Biology Final

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Which of the following pieces of critical information did Watson and Crick use to build and propose their model of the structure of DNA?

%A always equals %T and %G always equals %C x-ray diffraction images that suggest DNA is hydrophilic and elongates upon exposure to water x-ray diffraction images that show DNA as a double helix an incorrect model that depicts DNA as a triple helix with the phosphate groups on the inside

All of Darwin's finches came from a single species with a "normal" beak. Which of the following factors can explain the development of the variety of beaks seen in these finches today?

-Different mutations in beak shape occurred in different populations of finches -Different food sources on each island selected for different beak shapes on each island -Genetic drift resulted in different islands having different allele frequencies for the genes controlling beak shape

Which of the following conditions can lead to two populations becoming different species?

-Individuals in the two populations mate at different times -Individuals in the two populations have significant genetic differences from one another -A barrier to gene flow exists between the two populations

Which of the following is not an example of adaptive evolution?

-founder effect -mutation -gene flow -bottleneck

Which of the following does not influence allele frequencies in a population?

-natural selection -mutation -genetic drift -the bottleneck effect

If you examine a population for a particular gene where B represents the dominant allele and b represents the recessive allele, you find that the allele frequencies for this gene are p = 0.3 and q = 0.7. If this population is not evolving, what would be the frequency of the heterozygous genotype?

0.42

Complete the following statements regarding the steps necessary to copy a DNA sequence during PCR: 1) The two original strands of the DNA molecule can be separated by _____. 2) The enzyme _____ "reads" each template strand and adds _____ to make a new strand.

1) heat, 2) DNA polymerase; complementary nucleotides

How many STRs are typically used to create a profile in forensic investigations?

In a population of 75 mice, what would be the size of their gene pool for a particular gene?

150

The _____ chromosomes in a human cell from inside the cheek are found in the _____.

46; nucleus

If you start with one copy of a DNA fragment, how many rounds of PCR will it take to end up with a total of 32 copies?

In a population of 100 mice, if the recessive allele frequency is 0.25, how many copies of the recessive alleles are found in the population?

Glucose (a monosaccharide) has the molecular formula C6H12O6. How many carbon atoms are in each glucose molecule?

In a population of 75 mice, what would be the size of their gene pool for a particular gene?

A diploid cell of baker's yeast has 32 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in each of its haploid spores? A. 16 B. 64 C. 8 D. 1 E. 32

A gamete is aneuploid if _____. A. all of these B. one or more homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I C. there are fewer than 23 chromosomes in the cell D. there are more than 23 chromosomes in the cell E. one or more sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II

A hematopoietic stem cell turns on genes that direct it to become a white blood cell. This process is known as _____. A. cell differentiation B. meiosis C. regeneration D. mitosis

A woman is heterozygous for the CF-associated gene (the alleles are represented here by the letters A and a. Assuming that meiosis occurs normally, which answer choice represents eggs that she can produce? A. A or a B. a C. A D. Aa E. AA

An alien has 82 total chromosomes in each of its body cells. The chromosomes are paired, making 41 pairs. If the alien's gametes undergo meiosis, what are the number and arrangement (paired or not) of chromosomes in one of its gametes? A. 41 unpaired chromosomes B. 164 paired chromosomes C. 41 paired chromosomes D. 82 unpaired chromosomes E. 82 paired chromosomes

By happenstance, Mendel chose traits located on different chromosomes for his studies. How would his results have been different, with regard to independent assortment, had he chosen to follow two traits carried on the same chromosome? A. His results would show that one trait was always co-inherited with another trait. B. His results would be easier to interpret and would better demonstrate his dominant/recessive principles and concepts. C. The two recessive traits would have assorted into one out of every four offspring independently of each other. D. There is not enough information to make predictions about his results in this type of cross. E. The offspring would display any and every possible combination of dominant and recessive traits.

Cellular differentiation, or cell specialization, results from __________. a. the "turning off" of some genes and the "turning on" others b. the separation of stem cells from each other, so they do not "know" what their "neighbors" are becoming c. cellular division; when cells divide by mitosis, the daughter cells are specialized d. the birth process; all the cells of a fetus differentiate by the time it is born

Consider your brother and your son. If you are male, which statement is correct? A. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed the same Y chromosome on to your son. B. You cannot tell the inheritance pattern with the information given. C. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed a different Y chromosome on to your son. D. The inheritance of the Y chromosome is dependent on which X chromosome is inherited. E. You and your brother inherited different Y chromosomes from your dad, and you passed your Y chromosome on to your son.

Engineering a bladder is more challenging than engineering skin because a bladder _____. A. requires a scaffold on which to grow B. is an internal tissue C. does not contain differentiated cells D. contains a single cell type E. does not receive signals for cell division

How do the two alleles of the CFTR gene in a lung cell differ? A. They are inherited from different parents. B. They are inherited from different parents, they are on different chromosomes, and only one is expressed. C. There is no difference because they are both the same gene. D. Only one is expressed. E. One is on chromosome 7 and one is on chromosome 3.

In somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT), the nucleus from a specialized cell is inserted into __________. a. an enucleated egg b. the blastocyst of an embryo c. a very early embryo d. a stem cell

Predict the sex of a baby with an XXY combination of sex chromosomes. A. male B. female C. This cannot be determined with the chromosome information given.

Predict the sex of a baby with an XXY pair of sex chromosomes. a. male b. female c. cannot determine with the chromosome information given

The "stickiness" of water results from the ______________ bonding of water molecules. A. hydrogen B. ionic C. covalent D. acidic E. hydrophobic

The bond between the oxygen atom and a hydrogen atom in a water molecule is a(n) ___________ bond. A. covalent B. hydrogen C. ionic D. hydrophobic E. noncovalent

Use the following information for this question: Phenylketonuria is considered to be an inborn error of metabolism. It is a recessive genetic condition in which the enzyme that breaks down the amino acid phenylalanine is defective or missing. Testing of all newborns allows this condition to be detected at birth. A special diet that severely minimizes phenylalanine (e.g., by avoiding diet sodas and most usual sources of protein) can treat the condition. In this scenario, two carriers of both cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria have a child. What is the probability that the child will have cystic fibrosis and be a carrier for phenylketonuria? A. 12.5% B. 6.25% C. 56.25% D. 0% E. 18.75%

What are the chances that a curly-haired father and a straight-haired mother can give birth to a child with curly hair? a. 0% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 100%

When an atom loses an electron, what happens? A. It becomes positively charged. B. It becomes negatively charged. C. It becomes neutral. D. Nothing happens. E. Atoms cannot lose an electron because atoms have a defined number of electrons.

Which of the following is NOT a cytoskeletal fiber in eukaryotic cells? A. macrotubules B. intermediate filaments C. microtubules D. microfilaments E. All of the above are cytoskeletal fibers.

Which of the following statements regarding cofactors and coenzymes is FALSE? A. Cofactors and coenzymes can replace enzymes in cells. B. Cofactors and coenzymes include both minerals and vitamins. C. Cofactors and coenzymes are micronutrients in the diet. D. Cofactors and coenzymes are "helper" molecules for enzymes. E. Cofactors and coenzymes attach to the active site of enzymes.

Which of these can be determined by amniocentesis and karyotyping? A. trisomy 21 B. Duchenne muscular dystrophy C. blood type D. cystic fibrosis E. hair color

Which of these can result in a trisomy such as Down syndrome? A. an egg with 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes B. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes C. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 22 chromosomes D. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes E. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 24 chromosomes

Which of these does not cause cancer to develop and progress? A. a proto-oncogene and a tumor suppressor gene acting together B. an oncogene and a BRCA1 acting together C. an oncogene acting alone D. a proto-oncogene acting alone E. a tumor suppressor gene acting alone

Which statement is true of a single human liver cell? A. all of these B. The number of chromosomes in this liver cell is referred to as diploid. C. There are two alleles for each gene. D. There are 46 chromosomes present. E. There is one allele on each chromosome.

Why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases? A. Males have a Y chromosome that cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele. B. Females have no Y chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele. C. Females have an additional Y chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele. D. Males and females are affected equally by X-linked recessive genetic conditions. E. Females have two Y chromosomes and cannot be affected by X-linked traits.

Why do scientists pursue several methods to get stem cells to grow into specific tissue types? A. Each method or approach used in stem cell research adds to our knowledge of how stem cells work. B. More research on stem cells will be less expensive, over the long term. C. Scientists are trying to maximize their profit margin. D. Science is not a collaborative work, so individuals must develop their own method of growing tissue types. E. The more scientists are involved in stem cell research, the less people will think any research on embryos is unethical.

Why don't engineered bladders get rejected by the patient's immune system when they are implanted? A. Engineered bladders are grown from the patient's own cells. B. The bladder is not as functional as a regular bladder, making it less susceptible to immune rejection. C. The patient takes strong immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. D. Engineered bladders are made of sections from the patient's bowels. E. The bladders are taken from another member of the same family.

Why is type O Rh-negative the "universal donor"? a. No surface markers are present on the O Rh-negative blood cells to react with the recipient's immune system. b. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O) that are recognized as compatible in all recipients. c. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O), which block immune reactions in the recipient. d. The O and Rh surface markers on the donor red blood cells block immune reactions in the recipient. e. More people have type O blood than any other blood type.

Would it be sufficient to just replace the neurons in someone who suffered nervous tissue damage? Why or why not? a. No, replacement neurons must also make the correct connections with cells in their surroundings. b. Yes, replacement neurons will make the correct connections with cells in their surroundings. c. No, replacement neurons will reject the remaining endogenous neurons.

