Block I

What are two general types of anemia?

* Decrease in RBC * Decrease in Hemoglobin content

What is the structure of hemoglobin?

* Tetramer - 4 polypeptide chains * Heme containing Iron binds to each chain

Each round of beta oxidation produces what?

- FADH2 - NADH - Acetyl‐CoA - Fatty acyl‐CoA (2 carbons shorter)

What are five types of lipids and what do they do?

- Triacylglycerol: Fuel storage - Fatty acids: Fuel/signaling - Phospholipids: Structure/signaling - Glycolipids: Signaling and to a lesser extent structure - Cholesterol: Structure/Signaling

The costocervical trunk branches into what two arteries?

1. Deep cervical - supplies the deep posterior vertebral muscles (semispinalis cervicis and semispinalis capitis). It also gives a spinal branch to the vertebral canal. 2. Supreme intercostal - supplies muscles of the neck and the back and gives off the first two posterior intercostal arteries.

What are the different levels of intake of micronutrients?

1. Deficient - pathology 2. Sufficiency - health and well being 3. Excess - toxic/pathology

What are the steps to a PCR reaction?

1. Denaturing by heat 2. Primer binding through Tm 3. Extension of the primer by Taq polymerase 5' to 3'

What is the function of the inflammatory response?

1. Destroys, dilutes, or isolates the injurious agents and eliminates the necrotic cells and tissues 2. Helps in healing/reconstitution of the damaged tissues 3. Increases the blood supply to the inflammed area 4. Increases delivery of the hematological warriors

Which pathways require NADPH?

1. Detoxification - Reduction of oxidized glutathione Cytochrome P450 monooxygenases (liver) 2. Reductive synthesis - Fatty acid synthesis, Fatty acid chain elongation, Cholesterol synthesis, Neurotransmitter synthesis, Nucleotide synthesis

How can the uterus be arranged in the case of dizygotic twins?

1. Dichorionic, diamniotic, 2 placentas 2. Fused chorion, diamnionic, fused placentas

What general factors drive/regulate determination and differentiation of cells?

1. Differential gene expression 2. Cell to cell communication 3. Cell-substrate interactions 4. Directed cell migration 5. Cell shape change

What are the four suprahyoid muscles?

1. Digastric 2. Stylohyoid 3. Mylohyoid 4. Geniohyoid

What are the four subtriangles of the anterior cervical triangle?

1. Digastric (submandibular) 2. Submental 3. Carotid 4. Muscular

What is the clinical relevance of DNA replication?

1. Disease are caused by mutations 2. Drugs are targeted to replication enzymes/proteins 3. Chemotherapeutics target tumor DNA replication

What are the four interactions between amino acid side chains?

1. Disulfide bond 2. Hydrogen bonds 3. Ionic bonds 4. Hydrophobic interactions

What are three types of protein processing in the rough ER?

1. Disulfide bonds - requires disulfide isomerase 2. Glycosylation - sugar groups attached to an Asn 3. Lipid anchors - GPI linkage at the C-terminus

What are some examples of x-linked recessive disorders?

1. Duchenne muscular dystrophy 2. Hunter syndrome 3. Menkes disease (kinky hair syndrome) 4. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency 5. Haemophilia A and B 6. Fabry's disease 7. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome 8. Bruton's agammaglobulinemia 9. Color blindness 10. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome 11. Congenital aqueductal stenosis (hydrocephalus) 12. Inherited nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

What are the three meninges of the spinal cord?

1. Dura mater 2. Arachnoid mater 3. Pia mater

Variations in genetics influence what about diseases?

-Susceptibility to disease -Disease presentation -Clinical course -Response to treatment

How does low dietary cholesterol intake effect expression of LDL receptors?

-Synthesis and recycling of LDL receptor is enhanced to promote delivery and uptake of cholesterol -Activation of HMG-CoA reductase and increase in cholesterol synthesis

What coenzymes are involved in activation transfer?

-TPP (bond cleavage) -CoA (acyl transfer) -PLP (pyridoxal phosphate, amine transfer) -biotin (CO2 transfer) -B12 (methyl transfer) -FH4 (one carbon transfer)

Several congenital defects may be a consequence of defects in gastrulation and/or early mesodermal development. What are some examples.

