BIOL 2320:MICROBIOLOGY REVIEW 4

Cell surface markers involved in immune reactions A) are the result of genetic expression. B) aid in cellular development. C) function in recognition of self molecules. D) participate in communication with other cells of the system. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Contact dermatitis involves A) T-lymphocytes secrete inflammatory cytokines. B) itchy papules and blisters. C) allergen entering the skin. D) a sensitizing and provocative dose. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Immunotherapy is the A) administering of preformed antibodies. B) use of immune serum globulin. C) use of antitoxins. D) conferring of passive immunity. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Lymphocyte maturation involves A) T-cells maturing in the thymus. B) hormonal signals that initiate development. C) B-cells maturing in bone marrow sites. D) release of mature lymphocytes to begin migration to various lymphoid organs. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Lymphocytes A) develop into clones of B and T-cells with extreme variations of specificity. B) have membrane receptors that recognize foreign antigens. C) gain tolerance to self by destruction of lymphocytes that could react against self. D) possess MHC antigens for recognizing self. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Maggie was told she has a positive titer to measles. Which of the following could explain this? A) She was vaccinated against measles. B) She has measles now. C) The test was a false positive. D) She had measles sometime in her life. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Monoclonal antibodies A) are secreted by hybridomas. B) are used in immunology lab tests and cancer therapy. C) have a single specificity for antigen. D) originate from a single B-cell clone. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Transfusion of the wrong blood type can cause A) fever and anemia. B) recipient antibody activating the complement cascade to attack the RBCs. C) systemic shock and kidney failure. D) massive hemolysis of the donor RBCs. E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following can cause secondary acquired immunodeficiencies in T-cells and B cells? A) chemotherapy B) organic disease C) radiation D) infection E) All of these choices are correct.

All of these choices are correct.

Which of the following is not a possible symptom of Type 1 hypersensitivity? A) Sneezing B) Rashes C) Contact dermatitis D) Diarrhea E) Rhinitis

Contact dermatitis

The lymphoid tissues of the intestinal tract are collectively referred to as A) spleen. B) GALT. C) tonsils. D) thymus. E) lymph nodes.

GALT.

Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen? A) production of gas B) antimicrobic sensitivity C) phage typing D) Gram stain E) catalase test

Gram stain

Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A) Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result. B) Sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture. C) First antigen and antibody are allowed to react. D) Purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube.

Hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result.

Which antibody confers the most important specific local immunity to enteric, respiratory, and genitourinary pathogens? A) IgG B) IgA C) IgM D) IgE E) IgD

IgA

All of the following are involved in Type 2 hypersensitivity, except A) IgM. B) IgE. C) foreign cells. D) IgG. E) complement.

IgE.

All of the following are involved in the development of a Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction, except A) TC cells. B) IgE. C) antigen. D) cytokines. E) macrophages. F) TH cells. G) dendritic cells.

IgE.

In the secondary response to an antigen, the predominant antibody is A) IgE. B) IgD. C) IgG. D) IgM. E) IgA.

IgG.

Tests that take place in the lab, such as in a test tube or Petri-dish, outside of a living host, are referred to as ________ whereas tests that take place in a living host, such as in a patient, are described as ________. A) In loco; In vitro B) In loco; In vivo C) In vitro; In vivo D) In vitro; In loco

In vitro; In vivo

Which is incorrect about the Fc region of an immunoglobulin? A) It contains an effector molecule that can fix complement. B) It forms the antigen binding sites. C) It determines the antibody's distribution in the body. D) It determines the class to which the immunoglobulin belongs. E) It contains an effector molecule that can bind to cells such as macrophages and mast cells.

It forms the antigen binding sites.

When macrophages migrate to the skin and remain there, they are called ________ cells. A) GALT B) dendritic C) alveolar D) Kupffer E) Langerhans

Langerhans

Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method? A) VDRL test B) immunoelectrophoresis C) Ouchterlony test D) Western Blot E) ELISA

Ouchterlony test

Which cells' direct involvement are required for cell-mediated immunity? A) bacterial cells B) viral components C) neutrophils D) T-cells E) B-cells

T-cells

Which kind of T-cell synthesizes perforins and granzymes to destroy viral infected cells, and cancer cells? A) MHC B) CD4 C) TC D) TH

TC

physician orders an antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test to check for rheumatic fever. A patient serum sample is exposed to known suspensions of streptolysin and then allowed to incubate with RBCs. If the patient does have rheumatic fever, what will happen? A) The red blood cells will lyse. B) Not enough information is provided to speculate. C) The red blood cells will agglutinate only. D) The red blood cells will not lyse. E) The red blood cells will fluoresce.