Mendel observed that crossing a purple-flowered pea plant with a white-flowered pea plant always produced purple-flowered offspring in the F1 generation. Select TWO inferences could he make from this observation? A. The purple trait is dominant, and the white trait is recessive. B. The two parental traits were blended in the F1 generation. C. The purple-flowered pea plants cannot successfully mate with white-flowered pea plants. D. The two parental traits were not blended in the F1 generation. E. The purple trait is recessive, and the white trait is dominant.

A and D

Which statement accurately describes food with regard to energy?

A food Calorie is equal to 1,000 calories.

Which statement accurately describes how genes, chromosomes, and proteins are related?

A gene on a chromosome encodes a protein.

Select examples of energy changing forms. Select the THREE answers that are correct

A green plant absorbs light to make sugar molecules. From a high perch, a raptor dives toward its prey. A human jogs down the street for exercise.

You are investigating a crime. The DNA profile database has no perfect matches to the DNA collected at the crime scene. However, one profile in the database has at least one band in common with the crime scene DNA at every STR site. Which statement is the most likely conclusion can you draw?

A parent-child relationship exists between the DNA collected at the crime scene and the DNA in the database

Researchers create a transgenic organism by inserting a gene from algae into corn. How do researchers make the algae gene function in corn?

A regulatory sequence from corn DNA is joined to the coding sequence of the algae gene, and the resulting recombinant gene is inserted into the DNA of the corn

How do the environmental costs of growing algae for biofuel production compare to other crop options?

Algae require less fertilizer than corn.

What does the cell theory state?

All living things are made of cells and All cells come from existing cells

What is a possible consequence of a mutation affecting a nucleotide in a coding sequence of an mRNA molecule?

An incorrect amino acid is added to the growing chain, resulting in a defective protein that potentially does not function properly.

_________ can directly use the energy of sunlight to make their own food, and ______ must rely on other organisms to provide the energy they need to survive.

Autotrophs; heterotrophs

A mutation can cause a change _____. A. in the way the cell cycle is regulated B.all of these C. in the shape of a protein D. that is beneficial to the cell E. in the amino acid sequence of a protein

How are polygenic and multifactorial traits different? a. Polygenic traits are influenced by nutrition and diet, whereas multifactorial traits are not. b. Polygenic traits are genetically based, whereas multifactorial traits have both genetic and environmental influences. c. Polygenic traits are influenced by the number of traumatic life events, whereas multifactorial traits are influenced by the levels of brain chemicals. d. Polygenic traits show a continuous range of phenotypic variation, whereas multifactorial traits show several distinct phenotypes. e. There are more kinds of polygenic traits than multifactorial traits.

Human skin color ranges from very light to dark black, with many distinct skin tones in between. What type of inheritance pattern governs skin color? A. multifactorial inheritance B. polygenic inheritance C. X-linked inheritance D. incomplete dominance E. codominance

If a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his sons inherit that disease from him? a. Yes, all his sons have one X chromosome. b. No, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally. c. Yes, all his sons inherit their Y chromosomes maternally. d. No, all his sons have one X chromosome. e. Yes, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally.

If two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women be 5 feet 5 inches tall and the other 5 feet 8 inches tall? A. because the identical 20 alleles cause variation in the phenotype B. because environmental factors also play a role in the phenotype of this trait C. all of these D. because phenotype dictates genotype E. none of these

In a controlled experiment, which group receives the placebo? A. the experimental group B. the control group C. the scientist group D. the independent group E. all groups

In an otherwise normal cell, what happens if one mistake is made during DNA replication? A.Mistakes are never made during DNA replication. B.A cell cycle checkpoint detects the error and pauses the cell cycle so the error can be corrected. C. The cell will begin to divide out of control, forming a malignant tumor. D. Nothing; mistakes just happen. E. The mutation will be inherited by the individual's offspring.

In diploid organisms, having two homologues of each chromosome can be beneficial if one allele of a gene encodes a nonfunctional protein. Can haploid organisms avoid the negative effects of nonfunctional alleles? A. No, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one cannot compensate for the other being nonfunctional. B. No, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele has no other allele to mask it. C. Yes, because there are two chromosomes each with a single allele that is always the same, and one can compensate for the other being nonfunctional. D. Yes, because there is only one allele for the gene in each cell, and the nonfunctional allele will be masked by another allele of a different kind. E. Yes, because there are always other alleles for other genes that will compensate for a nonfunctional allele.

Meiosis differs from mitosis in the _____. A. way in which sister chromatids separate B. number of chromosomes in each ending cell C. number of sister chromatids in the starting cells D. number of chromosomes in the starting cells E. number of cells produced immediately after the starting cells divide

Organs can perform unique functions that differ from those that the tissues from which they are made can perform individually. Why is this? A. The cells of a tissue are flat, whereas the cells of an organ are round; round cells create more functionality. B. Tissues cannot form the same shapes that organs can; organs, therefore, have more functions than tissues. C. Organs are always made of more cells than are tissues. D. The cell types of an organ work together to create new, unique functions. E. Organs have stem cells, whereas tissues do not; organs can grow new cells with functions that are different from tissues.

Organs can perform unique functions that differ from those that the tissues, from which they are made, can perform individually. Why is this? a. Organs are always made of more cells than are tissues. b. Tissues cannot form the same shapes that organs can; organs therefore have more functions than tissues. c. The cell types of an organ work together to create new, unique functions. d. Organs have stem cells, whereas tissues do not; organs can grow new cells with functions that are different from tissues. e. The cells of a tissue are flat, whereas the cells of an organ are round; round cells create more functionality

Predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome. a. male b. female

Relative to one of your liver cells, one of your skin cells has _____. A. the same genome (i.e., the same genetic material) B. the same genome and a different pattern of gene expression C. a different pattern of gene expression and the same function D. the same function E. a different pattern of gene expression

The substrate of an enzyme is __________. A. the shape of the enzyme. B. what the enzyme acts on C. an organic accessory molecule D. one of the amino acids that makes up the enzyme E. the molecule(s) released at the end of an enzyme-facilitated reaction

Use the following information to answer this question: Corn lacks the essential amino acids isoleucine and lysine. Beans lack the essential amino acids tryptophan and methionine. Soy contains all the essential amino acids. Why do many traditional diets combine corn (e.g., tortillas) with beans? A. all the essential fats and additional micronutrients B. all the essential amino acids C. multivitamins D. additional micronutrients E. all the essential fats

Water is moving across a membrane from solution A into solution B. What can you infer? A.Solution A must be pure water. B. Solution A must have a lower solute concentration than Solution B. C. Solution A must have a higher solute concentration than Solution B. D. Solution A and Solution B must have the same concentration of solutes. E. Solution B must be pure water.

What are the chances that a curly-haired father and a straight-haired mother can give birth to a child with curly hair? A. 75% B. 0% C. 25% D. 100% E. 50%

What does Mendel's law of segregation tell us about meiosis and formation of gametes? A. Plants segregate their genes in a manner different from humans and other animals, such as mice. B. Maternal and paternal chromosomes separate during meiosis, giving each gamete half the amount of DNA of the parent. C. Gametes have exactly double the amount of DNA as the parent cell. D. Genes are linked, and the probability of inheriting traits from parents is random and cannot be predicted. E. Particles from each parent come together and blend during meiosis and formation of gametes.

What is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types? a. They carry Rh markers, whereas other blood types have none. b. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal acceptors of blood. c. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal donors of blood. d. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they cannot receive or donate blood. e. They have no surface markers from the ABO blood type alleles.

What is different about red blood cells from a person with type AB blood, compared to those from other blood types? A. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they cannot receive or donate blood. B. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal acceptors of blood. C. They carry A and B type surface markers, so they are universal donors of blood. D. They carry Rh markers, whereas other blood types have none. E. They have no surface markers from the ABO blood type alleles.

What is the genotype of a person with cystic fibrosis? A. The genotype includes 2 additional chromosomes with the mutant CFTR gene, making a total of 25 chromosomes. B. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7. C. The genotype includes only one homologous chromosome 7; the second chromosome 7 is missing. D. The genotype includes one mutant CFTR gene and one normal gene, one each on the homologous chromosomes for chromosome 7. E. The genotype includes two mutant CFTR genes, both on a single homologous chromosome 7; the other homologous chromosome 7 is normal

What makes the treatment of leukemia by stem cell replacement different from regenerative therapy, where stem cells are injected? a. Regenerative therapy uses drugs to kill defective stem cells, whereas leukemia treatment uses drugs to stimulate stem cell differentiation. b. Regenerative therapy seeks to make stem cells differentiate into cell types they would not normally become, whereas leukemia treatment is only focused on bone marrow stem cells becoming more marrow cells. c. Regenerative therapy can only be used on brain tissue, whereas leukemia treatment is used on bone tissue. d. Regenerative therapy is a much older treatment regime than current leukemia treatment. e. Regenerative therapy is used on somatic stem cells, whereas leukemia treatments involve em

Which component of peanut butter RUTF supplies essential amino acids? A. vegetable oil B. peanut butter C. powered vitamins and minerals D. peanut butter and vegetable oil E. milk powder

Which couple could have a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)? A. all of these B. a male without DMD and a carrier female C. a male without DMD and a homozygous dominant female D. none of these E. a male with DMD and a homozygous dominant female

Which family history most strongly suggests a risk of inherited breast cancer due to BRCA1 mutations? A. many female relatives who were diagnosed with breast cancer in their 70s B. many female relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at an early age C. many relatives with skin cancer D. many female relatives with both early breast cancer and ovarian cancer E. many relatives diagnosed with skin cancer at an early age

Which inheritance pattern includes an environmental contribution? A. none of these B. multifactorial C. polygenic D. X-linked recessive E. X-linked dominant

Which is the correct order of gradual specialization, from least to most, that cells undergo during development? a. multipotent; totipotent; pluripotent b. multipotent; pluripotent; totipotent c. pluripotent; multipotent; totipotent d. pluripotent; totipotent; multipotent e. totipotent; pluripotent; multipotent

Which of the following are most likely to dissolve in olive oil? A. a polar molecule B. a nonpolar molecule C. a hydrophilic molecule D. a and c E.b and c

Which of the following is TRUE about Y chromosome analysis? a. It is commonly used to determine whether a woman is really a man. b. It is commonly used to determine paternity and ancestry. c. It can be used to determine whether a man is carrying traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. d. It can be used to determine whether a man is likely to pass on traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. e. It can be used to determine whether a person has a genetic disease caused by a mutant allele on an autosome.

