BIO Final

Melanin production can be influenced by A. genetics. B. hormones. C. exposure to sunlight. D. pregnancy. E. All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct

Which of the following events is NOT a characteristic of an action potential? A. The plasma membrane becomes highly permeable to sodium ions and depolarization results. B. As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative. C. At the peak of depolarization, sodium channels begin to close and potassium channels open. D. In repolarization, potassium ions flow out of the cell. E. Action potentials occur according to the all-or-none principle.

As sodium ions enter, the inside of the plasma membrane becomes more negative.

The substantia nigra interconnects with the A. basal nuclei. B. tegmentum. C. red nuclei. D. reticular nuclei. E. tectum.

Basal Nuclei

which type of taste has the lowest threshold? A. sweet B. bitter C. salty D. sour E. umami

Bitter

What ion(s) cause(s) depolarization in olfactory neurons? A. Na+ B. Ca2+ C. K+ D. Both Na+ and K+ E. Both Na+ and Ca2+

Both Na+ and Ca2+

The cytoplasm is made up of A. cytosol. B. cytogel. C. organelles. D. Both cytosol and organelles. E. Both cytogel and organelles.

Both cytosol and organelles.

Osteoclast activity would decrease when ________ levels are elevated. A. parathyroid hormone. B. vitamin D. C. calcitonin. D. growth hormone. E. vitamin C.

Calcitonin

Improper use of crutches could cause compression of the _____ nerve. A. axillary B. radial C. musculocutaneous D. ulnar E. median

Radial

Which of the following is a proton donor? A. an acid B. a base C. a salt D. glucose E. a neutral substance

an acid

Saltatory conduction of an action potential means that A. once one action potential is created, it moves down the axon. B. the whole axon depolarizes at the same time. C. one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. D. an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.

an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.

Arthritis is A. a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B. an inflammation of any joint. C. a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D. a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E. the most common type of arthritis.

an inflammation of any joint.

An example of a gap junction is A. a desmosome. B. an adhesion belt. C. a striation. D. an intercalated disk. E. goblet cell.

an intercalated disk.

The anterior cruciate ligament prevents _____ displacement of the tibia. A. anterior B. posterior C. lateral D. medial E. radial

anterior

In _______, ions or molecules move in opposite directions. A. symport B. uniport C. antiport D. comport E. ionport

antiport

ATPase is found in A. F-actin strands. B. G-actin globular units. C. myosin heads. D. tropomyosin grooves. E. troponin molecules.

myosin heads.

The skin that covers the lateral and proximal edges of the nail is the A. nail root. B. nail body. C. nail fold. D. eponychium. E. hyponychium.

nail fold

Nail cells are produced by the A. lunula. B. cuticle. C. nail body. D. nail matrix. E. nail groove.

nail matrix.

what canal conveys tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity? A. carotid canal B. external auditory canal C. jugular foramen D. nasolacrimal canal E. foramen ovale

nasolacrimal canal

A blood clot stimulating even more blood clotting is an example of A. negative feedback. B. positive feedback. C. neutral feedback. D. metabolism. E. There is no feedback involved.

positive feedback.

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is A. lordosis. B. kyphosis. C. scoliosis. D. spina bifida. E. herniated disk.

scoliosis.

Which of the following is classified as a holocrine gland? A. sweat gland B. salivary gland C. sebaceous gland D. mammary gland E. exocrine part of pancreas

sebaceous gland

Receptors that release neurotransmitters in response to a receptor potential as A. phasic receptors. B. primary receptors. C. secondary receptors. D. tonic receptors.

secondary receptors.

What occurs when wound edges are far apart? A. edema B. secondary union C. neutrophil D. granulation tissue E. scar

secondary union

Ligaments attach A. muscle to muscle. B. bone to bone. C. muscle to bone. D. nerve to bone. E. nerve to muscle

bone to bone

Lamellae are characteristic of A. compact bone tissue. B. cancellous bone tissue. C. spongy bone tissue. D. hyaline cartilage. E. fibrocartilage.

compact bone tissue.

Which of the following is a descending pathway in the spinal cord? A. fasciculus gracilis B. corticospinal tract C. spinothalamic tract D. spinoreticular tract E. trigeminothalamic tract

corticospinal tract

Axons exit the sympathetic chain ganglia by all of the following except A. spinal nerves. B. cranial nerves. C. splanchnic nerves. D. sympathetic nerves. E. nerves that innervate the adrenal medulla.

cranial nerves.

The area of greatest visual acuity is the A. lens. B. fovea centralis. C. optic disc. D. posterior chamber. E. blind spot.

fovea centralis.

A major limitation of radiographs is that they A. can only visualize bone. B. give only a flat, two-dimensional image of the body. C. are old technology that do not give good results. D. have very few applications.

give only a flat, two-dimensional image of the body.

What is the most commonly dislocated joint in the body? A. glenohumeral joint B. temporomandibular joint C. humeroulnar joint D. coxal joint E. knee joint

glenohumeral joint

The largest buttocks muscle is the A. iliopsoas. B. psoas major. C. gluteus maximus. D. tensor fascia latae. E. piriformis.

gluteus maximus.

The joint between the teeth and the mandibular alveolus is an example of a A. suture. B. syndesmosis. C. gomphosis. D. synostosis. E. symphysis.

gomphosis.

Visual inspection of the appearance of the liver and gallbladder during surgery is associated with which of the following? A. histology B. physiology C. gross anatomy D. radiology E. cytology

gross anatomy

The portion of a hair that protrudes above the surface of the skin is the A. hair bulb. B. hair root. C. hair shaft. D. hair follicle. E. dermal papilla.

hair shaft.

The acromion process A. is part of the clavicle. B. articulates with the coracoid process. C. forms the most inferior part of the glenoid fossa. D. has no function. E. has an articulation with the clavicle.

has an articulation with the clavicle.

Cardiac muscle cells are like skeletal muscle cells in that they both A. have striations. B. depolarize as a result of sodium and calcium influxes. C. possess intercalated disks. D. lack sarcomeres. E. are multinucleated.

have striations.

The proper sequence of events in bone repair is A. callus formation, hematoma formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone. B. remodeling of bone, callus ossification, hematoma formation, callus formation. C. hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone. D. callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone, hematoma formation. E. hematoma formation, callus ossification, callus formation, remodeling of bone.

hematoma formation, callus formation, callus ossification, remodeling of bone.

If the Broca area is damaged, the result is A. loss of memory. B. impairment in the movement of the right leg. C. blindness. D. hesitant and distorted speech. E. inability to think of things to say.

hesitant and distorted speech.

Tetanus of a muscle is thought to be caused by A. high calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm. B. the rapid movement of sodium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. C. an increase in stimulus strength. D. increased temperature in the active muscle. E. decreased amounts of calcium ions in muscle tissue.

high calcium ion concentrations in the sarcoplasm.

Which of the following is mismatched? A. shoulder joint - coracohumeral ligament B. elbow joint - radial collateral ligaments C. hip joint - cruciate ligaments D. knee joint - patellar ligaments E. ankle - calcaneofibular ligament

hip joint - cruciate ligaments

The rotator cuff muscles A. fix the scapula in place. B. attach the arm to the thorax. C. attach the clavicle to the humerus. D. hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. E. attach at the distal end of the humerus

hold the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula.

The popliteal region is the A. calf. B. armpit. C. hollow behind the knee. D. neck. E. thigh.

hollow behind the knee.

The pituitary gland (hypophysis) rests in the A. crista galli. B. cribriform plate. C. sella turcica (hypophyseal fossa). D. pterygoid canal. E. foramen magnum

sella turcica (hypophyseal fossa).

Which of the following muscles contracts during forced expiration? A. scalenes B. diaphragm C. linea alba D. internal intercostals E. external intercostals

internal intercostals

Proteoglycans trap large quantities of water and spring back to original shape after compression. They are found in A. neurons. B. tendons. C. muscles. D. intervertebral discs. E. bones.

intervertebral discs.

The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the A. pelvic girdle. B. vertebral arches. C. vertebral bodies. D. vertebral foramen. E. intervertebral discs.

intervertebral discs.

Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord? A. medulla oblongata B. midbrain C. pons D. thalamus E. cerebral peduncles

medulla oblongata

The thick fibrocartilage disks found in the knee joint are called A. bursae. B. ligaments. C. tendon sheaths. D. menisci. E. intraknee disks

menisci

The cytoskeleton consists of A. lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules. B. actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments. C. microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes. D. microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments. E. ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus.

microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments.

Sensory receptors for balance are found in the A. pinna. B. cochlea. C. auditory ossicles. D. semicircular canals. E. auditory tube.

semicircular canals.

In bright sunlight, the pupil of your eye constricts and contracts the A. ciliary muscles. B. dilator pupillae. C. sphincter pupillae. D. suspensory ligaments. E. ciliary ring.

sphincter pupillae.

What condition is the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse? A. lordosis B. kyphosis C. scoliosis D. spina bifida E. herniated disk

spina bifida

Which of the following epithelial types is mismatched with its function? A. simple epithelium - diffusion B. stratified epithelium - protection C. squamous epithelium - stretching D. cuboidal epithelium - absorption E. columnar epithelium - secretion

squamous epithelium - stretching

The utricle and saccule are involved in A. static balance. B. kinetic balance. C. hearing low intensity sounds. D. hearing high intensity sounds. E. evaluating movements of the head.

static balance.

Otoliths A. amplify hearing. B. are part of the ampulla. C. are found in the semicircular canals. D. stimulate hair cells to produce action potentials. E. are found in the cochlear duct.

stimulate hair cells to produce action potentials.

Glycogen is the A. storage carbohydrate in animals. B. storage carbohydrate in plants. C. nondigestible plant polysaccharide. D. major nutrient for most body cells. E. sugar found in RNA.

storage carbohydrate in animals.

Which type of epithelium has the following characteristics: multiple layers, squamous cell shape, dead outer layers of cells, and keratin present in some cells? A. pseudostratified keratinized squamous epithelium B. simple cuboidal epithelium C. simple transitional epithelium D. moist stratified squamous epithelium E. stratified keratinized squamous epithelium

stratified keratinized squamous epithelium

The layer of epidermis that undergoes mitosis and forms new epidermal cells is the A. stratum basale. B. stratum granulosum. C. stratum lucidum. D. stratum corneum. E. stratum dermum.

stratum basale.

The fasciculus gracilis and fasciculus cuneatus would help us A. perceive pain. B. tell if an object is rough or smooth. C. sense temperature. D. move our arms and legs. E. write a sentence.

tell if an object is rough or smooth.