1) Sacrococcygeal teratoma 2) Sirenomelia (caudal dysplasia, caudal agenesis, sacral agenesis) 3) VATER - vertebral defects, anal atresia, tracheal-oesphageal fistula, renal defects, and radial forearm abnormalities.

What are the assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg Principle?

1. All phenotypes are equal to fitness, no natural selection against a phenotype 2. No mutation 3. No migration 4. No genetic drift (infinitely large population) 5. No assortative mating

What are the sources of cholesterol?

1. Almost all cells in the human body produce cholesterol -Synthesis begin from acetyl-CoA and requires ATP and NADPH (Most synthesis occurs in liver, intestine, adrenal cortex, reproductive tissues) -Delivery via receptor mediated uptake (Dietary source: animal fats (not plant)) 2. Liver has important role in regulating body's cholesterol content 3. Excess cholesterol in blood -Can be deposited in inappropriate places via nonspecific receptors

What are the three platelet specific granules and what are they responsible for?

1. Alpha Granules - important in initial phase of vessel repair and clot formation 2. Dense (delta) Granules - vasoconstriction and platelet adhesion 3. Lambda granules - clot resorption

What are some examples of x-linked dominant disorders?

1. Alport's syndrome 2. Aarskog-Scott syndrome 3. Coffin-Lowry syndrome (CLS) 4. Idiopathic hypoparathyroidism 5. Ornithine carbamoyltransferase deficiency 6. Rett syndrome (RS) 7. Vitamin D resistant rickets 8. Fragile X syndrome

What are the building blocks for pyrimidine synthesis?

1. Amino acids (glutamine, aspartate) 2. CO2 3. NAD+

What are the building blocks for purine synthesis?

1. Amino acids (glutamine, aspartate, glycine) 2. CO2 3. N5 formyl-tetrahydrofolate

Describe the formation of the amniotic cavity and the amnion.

1. Amnionic cavity - forms within the inner cell mass. 2. Amnion - the epithelium that comes to line this cavity. 3. The amnion represents extraembryonic ectoderm

What are the steps in intron splicing?

1. An adenine nucleotide on an intron attacks the 5' splice site and cuts it 2. The 5' end of the cut intron links to the adenine and forms a lariate 3. The 3' end of the cut exon reacts with the next exon and releases the intron 4. The two exons join

What are requirements for DNA replication to start?

1. An origin recognition complex (ORC) 2. MCM complex - a weak helicase 3. Replication fork

What are the four functions of the chylomicron?

1. Exchange apolipoprotein with HDL 2. Deliver dietary TAG to extrahepatic tissue (ApoC-II) turning into chylomicron remnants 3. Deliver dietary cholesterol to extrahepatic tissue (ApoA1) 4. Returns cholesterol to the liver by binding to LRP and LDL receptors (ApoE) which acts to regulate hepatic cholesterol synthesis.

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

1. Exocrine glands maintain a tubular duct connection to the surface environment for excretion of their product (ex. sweat gland). Exocrine glands can be broadly divided into two main types, simple and compound. 2. Endocrine glands are ductless and secrete their products into surrounding vasculature (ex. hormonal cells of the anterior pituitary and islets of Langerhan's).

What are four types of alternative splicing?

1. Exon skipping 2. Alternative acceptor site 3. Alternative donor site 4. Intron retention

What are the steps in nuclear export?

1. Exportin recognizes and binds to the NES on a cargo protein 2. Ran-GTP binds to the exportin/protein complex, and the three exit the nucleus 3. Ran-GAP hydrolyzes Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP and the three molecules dissociate

Describe some features of the chorionic sac.

1. Extends around the amnion 2. It is composed of the chorionic membrane and the chorionic cavity 3. The chorion is composed of chorionic ectoderm (inner layer of cytotrophoblasts and outer layer of syncytiotrophoblasts) and chorionic mesoderm

What are the five muscles in layer 1 of the posterior (extensor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm?