Which of the following is a likely result of nondisjunction in human meiosis? a. an increased risk of clinical depression b. aneuploid eggs and sperm c. a genetic disorder (such as hemophilia or color blindness) caused by a faulty allele d. an egg that can develop into a child without fertilization by a sperm

Which of the following is not a way in which researchers have obtained embryonic stem cells in the United States? a. extracting cells from discarded human embryos found in fertility clinics b. implanting an SCNT egg into a woman and removing the embryo before it becomes a fetus c. culturing the inner cell mass from SCNT embryos grown in a lab d. All of the above are ways in which researchers obtain embryonic stem cells. e. None of the above is a way in which researchers obtain embryonic stem cells.

Which statement applies to tissues? A. Tissues contain a single cell type. B. Cells within a tissue cooperate, and each tissue has a specific function. C. Each tissue has a specific function. D. Cells within a tissue cooperate. E. Tissues contain a single cell type, and cells within a tissue cooperate.

Why do people with "inherited cancer" often develop cancer at a relatively young age? A. All inherited alleles that are associated with cancer cause childhood cancers. B. Cancer cannot be truly inherited, but certain alleles weaken the normal control points that prevent cancer, and this causes cancer to appear earlier in life. C. all of these D. Younger people are exposed to more risk factors than older people. E. Predisposition does not increase the chances that other risk factors will lead to the progression of cancer.

Why do some people have unusual chromosome combinations, such as XYY and XXX? a. They have a genetic disease that causes an increase in the number of sex chromosomes. b. Errors occurred in chromosome segregation during meiosis in their fathers or mothers. c. People who inherit large numbers of short tandem repeats (STRs) also inherit extra sex chromosomes. d. A mistake in cell division (mitosis) during embryonic development leads to extra sex chromosomes in every cell. e. It is not known why these unusual chromosome combinations occur.

Why do some people have unusual chromosome combinations, such as XYY and XXX? A. Genetic disease causes a spontaneous increase in the number of sex chromosomes in mature gametes. B. Errors occurred in chromosome segregation during meiosis in their fathers or mothers. C. People who inherit large numbers of short tandem repeats (STRs) also inherit extra sex chromosomes. D. It is not known why these unusual chromosome combinations occur. E. A mistake in mitosis during embryonic development leads to extra sex chromosomes in every cell.

Why is age a risk factor for cancer? A. none of these B. all of these C. Age provides more time for the cancer cells to accumulate. D. Age causes additional mutations to be acquired that can predispose one to cancer. E. Age extends the amount of exposures to environmental factors, which can lead to the progression of cancer.

Why would cancer chemotherapy limit the ability of somatic stem cells to perform the normal cell turn-over in a tissue? a. Cancer chemotherapy blocks meiosis. b. Cancer chemotherapy blocks mitosis. c. Embryonic and not somatic cells would be limited in their ability to turn over in a tissue. d. a and b

You are listening to a news report that claims a new study has found convincing evidence that a particular weight-loss product is much more effective than diet and exercise. Which of the following constitutes "convincing" evidence in this case? A. It agrees with the hypothesis. B. Statistical tests showed significantly more weight loss in the participants who used the weight-loss product than those who relied on diet and exercise. C. All the participants lost at least 10 pounds. D. Only the participants who used the weight-loss product lost weight. E. The participants who used the weight-loss product lost an average of 3 pounds, while the participants that used diet and exercise lost an average of 2 pounds.

You shed skin cells every day. Those cells are replaced by _____. A. meiotic division and differentiation of connective tissue cells B. mitotic division and differentiation of tissue stem cells C. mitotic division and specialization of embryonic stem cells D. differentiation of blood cells that migrate into deeper layers of the skin E. differentiation of neighboring neurons into skin cells

Select the statements that correctly describe how a new DNA molecule reflects the original DNA molecule from which it was copied.

Base pairing rules duplicate the base pairs of the original molecule in the new molecule. Each new DNA molecule contains an original strand and a newly synthesized strand.

Why are biotechnology companies eager to design genetically modified organisms to express therapeutic proteins, particularly ones that would otherwise have to be isolated from blood products (e.g., human antithrombin) or animal organs (e.g., insulin, originally isolated from pig pancreas)?

Biotechnology companies are interested in the cost-effectiveness, safety, and efficiency of protein production.

You can detect DNA that is specifically from the X chromosome in a DNA sample from a person. Why can't you definitively determine the sex of that person (male or female) from the presence of the X chromosome?

Both males and females have an X chromosome and you would have to check for the presence of a Y chromosome.

"Reprogramming" genes erase the pattern of gene expression in a differentiated cell. When scientists insert "reprogramming" genes into differentiated cells, these cells will _____. A. hunt and destroyed damaged body cells B. be stimulated to divide into more differentiated cells C. be converted into stem cells D. become more specialized

A woman with a BRCA1 mutation _____. A. none of these B. will definitely develop breast cancer C. is at increased risk of developing breast cancer D. must have inherited it from her mother because of the link to breast cancer E. will also have a mutation in BRCA2

An adult stem cell called a hematopoietic stem cell from bone marrow is most useful in treating a _____. A. large burn on the upper thigh B. heart attack C. disorder affecting the development of blood cells D. degenerative eye disease affecting the retina E. degenerative nervous system disease such as Alzheimer's disease

An adult stem cell from bone marrow is most useful in treating __________. a. a heart attack b. a large burn on the upper thigh c. a disorder affecting the development of white blood cells d. a degenerative eye disease affecting the retina e. a degenerative nervous system disease such as Alzheimer's disease

As an acidic compound dissolves in water, the pH of the water _______. A. increases. B.remains neutral. C. decreases. D. doesn't change. E. becomes basic.

Consider your brother and your son. If you are male, which will have essentially identical Y chromosomes? a. You and your brother inherited different Y chromosomes from your dad, and you passed your Y chromosome on to your son. b. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed a different Y chromosome on to your son. c. You and your brother inherited the same Y chromosome from your dad, and you passed the same Y chromosome on to your son. d. You cannot tell the inheritance pattern with the information given. e. The inheritance of the Y chromosome is dependent on which X chromosome is inherited

Consuming excess amounts of the water-soluble vitamin C can lead to _______. A. scurvy B. anemia C. It is not possible to consume excess amounts of vitamin C. D. kidney damage E. osteoporosis

Hematopoietic stem cells are _____ cells that develop into _____ cells. A. differentiated; liver B. differentiated; muscle C. undifferentiated; blood D. undifferentiated; urinary bladder E. undifferentiated; liver

Human skin color ranges from very light to dark black, with many distinct skin tones in between. Neglecting for a moment that skin color can be affected by sun exposure, what type of inheritance pattern probably governs skin color? a. incomplete dominance b. codominance c. polygenic inheritance d. multifactorial inheritance e. X-linked inheritance

If a man has an X-linked recessive disease, can his sons inherit that disease from him? A. Yes, all his sons have one X chromosome. B. Yes, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally. C. No, all his sons inherit their X chromosomes maternally. D. No, all his sons have one X chromosome. E. Yes, all his sons inherit their Y chromosomes maternally.

If a solute is moving through a phospholipid bilayer from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration without the assistance of a protein, the manner of transport must be _______. A. active transport. B. facilitated diffusion. C. simple diffusion. D. any of the above, depending on the solute. E.Solutes cannot cross phospholipid bilayers.

If meiosis were to fail and a cell skipped meiosis I, so that meiosis II was the only meiotic division, how would you describe the resulting cells? A. haploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes B. haploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes C. diploid cells with 23 pairs of chromosomes D. diploid cells with 23 unpaired chromosomes E. none of the above

If two women have identical alleles of the suspected 20 height-associated genes, why might one of those women be 5 feet 5 inches tall and the other 5 feet 8 inches tall? a. because the identical 20 alleles cause variation in the phenotype b. because phenotype dictates genotype c. because environmental factors also play a role in the phenotype of this trait d. b and c

In the studies of coffee and memory discussed, the independent variable is __________ and the dependent variable is _______________. A. caffeinated coffee; decaffeinated coffee B. memory; caffeinated coffee C. caffeine; memory D. memory; caffeine E. decaffeinated coffee; caffeinated coffee

Is the genome of stem cells larger than that of specialized cells? a. Yes, because they need the genes found in every cell type, whereas specialized cells need only a subset of all the genes. b. Yes, because they express more genes than do specialized cells. c. No, because all of a person's cells have the identical set of genes in their genome. d. No; they have a smaller genome, because stem cells are equivalent to gametes (which are haploid) in that they can potentially create an entire individual.

One could determine whether a cell is differentiated by determining whether _____ A. the cell contains membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria. B. the cell contains all of the DNA found in other body cells. C. some genes are turned "off." D. the cell responds to growth factors. E. the cell is capable of undergoing mitosis.