In order to stabilize the hyoid so that the larynx can be elevated in swallowing, the _____ muscle group is used. A. pterygoid B. infrahyoid C. auricularis D. suprahyoid E. hyoglossus

suprahyoid

The endoneurium A. surrounds nerve cell bodies. B. surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells. C. bundles axons into fascicles. D. bundles fascicles into nerves. E. surrounds nerve tracts in the spinal cord

surrounds individual axons and their Schwann cells.

A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather. After the race, he drank large volumes of water. As a result of the water intake, his body cells will A. shrink. B. swell. C. crenate. D. shrivel. E. not change.

swell

Chain ganglia are part of the A. central nervous system. B. sympathetic branch of the ANS. C. somatic motor branch of the ANS. D. parasympathetic branch of the ANS. E. spinal cord.

sympathetic branch of the ANS.

When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bone, this is called a A. suture. B. syndesmosis. C. gomphosis. D. synostosis. E. symphysis.

synostosis

Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are _____ joints. A. fibrous B. immovable C. synovial D. cartilaginous E. inarticulate

synovial

The auditory cortex is located in the A. insula. B. temporal lobe. C. parietal lobe. D. frontal lobe.

temporal lobe.

The olfactory cortex is located in the _____ lobe and the secondary olfactory areas are located in the ___ lobe. A. frontal, temporal B. frontal, parietal C. parietal, temporal D. temporal, frontal

temporal, frontal

In the sympathetic division of the ANS, A. an important characteristic is convergence of neurons. B. preganglionic fibers are generally longer than postganglionic fibers. C. the preganglionic cell body is located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord. D. a single preganglionic fiber usually synapses with a single postganglionic fiber. E. preganglionic fibers emerge from the cervical portion of the spinal cord.

the preganglionic cell body is located in the lateral horn of the spinal cord.

Isotopes of the same element have A. the same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons. B. different numbers of protons and electrons. C. the same mass number. D. the same atomic number but differ in their mass numbers. E. no mass number.

the same atomic number but differ in their mass numbers.

A neutral atom contains A. more protons than electrons. B. more electrons than protons. C. the same number of electrons and protons. D. only neutrons. E. None of these choices is correct.

the same number of electrons and protons.

Which nerve is involved when a dancer points his/her toes? A. tibial B. femoral C. obturator D. pudendal E. common fibular (peroneal)

tibial

Which of the following is part of the spiral organ (organ of Corti)? A. modiolus B. vestibule C. tectorial membrane D. scala tympani E. chorda tympani

tectorial membrane

What part of the midbrain carries sensory tracts from the spinal cord? A. tectum B. cerebral peduncles C. tegmentum D. red nucleus

tegmentum

When the arrector pili muscles contract A. the body is able to lose heat. B. "goose bumps" form on the skin. C. the hair on your arms and legs begins to curl. D. the sweat glands empty their contents onto the surface of the skin. E. no change is noted on the skin surface.

"goose bumps" form on the skin.

A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated. (1) tendon or muscle (2) ligament (3) fibrous capsule (4) skin (5) synovial membrane A. 4, 1, 2, 5, 3 B. 4, 5, 1, 2, 3 C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 E. 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

4, 1, 2, 3, 5 4) Skin 1) Tendon or muscle 2) ligament 3) fibrous capsule 5) synovial membrane

Arrange the following structures in the order in which they vibrate when a sound wave enters the ear. (1) eardrum (2) endolymph (3) ossicles (4) oval window (5) perilymph A. 1, 3, 5, 2, 4 B. 1, 4, 3, 5, 2 C. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4 D. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 E. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

1, 3, 4, 5, 2 1 - eardrum 3 - ossicles 4 - oval window 5 - perilymph 2 - endolymph

Organize the following structural levels of the human body from simplest to most complex. (1) cell (2) tissue (3) chemical (4) organ system (5) organ A. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 B. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5 C. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4 D. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 E. 3, 1, 2, 4, 5

3, 1, 2, 5, 4 3) Chemical 1) Cell 2) Tissue 5) Organ 4) Organ System

Arrange the following in correct sequence: (1) autonomic ganglia and ganglionic synapse (2) synapse with target tissues (3) preganglionic neuron (4) postganglionic neuron A. 2, 3, 4, 1 B. 1, 3, 2, 4 C. 3, 1, 4, 2 D. 4, 1, 3, 2 E. 4, 3, 1, 2

3, 1, 4, 2 3 - Preganglionic Neuron 1 - autonomic ganglia and ganglionic synapse 4 - postganglionic neuron 2 - synapse with target tissues

Normal human blood pH is maintained within a range of A. 7.35 - 8.5. B. 7.35 - 7.45. C. 4.5 - 5.5. D. 1.0 - 14.0. E. 6.5 - 9.5.

7.35 - 7.45.

Which of the following statements concerning smooth muscle is true? A. It contains many sarcomeres. B. Caveolae seem to take the place of the myofibrils. C. A calcium-calmodulin complex initiates cross-bridge formation. D. The cells are large and multinuclear. E. It has a well developed sarcoplasmic reticulum.

A calcium-calmodulin complex initiates cross-bridge formation.

Two solutions, A and B, have the same osmolality. A. Solution A has more solute particles than solution B. B. Solution B has more solute particles than solution A. C. Both solutions have the same number of solute particles. D. Solution A is water and sugar, solution B is water and salt. E. Solution A is pure water and solution B is water and salt.

Both solutions have the same number of solute particles.

When two or more presynaptic neurons synapse with a single postsynaptic neuron in the CNS, a(n) _______ pathway is formed. A. convergent B. divergent C. oscillatory D. somatic E. sensory

Convergent

Deoxyribose is a sugar found in A. glycogen. B. starch. C. DNA. D. RNA. E. ATP.

DNA.

Which of the following statements concerning the brainstem is true? A. The brainstem consists of the medulla, pons, and cerebellum. B. The brainstem is responsible for higher level thinking skills. C. Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal. D. All twelve cranial nerves enter or exit from the brainstem. E. The brainstem is a relay for sensory input.

Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal.

Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A. When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close. B. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium into the cell. C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open. D. Sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels. E. The opening and closing of ligand-gated channels cause depolarization.

Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.

Which of the following situations occurs in electrically excitable cells? A. When Na+ ion channels open, K+ ion channels close. B. The sodium-potassium exchange pump moves sodium into the cell. C. Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open. D. Ligand-gated sodium ion channels are opened by high extracellular calcium levels. E. Proteins tend to diffuse out of the cell.

Depolarization causes voltage-gated sodium ion channels to open.

Sensory neurons carrying action potentials from pain receptors synapse within the spinal cord with interneurons. These interneurons synapse with motor neurons leading back to an effector and ascending neurons that carry action potentials toward the brain. This is an example of a(n) _____ pathway. A. convergent B. divergent C. oscillatory D. sensory E. bifurcated

Divergent

Gap junctions are functional __________ synapses. A. chemical B. electrical C. potential D. intracellular E. neuromuscular

Electrical

What type of membrane proteins can catalyze chemical reactions on the inner or outer surfaces of the plasma membrane? A. marker molecules B. channel protein C. receptor proteins D. enzymes E. carrier proteins

Enzymes

What space, found between the vertebral wall and the dura mater, is the area for injecting anesthesia for childbirth? A. subarachnoid space B. subdural space C. epidural space D. epipial space

Epidural Space

What molecule is activated from the binding of an odorant to transmembranous receptor molecules on olfactory hairs? A. camp B. calmodulin C. troponin D. G protein

G protein

If acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors, A. Na+ channels open. B. Ca2+ channels open. C. adrenaline is released. D. G proteins mediate the cell's response. E. the response is neither excitatory nor inhibitory.

G proteins mediate the cell's response.

In the process of tissue repair, which of the events listed below occurs last? A. The wound fills with blood and a clot forms. B. Granulation tissue develops. C. A scab forms to seal the wound. D. An inflammatory response occurs. E. Fibroblasts migrate to the area.

Granulation tissue develops.

The inguinal region is commonly known as the A. groin. B. buttock. C. breastbone. D. upper arm. E. naval.

Groin

The ligamentum nuchae A. protects the brain. B. is a part of the nose. C. moves the eye. D. supports the jaw. E. helps keep the head erect.

Helps keep head erect

The cubital or elbow joint is an example of a _____ joint. A. saddle B. hinge C. pivot D. ball and socket E. plane

Hinge

Which of the following is associated with osteoclast reabsorption of bone? A. Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix. B. Osteoblasts form collagen and proteoglycans. C. The protein components of bone matrix are synthesized. D. Ca2+ is actively transported from blood to bone matrix. E. Blood calcium is decreased.

Hydrogen ions form an acid environment in bone matrix.

Which of the following bones is attached to the skull by muscles and ligaments? A. ethmoid B. frontal C. sphenoid D. vomer E. hyoid

Hyoid

Which of the following statements accurately describe events that occur as a result of a local potential reaching threshold? A. Activation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to close. B. Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open. C. A positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open. D. K+ ion channels begin to close. E. Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open and a positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open.

Inactivation gates of Na+ ion channels begin to open and a positive feedback cycle develops in which depolarization causes activation gates of Na+ ion channels to open.

Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column? A. It supports the weight of the body. B. It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord. C. It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves. D. It contains numerous foramens for the passageway of blood vessels. E. It protects the brain.

It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

Why is water involved in most metabolic reactions in the human body? A. It can dissolve many chemical compounds. B. It can absorb and release heat without changing temperature very much. C. It has a high surface tension. D. Its bonds are nonpolar. E. It is a solute.

It can dissolve many chemical compounds.

A person with a fractured mandible has a broken A. back. B. neck. C. rib. D. wrist. E. jaw.

Jaw

In hyperpolarization A. K+ ions tend to diffuse out of the cell. B. the plasma membrane's permeability to K+ decreases. C. the resting membrane potential moves closer to zero. D. Na+ ions enter the cell in large numbers. E. the resting membrane potential becomes more positive.

K+ ions tend to diffuse out of the cell.

Which cells of the epidermis are part of the immune system? A. keratinocytes B. melanocytes C. Langerhans cells D. Merkel cells E. fibroblasts

Langerhans Cells

Which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging? A. Skin becomes thicker. B. There is an increase in the number of elastic fibers in the skin. C. Loss of subcutaneous tissue contributes to sagging of the skin. D. Localized increase in sebaceous glands leads to dry skin. E. The amount of collagen in the dermis increases.

