BIL 150 Gaines Test 3 - 2013

In chickens, CC is normal, Cc results in a chicken with abnormally-short right legs called creeper, and cc is lethal (dies during embryonic development). At the B locus: BB-black, Bb-blue, and bb-white. What are the expected proportion of blue creeper offspring when CcBb x Ccbb? A. 1/3 B. 1/6 C. 1/4 D. 1/8 E. 1/2

A. 1/3

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 E. 80

A. 10

Based on your answer to question 26 which of the following best explains why androgen abuse among males may lead to decreased sperm production? A. Androgens can instruct the pituitary to decrease secretion of luteinizing hormone. B. Androgens stimulate the production of hormones that result in the exertion of negative feedback in the testes. C. Androgens stimulate excessive growth of the male accessory organs (like the prostate gland), thus blocking the effective transfer of sperm through the reproductive tract. D. Androgens stimulate the release of excessive amounts of luteinizing hormone that has a damaging effect on the testicular cells responsible for spermatogenesis. E. Both A and B are correct

A. Androgens can instruct the pituitary to decrease secretion of luteinizing hormone.

A cell in which of the following phases would have the least amount of DNA? A. G1 B. G2 C. prophase D. metaphase E. anaphase

A. G1

You are a doctor who vaccinates a patient against tetanus caused by the anaerobic bacterium Clostridium tetani. How does her body produce antibodies against C. tetani? A. The B cell with the appropriate receptor is stimulated to divide, producing plasma cells that make antibodies to C. tetani, and memory cells that "remember" C. tetani. B. The B cell that produces the appropriate antibody undergoes genomic rearrangement in order to produce other cells that produce the same antibody. C. Every B cell in her body produces antibodies against C. tetani. D. Every cell in her immune system produces antibodies against C. tetani. E. Both A and B are correct

A. The B cell with the appropriate receptor is stimulated to divide, producing plasma cells that make antibodies to C. tetani, and memory cells that "remember" C. tetani.

Which one of the following describes the correct sequence of stages during embryogenesis? A. cleavage, 8-cell stage, blastula, gastrula B. cleavage, gastrula, , 8-cell stage blastula C. blastula, cleavage, 8-cell stage, gastrula D. cleavage, blastula, 8-cell stage gastrula E. gastrula, cleavage, 8-cell stage blastula

A. cleavage, 8-cell stage, blastula, gastrula

You buy a pie that contains a swirled mixture of chocolate and vanilla filling. When you cut the pie up, you notice that some slices have more chocolate than vanilla and that other slices have more vanilla than chocolate. This uneven distribution of chocolate and vanilla is most like the uneven distribution of A. cytoplasmic determinants in a zygote. B. nuclei in a zygote. C. nuclei in an early embryo. D. nuclei in sperm E. nuclei in an egg.

A. cytoplasmic determinants in a zygote.

Cell differentiation is first observable when _____. A. mRNAs for tissue-specific proteins appear in a cell B. patterns of mitosis change in different cells C. a cell appears different under the microscope D. the genome of a particular cell changes E. apoptosis occurs

A. mRNAs for tissue-specific proteins appear in a cell

Cancer causing genes found in some viruses are called: A. oncogenes. B. proto-oncogenes. C. tumor suppressor genes. D. viral genes. E. Both A and B are correct

A. oncogenes.

The litter resulting from the mating of two short-tailed cats contained three kittens without tails, two with long tails, and six with short tails. By accident a female with no tail was mated with a male with a long tail from the litter as adults. What are the expected phenotypes from this cross? A. 100% long tails B. 100%, short tails C. 75% long tails; 25% no tails D. 75% long tails; short tail E. Cannot be determined without knowing dominant and recessive allelles.

B. 100%, short tails

If an individual carries a mutation that results in a complete lack of MHC class I proteins, how would the individual's immune response be affected? A. Plasma cell antibodies would not be able to attach to antigen epitopes. B. Cytotoxic T cells would not be able to target (and destroy) infected cells. C. Helper T cells would not be able to interact with antigen-presenting cells. D. Plasma cell antibodies would not be able to attach to antigen epitopes. E. B cells would not be able to form memory cells.