One of the purposes of meiosis is to _____. A. increase genetic diversity in the diploid-starting cells B. double the number of chromosomes per gamete C. reduce the chromosome number in each resulting cell by half D. produce four zygotes instead of only two (as produced in mitosis) E. increase the number of embryos per fertilization

Predict the sex of a baby with an X sex chromosome. A. This cannot be determined with the chromosome information given. B. male C. female

Predict the sex of a baby with an XX pair of sex chromosomes. A. male B. This cannot be determined with the chromosome information given. C. female

The cell membrane is made of _______. A. water. B. proteins. C. phospholipids. D. nucleotides. E. b and c

What does it mean to say that a person has a heterozygous genotype for a disease and no disease phenotype? A. It means that the person exhibits the symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive. B. It means that the person has two copies of the normal allele. C. It means that the person does not show symptoms of the disease if the disease allele is recessive. D. It means that the person is a carrier who has already sired children who show symptoms of the disease. E. It means that the person has two copies of the disease allele.

What is an advantage of receiving a replacement organ grown from one's own cells versus receiving an organ transplant from a donor? A. Cells in donor organs divide at a slower rate. B. Grown organs are cheaper than organ transplants. C. There is less chance of organ rejection and there is no need to wait on a transplant list. D. Replacement organs from one's own cells function better than donated organs. E. Cells in donor organs do not undergo cell division after they are transplanted.

What is the technology used to de-differentiate somatic cells so they become like embryonic stem cells called? a. cloning technology b. somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) technology c. induced pluripotent stem cell technology d. blastocyst mining technology

What would you say to a niece if she asked you how she could reduce her risk of breast cancer? (Assume there is no family history of breast cancer.) A. Reduce sun exposure. B. Avoid tobacco. C. all of these D. Reduce alcohol consumption. E. Utilize early screening.

When Mendel self-pollinated plants from the purple-flowered F1 generation, he saw that one out of every four plants in the F2 had white flowers. What reasoning did Mendel use to explain how the white, hidden trait reappeared? A. He reasoned that the recessive or hidden allele only shows up in offspring with two copies of the recessive allele. B. He reasoned that two parental elements separate during gamete formation, and each gamete receives only one of the two parental alleles. C. All of the answers are correct. D. He reasoned that, during gamete formation, the two elements separate randomly. E. He reasoned that each parent had two elements, one representing purple and one white.

When scientists carry out an experiment, they are testing a ___________. A. theory B. question C. hypothesis D. control E. variable

Where (or how) do we obtain essential amino acids? A. from oils in our diet B. from carbohydrates in our diet C. from protein in our diet D. from bright orange fruits and vegetables E. by synthesizing them from other amino acids

Which of the following are signs of malnutrition? A. faster growth and development B. more active immune response C. fluid buildup in the legs and feet D. conversion of macronutrients into micronutrients E. increasing muscle mass

Which of the following can be determined by amniocentesis and karyotyping? a. gender b. blood type c. trisomy 21 d. Duchenne muscular dystrophy e. c and d

Which of the following can result in a trisomy such as Down syndrome? a. an egg with 23 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 22 chromosomes b. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes c. an egg with 24 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 23 chromosomes d. an egg with 22 chromosomes fertilized by a sperm with 24 chromosomes e. b and d

Which of the following couples could have a boy with Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)? a. a male with DMD and a homozygous dominant female b. a male without DMD and a homozygous dominant female c. a male without DMD and a carrier female d. a and c

Which of the following foods is a rich source of protein? a) whole grains (e.g., whole wheat bread) b) leafy greens c) lean meat, such as chicken breast d) olive oil e) berries (e.g., blueberries and raspberries)

Which of the following is a(are) macronutrient(s)? A. proteins B. fats C. proteins and fats D. vitamin C E. protein, fats, and vitamin C

Which of the following most influences the development of a female fetus? a. the presence of any two sex chromosomes b. the presence of two X chromosomes c. the absence of a Y chromosome d. the presence of a Y chromosome e. either b or c

Which organelle would cause the most damage to cytoskeletal fibers in the cytoplasm if its contents were to leak into the cytoplasm? A. smooth ER B. nucleus C. lysosome D. Golgi apparatus E. rough ER

Which statement is true about Y chromosome analysis? A. It can be used to determine whether a person has a genetic disease caused by a mutant allele on an autosome. B. It can be used to determine whether a man is carrying traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy. C. It is commonly used to determine paternity and ancestry. D. It is commonly used to determine the sex of an individual. E. It can be used to determine whether a man is likely to pass on traits such as hemophilia and Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

Why does a recipient of a liver transplant have a high risk of bacterial infections? a. because the liver plays a critical role in the immune response b. because donor livers are often contaminated with disease-causing bacteria c. because transplant recipients have to take drugs that suppress their immune system d. because the surgery poses a high risk for introducing bacteria into the recipient e. because the immune system may reject the liver

Why is it possible for two healthy parents to give birth to a child with a genetic defect such as cystic fibrosis? A. CF is not passed to children from their parents; it comes from their grandparents. B. CF is caused by the inheritance of too many "normal" genes; the parents would be unaffected. C. CF is only evident in individuals with two mutant alleles; a healthy parent could carry both a defective allele and a normal allele. D. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs in the fetus during pregnancy, and it does not affect the mother. E. CF is normally caused by a mutation that occurs only in the sperm and eggs of the parents, so their bodies are not affected.

You find a single-cell organism with a cell wall in the soil of a forest—can this organism be an animal? Which of the following facts would convince you that the organism is a bacterium and not a plant? A. The cell wall is made of cellulose. B. The DNA is contained in a nucleus. C. The cell wall is made of peptidoglycan. D. a and b E. b and c

You have identified an enzyme that breaks down a storage form of sugar in plants (starch) into simple sugars. How would this enzyme react with a storage form of sugar (glycogen) in humans? A. The plant enzyme's active site would bind to glycogen and break it down into simple sugars. B. The specificity of the plant enzyme is not dictated by the active site, so it would recognize both substrates. C. Because enzymes are specific, the plant enzyme's active site would not bind to glycogen as a substrate. D. Enzymes cannot conduct catabolic reactions such as this one.

If you ingest carbon in the form of sugar, then that carbon is released from your body as _____.

CO2

What roles do atmospheric gases have in photosynthesis?

Carbon dioxide is a reactant for photosynthesis that provides the carbon in glucose. Oxygen is produced from water during the light-gathering phase of photosynthesis.

Which statement accurately summarizes the process of photosynthesis?

Chloroplasts capture sunlight, water is split, oxygen is released, and carbon dioxide is used to convert chemical energy into glucose.

_____ on mRNA interact with _____ on tRNA to allow the _____ to connect amino acids in the correct order during translation.

Codons; anticodons; ribosome

A _______ reaction creates bonds between substrate units; a _______ reaction breaks down bonds between substrate units. A. anabolic; enzymatic B. analog; monologue C. catabolic; anabolic D. anabolic; catabolic E. catabolic; enzymatic

A human female has _____ chromosomes in each skin cell and _____ chromosomes in each egg. A. 23; 46 B. 46; 46 C. 92; 46 D. 46; 23 E. 23; 23

A multivitamin supplement is a(n) ___________ supplement. A. macronutrient and micronutrient B. enzyme C. macronutrient D. micronutrient E. mineral

A potential cancer-causing gene coding for a protein with cell cycle control responsibilities is a _____, and a gene coding for a protein that stimulates cell division is a _____. A. tumor suppressor; oncogene B. oncogene; tumor suppressor C. oncogene; proto-oncogene D. carcinogen; proto-oncogene E. oncogene; mutagen

Bacteria have _______ cells, defined by the _______. A. prokaryotic; presence of a cell wall B. eukaryotic; presence of organelles C. eukaryotic; absence of a cell wall D. prokaryotic; absence of organelles E. eukaryotic; absence of organelles

Besides recombination, what other event in meiosis increases the genetic diversity of the gametes? A. the random way in which gametes fuse together to make uniquely different sperm and eggs B. the random exchange of DNA segments between maternal chromosomes C. the random exchange of DNA segments between paternal chromosomes D. the random line-up and separation of maternal and paternal chromosomes E. the way in which chromosomes are replicated in meiosis II

Cellular differentiation, or cell specialization, results from _____. A. cellular division; when cells divide by mitosis, the daughter cells are specialized B. fertilization of an egg; the fusion of the sperm and egg initiates cell specialization within minutes C. the birth process; all the cells of a fetus differentiate by the time it is born D. the "turning off" of some genes and the "turning on" others E. the separation of stem cells from each other, so they do not "know" what their "neighbors" are becoming

Enzymes speed up chemical reactions by __________ A. increasing the activation energy B. maintaining the activation energy C. forming bonds D. decreasing the activation energy E. releasing energy

How are embryonic stem cells different from adult stem cells? A. Embryonic stem cells are mature cells that are fully differentiated, whereas stem cells are immature cells that can differentiate. B. Embryonic stem cells are immature cells that can differentiate, whereas adult stem cells are mature cells that are fully differentiated. C. Embryonic stem cells can develop into a limited array of cell types, whereas adult stem cells can become a wide range of cell types. D. Embryonic stem cells can develop into a wide range of cell types, while adult stem cells can become only limited cell types.

How are polygenic and multifactorial traits different? A. Polygenic traits are influenced by the number of traumatic life events, whereas multifactorial traits are influenced by the levels of brain chemicals. B. There are more kinds of polygenic traits than multifactorial traits. C. Polygenic traits are influenced by nutrition and diet, whereas multifactorial traits are not. D. Polygenic traits are genetically based, whereas multifactorial traits have both genetic and environmental influences. E. Polygenic traits show a continuous range of phenotypic variation, whereas multifactorial traits show several distinct phenotypes.

How is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance? a. In codominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes; in incomplete dominance, all genes are recessive. b. In codominance, all genes are recessive; in incomplete dominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes. c. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, there is only one allele in the system. d. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, neither the dominant or recessive phenotype is seen in heterozygotes. e. In codominance, the two alleles cooperate to make an intermediate phenotype; in incomplete dominance, the heterozygote shows the recessive phenotype.