Loss of subcutaneous tissue contributes to sagging of the skin.

The Lumbar Region is the

Lower back

Knowledge of the structure of body parts helps us to understand their function. Which of the following is an accurate example of that principle? A. The basic structural unit of the body is the cell. B. The internal environment of the body is maintained in a relatively stable condition. C. Moveable joints allow us to bend our fingers to perform many different actions. D. Each tissue type is composed of cells that have a similar structure and function. E. Negative feedback is not homeostatic.

Moveable joints allow us to bend our fingers to perform many different actions.

The optic foramen is an opening in the sphenoid bone for the passage of the A. infraorbital nerve. B. optic nerve. C. supraorbital nerve. D. ophthalmic vein. E. vagus.

Optic nerve

Which of the following is true? A. The greater the overlap of actin and myosin, the stronger the contraction. B. Overstretching a muscle will increase its tension. C. Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction. D. The greatest amount of tension is achieved when actin and myosin do not overlap. E. Tension is great when actin and myosin overlap as much as they can.

Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle extends from the mastoid process of the temporal bone to the sternum and medial clavicle. When both sternocleidomastoid muscles contract, the head is flexed. The end of the muscle that connects to the sternum is the A. origin. B. belly. C. body. D. insertion. E. fixator.

Origin

Ventral rami of some spinal nerves join with each other to form a A. ganglion. B. dermatome. C. cord. D. plexus. E. nerve.

Plexus

Which of the following is mismatched? A. Merkel disks - light touch B. Pacinian corpuscles - vibration C. Meissner corpuscles - two-point discrimination D. Ruffini end organs - temperature E. hair follicle receptors - slight bending of the hair

Ruffini end organs - temperature

What type of burn appears red and swollen along with pain and blisters? A. first-degree B. second-degree C. third-degree D. fourth-degree E. partial-thickness

Second - Degree

Barney sat on a hot camp stove while on a camping trip. The burn was painful and blistered. His was what type of burn? A. first degree B. second degree C. third degree D. fourth degree E. fifth degree

Second Degree

What strengthens the attachment of the tendons or ligaments to bone? A. epiphysis B. Sharpey fibers C. growth plate D. medullary cavity E. endosteum

Sharpey fibers

The foramen magnum is a large opening in the base of the skull for the A. optic nerve. B. carotid arteries. C. internal jugular veins. D. facial and vestibulocochlear nerves. E. spinal cord.

Spinal Cord

How does distribution of symapthetic nerves differ from the distribution of parasymapthetic nerves? A. Only the sympathetic division serves the head and neck. B. Only parasympathetic nerves innervate the thoracic region. C. Sympathetic fibers innervate the abdominal cavity, while parasympathetic fibers innervate the pelvic region. D. Spinal nerves contain sympathetic fibers, while cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers.

Spinal nerves contain sympathetic fibers, while cranial nerves contain parasympathetic fibers.

Impetigo is caused by the bacterium A. Propionibacterium. B. Staphylococcus. C. Streptococcus. D. Herpes. E. Luteus

Staphylococcus.

Rotating the forearm so that the palm faces anteriorly is called A. circumduction. B. rotation. C. hyperextension. D. supination. E. pronation.

Supination

Which of the following bones is paired? A. vomer B. temporal C. sphenoid D. mandible E. maxilla

Temporal

If five action potentials arrive at the same synapse in very close succession, which of the following would occur? A. The direction of the action potential is reversed. B. Temporal summation occurs. C. Spatial summation occurs. D. Hyperpolarization occurs. E. Depolarization always occurs.

Temporal summation occurs.

A band of connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is a(n) A. aponeurosis. B. ligament. C. bursa. D. epimysium. E. tendon.

Tendon

Axons contain A. the trigger zone. B. foot processes. C. Nissl bodies. D. the soma. E. the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

The Trigger Zone

In which of the following does desquamation of the stratum corneum occur? A. biting fingernails B. losing hair from your scalp C. a 5-minute surgical scrub D. scar formation E. hair growth

a 5-minute surgical scrub

Which of the following statements applies to the autonomic nervous system? A. The ANS innervates skeletal muscle. B. ANS functions are consciously controlled. C. The ANS controls unconscious movement of skeletal muscles. D. The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic. E. A single neuron from the spinal cord carries action potentials to effector organs in the ANS.

The receptor molecules of the ANS may be muscarinic, nicotinic, or adrenergic.

Long-term memory may involve A. an influx of potassium ions into the neuron. B. activating substance P. C. a change in the shape of the neuron's cytoskeleton. D. forming a nerve plexus. E. rearranging neurons in the brain

a change in the shape of the neuron's cytoskeleton.

Which of the following is false? A. The thalamus projects sensory information to the cerebral cortex. B. The subthalamic nuclei are associated with the basal nuclei. C. The thalamus controls many endocrine functions. D. The pineal body may play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E. The third ventricle separates the two large portions of the thalamus.

The thalamus controls many endocrine functions.

Which of the following statements is true? A. The first cervical vertebra is called the axis. B. The spinal cord protects the vertebral column. C. Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes. D. The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae. E. Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae.

Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes.

Which of the following statements is true? A. Both the hair root and hair shaft contain living cells. B. Undamaged hair follicles can help regenerate damaged epithelium. C. The hair follicle has a hypodermal root sheath. D. The matrix forms the hair surface. E. The hair follicle is not associated with sebaceous glands

Undamaged hair follicles can help regenerate damaged epithelium.

These are blood vessels that carry blood from the medullary cavity and periosteum to the osteon and run perpendicular to the long axis of the bone. A. Haversian canals B. Volkmann canals C. lamellar canals D. osteochondral canals E. Sharpey's canals

Volkmann canals

Osteomalacia is A. bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B. a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone matrix. C. a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion. D. a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones. E. a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; occurs because of insufficient collagen development.

a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion

Rickets is A. bone inflammation that often results from bacterial infection. B. a disease in adults, especially women, characterized by a reduced amount of bone matrix. C. a disease in adults characterized by softening of bones resulting from calcium depletion. D. a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones. E. a group of genetic disorders producing very brittle bones that are easily fractured; occurs because of insufficient collagen development.

a disease in children characterized by soft, bowed, and swollen bones.

Night blindness could be caused by A. a lack of cones. B. a lack of iodopsin. C. a lack of rhodopsin. D. too much vitamin A in the diet. E. a lack of vitamin C in the diet.

a lack of rhodopsin.

A series of neurons involved in long-term retention of a thought is called A. an EEG. B. a brain wave. C. a memory engram. D. short-term memory. E. a memory trace.

a memory engram.

Gout is A. a bacterial infection transmitted by ticks. B. an inflammation of any joint. C. a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood. D. a condition that may involve an autoimmune disease. E. the most common type of arthritis.

a metabolic disorder caused by increased uric acid in blood.

An isometric contraction is described as A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C. a muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant. D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

a muscle produces an increasing tension as the length remains constant.

An eccentric contraction is described as A. action potential frequency is high enough that no relaxation of muscle fibers occurs. B. a muscle produces constant tension during contraction. C. a muscle produces an increasing tension during contraction. D. a muscle produces increasing tension as it shortens. E. a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

a muscle produces tension, but the length of the muscle is increasing.

Lesion of the basal nuclei could cause A. loss of memory. B. uncontrolled rage. C. fluent but circular speech. D. a slight shaking of the hands or head. E. loss of sensation.

a slight shaking of the hands or head.

Which of the following cranial nerves innervates an eye muscle? A. optic B. facial C. abducens D. trigeminal E. vagus

abducens

The minimum amount of energy that reactants must have to start a chemical reaction is called A. kinetic energy. B. mechanical energy. C. activation energy. D. electromagnetic energy. E. potential energy.

activation energy

Which of the following correctly describes myoglobin's special function in muscle tissue? A. breaks down glycogen B. synthesizes ATP C. acts as a reservoir for oxygen D. produces action potentials E. stores glucose

acts as a reservoir for oxygen

What is the girdle of glycoproteins just below the tight junction between epithelial cells? A. hemidesmosomes B. adhesion belt C. intercalated disks D. gap junction E. desmosomes

adhesion belt

Eccrine sweat glands A. aid in cooling the body. B. serve as "anchors" for the arrector pili muscles. C. produce a secretion that oils the hair and skin. D. produce a secretion that protects the body from growth of bacteria. E. are not involved in the homeostasis of body temperature.

aid in cooling the body.

In the Golgi tendon reflex, A. muscle spindles detect tension in a tendon. B. alpha motor neurons are inhibited causing muscle relaxation. C. gamma motor neurons cause muscle contraction. D. there is reciprocal innervation to facilitate the reflex. E. alpha motor neurons are stimulated causing muscle contraction.

alpha motor neurons are inhibited causing muscle relaxation.

Which of the following events in a stretch reflex occurs last? A. alpha motor neurons transmit action potentials to muscle causing contraction B. muscle spindle detects stretch of muscle C. afferent neurons conduct action potentials to the spinal cord D. afferent neurons synapse with alpha motor neurons E. muscle is stretched

alpha motor neurons transmit action potentials to muscle causing contraction

The pineal body A. connects the two cerebral hemispheres. B. modifies mood. C. causes hot and cold flashes. D. appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty. E. plays a role in the production of cerebrospinal fluid

appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty.

The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching network known as the A. folia. B. superior peduncle. C. arbor vitae. D. tentorium cerebelli. E. vermis.

arbor vitae.

Intermolecular forces A. form dissociated ions. B. are electrostatic attractions between different molecules. C. evenly distribute electrical charge among all atoms in a sample. D. separate atoms and ions from one another. E. are found within molecules.

are electrostatic attractions between different molecules.

Synovial joints are different from both fibrous and cartilaginous joints because synovial joints A. use fibrous connective tissue to hold the bones in the joint together. B. are enclosed by a joint capsule. C. are only temporary; they are replaced in the adult. D. generally have both bones in the joint fused together. E. are not freely moveable.

are enclosed by a joint capsule.

Phospholipids A. contain subunits called amino acids. B. are water-soluble. C. are a type of steroid. D. are fat-soluble vitamins. E. are found in cell membranes.

are found in cell membranes.

Muscle spindles A. are innervated by gamma motor neurons. B. originate in the spinal cord. C. are specialized nerve cells. D. are found encapsulated in nerve endings. E. are innervated by alpha motor neurons.

are innervated by gamma motor neurons.