B. Cytotoxic T cells would not be able to target (and destroy) infected cells.

What is the purpose of getting a "flu shot" every year? A. It lets your body get used to having the flu so that you won't feel as sick when you actually do get the flu. B. It exposes your immune system to antigens present on the flu virus, and antibodies can be made by the immune system C. It exposes your immune system to antibodies present on the flu virus, and antigens can be made by the immune system D. It exposes your immune system to the virus and causes gene recombination in memory B-cells. E. Both A and B are correct

B. It exposes your immune system to antigens present on the flu virus, and antibodies can be made by the immune system

Which of the following would you expect in an individual who contracted the HIV virus within the past 6 weeks? A. an overwhelmed immune system and systemic disease, because the diminished T count leaves the individual unable to ward off disease B. a rapidly declining helper T cell concentration because the virus reproduces quickly, before the immune system can mount a defense C. clogged arteries, because the HIV virions cause the blood to agglutinate D. malnutrition, because the virus diminishes the individual's ability to absorb nutrients E. a low blood count, because the virions destroy the host cells faster than the body can replace them

B. a rapidly declining helper T cell concentration because the virus reproduces quickly, before the immune system can mount a defense

You are a doctor examining a patient's blood test reports. You are looking at the ratio of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells. Helper T cells ____________; cytotoxic T cells ____________. You can tell them apart by the type of protein they ____________. A. activate other immune system cells; kill altered host cells; secrete B. activate other immune system cells; kill altered host cells; express on their plasma membrane C. kill altered host cells; activate other immune system cells; secrete D. kill altered host cells; activate other immune system cells; express on their plasma membrane E. activate antigens; destroy antigens; digest

B. activate other immune system cells; kill altered host cells; express on their plasma membrane

A dominant gene, A, causes yellow color in rats. The dominant allele of another independent gene, R, produces black coat color. When the two dominants occur together (A_ R_), they interact to produce gray. Rats of the genotype aarr are cream-colored. If a gray male and a yellow female, when mated, produce offspring approximately 3/8 of which are yellow, 3/8 gray, 1/8 cream, and 1/8 black, what are the genotypes of the two parents? A. father: AaRR; mother: Aarr B. father: AaRr; mother: Aarr C. father: AARR; mother: Aarr D. father: AARr; mother: AArr E. father: AArr; mother: AArr

B. father: AaRr; mother: Aarr

A procedure used in treating cancer patients is peripheral blood stem cell transplantation (PBSCT). Stem cells are removed from patients before they receive high-dose chemotherapy or radiation treatments. The stem cells used in PBSCT come from the bloodstream using a process called apheresis. Blood is removed through a large vein in the arm and goes through a machine that removes the stem cells. The stem cells are then frozen until they are given to the recipient. These stem cells produce a variety of different types of blood cells to restore those that have been destroyed by intense chemotherapy or radiation. Thus, the stem cells in this "rescue" transplant are A. unipotent B. multipotent C. pluripotent D. totipotent E. impotent

B. multipotent

Secretion of androgens is regulated by a _____ feedback mechanism involving the _____ and _____. A. positive ... hypothalamus ... pituitary gland B. negative ... hypothalamus ... pituitary gland C. positive ... thyroid ... pituitary gland D. negative ... prostate... pituitary gland E. negative ... seminal vesicles ... prostate gland

B. negative ... hypothalamus ... pituitary gland

Which of the following structures in females is analogous in function to the vas deferens in males? A. urethra B. oviduct C. uterus D. cervix E. vagina

B. oviduct

Naturally acquired passive immunity would involve the A. injection of vaccine. B. placental transfer of antibodies. C. injection of antibodies. D. absorption of pathogens through mucous membranes. E. ingestion of interferon.

B. placental transfer of antibodies.

A function-disrupting mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result in A. the absence of mammary gland development. B. the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy. C. the absence of pituitary gonadotropin releasing hormones. D. the absence of secondary sex characteristics. E. enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium.