If an individual has a germ cell mutation, which of these is a possible source of that mutation? A. a paternal allele only B. a maternal allele only C. excessive sun exposure D. a maternal or paternal allele E. overuse of alcohol

Insulin is a protein hormone secreted by certain pancreatic cells into the bloodstream. Which of the following organelles are involved in the synthesis and secretion of insulin? A. rough ER B. Golgi apparatus C. ribosomes D. all of the above E. a and c

Mendel's law of independent assortment was best demonstrated when he crossed true-breeding plants and followed two traits at a time. What did he observe when following two traits that helped him formulate this law? A. He observed that the wrinkled and smooth traits always blended to produce semiwrinkled seeds. B. He observed that the dominant traits are always inherited together and the recessive traits are always inherited together; no offspring displayed one dominant and one recessive trait. C. All of the answers are correct observations. D. He observed that both dominant traits always hid the recessive traits in these double crosses. E. None of the answers are correct observations.

Our bodies cannot synthesize vitamin C, but require it. Therefore, vitamin C is a(an) _______. A. essential mineral B. nonessential amino acid C. essential macronutrient D. essential micronutrient E. nonessential vitamin

Relative to one of your liver cells, one of your skin cells __________. a. has the same genome (that is, the same genetic material) b. has the same function c. has a different pattern of gene expression d. a and c

Some cancer chemotherapy blocks the formation of the mitotic spindle during prophase. Why would cancer chemotherapy limit the ability of adult stem cells to perform the normal cell turnover in a tissue? A. Cancer chemotherapy blocks both meiosis and mitosis. B. Cancer chemotherapy causes adult stem cells to lyse (burst open). C. Cancer chemotherapy blocks meiosis. D. Cancer chemotherapy blocks mitosis.

Sugars are large, hydrophilic molecules that are important energy sources for cells. How can they enter cells from an environment with a very high concentration of sugar? A. by simple diffusion B. by osmosis C. by facilitated diffusion D. by active transport E. by using ribosomes

Use the following information for this question: Phenylketonuria is considered to be an inborn error of metabolism. It is a recessive genetic condition in which the enzyme that breaks down the amino acid phenylalanine is defective or missing. Testing of all newborns allows this condition to be detected at birth. A special diet that severely minimizes phenylalanine (e.g., by avoiding diet sodas and most usual sources of protein) can treat the condition. In this scenario, two carriers of both cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria have a child. What is the probability that the child will have both cystic fibrosis and phenylketonuria? A. 18.75% B. 0% C. 12.5% D. 6.25% E. 56.25%

What ingredients in RUTF peanut paste specifically help bone growth? A. vitamins C and D B. calcium C. vitamin D D. calcium and vitamin D E. vitamin C

What is the biological function of stem cells? a. to replenish the stock of existing stem cells b. to replace cells that have been damaged c. to differentiate into specific cell types d. All of the above are true.

What is(are) the advantage(s) of receiving an organ transplant versus growing a replacement organ from one's own cells? a. less chance of organ rejection b. no need to wait on a transplant list c. replacement organs can equal the number or organs that can be transplanted d. a and b

What subunits are proteins broken down into during digestion? A. nucleotides B. simple sugars C. fatty acids D. amino acids E. glycerol

Which combination contains the normal chromosome number? A. a human egg - 23; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 23 B. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 46; a human zygote - 23 C. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 23 D. a human egg - 23; a human sperm - 23; a human zygote - 46 E. a human egg - 46; a human sperm - 46; a human zygote - 46

Which of the following inheritance patterns includes an environmental contribution? a. polygenic b. X-linked recessive c. X-linked dominant d. multifactorial e. none of the above

Which of the following statements best explains why bacteria are considered living organisms? A.They can cause disease. B. They are made up of biological macromolecules. C. They move around. D. They are made of cells. E. They contain organelles.

Which of these is a likely result of nondisjunction in human meiosis? A. an egg that can develop into a child without fertilization by a sperm B. a sperm that can develop into a child without fertilization with an egg C. a genetic disorder (such as hemophilia or color blindness) caused by a faulty allele D. aneuploid eggs or sperm E. an increased risk of clinical depression

Which statement about decreasing a woman's breast cancer risk if she inherits one of the mutant BRCA genes is true? A. Surgical removal of the breasts will decrease a woman's cancer risk to near zero. B. She can take several medications that make it almost impossible to get breast cancer, even if she inherits the BRCA gene. C. A woman cannot decrease her cancer risk, so she might as well live life to its fullest. D. none of these E. Diet and lifestyle changes will effectively decrease her risk to near zero.

Which woman would be most likely to benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer? A. a 40-year-old woman who has a cousin with breast cancer B. a healthy 75-year-old woman with no family history of breast cancer C. All women can benefit from genetic testing for breast cancer. D. a 25-year-old woman whose mother, aunt, and grandmother had breast cancer E. a 55-year-old woman whose older sister was just diagnosed with breast cancer

You shed skin cells every day. How are those cells replaced? a. by mitotic division and specialization of embryonic stem cells b. by differentiation of neighboring neurons into skin cells c. by differentiation of red blood cells that leave the circulation and migrate into deeper layers of the skin d. by mitotic division and differentiation of tissue stem cells e. all of the above

Where is the information for building proteins encoded?

DNA

Each chromosome contains _____

DNA and proteins.

Why does DNA travel toward the positive electrode during gel electrophoresis?

DNA is negatively charged, and opposite charges attract.

Why is DNA replication called "semiconservative"?

DNA is replicated, each copy having one strand of the original molecule and one newly synthesized strand

How is DNA stored in eukaryotic cells?

DNA is sequestered in the nucleus apart from the metabolic activity of the cytoplasm. DNA is a linear molecule wrapped around proteins and condensed into chromosomes

Which statement about PCR is true?

DNA polymerase is the enzyme that copies DNA in PCR.

What naturally occurring process does PCR mimic in a test tube?

DNA replication

A chemical that causes alterations in DNA is a _____, and if this chemical causes cancer it is called a(n) _____. A. carcinogen; mutagen B. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene C. tumor suppressor; oncogene D. tumor suppressor; mutagen E. mutagen; carcinogen

A gamete is aneuploid if __________. a. one or more homologous chromosomes fail to separate in meiosis I b. one or more sister chromatids fail to separate in meiosis II c. there are more than 23 chromosomes in the cell d. there are fewer than 23 chromosomes in the cell e. All of the above are true.

A macronutrient is a nutrient _______. A. that is abundant in the diet B. with a large molecular weight C. that the body makes in large quantities D. that is stored in large amounts in the body E. that is required in large amounts

A recipient of a liver transplant has a high risk of bacterial infections because _____. A. the surgery poses a high risk for introducing bacteria into the recipient B. the liver plays a critical role in the immune response C. donor livers are often contaminated with disease-causing bacteria D.the immune system may reject the liver E. a transplant recipient has to take drugs that suppress his or her immune system

Assume that Emily (who has CF, a recessive disease (aa)) decides to have children with a man who does not have CF and who has no family history of CF. What combination of gametes can each of them produce, and what is the probability that they will have a child who is a carrier for CF? A. Emily: aa, man: AA; 50% probability B. Emily: Aa, man: Aa; 100% probability C. Emily: aa, man: Aa; 100% probability D. Emily: Aa, man: AA; 50% probability E. Emily: aa, man: AA; 100% probability

At which point does a mutation exert its potentially dysfunctional effects in a cell? A. only during cell division B. during DNA transcription C. during DNA replication D. during protein translation E. after a protein is produced

Children often have many of the phenotypes of their parents because _____. A. they carry the same combinations of alleles that their parents have B. they have the exact same genotypes as their parents C. they inherit mutations that make their bodies appear identical to one or both parents D. the cells of embryos divide by meiosis, a process that yields genetic duplicates E. they inherit half of their genetic material from each parent

DNA mutations can arise from uncorrected errors in DNA replication, inheritance, and _____. A. a poor diet lacking in vitamins and minerals B. abnormal cell division C. catching an influenza virus from a person with mutated genes D. chronic sleep deprivation E. environmental insults

For what purpose do scientists insert "reprogramming" genes into differentiated cells? a. to use the reprogrammed cells to hunt and destroyed damaged body cells b. to make differentiated cells more specialized c. to stimulate the cells to divide into more differentiated cells d. to turn these cells into eggs and sperm, for use in fertility clinics e. to convert the differentiated cells into pluripotent stem cells

How can two different studies investigating the same thing (e.g., the relationship, if any, between caffeinated coffee and memory) come to different conclusions? A. They may have had different sample sizes. B. They may have used different types of participants (e.g., participants of different ages or professions). C. They may have used different amounts of caffeine. D. They may have evaluated memory differently (e.g., long-term vs. short-term memory). E. all of the above

How does an acquired mutation in a gene alter the function of a cell? A. Base pair changes in the gene are passed directly into altered amino acids by a ribosome. B. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed from mRNA into a protein via transcription. C. Base pair mutations in mRNA are passed directly into a protein via transcription. D. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via translation. E. Base pair mutations in a gene are passed directly into mRNA via transcription.

How is codominant inheritance different from incomplete dominant inheritance? A. In codominance, all genes are recessive; in incomplete dominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes. B. In codominance, the two alleles cooperate to make an intermediate phenotype; in incomplete dominance, the heterozygote shows the recessive phenotype. C. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, there is only one allele in the system. D. In codominance, one gene is recessive to two dominant genes; in incomplete dominance, all genes are recessive. E. In codominance, two alleles are expressed equally; in incomplete dominance, heterozygotes have an intermediate phenotype.