The red blood cells will not lyse.

Which of the following is incorrect about the role of mast cells and basophils in allergies? A) Their cytoplasmic secretory vesicles contain physiologically active cytokines. B) They are found mainly in the lymph nodes. C) They degranulate when triggered by a specific allergen through the IgE bound to them. D) They carry high numbers of cell receptors that bind to IgE antibodies.

They are found mainly in the lymph nodes.

Allergic reactions to penicillin are an example of a A) Type 1 hypersensitivity. B) Type 2 hypersensitivity. C) Type 3 hypersensitivity. D) Type 4 hypersensitivity.

Type 1 hypersensitivity.

Atopy and anaphylaxis are hypersensitivities in the category A) Type 1 only. B) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3, and Type 4. C) Type 1 and Type 4. D) Type 4 only. E) Type 1, Type 2, Type 3.

Type 1 only.

Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection? A) Ouchterlony B) Western Blot C) complement fixation D) radioimmunoassay E) immunoelectrophoresis

Western Blot

Which test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test? A) Western Blot B) immunelectrophoresis C) the Quellung test D) Ouchterlony double diffusion E) radioimmunoassay (RIA)

Western Blot

Severe combined immunodeficiencies (SCIDs) are due to A) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. B) failure of B cell development and maturity. C) a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells. D) autoantibodies. E) delayed hypersensitivity.

a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells

Minute amounts of a pathogen in a patient sample can be rapidly detected by specifically amplifying and identifying its nucleic acid using PCR. This is an example of A) a phenotypic method. B) an immunologic method. C) a microscopic method. D) a genetic method.

a genetic method.

Pulsed-field gel electrophoresis (PFGE) is often used to determine whether bacterial isolates from different cases of food-borne illness are the same and can be traced to the same source. This is an example of A) a phenotypic method. B) a microscopic technique. C) an immunologic technique. D) a genetic method.

a genetic method.

Juan has influenza and has aches, pains, and a fever. His mother, a physician, tells him to take an antipyretic. What is she telling him to take? A) herbal tea with honey B) an antiviral drug, like tamiflu C) an antibiotic, like erythromycin D) an antihistamine E) acetaminophen, like tylenol

acetaminophen, like tylenol

Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in which type of test? A) agglutination B) cross-reactions C) specificity D) sensitivity E) precipitation

agglutination

Which process involves antibodies cross-linking cells or particles into large aggregates? A) opsonization B) anamnestic response C) agglutination D) neutralization E) complement fixation

agglutination

The indirect ELISA test detects ________ in a patient's blood. A) complement B) antibody C) microorganisms D) antigen E) IgE only

antibody

Which of the following is an example of GALT? A) thymus gland B) lymph nodes C) tonsils D) appendix E) spleen

appendix

Cody is 4 months old and is given a DTaP injection by his pediatrician as part of the routine immunization schedule. What type of immunity will develop as a result of this? A) natural active immunity B) natural passive immunity C) artificial active immunity D) artificial passive immunity

artificial active immunity

Post-exposure prophylaxis for rabies includes shots of HRIG (human rabies immune globulin) and rabies vaccine. The HRIG provides ________ whereas the vaccine promotes the development of ________. A) artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity B) artificial active immunity; natural active immunity C) artificial passive immunity; natural active immunity D) artificial active immunity; artificial passive immunity E) natural passive immunity; artificial passive immunity

artificial passive immunity; artificial active immunity

Superantigens are A) cell markers found in some member of a species but not in other members. B) bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens. C) body tissues that the immune system mistakes as foreign. D) those that evoke allergic reactions.

bacterial toxins that activate T-cells at a 100 times greater rate than other antigens.