B. the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy.

What is the probability of a couple having four boys or four girls? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/8 D. 1/16 E. 3/4

C. 1/8

Which of the following statements about the clonal-selection theory of immune system function is FALSE? A. An activated B cell makes many copies of itself in response to an infection. B. Each B cell recognizes one antigen. C. Antigens are recognized by receptor proteins inside the B cell D. Cloned cells persist after the pathogen is eliminated. E. Both A & B are false

C. Antigens are recognized by receptor proteins inside the B cell

Homer recently changed jobs and is now in charge of "labeling babies" at a hospital. On a very busy night, four babies were born "rapid fire." Homer, being flustered as usual, forgot to label the new arrivals. To manage Homer's bungling, the babies and parents were ABO blood typed, with the following results: Baby 1 = O blood type Parents: A. AB x O Baby 2 = A blood type . Parents: B A x O Baby 3 = B blood type Parents: C AB x A Baby 4 = AB blood type Parents: D O x O Based on this information which of the following is the correct pairing of these babies and parents? A. Baby 1 = Parents A; Baby 2 = Parents B; Baby 3 = Parents C; Baby 4 = Parents D B. Baby 1 = Parents D; Baby 2 = Parents C; Baby 3 = Parents A; Baby 4 = Parents B C. Baby 1 = Parents D; Baby 2 = Parents B; Baby 3 = Parents A; Baby 4 = Parents C D. Baby 1 = Parents B; Baby 2 = Parents A; Baby 3 = Parents C; Baby 4 = Parents D E. Baby 1 = Parents C; Baby 2 = Parents A; Baby 3 = Parents D; Baby 4 = Parents D

C. Baby 1 = Parents D; Baby 2 = Parents B; Baby 3 = Parents A; Baby 4 = Parents C

What is the greatest benefit of using a testcross? A. All of the progeny will be heterozygous. B. The homozygous parents are the only ones whose crossovers make a difference. C. Progeny can be scored by their phenotypes alone. D. The homozygous recessive parents are obvious to the naked eye. E. The homozygous recessive parents will be unable to cross over.

C. Progeny can be scored by their phenotypes alone.

A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with cyclin-dependent kinase 2(Cdk-2)). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The amount of free cyclin E is greatest during the S phase. B. The amount of free Cdk 2 is greater during G1 compared to the S phase. C. The amount of free cyclin E is highest during G1. D. The amount of free Cdk 2 is greatest during G1. E. The activity of the cyclin E/Cdk 2 complex is highest during G2.

C. The amount of free cyclin E is highest during G1.

The amount of ____________ is fairly constant throughout the cell cycle, but the amount of ____________ varies. A. cyclins... cyclin-dependent kinases B. DNA... cyclins C. cyclin-dependent kinases ...DNA D. cyclins... DNA E. MPF... cyclin-dependent kinases

C. cyclin-dependent kinases ...DNA

During the menstrual cycle, ________ peaks first, ________ peak next, and finally ________ surges. A. estrogen; LH and progesterone; FSH B. progesterone; LH and FSH; estrogen C. estrogen; LH and FSH; progesterone D. estrogen; LH and FSH; testosterone E. testosterone; estrogen and FSH; progesterone

C. estrogen; LH and FSH; progesterone

In Drosophila melanogaster, vestigial wings are caused by a recessive allele of a gene that is linked to a gene with a recessive allele that causes black body color. Morgan crossed black-bodied normal-winged females and gray-bodied vestigial-winged males. The F1 were all gray bodied, normal winged. After examining the F2 progeny, Morgan calculated the map distance to be 17 map units. Which of the following is correct about the F2 progeny? A. black-bodied normal-winged flies = 17% B. black-bodied, normal-winged flies + gray-bodied, vestigial-winged flies = 17% C. gray-bodied, normal-winged flies + black-bodied, vestigial-winged flies = 17% D. black-bodied, vestigial-winged flies = 17% E. none of the above

C. gray-bodied, normal-winged flies + black-bodied, vestigial-winged flies = 17%

If an amphibian zygote is manipulated so that the first cleavage plane fails to divide the gray crescent, then A. the daughter cell with the entire gray crescent will die. B. both daughter cells will develop normally because amphibians are totipotent at this stage. C. only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally. D. both daughter cells will develop abnormally. E. both daughter cells will die immediately.