The superior colliculi receive input from the A. eyes, skin, cerebrum and inferior colliculi. B. inferior colliculi, pyramids, skin and red nucleus. C. skin, ears, pyramids and cerebellum. D. cerebrum, cerebellum, thalamus and inferior colliculi. E. nose, tongue and inner ear

are involved with auditory pathways in the CNS.

Haversian systems or osteons A. are found in spongy bone tissue. B. lack concentric lamellae. C. are the basic units in compact bone tissue. D. do not contain osteocytes. E. are avascular.

are the basic units in compact bone tissue

Electrons A. comprise the majority of the mass of an atom. B. are located in the nucleus of an atom. C. have a positive charge of one. D. are the subatomic particles most involved in bonding behavior of atoms. E. do not participate in the bonding of atoms.

are the subatomic particles most involved in bonding behavior of atoms.

Smooth muscle and cardiac muscle are similar in that they both A. are under involuntary control. B. are striated. C. are widely distributed in the body. D. have multiple nuclei. E. are under voluntary control.

are under involuntary control

Nissl bodies are A. part of a dendrite. B. also called gemmules. C. lipid droplets. D. areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum. E. part of the Golgi apparatus.

areas of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Association fibers connect A. the cerebrum with the spinal cord. B. one cerebral hemisphere to another. C. areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere. D. areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain. E. areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord.

areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.

A biaxial joint has movement A. around one axis. B. around two axes at right angles to one another. C. about several axes. D. as long as there is articular cartilage present. E. that always rotates.

around two axes at right angles to one another.

A neuroglial cell that is a major component of the blood-brain barrier is the A. astrocyte. B. microglial cell. C. oligodendrocyte. D. ependymal cell. E. macrophage

astrocyte.

Which of the following is a synovial joint? A. atlanto-occipital B. epiphyseal plate C. costosternal joint D. tibiofibular joint E. intervertebral disk

atlanto-occipital

What type of nerve would cause the smooth muscle of a blood vessel wall to constrict? A. sensory B. afferent C. autonomic D. somatic motor E. cranial

autonomic

When someone taps you on your shoulder, they stimulate the ____ nerve. A. axillary B. brachial C. radial D. musculocutaneous E. ulnar

axillary

Which of the following is correctly matched? A. neurons - supportive cells of the nervous system B. axons - conduct action potentials away from the cell body C. neuroglia - the conducting cell of the nervous system D. dendrite - rapidly dividing cell E. axon - carry action potentials toward the cell body

axons - conduct action

This type of joint is multiaxial allowing a wide range of movement. A. saddle B. hinge C. pivot D. plane E. ball and socket

ball and socket

Which type of skin cancer is the most common? A. basal cell carcinoma B. squamous cell carcinoma C. melanoma D. Kaposi's sarcoma E. Psoriasis

basal cell carcinoma

Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective, muscular, or nervous tissue by its A. extracellular matrix. B. contractility. C. ability to carry action potentials. D. ability to serve as insulation. E. basement membrane.

basement membrane.

Which of the following drugs would be the best choice to use in chronic asthma to dilate the bronchioles? A. a nicotinic agent B. a muscarinic agent C. alpha-adrenergic blocking agents D. beta-adrenergic stimulating agents E. ganglionic blocking agents.

beta-adrenergic stimulating agents

Supination of the forearm and hand is accomplished by the A. brachioradialis and anconeus. B. biceps brachii and supinator. C. triceps brachii and supinator. D. anconeus and supinator. E. supinator and brachialis.

biceps brachii and supinator.

Which of the following is a posterior thigh muscle? A. quadriceps femoris B. sartorius C. biceps femoris D. tensor fasciae latae E. gracilis

biceps femoris

You are an airborne molecule that dissolves in the fluid covering the olfactory epithelium. Which of the following must you do in order to depolarize neurons in the olfactory epithelium? A. stimulate mitral cells B. release acetylcholine C. cause proliferation of basal cells D. bind to receptor molecules on the olfactory hair membrane E. lower the threshold of the cell

bind to receptor molecules on the olfactory hair membrane

Which tastant is NOT correctly matched with its process of depolarization? A. salty - Na+ B. umami - G protein C. bitter - K+ D. sour - H+ E. sweet - G protein

bitter - K+

A researcher discovered a new hormone that raises blood calcium levels. According to the principles of negative feedback, this hormone would be secreted when A. blood calcium levels increase. B. blood calcium levels decrease. C. blood calcium levels are stable. D. blood calcium levels are elevated. E. None of these choices are correct.

blood calcium levels decrease.

Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell A. in vesicles. B. through vitamin membrane channels. C. by dissolving in the lipid bilayer. D. by transport with carrier molecules. E. by active transport.

by dissolving in the lipid bilayer.

Normal bone growth requires adequate amounts of _____, _____, and _____ in the diet. A. sodium, calcium, and vitamin E B. potassium, calcium, and vitamin D C. calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D D. vitamin D, phosphate, and chloride E. vitamin E, vitamin B, and vitamin A

calcium, phosphate, and vitamin D

Adrenergic receptors A. can be activated by the release of epinephrine. B. have two structural forms - muscarinic and nicotinic. C. when activated stimulate skeletal muscles to contract. D. can be found in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. E. are activated by the release of acetylcholine.

can be activated by the release of epinephrine.

Dermatomal maps are important clinically because they A. can be used to check for motor function. B. locate the position of cranial nerves. C. can be used to help locate nerve damage. D. indicate what muscles are innervated by each spinal nerve. E. can be used to detect cranial nerve damage.

can be used to help locate nerve damage.

The molecule used most frequently by cells as a fuel belongs to which of the following groups? A. prostaglandins B. carbohydrates C. nucleic acids D. steroids E. phospholipids

carbohydrates

Glycolipids would contain both lipids and A. carbohydrates. B. proteins. C. electrolytes. D. cholesterol. E. amino acids.

carbohydrates.

The four most abundant elements in the human body are A. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and iron. B. carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. C. calcium, hydrogen, sodium, and potassium. D. carbon, oxygen, magnesium, and zinc. E. carbon, sulfur, calcium, and potassium.

carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen.

Which of the following systems carries necessary compounds like oxygen and nutrients throughout the body? A. nervous B. cardiovascular C. urinary D. lymphatic E. respiratory

cardiovascular

Chondroblasts produce A. ligaments. B. cartilage matrix. C. bone tissue. D. blood cells. E. synovial fluid.

cartilage matrix

When the CNS responds to tissue damage by decreasing the pain threshold and increasing its sensitivity to pain, this is called A. referred pain. B. central sensitization. C. peripheral sensitization. D. cumulative sensitization. E. phantom pain.

central sensitization.

The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts called the A. vermis. B. flocculonodular pathways. C. cerebellar peduncles. D. arbor vitae. E. folia.

cerebellar peduncles.

Nerve fibers in the phrenic nerves that innervated the diaphragm arise primarily from which plexus? A. brachial B. cervical C. lumbar D. sacral E. cranial

cervical

The _____ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck. A. sacral B. cervical C. lumbar D. thoracic E. coccygeal

cervical

The flexion of the elbow represents a A. class I lever system. B. class II lever system. C. class III lever system. D. class IV lever system. E. nonlever system.

class III lever system.

Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a A. cleft lip. B. cleft chin. C. cleft palate. D. deviated septum. E. clogged sinus.

cleft palate.

Auditory impulses are transmitted by the _____ portion of the vestibulocochlear nerve. A. spiral B. cochlear C. vestibular D. ossicular E. tympanic

cochlear

The three types of protein fibers found in connective tissue are A. hyaluronic acid, collagen, and reticular fibers. B. proteoglycan, elastin, and reticular fibers. C. collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers. D. proteoglycan, elastin, and hyaluronic acid. E. chondronectic, osteonectin, fibronectin

collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers.

Tracts of white matter that connect the right and left hemispheres are composed of A. decussation fibers. B. association fibers. C. commissural fibers. D. projection fibers. E. pyramidal fibers.

commissural fibers.

Mechanoreceptors respond to A. compression of receptors. B. irritation of nerve endings. C. light striking the receptors. D. binding of molecules to membrane receptors. E. a change in temperature.

compression of receptors.

Spongy bone tissue A. is very dense. B. contains concentric lamellae. C. contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae. D. has many spaces and lacks osteocytes. E. is the primary component of compact bone.

contains interconnecting plates called trabeculae.

The mastoid process A. is part of the zygomatic arch. B. is located anterior to the external auditory meatus. C. contains mastoid air cells. D. is the point of attachment of the temporalis muscle. E. is a sinus.

contains mastoid air cells.

The zygomaticus major muscle A. puckers the mouth for kissing. B. contributes to pouting. C. contributes to laughing and smiling. D. causes crow's feet wrinkles. E. raises the eyelid.

contributes to laughing and smiling.

Upper motor neurons A. are found in the visual cortex. B. control skeletal muscles. C. are responsible for planning voluntary movements. D. are located in the prefrontal area. E. control smooth muscle

control skeletal muscles.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum? A. coordinate control of voluntary movements B. help in the maintenance of muscle tone C. control the heart rate D. control skeletal muscles to maintain balance E. control of posture, locomotion, and fine motor coordination.

control the heart rate

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. visceroreceptors - associated with organs B. adaptation - decreased sensitivity to continued stimulus C. projection - sensation is perceived at the site of the stimulus D. proprioceptors - information about body position E. cutaneous receptors - associated with the viscera

cutaneous receptors - associated with the viscera

The fact that the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body is explained by the A. division of the cerebrum into two hemispheres. B. division of the cerebellum into two hemispheres. C. decussation of the pyramids in the medulla. D. need for contra-lateral control of body function. E. brainstem being below the midbrain.

decussation of the pyramids in the medulla.

Connective tissue in tendons is A. dense regular collagenous tissue. B. dense regular elastic tissue. C. dense irregular collagenous tissue. D. dense irregular elastic tissue. E. reticular tissue.

dense regular collagenous tissue.

Fingerprints and footprints are produced by projections into the epidermis called A. dermal striae. B. cleavage lines. C. reticular lines. D. melanocytes. E. dermal papillae.

dermal papillae

The pyramids of the medulla contain A. ascending motor tracts. B. descending motor tracts. C. ascending sensory tracts. D. descending sensory tracts. E. None of these choices are correct.

descending motor tracts.

What is a disk-shaped structure with especially adhesive glycoproteins around each cell that bind cells to one another? A. hemidesmosomes B. adhesion belt C. tight junction D. gap junction E. desmosomes

desmosomes

The enteric nervous system consists of plexuses within the walls of the A. brain. B. spinal cord. C. digestive tract. D. urinary bladder.

digestive tract.