If the shape of an enzyme's active site were to change, what would happen to the reaction that the enzyme usually conducts? A. The conversion of substrate to products would increase. B. The conversion of substrate to products would decrease. C. The conversion of substrate to products would increase and the enzyme would no longer be able to bind to its substrate efficiently. D. The enzyme would no longer be able to bind to its substrate efficiently. E. The conversion of substrate to products would decrease and the enzyme would no longer be able to bind to its substrate efficiently.

In order for a child to develop cystic fibrosis _____. A. more than one egg in the mother must carry the CF allele B. more than one sperm in the father must carry the CF allele C. genetic recombination must occur in the mother but not the father D. genetic recombination must occur in the father but not the mother E. a sperm carrying a CF allele must fertilize an egg that also has that allele

Is the genome of stem cells larger than that of specialized cells? A. No; they have a smaller genome, because stem cells are equivalent to gametes (which are haploid) in that they can potentially create an entire individual. B. No; they have a smaller genome because stem cells express only a subset of genes. C. Yes, because they need the genes found in every cell type, whereas specialized cells need only a subset of all the genes. D. Yes, because they express more genes than specialized cells express. E. No, because all of a person's cells have the identical set of genes in their genome.

Of the following, which is the earliest step in the scientific process? A. generating a hypothesis B. analyzing data C. conducting an experiment D drawing a conclusion E. asking a question about an observation

The biological function of stem cells is to _____. A. replenish existing stem cells and form eggs and sperm for reproduction B. replenish existing stem cells C. form eggs and sperm for reproduction D. differentiate into specific cell types E. replenish existing stem cells and differentiate into specific cell types

The two major components of cell membranes are _______ and _______. A. phospholipids; DNA B. DNA; proteins C. peptidoglycan; phospholipids D. peptidoglycan; proteins E. phospholipids; proteins

To repair a cell membrane, which macronutrient would supply the needed building blocks? A. carbohydrates B. nucleic acids C. amino acids D. protein E. fats

Tumors that will not spread throughout the body are _____, and those that do spread are termed _____. A. tumor suppressor; proto-oncogene B. malignant; benign C. mutagen; carcinogen D. benign; mutagen E. benign; malignant

We would all have many more mutations in our genes if not for the _____. A. fact that everybody carries a "good" allele to counter every "bad" allele B. fact that mutations tend to cancel each other out, leaving mostly functional genes C. fact that dividing cells remove all their mutations when they replicate their DNA D. death of all mutant cells, removing them from our bodies E. activity of repair enzymes

What is the role of BRCA1 in normal cells? A. BRCA1 is an oncogene. B. BRCA1 is a proto-oncogene. C. BRCA1 is a carcinogen. D. BRCA1 is a mutagen. E. BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor.

Which is the correct order of events in which breast cancer might develop? A. replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading B. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene C. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 D. mutation of p53 > inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > additional mutations permit spreading > replication errors create an oncogene E. inheritance of a mutant BRCA gene > replication errors create an oncogene > mutation of p53 > additional mutations permit spreading

Which of the following is associated with eukaryotic cells but not with prokaryotic cells? A. cell membrane B. cell wall C. DNA D. ribosomes E. nucleus

Which of the following statements applies to tissues? a. Multiple cell types are present. b. Each tissue has a specific function. c. Cells within a tissue cooperate. d. a and c e. a, b, and c

Which of these most influences the development of a female fetus? A. the presence of a Y chromosome B. none of these C. the presence of two X chromosomes D. the presence of any two sex chromosomes E. the absence of a Y chromosome

Which of these occurs during anaphase of mitosis? A. Replicated chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. B. Two nuclear membranes form around two groups of chromosomes. C. The nuclear membrane disassembles. D. Chromosomes are replicated. E. Sister chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell.

Which phase of mitosis is correctly matched? A. interphase - replicated chromosomes condense into visible structures B. telophase - nuclear membrane disassembles C. prophase - each chromosome replicates D. interphase - chromatids move to opposite ends of the cell E. metaphase - replicated chromosomes align in the middle of the cell

Which phrase accurately describes meiosis? A. ends with four gametes that are not the same genetically B. contains two rounds of division (meiosis I and meiosis II) C. none of these D. takes one diploid cell to make four haploid cells E. all of these

Which statement accurately describes cancer development? A. It is inherited and is independent of environmental factors. B. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutagens cause a series of cancer-causing alleles. C. It is a caused by carcinogens that act on inherited alleles that cause cancer. D. It is a one-step process by which a mutation drives cancer development. E. It is a multistep process by which multiple mutations cause a series of events that lead to cancer.

Which statement is true of a single human gamete? A. all of these B. none of these C. There are two alleles per trait on each chromosome. D. There are 46 chromosomes present. E. There is one allele per trait on each chromosome.

Why are more males than females affected by X-linked recessive genetic diseases? a. because males have a Y chromosome that does not represent the same alleles as the X chromosomes and cannot mask the X-linked recessive allele b. because females have an additional Y chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele c. because females have an additional X chromosome to mask the X-linked recessive allele d. Females are affected more by X-linked recessive genetic diseases because they have two X chromosomes. e. a and c

Why do scientists pursue several methods to get stem cells to grow into specific tissue types? a. Some methods may prove successful, whereas others may not pan out. b. Each method or approach used in stem cell research adds to our knowledge of how stem cells work. c. The more scientists are involved in stem cell research, the less people will think any research on embryos is unethical. d. More research on stem cells will be less expensive, over the long term. e. Both a and b are true. Neither c nor d is a key reason why different methods are used.

Why does wearing sunscreen reduce cancer risk? A.Sunscreen can activate checkpoints in skin cells. B. Sunscreen can prevent cells with mutations from being destroyed. C. Sunscreen can repair damaged DNA. D. It does not reduce cancer risk; sunscreen causes mutation and actually increases cancer risk. E. Sunscreen can reduce the chance of mutations caused by exposure to UV radiation present in sunlight.

Why don't engineered bladders get rejected by the patient's immune system when they are implanted? a. The patient usually takes strong immunosuppressive drugs to prevent rejection. b. The bladders are taken from another member of the same family, so the implanted cells have almost the same surface markers. c. The bladder is not as functional as a regular bladder, making it less susceptible to immune rejection. d. Engineered bladders are made of sections from the patient's bowels; therefore, the patient's body is already "used" to it. e. Engineered bladders are grown from the patient's own cells; no immune response occurs because the implanted cells have the same surface markers.

Why is type O Rh-negative the "universal donor"? A. The O and Rh surface markers on the donor red blood cells block immune reactions in the recipient. B. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O) that are recognized as compatible in all recipients. C. More people have type O blood than any other blood type. D. Three surface markers are present on the donor blood cells (A, B, and O), which block immune reactions in the recipient. E. No surface markers are present on the O Rh-negative blood cells to react with the recipient's immune system.

Why must essential amino acids be consumed in our diet? A. They help digest and break down protein-rich foods. B. They help the body store energy in the form of fat. C. Our bodies needs essential amino acids to build simple sugars. D. They make food more palatable to consumers. E. Our bodies cannot manufacture them.

Women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. The alleles associated with elevated cancer risk are dominant. Of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer? A. BB B. Bb C. Bb and bb D. All of these genotypes carry equal risk. E. bb

Would it be sufficient to just replace the neurons in someone who suffered nervous tissue damage? Why or why not? A. Yes, replacement neurons convert into stem cells when transplanted and repair damaged tissue. B. Yes, replacement neurons will co-exist with remaining endogenous neurons and make all other cells. C. Yes, replacement neurons will make the correct connections with cells in their surroundings. D. No, replacement neurons will reject the remaining endogenous neurons. E. No, replacement neurons must also make the correct connections with cells in their surroundings.

You hear a news report about a new asthma treatment. What would you want to know before you asked your doctor if this treatment was right for you? A. Was the drug tested in a randomized clinical trial? B. How many participants were in the trial? C. Was there a significant difference between the effect of the new drug and the treatment used in the control group? D. Did any of the researchers have financial ties to the manufacturer of the new asthma drug? E. all of the above

hy can the same short tandem repeat region vary in length between the two copies of a chromosome of an individual?

Each chromosome is inherited from a different parent.

Which statement best summarizes the law of conservation of energy?

Energy changes forms and is neither created nor destroyed.

If you frequently crave French fries, how could you modify your lifestyle to eat fries without gaining weight?

Exercise more to burn more calories than the fries you add to your diet.

A cell is unable to take up or make sugars. Which molecule(s) will it be unable to make? A.carbohydrates B. proteins C. lipids D. nucleic acids E. all of the above F. a and d

In humans, why can't fermentation sustain life?

Fermentation is not efficient at using the energy sources we eat to make ATP.

Which STR will have migrated farthest through an electrophoresis gel?

GAAG repeated twice

Select the statement that best describes the function of heating and cooling in PCR.

Heating facilitates strand denaturation, and cooling facilitates primer attachment

What would happen if algae, cyanobacteria, and plants were wiped out?

Heterotrophs would not be able to use autotrophs as an energy source

Many foods—for example, bacon and salt cod—are preserved with high concentrations of salt. How can high concentrations of salt inhibit the growth of bacteria?

High salt is hypertonic and causes the bacteria to shrink because water leaves the bacterial cell.

Although both humans and bacteria have ribosomes, streptomycin—which blocks ribosome function—does not harm a human who ingests it. Why?

Human cells have ribosomes that do not bind streptomycin; only prokaryotic ribosomes are affected by this drug.

_____amino acids tend to be found folded inside a protein, whereas _____ amino acids interact with water on the outside of the protein.

Hydrophobic; hydrophilic

Which sequence correctly describes the input (I) and output (O) of photosynthesis.

I - carbon dioxide, photons, water; O - oxygen, glucose

Which of the following statements about carbon is FALSE?

If a soil sample contains carbon, it must contain life.