C. only the daughter cell with the gray crescent will develop normally.

The transfusion of type A blood to a person who has type O blood would result in A. the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells dependent on helper T cells. B. the recipient's anti-A and anti-O antibodies reacting with the donated red blood cells if the donor was a heterozygote (IAi) for blood type. C. the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells independent of helper T cells D. no reaction because type O is a universal donor. E. no reaction because the O-type individual does not have antibodies.

C. the recipient's anti-A antibodies clumping the donated red blood cells independent of helper T cells

Tiffany and Kenny each have a sibling with sickle-cell disease. Neither Tiffany or Kenny nor any of their parents have the disease. No one in the two families was tested for sickle cell trait until Tiffany who was going to South Africa to study oxpeckers in Kruger National Park where there is malaria decided to get tested. She tested positive for sickle cell trait. Kenny joined her in South Africa later and didn't have time to get tested. Tiffany became pregnant and a sonogram indicated she was going to give birth to fraternal twins (two different ova fertilized by two sperm) a boy and girl. Based on this incomplete information, calculate the probability that when Tiffany gives birth, both babies will have sickle-cell disease. A. 1/4 B. 1/6 C. 1/9 D. 1/24 E. Cannot be determined with information given

D. 1/24

Assume the weight of pumpkins is a quantitative trait that is controlled by genes at two loci A and B. Individuals that are aabb have a weight of 2 kg. Individuals that are AABB weigh 4kg. Therefore, each gene designated with an upper case letter adds a ½ kg to the pumpkin's weight. If AaBb is crossed with aaBb, what proportion of the pumpkins will weigh 3.5 kg? A. 1/4 B. 1/2 C. 3/8 D. 1/8 E. 1/16

D. 1/8

How many gametes could be produced by the genotype AabbCcDdEeFf A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 32 E. 64

D. 32

In humans, assume that male-pattern baldness may be controlled by an autosomal gene that occurs in two allelic forms. Allele Hn determines nonbaldness, and allele Hb determines pattern baldness. In males, because of the presence of testosterone, allele Hb is dominant over Hn. If a man and woman both with genotype HnHb have a son, the chance that he will eventually be bald is ______ but if they have a daughter her chance of eventually being bald is ______. A. 50%......50% B. 25% .....25% C. 25% .....75% D. 75%.....25% E. 75%......75%

D. 75%.....25%

Which is the best evidence that a Hox gene found in flies and a Hox gene found in mice are homologous? A. The genes are expressed in analogous regions of fly and mice embryos. B. The genes perform similar functions during development. C. Both genes encode regulatory transcription factors. D. All animals have a similar gene. E. Both genes have a promoter region

D. All animals have a similar gene.

If an impermeable piece of plastic were placed at the dorsal lip of the blastopore in early frog embryos, what would be the likely outcome? A. Cell movements to the inside of the gastrula would be inhibited. B. The organization of the three germ layers would be inhibited C. Two tadpoles would be formed attached by their belly skin. D. Both A and B are correct E. A, B and C

D. Both A and B are correct

Differentiation is a step-by-step process. When comparing embryonic stem cells with the stem cells found in your blood, which statement is true about their relative stages of differentiation? A. Embryonic stem cells are committed to a specific developmental pathway, whereas the stem cells found in your blood are fully undifferentiated. B. Both embryonic stem cells and the stem cells found in your blood are partially differentiated and committed to a specific developmental pathway. C. Both embryonic stem cells and the stem cells found in your blood are fully undifferentiated. D. Embryonic stem cells are fully undifferentiated, whereas adult stem cells found in your blood are committed to a specific developmental pathway. E. Embryonic stem cells are totipotent whereas stem cells in your blood are pluripotent

D. Embryonic stem cells are fully undifferentiated, whereas adult stem cells found in your blood are committed to a specific developmental pathway.

You are a physician who examines a swollen and warm puncture wound on the hand of a patient. Does the patient's immune system response to this wound tell you that every aspect of his or her immune system is functioning normally? A. Yes, because the response of swelling and warmth at a wound site shows a complete response by both the innate and adaptive immune systems of animals. B. No, because this response does not include the response of inflammation. C. No, because this response does not include neutrophils. D. No, because this response does not include the adaptive immune response. E. All the answer options are incorrect.