1. Extensor carpi ulnaris 2. Extensor carpi radialis longus 3. Extensor carpi radialis brevis 4. Extensor digiti minimi 5. Extensor digitorum

What are the six muscles of layer 2 of the posterior (extensor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm? What innervates them?

1. Extensor indicis 2. Extensor pollicis longus 3. Extensor pollicis brevis 4. Abductor pollicis longus 5. Supinator 6. Anconeus *Radial nerve (deep) and posterior interosseous nerve

How is beta-oxidation different in unsaturated fatty acids?

1. Extra enzyme are required to deal with cis-double bonds 2. Energy is required to break two double bonds 3. require enoyl‐CoA isomerase for enzymes of beta-oxidation to work 4. 2,4‐dienoyl‐CoA reductase uses NADPH so the beta-oxidation of some unsaturated fatty acids produce slightly less energy.

What helps someone determine a genetic diagnosis?

1. Family history 2. Medical history 3. Physical examination-detailed 4. Laboratory and/or imaging studies

What are the three mains steps in fatty acid elongation of palmitate?

1. Fatty acid chain is transferred from 4'-phosphopantetheine of ACP to the cysteine sulfhydryl group of the beta-ketoacyl-ACP synthase 2. The -SH group of ACP then accepts a malonyl unit from malonyl CoA 3. Then the condensation step links the growing acyl chain to C2 of the malonyl group, with the loss of CO2

How are fatty acids transported into the mitochondria?

1. Fatty acid is converted to an acyl‐CoA outside the mitochondria. The acyl‐CoA is then transferred into the inner membrane space via CPT I. 2. Within the inner membrane space CPT I converts the acyl‐CoA to an acylcarnitine. 3. Acylcarnitine is then transferred across the inner mitochondrial membrane by a carnitine acylcarnitine translocase. 4. Once across the inner mitochondrial membrane CPT II converts the acylcarnitine back to an acyl‐CoA

What four processes are involved in drug excretion in the kidneys?

1. Filtration 2. Reabsorption 3. Secretion 4. Excretion **Excretion = Filtration -Reabsorption + Secretion

How is beta-oxidation different in odd numbered fatty acids?

1. Final cleavage product is propionyl‐CoA rather than acetyl CoA 2. Three enzymes convert propionyl‐CoA to succinyl‐CoA which is a citric acid cycle intermediate -Propionyl‐CoA carboxylase -Methylmalonyl‐CoA racemase -Methylmalonyl‐CoA mutase

What are three major roles of the Citric Acid Cycle?

1. Final stage of catabolism for carbohydrates, lipids/fatty acids, proteins/amino acids and ethanol* 2. Supports ATP synthesis by supplying reducing equivalents (electrons) for the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation* 3. Provides intermediates for biosynthesis

What are some characteristics of the yolk sac?

1. First site hematopoiesis 2. Yolk sac endoderm becomes the epithelium of the respiratory tract and digestive systems and germ cells 3. Transfer of nutrients to the embryo occurs during the 2nd and 3rd weeks while the placental circulation is being established.

Spermiogenesis includes the formation of what three structures?

1. Flagellum 2. Acrosome 3. Mitochondrial sheath

What is the median motor nerve distribution in the forearm?

1. Flexor carpi radialis 2. Palmaris longus 3. Flexor dig. super. 4. Flexor dig. profundus (radial ½) 5. Flexor poll. longus 6. Pronator teres 7. Pronator quadratus

What is the ulnar motor nerve distribution in the forearm?

1. Flexor carpi ulnaris 2. Flexor dig. profundus (ulnar ½)

What are the two muscles of the second layer of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm? What innervates these muscles?

1. Flexor pollicis longus* 2. Flexor digitorum superficialis *Median nerve and anterior interosseous nerve

What are hemopoietic cords?

Are a network of hemopoietic cells. They are comprised of "cords" of developing blood cells as well as fibroblasts, extracellular matrix, macrophages, and mast cells. (Cells are adherent to the ECM, they are attached to underlying matrix.)

What are anchoring/trunk villi?

Are main stem villi that extend from the chorionic plate all the way across the intravillous space attaching to the cytotrophoblastic shell and hence are "anchored" to the decidua basalis.

