.

S21/Q07: Which of the following options is NOT a vertical scaling limit? A. Downtime B. Higher Cost C. Capacity limitation D. Better fault tolerance

Correct Answer: D - Better fault tolerance This is an advantage of horizontal scaling Wrong Answer: A - Downtime Downtime is usually required when using vertical scaling. Wrong Answer: B - Higher Cost Vertical scaling is usually more expensive than horizontal scaling. Wrong Answer: C - Capacity limitation You cannot infinitely scale with vertical scaling.