All of the following are types of agranulocytes because they do not have prominent granules in their cytoplasm when stained, except A) lymphocytes. B) basophils. C) B-cells. D) monocytes. E) T-cells.

basophils.

What will be the immediate action of allergen when it enters the body for a second time? A) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils B) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. C) bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils D) Histamine acts on smooth muscle. E) degranulation

bonding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils

Elimination and destruction systems present in the phagolysosome include all the following, except A) nitric oxide. B) bromine. C) lactic acid. D) hydroxyl free radical. E) lysozyme.

bromine.

Immune sera is produced in horses for all the following except A) snake bites. B) diphtheria. C) chickenpox. D) botulism. E) spider bites.

chickenpox.

The four classic signs and symptoms of inflammation include all the following, except A) pain. B) chills. C) redness. D) swelling. E) warmth.

chills.

The DiGeorge syndrome is the result of A) delayed hypersensitivity. B) a genetic defect in the development of both T-cells and B cells. C) congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland. D) failure of B cell development and maturity. E) autoantibodies.

congenital absence or immaturity of the thymus gland.

Acellular vaccines and subunit vaccines A) contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses. B) are always genetically engineered. C) confer passive immunity. D) contain modified bacterial exotoxin molecules. E) All of these choices are correct.

contain select antigenic components of a pathogen rather than whole cells or viruses.

Which event releases the chemical mediators? A) binding of IgE by the Fc region to mast cells and basophils B) Prostaglandins cause vasodilation and increased vascular permeability. C) Histamine acts on smooth muscle. D) binding of allergen to adjacent IgE binding sites on mast cells and basophils E) degranulation

degranulation

Allergic patients receiving small, controlled injections of specific allergens are undergoing A) tissue matching. B) degranulation. C) sensitization. D) desensitization

desensitization

The process of clonal deletion is designed to A) limit the number of lymphocyte clones an individual has in order to make the system more efficient. B) slow down the immune system in the elderly. C) slow down the secondary immune response to an antigen. D) slow down the primary immune response to an antigen. E) destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

destroy clones of lymphocytes able to react to self molecules.

Variolation involved using A) dried, ground smallpox scabs. B) preparations of human cowpox lesions. C) a recombinant carrier with genetic material of the smallpox virus. D) antibodies to the smallpox virus.

dried, ground smallpox scabs.

The blood cells that particularly target parasitic worms and fungi are A) basophils. B) monocytes. C) lymphocytes. D) neutrophils. E) eosinophils.

eosinophils.

Biochemical testing used for identification of pathogens involves each of the following, except A) examining organisms through the microscope. B) quick tests that take just a few seconds. C) inoculation of additional media, incubation, and observation for a color change.

examining organisms through the microscope.

An example of artificial passive immunity would be A) a fetus acquiring maternal IgG to the chickenpox virus across the placenta. B) chickenpox vaccine triggers extended immunity to chickenpox. C) giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease. D) chickenpox infection is followed by lifelong immunity.

giving a person immune serum globulins to chickenpox virus after exposure to the disease.

Which of the following is a risk of a bone marrow transplant that is not typically a risk of a kidney or heart transplant? A) host rejection of graft B) graft versus host disease C) hypogammaglobulinemia D) formation of autoantibodies

graft versus host disease

Which is mismatched? A) hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity B) food allergy - Type 1 hypersensitivity C) transfusion reaction - Type 2 hypersensitivity D) serum sickness - Type 3 hypersensitivity E) poison ivy dermatitis - Type 4 hypersensitivity

hay fever - Type 4 hypersensitivity

The contribution of B-cells is mainly in A) humoral immunity. B) cell-mediated immunity. C) complement activity. D) inflammation. E) phagocytosis.

humoral immunity.

Any heightened or inappropriate immune response resulting in tissue damage is called a/an A) autoimmune disease. B) immunodeficiency. C) hypersensitivity. D) desensitization. E) transfusion reaction.

hypersensitivity.

When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called A) the Quellung test. B) radioimmunoassay (RIA). C) Ouchterlony double diffusion. D) Western Blot. E) immunelectrophoresis.

immunelectrophoresis.