What are hemopoietic sinuses?

Are specialized networks of blood vessels and are similar to capillaries in that they are interposed between arteries and veins. They are comprised of endothelial cells, basal lamina, an outer reticular (adventitial) cell layer, and the vessel lumen. (Cells in the sinus lumen are within the blood stream and therefore, are free floating.)

Arginine

Arg - R - polar/charged

Where are the inner circumferential lamellae located?

Around the marrow cavity and inside the outer lamellae

Where are the outer circumferential lamellae located?

Around the marrow cavity and under the periosteum

The posterior cord divides up into what two terminal branches?

Axillary and radial nerves

What structures are contained in the axillary space?

Axillary artery and vein, brachial plexus, axillary lymph nodes, fat, and fascia

What is normal flora? What is there general function?

Bacteria found on body surfaces connecting to the outside environment, are semi-permanent, but can vary with life changes. They may protect the host by maintaining conditions so other organisms may not grow. GI bacteria synthesize vitamin K and B vitamins.

What are some similarities between basophils and mast cells?

Basophils share a common precursor (stem cell) with mast cells. They also have similar functions releasing heparin and histamine from their specific granules.

Why is a resting metabolic rate used on infants?

Because they can't fast

What does the musculocutaneous nerve become?

Becomes the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve at the lateral border of biceps tendon which breaks up into the anterior & posterior branches

Where is the ulnar canal (Guyon's canal)?

Between the pisiform and hamate bones

What is the fate of cholesterol brought back to the liver?

Bile Acids, then eliminated in feces

Whenever a carboxylation that requires ATP and CO2 or HCO3-, think of what?

Biotin (Vitamin H)

What happens in opposition - the first stage of implantation?

Blastocyst weakly attaches to the uterine endometrium at approx. day 6. Attachment is at the embryonic pole (side closest to the inner cell mass) and occurs through interactions between pinopodial projections from the endometrial epithelium and microvilli on trophoblast cells.

What is the function of fibrinogen?

Blood clotting

What is a complete bone fracture? What are its two types?

Bone breaks completely. Types: A. Open: Fractured (broken) bone end penetrates the skin (also called a compound fracture), B. Simple. Fractured bone end does not penetrate the skin.

What is a comminuted bone fracture?

Bone breaks into several pieces (3 or more pieces). Bone splinters at the site of impact, and smaller bone pieces lie between the two main broken pieces of bone. Older individuals who are more likely to have brittle (osteoporotic) bone are at greater risk of a comminuted fracture

Where do B Cells mainly mature?

Bone marrow

Where do NK Cells mature?

Bone marrow

What three branches come off of the aorta?

Brachiocephalic trunk, L. common carotid, L. subclavian

What is the one muscle of the lateral compartment of the forearm? What innervates it?

Brachioradialis *radial nerve

What are the general supply areas of the subclavian artery?

Brain, Upper limb, Spinal cord, Thoracic wall, Inner ear, Breast, Neck & back muscle, Diaphragm, Larynx, Pleura and Pericardium, Thyroid and Parathyroid gland, Ant. Abdominal wall

What is the innervation for rectus capitis lateralis?

Branches from loop between C1 and C2 spinal nerves

What innervates the rectus capitis anterior?

Branches from the loop between C1 and C2 spinal nerves

What is the entropy effect?

Bringing two reactants close together on the surface of an enzyme increases their effective concentration. The reaction rate is further increased by placing the reactants in proper orientation.

What is the nerve supply to the bone marrow?

Bundles of Nerve Fibers travel along nutrient arteries

What is the nerve supply to the bone marrow?

Bundles of nerve fibers that travel along nutrient arteries

How is the secondary yolk sac formed?

By "pinching" of the primary yolk sac.

How is the amino acid attached to the tRNA?

By an ester linkage

How are osteoclasts formed?

By the fusion of bone marrow derived cells

How is ion movement mediated across the inner mitochondrial membrane?

By translocators acting through uniport and antiport mechanisms

What regulates glycolysis/gluconeogenesis?