D. No, because this response does not include the adaptive immune response.

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle? A. an increase in production once the restriction point is passed B. the cascade of increased production once its protein is phosphorylated by Cdk C. the changing ratio of cytoplasm to genome D. its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a Cdk E. the binding of a specific growth factor to receptors on the cell surface

D. its destruction by a process initiated by the activity of its complex with a Cdk

Some human infants, especially those born prematurely, suffer serious respiratory failure because of A. the sudden change from the uterine environment to the air. B. the overproduction of surfactants. C. the incomplete development of the lung surface. D. lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant. E. mutations in the genes involved in lung formation.

D. lung collapse due to inadequate production of surfactant.

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that A. reduces cyclin concentrations. B. increases cyclin concentrations. C. prevents elongation of microtubules. D. prevents shortening of microtubules. E. prevents attachment of the microtubules to the kinetochore.

D. prevents shortening of microtubules.

Which male reproductive structures are responsible for the transport and delivery of sperm? A. seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and bulbourethral gland. B. testis and epididymis. C. seminal vesicles, ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, and urethra. D. vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, and penis. E. testis and prostate gland

D. vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra, and penis.

Imagine that you are a genetic counselor, and a couple planning to start a family comes to you for information. Charles was married once before, and he and his first wife had a child with cystic fibrosis. The brother of his current wife, Elaine, died of cystic fibrosis. Neither Charles, Elaine, nor their parents have cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that Charles and Elaine will have two sons, both with cystic fibrosis? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/6 D. 1/12 E. 1/24

E. 1/24

When can nondisjunction occur? A. In meiosis I, when homologous chromosomes fail to separate B. In meiosis II, when sister chromatids fail to separate C. In mitosis, when sister chromatids fail to separate D. Both A and B E. A, B and C

E. A, B and C

In sexually reproducing organisms what leads to genetic variation A. independent orientation of chromosomes in anaphase I of meiosis B. crossing over of chromosomes in Prophase I of meiosis C. random fertilization D. Both A and B are correct E. A,B and C

E. A,B and C

In humans, oogenesis in comparison to spermatogenesis is different in that _____. A. a mature ovum has not yet completed its second meiotic division B. the first meiotic division is not completed unless the egg is reactivated by a hormone C. the sequence from primary oocyte to ovum is interrupted by a relatively long resting period D. cytokinesis is unequal during the meiotic divisions E. All of the above are correct.

E. All of the above are correct.

Which of the following are unique characteristics or components of the adaptive―but not innate―immune system? A. specificity B. immune "memory" C. natural killer cells D. phagocytosis E. Both A and B

E. Both A and B

A given organism has 46 chromosomes in its karyotype. What can we definitely conclude from this information? A. It must be human. B. It must be a primate. C. It must be an animal. D. It must be sexually reproducing. E. Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

E. Its gametes must have 23 chromosomes.

Which term is least related to the others? A. p21 B. mdm2 C. p53 D. WAF-1 E. Ras

E. Ras

Imagine that a person breathes in a potentially pathogenic bacterium. What defenses will the bacterium encounter as it travels through the human body? A. cilia in the nasal cavity B. mucus in the lungs (if the bacterium enters the respiratory tract) C. digestive enzymes in the stomach (if the bacterium enters the gastrointestinal tract) D. phagocytes (if the bacterium enters the bloodstream) E. all of the above

E. all of the above

Sunflower plants send out underground stems. New plants can sprout from these stems. This is an example of A. asexual reproduction B. vegetative reproduction C. rhizomes growing into new plants D. a clone E. all of the above

E. all of the above

B cells have antigen receptors that bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. T cells have antigen receptors that A. bind only to freely dissolved antigens in the plasma. B. are active only in lymph nodes. C. bind to antigens that are either freely dissolved or present on the surface of invading/foreign cells. D. bind only to antigens present on the surface of the invading/foreign cells. E. bind to antigen fragments presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.

E. bind to antigen fragments presented on major histocompatability complexes by host cells.