All of the following are the results of complement activation, except A) opsonization which enhances phagocytosis. B) increased antibody production. C) enhanced inflammation. D) lysis of bacterial cells.

increased antibody production.

Mold spores and animal dander are considered to be which type of allergen? A) inhalant B) injectant C) ingestant D) contactant

inhalant

Which of the following is mismatched? A) inhalant - bee sting B) injectant - vaccine C) ingestant - nuts D) contactant - rubber E) ingestant - food additive

inhalant - bee sting

Bee sting venom is considered to be which type of allergen? A) contactant B) ingestant C) injectant D) inhalant

injectant

Erythroblastosis fetalis can be prevented by A) birth by cesarean section. B) treating the mother with RhoGAM early in the pregnancy. C) treating the fetus with immune globulin. D) injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.

injecting the mother with antibodies against the Rh factor late in the pregnancy and after giving birth.

All of the following may be targeted by TC cells, except A) cells in transplanted tissue from an imperfectly matched donor. B) viral-infected host cells. C) invading bacterial cells. D) cancer cells. E) All of these cells could be targeted by Tc cells.

invading bacterial cells.

All of the following are correct about lymph, except A) it transports numerous white blood cells. B) it travels in vessels similar to blood vessels. C) it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart. D) its composition is similar to plasma. E) it is made mostly of water.

it is transported through the body by the same pump as blood, i.e., the heart.

A person with O type blood A) lacks A and B antigens. B) lacks antibodies to A and B blood types. C) could not have the Rh factor. D) is called a universal recipient. E) All of these choices are correct.

lacks A and B antigens.

The chemical mediator that causes prolonged bronchospasm, vascular permeability, and mucus secretion of asthmatic patients is A) platelet-activating factor. B) histamine. C) leukotriene. D) prostaglandin. E) serotonin.

leukotriene.

The chemical found in tears and saliva that hydrolyzes the peptidoglycan in certain bacterial cell walls is A) hydrochloric acid. B) bile. C) lactic acid. D) lysozyme. E) histamine.

lysozyme.

All the following are events of early inflammation, except A) macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis. B) capillaries become more permeable resulting in edema. C) brief vasoconstriction is followed by vasodilation. D) exudate and pus can accumulate. E) chemical mediators and cytokines are released.

macrophages appear first and begin phagocytosis.

Reliable vaccines exist for all of the following diseases except A) rabies. B) yellow fever. C) cholera. D) malaria. E) botulism.

malaria.

Class I MHC genes code for A) certain secreted complement components. B) receptors located primarily on macrophages and B cells. C) markers that display unique characteristics of self. D) all HLA antigens. E) All of these choices are correct.

markers that display unique characteristics of self.

Diapedesis is the A) migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues. B) plugging of broken vessels to stop bleeding. C) production of only red blood cells. D) production of white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. E) loss of blood due to hemorrhaging.

migration of white blood cells from the blood out to the tissues.

Which cell type is phagocytic and can migrate out into body tissues to differentiate into macrophages? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) lymphocytes D) monocytes E) basophils

monocytes

All of the following are types of granulocytes because they have prominent cytoplasmic granules when stained, except A) monocytes. B) basophils. C) neutrophils. D) eosinophils. E) They are all granulocytes.

monocytes.

Which are the first to attack cancer cells and virus-infected cells? A) cytotoxic T-cells B) helper T-cells C) natural killer (NK) cells D) delayed hypersensitivity T-cells E) suppressor T-cells

natural killer (NK) cells

Which process involves antibodies covering surface receptors on a virus or toxin molecule thereby disrupting their activity? A) complement fixation B) agglutination C) neutralization D) anamnestic response E) opsonization

neutralization

The key phagocytic cells of the body are the A) natural killer cells. B) eosinophils and macrophages. C) neutrophils and macrophages. D) basophils and neutrophils. E) macrophages and monocytes.

neutrophils and macrophages.

The most numerous WBCs, that have multilobed nuclei and are very phagocytic are A) neutrophils. B) monocytes. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) eosinophils.

neutrophils.

Joe cut his finger on a sharp twig and now is experiencing dolor. This means A) loss of function. B) swelling. C) pain. D) redness. E) warmth.

pain.