1. Flux through a pathway is controlled at rate-limiting steps (boxed enzymes) 2. Flux through the rate-determining steps may be altered by several mechanisms -Allosteric control -Covalent modifications -Substrate cycles - Futile cycles -Genetic control - Enzyme concentrations

Cells make different decisions depending on the input. What are four common responses to extracellular signals?

1. For the cell to survive 2. For the cell to divide 3. For the cell to differentiate 4. For the cell to die

What are the functions of platelets?

1. Form Platelet Plugs * Primary - platelet aggregation and plug forms * Secondary - increase in plug size 2. Promote Clot Formation and Blood Coagulation * Fibrin polymer 3. Vascular Repair * Clot Retraction - contraction using actin filaments * Clot Removal - proteolytic enzymes degrade clot and vessel wall is restored

What are four functions of the basal lamina?

1. Formation of cellular polarity 2. Binding of growth factors to influence cell growth, function, and differentiation 3. Regulate cell metabolism 4. Serve as a pathway for cell migration

What are the functions of the basil lamina?

1. Formation of cellular polarity by specifically aligning cells through attachment of the basal surface. Since blood vessels do not penetrate epithelial layers nutrients must be accumulated by the cell through energy-dependent active transport mechanisms located at the basolateral surfaces of the cells in contact with the basal lamina. 2. Binding and sequestering a variety of growth factors which will influence cell growth, function and differentiation. The receptors for growth factors are localized at the basolateral surfaces of the cells. 3. Regulate cell metabolism. The basal lamina acts as a diffusion medium through which nutrients and oxygen must pass to reach the overlying cells. 4. Serve as a pathway for cell migration through specific adhesion proteins and guidance mechanisms.

How is the primordial uteroplacental circulation established?

1. Formation of lacunae in the syncytiotrophoblast. 2. Lacunae fill initially with blood from eroded capillaries and endometrial secretions from eroded uterine glands. 3. Lacunae communicate with eroded endometrial capillaries - forms the primordial uteroplacental circulation.

Describe Merkel cells.

1. Found adjacent to some hair follicles 2. Characterized by lobulated nuclei, dense core vesicles, and their close association with free nerve endings (mechanical sensation)

Describe Langerhans cells.

1. Found in all layers, but mostly in the stratum spinosum 2. Bind, process, and present, cutaneous antigens 3. Activated cells migrate to the lymph nodes to interact with T cells

What happens during prophase I of meiosis I?

1. Leptotene - initial stage 2. Zygotene - pairing of homologous chromosomes to form tetrads (bivalents). Synaptonemal complex holds the homologous chromosomes together. 3. Pachytene - Crossing-over/recombination. The site of cross-over is called a chiasma (pl chiasmata) 4. Diplotene - Synaptonemal complex begins to break down 5. Diakinesis - homologous chromosomes remain attached at their tips and the nuclear envelope breaks down.

What are four basic requirements for a successful interview?

1. Know what information is needed 2. Be able to evaluate the relevance of the information obtained 3. Know how to get the information 4. Guide, but do not dominate the interview

What are two important transposons?

1. LINE1 2. Alu

What are the steps in activation of the tyrosine kinase receptor?

1. Ligand binding initiates receptor dimerization 2. Tyrosines become phosphorylated 3. Signaling molecule are recruited *There are three different regions that are phosphorylated and each has a different downstream signaling target

What are some treatments for UCDs?

1. Limit protein intake and supplement with essential aa's high in branched chain aa's 2. Remove excess amonia via dialysis, nitrogen scavengers, acidifcation of the colon, and antibiotics 3. Replace missing intermediates

What are two exceptions to the principle of segregation?

1. Mutations 2. Faulty meiosis (E.g. Turner's Syndrome, Klinefelter's Syndrome, Trisomy 21)

What is the sequential order of cells in granulopoiesis?

1. Myeloblast 2. Promyelocyte 3. Myelocyte 4. Metamyelocyte 5. Band 6. Segmented mature granulocyte

What are the six cell differentiations in granulopoiesis?