A moderately active 21-year-old female has a choice of eating a 2,500-Calorie meal that is primarily protein or a 2,500-Calorie meal that is primarily sugar. What would be the result, in terms of energy, of choosing one over the other?

In either case, once her glycogen stores are replenished, she will store the excess calories as fat.

Why did searching for unique algae species open new opportunities for their use as a biofuel?

It can make the process independent of sunlight.

Darwin's finches came from a mainland species where some individuals were able to move to the islands and then spread from one island to another. Is the genetic diversity of the new population of finches on the Galápagos increased or decreased in relation to the population on the mainland, and what is this an example of?

It decreased their genetic diversity because this represents an example of genetic drift.

Darwin's finches came from a mainland species where some individuals were able to move to the islands and then spread from one island to another. What effect did the initial movement to the Galápagos do to the genetic diversity of the first finches to colonize the islands, and why did it have this effect?

It decreased their genetic diversity because this represents and example of genetic drift.

Under aerobic conditions, when is pyruvate produced and consumed?

It is produced in glycolysis and consumed in the citric acid cycle

Chargaff discovered that the A-T bond has the same width as the G-C bond. What implication does this have for the structure of the DNA molecule?

It means that the molecule will vary in width as you move down its length, depending on the number of A-T and G-C nucleotides.

Why is photosynthesis important to both plants and animals?

It produces glucose. It produces oxygen

Which of the following gives researchers hope that life may exist on Mars?

Life on Earth survives in extreme conditions. Life on Earth adapted to extreme conditions. Life on Earth uses macromolecule manipulations to survive in unique environments. Versions of life may come in a form that does not contain all the hallmarks of life, such as viruses.

Why are lipids unique when compared to the other macromolecule groups?

Lipids do not contain monomers, which repeat to make polymers and Lipids are comprised of compounds, which are not structurally similar.

Some inherited syndromes, for example MERRF (myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers), interfere with the function of mitochondria. From what you know about mitochondria, why do you think the muscles and the nervous system are the predominant tissues affected in MERRF?

Mitochondria are the most metabolically active and require the most energy

During aerobic respiration, what molecule holds and carries electrons stripped from food?

NADH

From what you have read in this chapter, would you say a 21-year-old Caucasian female can count on caffeinated coffee to reduce her risk of Parkinson's disease?

No, because participants in that peer-reviewed study were Japanese-American males; it cannot be inferred that the same results would hold for Caucasian females

Can an epidemiologist who finds a correlation between the use of tanning beds and melanoma (an aggressive form of skin cancer) in college-age women conclude that tanning beds cause skin cancer?

No, correlation is not proof of causation

Human red blood cells are enucleated (i.e., they do not have nuclei). Is it possible to isolate DNA from red blood cells? Why or why not?

No, the genomic DNA is found only in nucleated cells.

Select the statements that best describe how nucleotides pair with one another in a DNA molecule

Nucleotides pair with each other, joining two strands of DNA by hydrogen bonding. Adenine pairs with thymine, and guanine pairs with cytosine.

Why do leaves appear in shades of yellow, orange, and red in the fall?

Other leaf pigments that were masked by the chlorophyll become visible and reflect wavelengths of light other than green.

What is the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

PCR produces many copies of a DNA sequence from a small sample using temperature cycling, primers, free nucleotides, and polymerase enzymes

Photosynthesis can be broken down into two basic mechanisms (photo and synthesis). Which sequence describes these two mechanisms?

Photo - absorption of light; Synthesis - carbon fixation

How would an anaerobic environment affect photosynthesis?

Photosynthesis would continue, assuming there was also sufficient light, water, and carbon dioxide

What is the purpose of careful primer design before PCR?

Primers indicate the section of DNA that will be amplified and mark where DNA polymerase begins replication.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

Prokaryotes are smaller and lack the internal compartments that eukaryotes have.

Which of the following accurately compares prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain the same form of genetic information. Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells both contain ribosomes to effectively use their genetic information,

Identify the true statements about wavelengths of light.

Red light has a longer wavelength and less energy than blue light. Plants reflect wavelengths of light that our eyes cannot detect.

Type 1 diabetes results from a loss of insulin production from the pancreas. People with diabetes take recombinant human insulin expressed in bacteria. How would you cure the disease instead of treating it?

Replacing the defective insulin gene in a patient through gene therapy would allow for a cure.

You conduct a clinical trial to test whether a new drug relieves the symptoms of arthritis better than a placebo. You have four groups of participants, all of whom have mildly painful arthritis (rated 7 on a scale of 1 to 10). Each group receives a daily pill as follows: control (group 1)—placebo; group 2—15 mg; group 3—25 mg; group 4—50 mg. At the end of 2 weeks, participants in each group are asked to rate their pain on a scale of 1 to 10.

Run a statistical analysis to determine if the differences are significant.

Which statement about genetically modified organisms is true?

Scientists can produce more complex proteins made by eukaryotes by genetically modifying eukaryotic cells instead of prokaryotic cells.

How do the redundant properties of the genetic code protect humans from some mutations (changes in the gene sequence)?

Some mutations will not change the amino acid coded by the mRNA codon.

If the sequence of one strand of DNA is AGTCTAGC, what is the sequence of the complementary strand?

TCAGATCG

Which statement is false?

The 13 different species of finches flew to the Galápagos Islands and separated themselves in response to different food environments

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

The 13 different species of finches flew to the Galápagos Islands and separated themselves in response to different food environments.

Rosalind Franklin used x-ray diffraction to record how x-rays scatter when bounced off the surface of DNA molecules. Which of the following conclusions about the structure of DNA did her images support?

The DNA helix was likely made of two strands. The DNA molecule was likely helical. The DNA molecule was hydrophilic and extends upon exposure to water. The DNA molecule was uniform in width.

If the French eat meals with a higher fat content, what might explain why the French weigh less on average than Americans?

The French engage in more NEAT activities such as household chores, shopping, and dog walking

What role does carbon dioxide play in photosynthesis?

The carbon in carbon dioxide is incorporated into sugar molecules.

Which statement correctly reflects the interactions between aerobic respiration and photosynthesis?

The carbon in the glucose that plants make is the same carbon in the carbon dioxide we breathe out

Why does anaerobic respiration yield less energy than aerobic respiration?

The citric acid cycle and electron transport are not used in anaerobic respiration.

Why is it recommended that anyone trying to lose weight should avoid alcoholic beverages?

The fermentation process used to make alcohol does not fully break down glucose, resulting in a high-carbohydrate beverage.

Which of the following accurately describes why specific material uses a protein to cross the membrane?

The hydrophobic core of a membrane will only allow hydrophobic substances to cross without a membrane protein

Melanin is a pigment expressed in skin cells; melanin gives skin its color. If you wanted to express a different gene in skin cells, which part of the melanin gene would you use and why?

The melanin regulatory region would allow for the specific expression of a different gene in the skin.

You examine a population and note that its allele frequencies for a particular gene are p = 0.55 and q = 0.45. If you come back and examine the population after several generations and found that the values for p and q have not changed, which of the following statements is FALSE for this gene?

The population is evolving

You examine a population and note that its allele frequencies for a particular gene are p = 0.55 and q = 0.45. If you came back and examined the population after several generations and found that the values for p and q had not changed, which statement would be false for this gene?

The population is evolving.

Which of the following situations would represent a situation that reduces the effect of genetic drift?

The population is very large

Which scenario would represent a situation that reduces the effect of genetic drift?

The population is very large.

Fungi are eukaryotic organisms. Scientists have found it more challenging to develop treatments for fungal infections (e.g., yeast infections, athlete's foot, and certain nail infections) than for bacterial infections. Why is this so?

The potential targets found in these cells closely resemble our own eukaryotic cells

What happens to plants in the absence of light?

The process of photosynthesis shuts down Plants stop generating chemical energy from light.

Heating a protein can cause it to denature, or unfold. What do you think would happen to the function of a protein in a denatured state?

The protein would not be functional because the three-dimensional shape dictates protein's function.

Why are energy-rich lipids from algae more useful as a fuel than energy-rich sugars and other carbohydrates produced by photosynthetic organisms such as corn and wheat?

The sugars contain less chemical energy than the lipids and the lipids can be used directly as fuel

Identify the statement that correctly describes what happens at the end of transcription.

The synthesized mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm.

If you examine the gene pool of a population that is evolving due to genetic drift, what do you predict will occur with the allele frequencies?

There is no way to tell how p or q will change

If you examine the gene pool of a population that is evolving due to genetic drift, what do you predict will occur with the allele frequencies?

There is no way to tell how p or q will change.

Why are algae considered more valuable for biofuel than plants (such as corn)?

They are cheaper to grow.

In addition to the beak differences, which of the following indicates the finches found in the Galápagos Islands have experienced speciation?

They can no longer interbreed

In addition to the beak differences, which statement indicates that the different finch populations found throughout the Galápagos Islands have experienced speciation?

They can no longer interbreed.

Which statement accurately describes amino acid side chains?

They provide unique functions and allow for the correct folding of proteins

Similar to the process of transcription, tRNA molecules bring amino acids to mRNA molecules during translation using base-pairing rules. Identify the anticodons that match the mRNA sequence AUGUCAUGGACU.

UAC, AGU, ACC, and UGA

A gene has the sequence ATCGATTG. What is the sequence of the complementary RNA?

UAGCUAAC

A DNA sequence reads ATCAGCTA. Select the mRNA sequence that would correspond with this DNA sequence.

UAGUCGAU

What role does water play in photosynthesis?

Water provides hydrogen and electrons used in producing glucose

Which of the following scientists is incorrectly paired with their contribution to the discovery of the structure of DNA?

Watson and Crick; x-ray diffraction images of DNA helix

From the STRs used in a forensic investigation, which STRs on which chromosomes would be particularly useful in determining whether crime scene evidence was left by a female or a male?