What technique creates a three-dimensional dynamic image of blood vessels? A. digital subtraction angiography B. magnetic resonance imaging C. dynamic spatial reconstruction D. positron emission tomography

digital subtraction angiography

On coming inside from the cold, students notice that their cheeks are red. This results from A. constriction of the blood vessels in the epidermis of the cheeks. B. dilation of the blood vessels in the dermis of the cheeks. C. damage to the epidermis by the cold. D. constriction of the sweat glands in the cheeks. E. increased permeability of superficial vessels.

dilation of the blood vessels in the dermis of the cheeks.

The three arches of the foot A. transfer weight from the tibia to the femur. B. distribute the weight of the body during standing and walking. C. form a hinge joint. D. are highest on the lateral side of the foot. E. form after birth

distribute the weight of the body during standing and walking.

The gate control theory of pain says that pain impulses traveling through the lateral spinothalamic tract can be suppressed by increased activity of the A. anterior spinothalamic tract. B. tertiary neurons. C. extrapyramidal tracts. D. dorsal column/medial lemniscal system. E. spinocerebellar tracts.

dorsal column/medial lemniscal system.

Which of the following is mismatched? A. lateral geniculate nucleus - visual impulses B. medial geniculate nucleus - auditory impulses C. ventral posterior nucleus - sensory impulses D. dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses E. ventral lateral nuclei - motor functions

dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses

Cations and anions that dissociate in water are sometimes called A. nonelectrolytes, because they do not conduct an electrical current. B. molecules C. electrolytes, because they can conduct an electrical current. D. nonelectrolytes and solutes. E. molecules and electrolytes.

electrolytes, because they can conduct an electrical current.

Which of the following types of joints is mismatched with its location? A. saddle - thumb B. ball and socket - between humerus and scapula C. ellipsoid - between femur and tibia D. plane - between carpal bones E. hinge - cubital

ellipsoid - between femur and tibia

What type of gland excretes products by secretion into the blood? A. exocrine B. endocrine C. merocrine D. apocrine E. holocrine

endocrine

Monamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO inhibitors) A. prevent synaptic transmission. B. enhance the breakdown of norepinephrine. C. enhance the binding of norepinephrine to its receptors. D. prevent the release of norepinephrine by the presynaptic terminal. E. have no effect on the action of norepinephrine.

enhance the binding of norepinephrine to its receptors.

In smooth muscle, most of the calcium needed for muscle contraction A. is in the dense bodies. B. enters from extracellular fluid. C. is attached to the intermediate filaments. D. must be activated by myosin kinase. E. is stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

enters from extracellular fluid.

Sympathetic stimulation of the postganglionic cells of the adrenal medulla causes the release of A. acetylcholine and epinephrine. B. norepinephrine and acetylcholine. C. epinephrine and norepinephrine. D. cortisol. E. aldosterone.

epinephrine and norepinephrine.

The four primary tissue types are A. epithelial, cartilage, muscular, and brain. B. connective, epithelial, skin, and blood. C. epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous. D. glands, bone, lungs, and kidney. E. bone, skin, blood, and muscle.

epithelial, connective, muscular, and nervous.

When acetylcholine binds with nicotinic receptors, the response is A. inhibitory. B. excitatory. C. either excitatory or inhibitory. D. both excitatory and inhibitory. E. neither excitatory nor inhibitory.

excitatory.

Functionally, smooth muscle A. is well adapted to anaerobic metabolism. B. exhibits autorhythmic contractions. C. contracts in response to slow increases in length. D. is unable to maintain tone. E. rapidly develops an oxygen debt

exhibits autorhythmic contractions.

muscle that extends both the wrist and the index finger is the A. extensor indicis. B. extensor carpi ulnaris. C. extensor pollicis longus. D. extensor carpi radialis longus. E. extensor digiti minimi.

extensor indicis.

Which abdominal wall muscle is the most superficial of the oblique muscles? A. rectus abdominis B. external abdominal oblique C. internal abdominal oblique D. transversus abdominis E. quadratus lumborum

external abdominal oblique

Which skull canal conveys sound waves to the eardrum? A. carotid canal B. external auditory canal C. jugular foramen D. nasolacrimal canal E. foramen ovale

external auditory canal

You taste a sauce with the "tip of your tongue". These taste sensations would be carried via the _____ cranial nerve. A. facial (VII) B. vagus (X) C. trigeminal (V) D. glossopharyngeal (IX) E. hypoglossal (XII)

facial (VII)

A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does NOT require ATP. The process is probably A. active transport. B. facilitated diffusion. C. osmosis. D. pinocytosis. E. phagocytosis.

facilitated diffusion.

If a person fell down the steps and then developed pain down his anterior thigh into the knee, which of the following spinal nerves was probably damaged? A. obturator B. femoral C. tibial D. common fibular (peroneal) E. pudendal

femoral

A joint that has no joint cavity and exhibits little or no movement would be classified as a A. fibrous joint. B. synovial joint. C. complex joint. D. cartilaginous joint. E. partial joint.

fibrous joint.

Taste buds are not associated with _____ papillae. A. foliate B. filiform C. fungiform D. vallate E. papilliform

filiform

The spaces between developing skull bones that have not ossified are called A. epiphyseal plates. B. articular cartilages. C. fontanels. D. bone collars. E. medullary cavities.

fontanels.

Which of the following anatomical features of bones is correctly matched with its function? A. tubercle - lining of a joint B. body - attachment point for a tendon or ligament C. foramen - a hole for a blood vessel D. sinus - a tunnel in a bone E. foramen - a depression in a bone

foramen - a hole for a blood vessel

A group of water molecules are held together by A. salt. B. hydrogen bonds. C. ionic bonds. D. double covalent bonds. E. polar covalent bonds.

hydrogen bonds.

Reactions that use water to split molecules apart are called _______ reactions. A. dehydration B. synthesis C. hydrolysis D. reversible E. oxidation

hydrolysis

The compression (weight-bearing) strength of bone matrix is due to the presence of A. elastin fibers. B. collagenase. C. hydroxyapatite crystals. D. collagen fibers. E. bone marrow.

hydroxyapatite crystals.

An IPSP is inhibitory because it A. changes the threshold of the neuron. B. hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane. C. prevents Ca2+ entry into the presynaptic terminal. D. reduces the amount of neurotransmitter released by the presynaptic terminal. E. depolarizes the postsynaptic membrane.

hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic membrane.

Rods, a type of photoreceptor cell, respond to light (stimulus) by A. depolarizing. B. repolarizing. C. hypopolarizing. D. hyperpolarizing. E. opening Na+ channels in the cell membrane.

hyperpolarizing.

A boy grew rapidly and reached a height of 6'2" by the time he was 13. He had normal body proportions and sexual development was only slightly retarded. Which of the following caused his condition? A. an adrenal tumor that secretes androgens B. hypersecretion of testosterone C. elevated vitamin D synthesis D. hypersecretion of growth hormone E. hyposecretion of growth hormone

hypersecretion of growth hormone

What part of the brain is in overall control of the ANS? A. medulla oblongata B. hypothalamus C. thalamus D. cerebrum

hypothalamus

Anabolic steroids can do all of the following except A. increase muscle size and strength. B. cause testicular atrophy. C. cause cardiovascular disease. D. increase the number of muscle fibers. E. increase total muscle mass.

increase the number of muscle fibers.

Which of the following helps explain the increased tension seen in multiple wave summation? A. increased motor unit recruitment B. increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils C. exposure of more active sites on myosin myofilaments D. the breakdown of elastic elements in the cell E. decreased stimulus frequency

increased concentration of calcium ions around the myofibrils

The basal nuclei function to A. produce stiff, exaggerated movements. B. assist the autonomic nervous system. C. inhibit unwanted muscular activity. D. control alertness. E. store memory.

inhibit unwanted muscular activity.

Glaucoma can result from A. inhibition of the circulation of aqueous humor. B. damage to the suspensory ligament. C. a decrease in the number of cones. D. opacity of the lens. E. increased amounts of vitreous humor.

inhibition of the circulation of aqueous humor.

Facial muscles are unusual in that they A. represent a combination of first-class and second-class lever systems. B. insert and sometimes originate on skin and connective tissue. C. are smooth muscles rather than skeletal muscles. D. are not involved in movement. E. are not involved in facial expression.

insert and sometimes originate on skin and connective tissue.

The cerebellum functions as a comparator. This means that the cerebellum compares A. the incoming sensory stimuli with the outgoing sensory stimuli. B. intended movements with actual movements. C. spinal cord activity with the activity of the cerebrum. D. the right cerebellar hemisphere with the left cerebellar hemisphere. E. and coordinates rapid, complex movements like figure skating

intended movements with actual movements.

Damage to a postsynaptic membrane would A. increase neurotransmitter release. B. decrease the release of neurotransmitter. C. increase neurotransmitter production. D. interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter. E. destroy vesicles containing neurotransmitter.

interfere with the ability to respond to neurotransmitter.

Pinocytosis A. is a form of exocytosis. B. involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles. C. does not require ATP. D. forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported. E. does not require the formation of vesicles.

involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles.

The electrical properties of cells are the result of A. ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane. B. receptor sites that are present on the plasma membrane. C. phosphorylation reactions within the cytoplasm. D. phospholipids in the cell membrane. E. None of these choices is correct.

ion concentration differences across the plasma membrane.

A neuromodulator A. acts as a neurotransmitter. B. inactivates neurotransmitters. C. is a receptor site for a neurotransmitter. D. has no influence on the amount of neurotransmitter released. E. is a substance released from neurons that influences the sensitivity of neurons to

is a substance released from neurons that influences the sensitivity of neurons to

The conus medullaris A. anchors the spinal cord to the coccyx. B. is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement. C. marks the exit of nerves to the upper extremity. D. is located adjacent to the foramen magnum. E. is inferior to the cauda equina.

is a tapered, cone like region immediately inferior to the lumbar enlargement.

The opening of more and more Na+ ion channels during depolarization A. is the result of the sodium-potassium exchange pump. B. is an example of a positive feedback cycle. C. is possible only if K+ channels remain closed. D. is the cause of the afterpotential. E. is an example of a negative feedback cycle

is an example of a positive feedback cycle.

The limbic system A. has recently evolved. B. is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction. C. controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs. D. is a memory area in the midbrain. E. includes the brainstem.

is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction.