1. Myeloblast 2. Promyelocyte 3. Myelocyte 4. Metamyelocyte 5. Band 6. Segmented mature granulocyte *The cytoplasm progressively acquires granules and the nucleus becomes flattened, indented and then lobulated.

What regulates the urea cycle?

1. N-acetylglutamate is a positive allosteric effector of CPSI. Production indicates availability of urea cycle intermediates and energy (Arginine, Glutamate, Acetyl CoA) 2. Inducers of urea cycle enzyme gene expression: ammonia and amino acids derived from a high protein diet or starvation

What is the endoplasmic reticulum?

1. Network of membrane enclosed tubules and cisternae extending from nuclear membrane throughout cytoplasm. 2. Entire ER is enclosed by a continuous membrane. 3. Largest organelle of most eukaryotic cells; size controlled by the amount of protein that 'flows' through this organelle 4. Sequesters Ca+2 from the cytoplasm

What tissues are derived from the ectoderm?

1. Neural ectoderm > neural tube > CNS 2. Neural crest - sensory neurons, Schwann cells, cranial structures, adrenal medulla, pigment cells 3. Surface ectoderm > epidermis

What things should you never do with someone with a terminal diagnosis?

1. Say there is nothing you can do 2. Say "you are terminal" 3. Withhold information 4. Tell the family something but not the patient 5. Lie 6. Say "I know exactly how you feel"

How is RNA processing linked to transcription?

1. TFIIH phosphorylates Ser-5 on the CTD of the Pol II tail 2. RNA capping factors accumulate on this phosphoserine-5 which then leads to RNA capping 3. Ser-2 is then phosphorylated which accumulates RNA splicing factors 4. Ser-5 is dephosphorylated, and 3' processing factors attach to P-Ser-2

What are some examples of signaling factors that play a role in differentiation and determination?

1. TGF-beta superfamily 2. Chordin and noggin 3. Wnt protein family 4. Sonic hedgehog 5. Growth factors

What is PCR: Polymerase Chain Reaction?

1. Takes advantage of short oligo nucleotide hybridization. 2. Will amplify a small segment of a complex DNA mixture. 3. The process can detect a single molecule of DNA.

What is required for DNA replication?

1. Template - provides sequence information 2. Primer - Provides free 3'-OH to which nucleotides are added 3. Precursors - 5'-Deoxynucleoside triphosphates (5'-dNTPs) 4. Enzymes - DNA polymerases, sliding clamps, helicases, primases, single-stranded DNA binding proteins, nucleases, ligases

What is the SNARE hypothesis for vesicle fusion?

1. Tethering: A Rab-GTP inserted into the membrane of the vesicle binds to specific Rab effectors on the target membrane in a process called 'tethering'. 2. Docking: recognition and binding of the correct v-SNARE to its complementary t-SNAREs 3. Fusion: vesicle and target membranes fuse together delivering membrane bound and unbound (soluble) cargo to target organelle/membrane

What are four common antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis?

1. Tetracycline - blocks binding of AA-tRNA to A-site 2. Streptomycin - prevents transition from initiation to elongation 3. Chloramphenicol - blocks peptidyl-transferase 4. Erythromycin - binds in the exit channel and prevents elongation

What are some factors that help eliminate splicing errors?

1. The 5' end is splice before the 3' end is transcribed 2. The spliceosome recognizes the exons due to their small and consistent size 3. Ser/Arg recognize exons and bind to splicing enhancers

How is the biconcave shape critical to the function of RBCs?

1. increases surface area 2. Readily deforms allowing passage through capillaries without rupturing

What important elements are included in the UND professionalism statement?

1.Commitment to excellence 2. Honesty and integrity 3. Respect for others 4. Compassion 5. Professional responsibility 6. Social responsibility 7. Altruism

List and describe the two pathways for exocytosis.

1.Constitutive Pathway- Operational in ALL cells, involves continuous unregulated secretion of proteins from cells, vesicles contain many different types of proteins, receptors, etc. (heterogeneous) 2. Regulated Pathway - Operational in specialized cells, proteins are stored in secretory vesicles (granules) until cell is signaled to release, vesicles contain only 1 protein (homogeneous)

What are the sources of ammonia?