During what process are hypochlorite and hydrogen peroxide produced to destroy bacteria and inhibit viral replication? A) phagocytosis B) complement production C) interferon production D) inflammation E) lysozyme production

phagocytosis

Soluble antigens are detected in which type of test? A) agglutination B) specificity C) precipitation D) cross-reactions E) sensitivity

precipitation

Plasma cells A) produce and secrete antibodies. B) function in cell-mediated immunity. C) are derived from T-lymphocytes. D) function in blood clotting. E) All of these choices are correct.

produce and secrete antibodies.

Joan's inflamed and painful joints are likely due to which of the following chemicals? A) interleukin-5 B) platelet-activating factor C) gamma interferon D) histamine E) prostaglandins

prostaglandins

Class II MHC genes code for A) receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells. B) self receptors recognized by natural killer cells. C) certain secreted complement components. D) all HLA antigens. E) All of these choices are correct.

receptors located primarily on macrophages, dendritic cells, and B cells.

Maria was scratched on her arm by her cat and the site is experiencing rubor. This means A) loss of function. B) redness. C) swelling. D) warmth. E) pain.

redness.

An individual has been born with Kartagener's syndrome, a disorder of microtubules that impairs the motion of cilia and flagella. What type of infections would you predict would be most common in this individual? A) gastric B) oral C) respiratory D) uterine

respiratory

The body region where a ciliary escalator helps to sweep microbes trapped in mucus away from that body site is the A) eyes. B) urinary tract. C) respiratory tract. D) digestive tract. E) skin.

respiratory tract.

Epinephrine A) is an antihistamine. B) inhibits the activity of lymphocytes. C) reverses constriction of airways. D) causes desensitization. E) All of these choices are correct.

reverses constriction of airways.

If trying to isolate a specific pathogen from amongst a variety of normal microbiota, which type of media would be most helpful? A) differential media B) blood agar C) nutrient agar D) selective and differential agar

selective and differential agar

The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A) cross-reactions. B) agglutination. C) precipitation. D) sensitivity. E) specificity.

sensitivity.

One theory regarding immune tolerance and the development of autoimmunity states that during embryonic growth, some tissues are hidden behind anatomical barriers and cannot be surveyed by the developing immune system. Later in life, some of these tissues may be exposed to the immune system as a result of trauma or infection and the immune system responds by developing an immune reaction against these tissues as if they were foreign. This theory is the A) forbidden clone theory. B) theory of immune deficiency. C) sequestered antigen theory. D) theory of molecular mimmicry.

sequestered antigen theory.

A serum titer involves A) determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. B) the Western Blot method. C) serially diluting a serum sample. D) determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction.

serially diluting a serum sample.

All of the following are associated with IgE_ and mast cell-mediated allergy, except A) anaphylaxis. B) allergic asthma. C) drug allergy. D) eczema. E) systemic lupus erythematosus.

systemic lupus erythematosus.

Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A) Western Blot. B) Ouchterlony double diffusion. C) immunelectrophoresis. D) radioimmunoassay (RIA). E) the Quellung test.

the Quellung test.

All of the following are advantages of attenuated vaccines over inactivated vaccines except A) they require fewer boosters. B) they produce infection but not disease. C) they require smaller doses. D) they can mutate back to a virulent strain. E) they confer longer lasting protection.

they can mutate back to a virulent strain.

Precipitation tests involve all of the following, except A) a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react. B) they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. C) they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. D) they include the VDRL test for syphilis. E) they are often performed in agar gels.

they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection.

Killed or inactivated vaccines are prepared by A) treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation. B) long-term subculturing of the microbe. C) passage of the pathogen through unnatural hosts or tissue culture. D) removal of virulence genes from the microbe. E) All of these choices are correct.

treatment with formalin, heat, or radiation.

Autoantibodies cause tissue injury in all the following diseases, except A) myasthenia gravis. B) tuberculin reaction. C) rheumatoid arthritis. D) Graves' disease. E) multiple sclerosis.

tuberculin reaction.

The region of each antibody molecule where amino acid composition is very different from one clone of B lymphocytes to another is the A) light region. B) hinge region. C) joining region. D) constant region. E) variable region.

variable region.