Thick skin A. has three different epidermal strata. B. has fewer layers of cells in the stratum corneum than thin skin. C. is found covering most of the body. D. is found in areas subject to pressure or friction such as palms. E. is determined by the thickness of the dermis.

is found in areas subject to pressure or friction such as palms.

Hyaluronic acid A. contributes to the rigidity of a joint. B. is found in the synovial membrane. C. is responsible for the lubricating properties of synovial fluid. D. makes up most of the matrix of hyaline cartilage. E. makes surfaces rough

is responsible for the lubricating properties of synovial fluid.

Endocytosis A. is movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane. B. is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy. C. is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation. D. moves material out of the cell. E. ends cell functions.

is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation.

In the body's lever systems, the A. joint represents the fulcrum point. B. force or pull is applied by the bone. C. fulcrum is the part being moved. D. weight is the muscle mass. E. lever is a pivot point.

joint represents the fulcrum point.

Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal in location? A. stomach B. liver C. heart D. kidney E. ovary

kidney

Thin sheets of bone matrix are A. lamellae. B. lacunae. C. canaliculi. D. periosteum. E. trabeculae.

lamellae.

Delicate unpigmented hairs that cover the fetus in early development are called A. terminal hairs. B. primary hairs. C. lanugo hairs. D. vellus hairs. E. secondary hairs.

lanugo hairs.

The thumb is ___ to the fifth digit (little finger). A. distal B. lateral C. medial D. proximal E. superficial

lateral

Which of the following is an ascending pathway in the spinal cord? A. lateral spinothalamic tract B. rubrospinal tract C. lateral corticospinal tract D. tectospinal tract E. anterior corticospinal tract

lateral spinothalamic tract

The am is attached to the thorax by the A. pectoralis major and teres major. B. supraspinatus and latissimus dorsi. C. pectoralis minor and pectoralis major. D. latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major. E. biceps brachii and triceps brachii.

latissimus dorsi and pectoralis major.

The activity of apocrine sweat glands A. produces cerumen. B. leads to body odor. C. gives the skin a healthy glow. D. produces sweat on the palm of the hand. E. produces an oily secretion.

leads to body odor.

. \The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the ANS differ in the A. length of the preganglionic and postganglionic axons. B. location of the preganglionic cell bodies. C. position of the ganglia where preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse. D. length of the preganglionic and postganglionic axons, and location of the preganglionic cell bodies. E. length of the preganglionic and postganglionic axons, location of the preganglionic cell bodies, and position of the ganglia where preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse

length of the preganglionic and postganglionic axons, location of the preganglionic cell bodies, and position of the ganglia where preganglionic and postganglionic neurons synapse

The pelvic diaphragm is formed by the A. levator ani only. B. deep transverse perineum muscle. C. levator ani and coccygeus muscles. D. sphincter urethrae and sphincter ani muscles. E. coccygeus only.

levator ani and coccygeus muscles.

The appendicular skeleton consists of the A. skull and appendages. B. rib cage and the pelvis. C. limbs and their girdles. D. rib cage and limb girdles. E. vertebral column.

limbs and their girdles.

Which of the following muscles does NOT extend the neck? A. trapezius B. semispinalis capitis C. longissimus capitis D. longus capitis E. splenius capitis

longus capitis

A man was in an accident and severed his spinal cord between C6 and C7. Which of the following would NOT occur? A. loss of sensation in the trunk below the shoulders, the lower limbs and portions of the arms B. loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm C. loss of movement in the lower limbs D. loss of the use of the intercostals nerves, and breathing would be affected because the intercostals muscles would be paralyzed E. loss of sensation and movement in the jaw

loss of use of the phrenic nerves and paralysis of the diaphragm

Reticular tissue is found in A. muscles. B. long bones. C. lymphatic tissue. D. intestinal tissue. E. nerve tissue.

lymphatic tissue.

What type of cells phagocytize foreign or injured cells and play a major role in providing protection against infections? A. mast cells B. adipocytes C. osteoclast D. stem cells E. macrophages

macrophages

The extrapyramidal system A. controls the speed of skilled movements. B. maintains control of unconscious movements. C. interprets cutaneous perception. D. projects sensory information from the medulla to the cerebrum. E. control facial expression, mastication, and tongue movements.

maintains control of unconscious movements.

which auditory ossicle is attached to the tympanic membrane? A. labyrinth B. incas C. malleus D. stapes E. oval window

malleus

What type of membrane proteins allow cells to identify one another? A. marker molecules B. channel protein C. receptor proteins D. enzymes E. carrier proteins

marker molecules

Which of these activities is associated with the left cerebral hemisphere in most people? A. motor control of left side of the body B. mathematics and speech C. spatial perception D. recognition of faces E. musical ability

mathematics and speech

An injury to the wrist that results in edema in the carpal tunnel would compress the A. axillary nerve. B. radial nerve. C. musculocutaneous nerve. D. ulnar nerve. E. median nerve.

median nerve.

Autonomic reflexes might be integrated in the A. medulla oblongata. B. spinal cord. C. hypothalamus. D. thalamus. E. medula oblongata, spinal cord and hypothalamus.

medula oblongata, spinal cord and hypothalamus.

The nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and V are located in the A. pons. B. medulla. C. midbrain. D. diencephalon. E. cerebellum.

midbrain.

Which of the following occurs when the permeability of blood vessels increases during inflammation? A. removal of foreign material from the blood B. increased blood flow to the area C. redness and heat at the injury site D. migration of white blood cells to the site of injury E. no change in osmotic balance between blood and tissues

migration of white blood cells to the site of injury

Stratified epithelium consists of A. multiple layers of cells. B. a single layer of cells. C. a single layer of cells that changes shape when the tissue is stretched. D. a multiple layer of cells that appears to change shape when the tissue is stretched. E. None of these choices are correct.

multiple layers of cells.

Effector cells that respond to acetylcholine released from postganglionic neurons have A. somatotrophic receptors. B. muscarinic receptors. C. adrenergic receptors. D. nicotinic receptors. E. macrotinic receptors.

muscarinic receptors.

The brachial plexus supplies nerves that function to contract which of the following? A. the diaphragm B. intercostal muscles C. muscles of the arm and forearm D. muscles of the lower limb E. abdominal muscles

muscles of the arm and forearm

Which of the following nerves is part of the brachial plexus? A. peroneal B. ansa cervicalis C. ischiadic (sciatic) D. musculocutaneous E. femoral

musculocutaneous

Which of the following causes an unequal ion concentration across the resting plasma membrane? A. the functioning of the sodium-chloride pump B. negatively charged proteins do not readily diffuse across the plasma membrane C. the attraction of chloride ions to other intracellular anions D. the repulsion of potassium ions by the intracellular anions E. the attraction of sodium ions to chloride ions

negatively charged proteins do not readily diffuse across the plasma membrane

Which of the following events occurs on the postsynaptic membrane? A. acetylcholine production B. rapid degradation of acetylcholine C. release of neurotransmitter D. neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule E. release of calcium ions

neurotransmitter combines with a receptor molecule

The membranes of all postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia have A. somatotrophic receptors. B. muscarinic receptors. C. adrenergic receptors. D. nicotinic receptors. E. macrotinic receptors.

nicotinic receptors.

In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called A. nuclei. B. pyramids. C. tracts. D. peduncles. E. ganglia.

nuclei.

The "control center" of the cell is the A. nucleus. B. ribosome. C. mitochondrion. D. plasma membrane. E. endoplasmic reticulum.

nucleus

Adduction of the thigh involves the ____________. A. peroneal nerve. B. femoral nerve. C. obturator nerve. D. pudendal nerve. E. tibial nerve

obturator nerve.

A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones? A. temporal B. occipital C. sphenoid D. zygomatic E. nasal

occipital

Raising the eyebrows is the action of the _____ muscles. A. auricular B. procerus C. occipitofrontalis D. levator palpebrae superioris E. temporalis

occipitofrontalis

An action potential A. occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level. B. propagates across the plasma membrane in a decremental fashion. C. has no repolarization phase. D. is an example of negative feedback. E. cannot transmit information.

occurs when the local potential reaches threshold level.

In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region A. outside the cell to a region inside the cell. B. inside the cell to a region outside the cell. C. of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. D. of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration. E. None of these choices are correct.

of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

Multiple sclerosis is a neurological disorder in which myelin sheaths in the CNS are destroyed. Which of the following neuroglial cells is being damaged in multiple sclerosis? A. astrocyte B. microglial cell C. oligodendrocyte D. ependymal cell E. Schwann cells

oligodendrocyte

Appositional growth deposits a new layer of bone A. on the surface of the bone. B. in the epiphyseal plate of long bones. C. in the secondary ossification center of the epiphyses. D. in interstitial areas. E. on cancellous, but not compact bone.

on the surface of the bone.

A sarcomere extends from A. one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk. B. one T tubule to the next T tubule. C. the middle of the I band to the middle of the A band. D. the H zone to the I band. E. the M line to the next M line.

one Z disk to an adjacent Z disk.

Continuous conduction of an action potential means that A. once one action potential is created, it moves down the axon. B. the whole axon depolarizes at the same time. C. one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site. D. an action potential is conducted from one node of Ranvier to the next node.

one action potential stimulates the production of a new action potential at the adjacent site.

Which of the following is correctly matched? A. osteocytes - function in bone remodeling B. osteoclasts - responsible for reabsorption C. osteoblasts - break down bone tissue D. endosteum - lines central canal of the osteon E. periosteum - lines the medullary cavity

osteoclasts - responsible for reabsorption

The cell type that is responsible for maintaining bone once it has been formed is the A. osteoclast. B. osteoblast. C. chondrocyte. D. osteocyte. E. chondroblast.

osteocyte

Brittle bone disorder is another name for A. osteoporosis. B. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. osteomalacia. D. scurvy. E. osteomyelitis.

osteogenesis imperfecta.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. synthesis reaction - two reactants combine to form a larger product B. decomposition reaction - large reactant broken into smaller products C. oxidation - gain of electrons D. dehydration reaction - water is a product of the reaction E. hydrolysis - water is used in decomposition reaction

oxidation - gain of electrons

Which of the following muscles is involved in swallowing? A. sternocleidomastoid B. palatopharyngeus C. temporalis D. vocalis E. masseter

palatopharyngeus

In the anatomical position, the A. arms are crossed over the chest. B. palms of the hands face posteriorly. C. body is erect with the head turned to the right. D. thumbs point to the midline of the body. E. palms of the hands face anteriorly.

palms of the hands face anteriorly.