1.Deamination of glutamate (glutamate dehydrogenase) 2.Deamidation of glutamine (glutaminase) 3. Intestinal flora

Where do COPI vesicles bud from/target to?

1.FROM cis-Golgi Network TO Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER): targets proteins with KDEL or KKXX sequence at the C-terminus of the protein for transport back to ER 2. FROM Golgi cisternae TO Golgi cisternae: anterior grade and retrograde 3. FROM TGN TO plasma membrane: for constitutive secretion

Where do the foreign-born in North Dakota come from?

44% Asia(China, Vietnam) 18% Africa 16% Europe 13% Canada

What is the DRI for iron in men and women?

8mg/day for adult males 18 mg/day adult females

Bone contains what percent of total body calcium?

99%

Insertions and deletions cause what kind of mutation?

A frame shift mutation, where the reading frame changes and either causes a premature stop codon, and/or a garbled sequence

What is epistasis?

A gene's expression depends on the simultaneous expression of another gene (E.g. Bombay phenotype) Normally, an "O" child can only be born to parents who are both O or carry the O allele. The H antigen is a precursor to the ABO alleles. If inherited in the recessive state, hh genotype can prevent formation of the AB antigens (even if the genotype is AA, BB or AB) resulting in an O phenotype.

What is erythropoietin?

A glycoprotein synthesized in the kidneys in response to decreased blood oxygen and is needed for production of RBC

What are biofilms?

A group of bacteria whose cells stick to each other, and often adhere to a surface. Frequently embedded in a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymers (slime). Cells in a biofilm are physiologically distinct from free-living cells of the same organism. Biofilm may form on living surfaces and can be prevalent in natural and hospital settings

What conditions are associated with nitrogen balance?

A healthy, active lifestyle with a plentiful, well-balanced diet

What is a nucleosome?

A histone octamer with DNA wrapped around it 1.65 times

What is Lipopolysaccaride (LPS)?

A large complex molecule composed of lipid and polysaccaride. It is composed of several sections called O-antigen, core and lipid A (or endotoxin).

What is required for molecules to enter and exit the nucleus?

A localization signal is required for nuclear targeting and is a specific sequence of amino acids within the protein which are recognized by receptors that direct transport in one direction (either into or out of the nucleus). What molecules are imported? • Proteins that must enter to perform nuclear functions • Nuclear import receptors What molecules are exported? • RNA • Proteins that shuttle between the cytoplasm and nucleus

What is a peptide bond?

A main COO- on one AA is linked to an NH3+ group on another AA

What is dosage compensation?

A mechanism by which the expression of X-linked traits is equalized in males, which have one X chromosome, and females, which have two

What is a mechanism-based enzyme inhibitor?

A molecule devised to inactivate a specific enzyme irreversibly, but only after it has become activated by undergoing some chemical change at the active site

What are hemopoietic cords?

A network of hemopoietic cells. They are comprised of "cords" of developing blood cells as well as fibroblasts, extracellular matrix, macrophages, and mast cells. (Cells are adherent to the ECM, they are attached to underlying matrix.

What is thoracic outlet syndrome, and what are some common symptoms?

A neurovascular compression syndrome of the upper limb. Signs and symptoms of TOS includes pain, paresthesia (e.g. prickling), numbness, weakness, discoloration, temperature changes, swelling, ulceration and gangrene.

What is the primitive node?

A small swelling of epiblast cells at the anterior end of the primitive streak

What influences the morphology of the individual fingers?

A sonic hedgehog and BMP gradient, highest in digit five with little to no expression in digit 1.

The zone of polarizing activity (ZPA) regulates cranial to caudal development by establishing what?

A sonic hedgehog gradiant (Shh) that directs limb morphogenesis

What is a locus?

A specific location in the genome - DNA at a specific locus may differ in one individual

What is Comparative Genomic Hybridization (CGH)?

A technique that can detect large deletions and insertions. It is similar to the SNP array only instead of short oligonucleotides, large DNA clones are arrayed on a microchip. It can compare one genome sample to another (control and sample)

What is an NSAID?