Y chromosome STR

Select the best description of a short tandem repeat.

a nucleotide sequence of at least two bases that is continuously repeated in a DNA strand

What is the final product of gene expression?

a protein

In the presence of oxygen, humans use _____ to fuel ATP production from glucose, Glucose is initially formed by plants through _____.

aerobic respiration; photosynthesis

The proportion of alleles present in a gene pool is called the _____ and is an important tool in measuring evolutionary changes.

allele frequency

The proportion of alleles present in a gene pool is called the __________ and is an important tool in measuring evolutionary changes.

allele frequency

The collection of _____ in a population constitutes that population's gene pool.

alleles

The collection of _______ in a population constitutes that population's gene pool.

alleles

A protein is made up of a chain of _____

amino acids

Which statement describes the ways that photosynthetic algae and animals obtain energy?

animals obtain energy from sugar made by light-absorbing energy producers.

What is a genetically modified organism?

any modified organism that produces a product it does not normally make.

Recombinant protein production of spider silk in yeast is an efficient strategy because yeast _____

are easier to house and less expensive to feed than multicellular organisms.

Photons are critical to the process of photosynthesis because photons _____.

are needed to excite the electrons of the pigment atoms in chlorophyll

What are the functions of the protein ends of spidroin?

assembly into silk-fibers

How were researchers able to produce silk from algae?

by inserting the silk gene into the DNA of algae for expression

What products of aerobic respiration are used in photosynthesis?

carbon dioxide water

Which of the following is associated with all cells?

cell membrane ribosomes DNA

Penicillin interferes with __________________, causing bacteria to die from ______________.

cell wall synthesis; swelling and rupturing of the cell

The basic building blocks of life are _______.

cells

What energy source drives the carbon fixation process of photosynthesis, and where does it come from?

chemical energy from light absorption stored in ATP

Which sequence correctly traces the flow of energy needed to move an automobile?

chemical energy; heat energy; kinetic energy

The energy in a cereal bar is _____ energy. The energy of a cyclist pedaling is _____ energy.

chemical; kinetic

what organelle does an algae need to be able to conduct photosynthesis?

chloroplast

Scientists altered the gene for spidroin so that it could be isolated from yeast by attaching the _____.

coding sequence of a spider spidroin gene to a yeast regulatory sequence

Identify the part of the mRNA molecule and tRNA molecules that correspond with one another in translation.

codon and anticodon

Each time energy is converted from one form to another, a percentage of that energy is lost as _____ or fails to be converted.

combustion

The purpose of aerobic respiration is to _____, which is used to _____.

create energy-rich ATP molecules; power functions of the cell

Which of these are photosynthetic organisms?

cyanobacteria and plants

Where in the cell does fermentation take place?

cytoplasm

You are studying the DNA profile of an individual, and you are looking at the results for a chromosome with just one STR site. How many bands will you see?

either 1 or 2

What stage of aerobic respiration produces the most ATP?

electron transport

What process(es) is(are) most directly prevented in the absence of adequate oxygen?

electron transport chain

The "endosymbiotic hypothesis" is a concept that __________.

explains how eukaryotic cells might have evolved mitochondria and chloroplasts within their cells.

DNA evidence can give an investigator information regarding which of the following?

family relationships between suspects and the identity of an individual based on a profile

Which type of organic molecule stores the most energy per gram?

fats

Which of these photon wavelengths contains the greatest amount of energy?

gamma rays

The entire sequence of DNA in a cell used for DNA profiling is called the _____.

genome

What molecule provides short-term energy storage in the body?

glycogen

If you exercise for an extended period of time, you will use energy first from _____, then from _____

glycogen; fats

Excess energy can be stored for short periods of time in the muscle and liver tissue as _____, and for long periods of time as _____ in fat cells

glycogen; triglycerides

Which process is correctly matched with its cellular location?

glycolysis—cytoplasm

Humans' ability to shiver is an attempt to increase the body's internal temperature and maintain _______.

homeostasis

The offspring produced between the mating of a tiger and a lion, a liger, which is unable to reproduce, is an example of which form of reproductive isolation?

hybrid infertility

In terms of bond strength, which of the following is the weakest?

hydrogen

Which part of the cell membrane acts as a barrier to hydrophilic molecules entering the cell?

hydrophobic tails

Olive oil is _______________ because _____________________.

hydrophobic; it does not interact with water

Inbreeding can lead to a decrease in genetic diversity and _____.

inbreeding depression

Inbreeding can lead to a decrease in genetic diversity and __________.

inbreeding depression

What chemical interactions determine how a protein folds?

interactions among core structures of amino acids interactions among side chains of amino acids interactions between amino acid side chains and water

Fermentation in animals produces _____, whereas fermentation in brewer's yeast produces _____.

lactic acid; alcohol

What factor does gel electrophoresis use to separate DNA molecules?

length of individual DNA molecules

What are the four types of organic molecules that make up all living things on Earth?

lipids, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins

Which of the following combinations INCORRECTLY matches an organelle with its function?

lysosome: internal support; cell and organelle movement

What cellular machinery is involved in translation?

mRNA ribosome

_____is the product of transcription, and _____ is the product of translation.

mRNA; a protein

Glucose is a product of photosynthesis. Where do the carbon atoms of glucose produced during photosynthesis come from?

molecules in air

Compared to aerobic respiration, fermentation produces _____ ATP.

much less

Which of these does NOT contribute to a higher BMI?

nonexercise activity thermogenesis

An individual's STR may vary from the same STR of another individual by the _____

number of times a particular sequence is repeated.

DNA replication is said to be semiconservative because a newly replicated, double-stranded DNA molecules consists of _____.

one old strand and one new strand

In addition to the base, what are the other components of a nucleotide?

phosphate and sugar

Which of the following cellular components would not be a good target for an antibiotic?

phospholipids

The energy of sunlight exists in the form of _____.

photons

The fuel used to run our cars contains _____ energy.

potential

During fermentation, NADH gives up electrons to regenerate NAD by giving electrons to _____.

pyruvate

A close friend has joined a clinical trial. When you ask her about the types of treatment she might be given, she tells you it will be randomly assigned and that neither she nor the doctor running the trial will know until the process has been completed. What type of trial has she joined?

randomized

A person can be deficient in the production of a protein if he or she has a mutation in the:

regulatory region or the coding region of a gene.

The _____ control(s) the timing of gene expression.

regulatory sequence for a gene

Rosalind Franklin did not receive the credit she deserves for her contribution to the discovery of the structure of DNA because _____.

she died before the Nobel Prize was awarded to Watson, Crick, and Wilkins None of the answers is correct. her paper was perceived merely as supporting evidence for Watson and Crick's model. at the time, prevailing attitudes were negative toward women in science

Which of the following types of transport are most closely related in terms of the energy requirements for moving material across a membrane?

simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

Gel electrophoresis separates DNA for profiling based on the _____.

size (length)

Coffee or tea with sugar dissolved in it is an example of a water-based solution. Coffee in this case is the __________________, sugar is the _________________, and this means that the sugar molecules must be __________________.

solvent; solute; hydrophilic

In a spider silk producing transgenic yeast, the _____.

spider silk coding sequence is joined with a yeast regulatory sequence.

What is the function of DNA?

stores chemically coded, heritable information in an organism

If a person wants to lose weight, which of these is a viable strategy?

substituting plain water for regular soda and exercising more

Select the parts that make up the backbone of the DNA molecule.

sugar phosphate

Which statement correctly indicates a functional location during gene expression?

tRNAs work in the cytoplasm.

Which of the following is not a generally recognized characteristic of most (if not all) living organisms?

the ability to obtain energy directly from sunlight

Which of the characteristics of life does a virus display, even though its characterization as being alive is controversial?

the ability to reproduce and the ability to grow

Once excess calories are stored as triglycerides, it is more difficult to release this energy because _____.

the body utilizes food molecules in the bloodstream and stored glycogen first

What bonds in an ATP molecule store the chemical energy used by cells?

the bonds between phosphates

Why do many species of algae appear green?

the chlorophyll pigment they contain is green

Which of these parts of translation will be disrupted by a mutation in the coding region of a gene?

the codon on the mRNA

During aerobic respiration, NADH gives up electrons to regenerate NAD by giving electrons to _____.

the electron transport chain

Kinetic energy is best described as _____.

the energy of movement

Which of these does NOT play a role in determining the three-dimensional shape of a protein?

the interaction of the genes that lie next to a protein gene

Which factor is NOT driving our search for alternative fuel sources?

the large amount of water and pesticides used when biodiesel is produced from corn

Which phrase represents genetic variation between individuals?

the number of STRs in their genomes

What determines a protein's function?

the three-dimensional shape of the folded protein

Imagine that you have discovered a new species that has the ability to consume other organisms for energy and also contains chloroplasts. What would these properties tell you about the organism?

this organism is both heterotroph and an autotroph

What is the role of pyruvate under anaerobic conditions?

to generate ATP and lactic acid to produce NAD+ from NADH

What roles does the circulatory system play in aerobic cellular respiration?

transport glucose from the digestive system to body tissues transport oxygen to body tissues and carbon dioxide to the lungs

What molecule provides long-term energy storage in the body?

triglyceride

Which of these is NOT a nucleotide found in DNA?

uracil (U)

When considering which biofuel is the most sustainable, which of these must be considered?

water, energy, and fertilizer and pesticide use

What do plants obtain from soil?

water; nutrients

What two factors determine the BMI for an individual?

weight and height

When is a hypothesis considered scientific?

when it can be tested and is refutable

Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria are most commonly differentiated in the laboratory by __________.

whether or not a dye is trapped within the cells during the Gram staining procedure

What subatomic particles make up the nucleus of an atom, and which particles surround the nucleus?

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