This is the dermal layer closest to the epidermis. A. epidermis B. reticular layer C. papillary layer D. stretch marks E. hypodermis

papillary layer

Cedric slipped and cut his finger. The cut bled, but did not penetrate to the hypodermis. The deepest layer penetrated was the A. stratum spinosum. B. stratum granulosum. C. stratum basale. D. stratum corneum. E. papillary layer of the dermis.

papillary layer of the dermis.

Osteoclast activity is increased by A. parathyroid hormone. B. vitamin D. C. calcitonin. D. growth hormone. E. vitamin C.

parathyroid hormone.

The taste cortex is located in the ________ lobe. A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

parietal

The primary somatic sensory cortex is located in the A. frontal lobe. B. temporal lobe. C. occipital lobe. D. parietal lobe

parietal lobe

Parasympathetic preganglionic axons from the sacral region of the spinal cord course through ____ nerves that innervate the ____. A. splanchnic; urinary bladder and adrenal glands B. pelvic; lower colon and reproductive glands C. sacral; lower colon and urinary bladder D. lumbar; stomach and intestines E. coccygeal; anus and vagina

pelvic; lower colon and reproductive glands

The type of muscle that can contract with the greatest force is the A. straight. B. orbicular. C. triangular. D. rhomboidal. E. pennate

pennate

The suffix "-itis" means inflammation. Which of the following terms means inflammation of the membrane lining the body cavity that contains the liver? A. pericarditis B. peritonitis C. pleurisy D. colitis E. hepatitis

peritonitis

Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called A. pinocytosis. B. phagocytosis. C. biocytosis. D. calmly regulated diffusion. E. exocytosis.

phagocytosis.

Amputees frequently perceive pain in the amputated structure. This type of pain is called A. chronic pain. B. phantom pain. C. referred pain. D. gate pain. E. ghost pain.

phantom pain.

Rapidly adapting proprioceptors that provide information on the location of a moving hand are known as A. phasic receptors. B. primary receptors. C. secondary receptors. D. tonic receptors.

phasic receptors.

Which of the following pairs of terms are opposites? A. plantar flexion - dorsiflexion B. abduction - extension C. inversion - retraction D. pronation - rotation E. elevation - protraction

plantar flexion - dorsiflexion

The hydrogen and oxygen atoms in a molecule of water are held together by A. ionic bonds. B. peptide bonds. C. savings bonds. D. polar covalent bonds. E. nonpolar bonds.

polar covalent bonds.

Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong. A. medulla oblongata B. pons C. cardiac center D. pyramids E. olives

pons

When the myosin head flexes into a bend, pulling the actin filament along with it, this is called the A. action reaction. B. power stroke. C. recovery stroke. D. muscle tone. E. action potential.

power stroke

Synaptic vesicles contain neurotransmitters and are present in the A. dendrites. B. cell body. C. axolemma. D. presynaptic terminals. E. trigger zone.

presynaptic terminals.

Beta-blockers (beta-adrenergic blocking agents) are frequently used to A. cause vasoconstriction. B. block muscarinic receptors. C. dilate the pupils of the eye. D. prevent increases in heart rate. E. prevent decreases in heart rate

prevent increases in heart rate.

Nucleoli A. are located in the cytoplasm. B. produce ribosomal subunits. C. have a distinct membrane. D. are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus. E. regulate movement of materials into the nucleus.

produce ribosomal subunits.

Keratinization A. occurs in the dermis. B. results in the formation of new epidermal cells. C. produces a layer of cells that resist abrasion. D. determines skin color. E. does not affect permeability characteristics of the epidermis

produces a layer of cells that resist abrasion.

The conscious perception of cutaneous sensations occurs in the cerebral cortex, but these sensations are perceived as if they were on the surface of the body. This is called A. association. B. perception. C. projection. D. integration. E. localization

projection.

The sequence of events that produces growth at the epiphyseal plate is A. hypertrophy, proliferation, calcification, ossification, and remodeling. B. proliferation, hypertrophy, cell death, calcification, ossification, and remodeling. C. hypertrophy, calcification, proliferation, cell death, ossification, and remodeling. D. calcification, hypertrophy, proliferation, ossification, cell death, and remodeling. E. proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.

proliferation, hypertrophy, calcification, cell death, ossification, and remodeling.

Which of the following molecules is NOT made from cholesterol? A. estrogen B. bile salts C. testosterone D. prostaglandins E. progesterone

prostaglandins

According to the most current model of the plasma membrane, A. cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane. B. proteins are free to move about within a double layer of phospholipids. C. phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer. D. the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure. E. the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules.

proteins are free to move about within a double layer of phospholipids.

The main components of the plasma membrane are A. carbohydrates, ions, and lipids. B. lipids and ions. C. proteins and carbohydrates. D. proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates. E. ions, lipids, and proteins.

proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.

Which of the following matrix molecules in cartilage tends to trap large quantities of water? A. collagen B. proteoglycan C. hyaluronic acid D. elastin E. chondrocytes

proteoglycan

The function of a bursa is to A. provide support for a weak joint. B. provide a fluid-filled cushion that reduces friction. C. increase the articulating surface at a joint. D. bind ligaments to bones. E. produce fluid.

provide a fluid-filled cushion that reduces friction.

Channel proteins A. are binding sites for other molecules. B. utilize the G protein complex to function. C. are found only on endoplasmic reticulum. D. allow cells to recognize one another. E. provide a tunnel through which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.

provide a tunnel through which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.

Proteins A. are the body's source of immediate energy. B. are the building blocks of nucleotides. C. provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues. D. contain the genetic information of the cell. E. insulate and cushion the body.

provide much of the structure of body cells and tissues.

The medial olfactory area A. provides emotional reactions to odors. B. is the site of conscious perception of odors. C. generates action potentials in olfactory neurons. D. modulates the sense of olfaction within the olfactory bulb. E. is the area where chemicals bind to receptors.

provides emotional reactions to odors.

Neurons in the skin that are responsible for detecting pain are A. apolar. B. pseudo-unipolar. C. bipolar. D. multipolar.

pseudo-unipolar.

Branches of the ____ nerve are anesthetized before a doctor performs an episiotomy for childbirth. A. genitofemoral B. gluteal C. cutaneous femoral D. pudendal E. common fibular (peroneal)

pudendal

Which abdominal wall muscle originates on the iliac crest and the lower lumbar vertebrae? A. rectus abdominis B. external abdominal oblique C. internal abdominal oblique D. transversus abdominis E. quadratus lumborum

quadratus lumborum

which of the following muscles is named for its location? A. rhomboideus major B. quadriceps femoris C. trapezius D. deltoid E. teres major

quadriceps femoris

The integumentary system A. regulates body temperature. B. breaks down food into small particles for absorption. C. controls intellectual functions. D. produces body movements. E. coordinates and integrates body function.

regulates body temperature.

The plasma membrane A. separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell. B. is a rigid protein membrane. C. is not permeable. D. has a single layer of phospholipids. E. regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.

regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.

What is smooth muscle tone? A. can rapidly develop action potentials B. shallow invaginations of cell membrane C. relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time D. intracellular cytoskeleton E. enzyme that removes phosphate from myosin

relatively constant tension maintained for a period of time

After contraction has occurred, the calcium is A. destroyed by cholinesterase. B. chemically bound to the cross bridges. C. secreted by the Golgi apparatus to the outside of the cell. D. released from troponin. E. returned to the sarcolemma.

released from troponin

Active transport A. follows osmotic pressure gradients. B. can move substances along their concentration gradient. C. does not require metabolic energy (ATP). D. involves vesicle formation. E. requires ATP.

requires ATP

A buffer will A. enhance changes in the pH of the solutions. B. resist drastic changes in the pH of the solutions. C. have no effect on the pH of the solutions. D. make a solution more acidic. E. make a solution more basic.

resist drastic changes in the pH of the solutions.

A pivot joint A. is a modified ball and socket joint. B. restricts movement to rotation. C. is a biaxial joint. D. allows gliding movement. E. is between the atlas and the occipital bone.

restricts movement to rotation.

The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the A. basal nuclei. B. reticular formation. C. vermis. D. thalamic nuclei. E. cerebellum

reticular formation.

Vitamin C is essential for normal collagen synthesis. If a child suffered from a vitamin C deficiency, which layer of the skin would be most affected? A. reticular layer of dermis B. stratum corneum C. stratum granulosum D. epidermis E. stratum basale

reticular layer of dermis

In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector A. reverses the original stimulus. B. enhances the original stimulus. C. has no effect on the original stimulus. D. is usually damaging to the body. E. creates a cycle that leads away from homeostasis.

reverses the original stimulus.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? A. corticospinal tract - movements, especially the hands B. corticobulbar tract - movements in the head and face C. rubrospinal tract - two-point discrimination D. vestibulospinal tract - maintains upright posture E. reticulospinal - posture adjustments and walking

rubrospinal tract - two-point discrimination

The amount of body area involved with a burn is determined by the A. color of the skin. B. amount of pain. C. rule of nines. D. cause of the burn. E. ABCDE rule.

rule of nines.

Spinal nerves exiting the cord from the level of L4 to S4 form the A. lumbar plexus. B. femoral plexus. C. sacral plexus. D. pelvic plexus. E. brachial plexus.

sacral plexus.

A vertical plane that separates the body into right and left portions is called a _____ plane. A. sagittal B. transverse C. frontal D. horizontal E. coronal

sagittal

T tubules are invaginations of the A. sarcoplasmic reticulum. B. sarcomere. C. myofibril. D. sarcoplasm. E. sarcolemma.

sarcolemma.

The muscle that is used to cross the legs is the A. sartorius. B. gastrocnemius. C. vastus lateralis. D. gluteus maximus. E. biceps femoris.

sartorius.

When a person sits on a hard surface for a period of time, his foot or leg may "go to sleep." This sensation is the result of compressing the _____ nerve. A. femoral B. sciatic C. obturator D. pudendal E. ulnar

sciatic

The superior olivary nucleus A. generates the endocochlear potential. B. receives impulses from the vestibular nerve. C. helps localize high-pitched tones near the apex of the basilar membrane. D. sends efferent impulses that inhibit all hair cells not vibrating maximally. E. stimulates additional hair cells.

sends efferent impulses that inhibit all hair cells not vibrating maximally.

The type of membrane that protects internal organs from friction is a ________ membrane. A. serous B. synovial C. mucous D. partial E. dry

serous

Which of the following is correctly matched? A. short bone - carpal bone B. long bone - vertebra C. irregular bone - femur D. flat bone - phalanges of the toes E. short bone - humerus

short bone - carpal bone

The parasympathetic nervous system is characterized by A. the absence of preganglionic fibers. B. the absence of postganglionic axons. C. short postganglionic axons near the organs they innervate. D. short preganglionic axons near the spinal cord. E. long postganglionic axons.

short postganglionic axons near the organs they innervate.

A person suffered burns over a large part of his body. Evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas occurs. As a result of the evaporation process, cells will tend to A. shrink. B. swell. C. rupture. D. first swell and then resume their original shape. E. remain unchanged.

shrink.

Which of the organs listed below is not directly innervated by the autonomic nervous system? A. the heart B. sweat gland C. smooth muscle D. skeletal muscle E. salivary gland

skeletal muscle

Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of A. cardiac muscle. B. smooth muscle. C. skeletal muscle. D. undifferentiated muscle. E. voluntary muscle

smooth muscle.

Substances dissolved in the liquid portion of a solution are called A. solutes. B. solvents. C. catalysts. D. osmoles. E. insoluble.

solutes.

Which of the following is mismatched? A. central nervous system - brain B. autonomic nervous system - sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions C. peripheral nervous system - spinal nerves D. somatic nervous system - sensory division of PNS E. peripheral nervous system - sensory and motor divisions

somatic nervous system - sensory division of PNS

An anatomic image created from sound waves is a A. radiograph. B. CT scan. C. MRI. D. sonogram.

sonogram.

The pleural cavity is the A. a double-layered serous membrane that anchors some of the abdominal organs to the body wall. B. the serous membrane that covers the lungs. C. the serous membrane that lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities. D. space located between the visceral and parietal pleura. E. the membrane that lines the pericardial sac.

space located between the visceral and parietal pleura.

The term "shin splints" is applied to A. injuries resulting from excessive stress on the tibialis posterior. B. stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee. C. inflammation of the gastrocnemius. D. posterior compartment syndrome. E. blood accumulation around the gastrocnemius.

stress fractures of the fibula 2 to 5 cm distal to the knee.

Connective tissue is separated into subgroups based on the A. cell type. B. shape of the cells. C. number of cell layers. D. cell functions. E. structure of the extracellular matrix.

structure of the extracellular matrix.

Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description? A. crista galli - point of attachment of one of the meninges B. occipital condyles - articulation points between the skull and vertebral column C. alveolar process - ridge containing the teeth D. styloid process - point of articulation of mandible with skull E. mandibular fossa - point of articulation of mandible with skull

styloid process - point of articulation of mandible with skull

Cerebrospinal fluid fills the A. subarachnoid space. B. subdural space. C. dural sinuses. D. epidural space. E. None of these choices is correct

subarachnoid space.

Which of the following is a carbohydrate? A. triglyceride B. hemoglobin C. cholesterol D. animal fat E. sucrose

sucrose

Oxygen deficit represents A. the amount anaerobic metabolism must increase after exercise. B. the amount of oxygen converted to lactic acid during exercise. C. the amount of carbon dioxide that cells need to eliminate. D. conversion of pyruvic acid to lactic acid. E. the amount of oxygen that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.

the amount of oxygen that cells need to replenish ATP supplies after exercise.

The limbic system involves various neural connections between A. the medulla and pons. B. the pons and cerebellum. C. the cerebrum and diencephalon. D. the diencephalon and midbrain. E. the cerebrum and midbrain.

the cerebrum and diencephalon.

The most superficial meningeal layer is A. the pia mater. B. the arachnoid layer. C. the dura mater. D. the epidural sinus. E. the skull

the dura mater.

Homeostasis is defined as A. the production of energy by cells. B. the combination of growth, self-repair, and energy release. C. an amplification of deviation from the normal range. D. the maintenance of a relatively constant environment within the body. E. a condition in the body that does not involve fluctuation.

the maintenance of a relatively constant environment within the body.

The primary structure of a protein is A. the number of polypeptide chains in the molecule. B. the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. C. the folded, helical nature of the molecule. D. represented by multiple polypeptide chains. E. the hydrogen bonds between amino acids

the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain.

The visceral pleura is A. a double-layered serous membrane that anchors some of the abdominal organs to the body wall. B. the serous membrane that covers the lungs. C. the serous membrane that lines the abdominal and pelvic cavities. D. space located between the visceral and parietal pleura. E. the membrane that lines the pericardial sac.

the serous membrane that covers the lungs.

The various types of epithelium are classified by A. the size and shape of cells. B. the shape of cells and number of cell layers. C. the number of cell layers and size of the cells. D. the size and location of cells. E. function and size of cells.

the shape of cells and number of cell layers.

In short-term memory, A. information is retained for less than a second. B. the frontal lobe plays the most important role. C. current information is lost when new information is presented. D. there is increased synaptic activity by long-term potentiation. E. there is consolidation of information.

there is increased synaptic activity by long-term potentiation.

A herniated disc occurs when A. the body of a vertebra is fractured. B. the covering of the spinal cord is torn. C. there is a fracture of the vertebral arch. D. there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus. E. spinal nerves are cut.

there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.

The vagus nerve carries parasympathetic impulses to the A. salivary glands. B. lacrimal glands. C. smooth muscle of the eyes. D. thoracic and abdominal viscera. E. thyroid gland.

thoracic and abdominal viscera.

Sympathetic fibers leave the spinal cord in the A. cranial and sacral regions. B. lumbar and sacral regions. C. cranial and thoracic regions. D. thoracic and lumbar regions. E. cervical and sacral regions

thoracic and lumbar regions.

A muscle fiber will respond to a stimulus when that stimulus reaches the _____ level. A. threshold B. relaxation C. rigor mortis D. recruitment E. resting

threshold

The thenar muscles are involved in controlling the ____; the hypothenar muscles control the ____. A. index finger; little finger B. thumb; little finger C. ring finger; thumb D. thumb; index finger E. index finger; thumb

thumb; little finger

The sciatic nerve is composed of the A. femoral nerve and the tibial nerve. B. tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve. C. femoral nerve and the obturator nerve. D. common fibular nerve and the pudendal nerve. E. superior gluteal and inferior gluteal.

tibial nerve and the common fibular nerve

Which muscle dorsiflexes and inverts the foot? A. tibialis anterior B. soleus C. extensor digitorum longus D. extensor hallicus longus E. fibularis brevis

tibialis anterior

The type of cell connection that serves as a permeability barrier is a A. hemidesmosome. B. desmosome. C. gap junction. D. intercalated disc. E. tight junction.

tight junction.

What connects the stereocilia in a hair bundle? A. calcium channels B. tip links C. spiral ligaments D. outer hair cells

tip links

The term "dorsal" means A. further from the point of attachment to the body. B. to lie with the anterior surface down. C. toward the back of the body. D. away from the midline. E. toward the front of the body.

toward the back of the body.

Amputation of a foot at the ankle would involve a cut in the _____ plane. A. coronal B. median C. transverse D. frontal E. lateral

transverse

A symporter will transport _____ across the cell membrane. A. two different ions or molecules in opposite directions B. two different ions or molecules in the same direction C. two of the same ions or molecules in the same direction D. one specific ion or molecule E. two of the same ions or molecules in opposite directions

two different ions or molecules in the same direction

Compared to a somatic reflex, an autonomic reflex utilizes A. one motor neuron plus cardiac and smooth muscle and glands as effectors. B. one motor neuron plus skeletal muscles as effectors. C. two motor neurons plus cardiac and smooth muscle and glands as effectors. D. two motor neurons plus skeletal muscles as effectors. E. three motor neurons plus skeletal muscles as effectors.

two motor neurons plus cardiac and smooth muscle and glands as effectors.

The sagittal suture is located between the A. two parietal bones. B. frontal and parietal bones. C. parietal and temporal bones. D. parietal and occipital bones. E. frontal and temporal bones

two parietal bones.

The same neurotransmitter may produce different effects on neurons because of differences in the A. type of receptors on the postsynaptic membranes of neurons. B. strength of the action potential. C. amount of neurotransmitter. D. size of the neurons. E. potassium channels.

type of receptors on the postsynaptic membranes of neurons.

When a person hits their "funny bone," they cause temporary damage to the _____ nerve. A. axillary B. radial C. musculocutaneous D. ulnar E. median

ulnar

Wernicke area is necessary for A. motivation. B. understanding and formulating coherent speech. C. initiating the muscular movements of speech. D. processing visual images. E. smiling.

understanding and formulating coherent speech.

Cartilaginous joints A. are common in the skull. B. unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage. C. allow the most movement between bones. D. are found in the lower leg. E. are not found in the pelvic region.

unite two bones by means of fibrocartilage or hyaline cartilage.

Which of the following is NOT found in the epigastric region? A. liver B. stomach C. urinary bladder D. duodenum E. large intestine

urinary bladder

Organelles A. are extracellular structures. B. are unspecialized portions of a cell. C. generally lack membranes. D. vary in number and type depending on cell function. E. are structural, but not functional parts of the cell.

vary in number and type depending on cell function.

Intercostal nerves are formed from the A. thoracic plexus. B. ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves. C. dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves. D. rami communicans of the thoracic spinal nerves. E. cervical plexus.

ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves.

When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called A. open-gated channels. B. voltage-gated channels. C. chemical-gated channels. D. ligand-gated channels. E. nongated ion channels.

voltage-gated channels.

Which of the following bones forms the nasal septum? A. inferior nasal conchae and lacrimal bones B. vomer and ethmoid C. maxilla and vomer D. ethmoid and sphenoid E. nasal and vomer

vomer and ethmoid

Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane. A. urea B. oxygen C. water D. sodium E. sugar

water

The short connection between a spinal nerve and a sympathetic chain ganglion through which preganglionic neurons pass is called the A. white ramus communicans. B. gray ramus communicans. C. splanchnic nerve. D. terminal ganglia. E. pink ramus communicans.

white ramus communicans.

A reflex that protects limbs by removing them from painful stimuli is the A. stretch reflex. B. crossed extensor reflex. C. Golgi tendon reflex. D. alternating reflex. E. withdrawal reflex

withdrawal reflex

Aerobic respiration A. produces ATP molecules faster than anaerobic respiration. B. yields as many as 36 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized. C. occurs whether oxygen is present or not. D. occurs entirely in the cytoplasm. E. occurs in the ribosomes.

yields as many as 36 ATP per glucose molecule metabolized.