A therapeutic agent which relieves pain and fever by inhibiting the inflammatory response

What is a chromosome?

A tightly coiled structure of DNA

What are enzyme linked receptors?

A trans-membrane protein that has a ligand domain on its extracellular side. The cytoplasmic domain act as an enzyme or forms a complex with an enzyme. These receptors initiate signaling cascades that culminate in activation or inhibition of gene expression.

Define patient centered care.

A way of providing care based on healing PPRs, which are based on trust, communication, and partnership.

The concentration of a drug at the site of action is dependent upon what?

Absorption Distribution Metabolism Excretion

What is the First-Pass effect?

Absorption into portal blood circulation delivers the drug to liver prior to entry into systemic circulation -route dependent

What are three examples of ketone bodies?

Acetone, acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate

What complex induces actin nucleation and growth? How does it do this?

Actin Related Protein (ARP) 2/3 by binding to the minus end of the actin filament thereby facilitating rapid growth at the plus end

What is the role of F-actin in adhesion belts?

Actin filaments are attached to adhesion plaque proteins which are attached to cadherins that join cells. This line forms a belt from cell to cell.

Describe actin polymerization/depolymerization.

Actin filaments grow by the addition of G-actin with ATP. They can also depolymerize by losing G-actin with ADP. Collectively it is called F-actin with ATP/ADP.

What is paternalism?

Acting in a way that is believed to protect or advance the interests of another person, even if acting in that way goes against the person's own immediate desires or limits the person's freedom of choice

What is the action and innervation of the dorsal interosseous muscles?

Action: Abduct fingers and extend the IP joints (both PIP and DIP) and simultaneously Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar n.

What is the innervation and action of the abductor digiti minimi?

Action: Abducts fifth digit. Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.

What is the action and innervation of the abductor pollicis brevis?

Action: Abducts thumb; can assist with flexion at MP joint. Innervation: Recurrent branch of the median n.

What is the action and innervation of the palmar interosseous muscles?

Action: Adduct fingers and extend the IP joints (both PIP and DIP) and simultaneously Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar n.

What is the action and innervation of the adductor polllicis?

Action: Adducts thumb Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar n.

What is the action of latissimus dorsi?

Action: Extension, adduction and medial rotation of humerus; the "climbing muscle"

What is the action and innervation of the flexor digiti minimi brevis?

Action: Flexes MP joint. Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.

What is the action and innervation of the flexor pollicis brevis?

Action: Flexes MP joint. Innervation: Recurrent branch of the median n.

What is the action and innervation of the palmaris brevis?

Action: Increases palm concavity on hypothenar side. Innervation: Ulnar n.

What is the action and innervation of the lumbricals (4)?

Action: Primarily extend the IP joints of the fingers and secondarily flex the MP joints. Innervation: Lumbricals 1 & 2 by the digital branches of the median n.; Lumbricals 3 & 4 by the deep branch of the ulnar n.

What is the action and innervation of the opponens pollicis?

Action: Pulls medially and rotates the 1st metacarpal into position for apposition with the little finger. Innervation: Recurrent branch of the median n

What is the action and innervation of the opponens digiti minimi?

Action: Pulls the 5th metacarpal toward the midline of the palm and rotates the digit into position for apposition with the thumb. Innervation: Deep branch of the ulnar nerve.

In general, the posterior compartment of the forearm has what actions, what blood supply, and what innervation?

Action: exension and supination Blood supply: radial recurrent and posterior interosseous arteries Innervation: Radial (deep) and posterior interosseous nerves

In general, what is the action of the anterior compartment of the forearm, what is the blood supply, and what innervates it?

Action: flexion and pronation Blood supply: radial and ulnar arteries Innervation: median and ulnar (1-1/2) nerve

In general, what is the action, blood supply, and innervation of the lateral compartment of the forearm?

Action: flexion in the "ski pole" position Blood supply: Radial/radial recurrent artery Innervation: Radial nerve

What is the action of the pectoralis minor?

Action: scapular stabilization by pulling it anteriorly and inferiorly against the thoracic wall

What is the action of subclavius?

Actions: anchors and depresses the clavicle

What is the action of serratus anterior?

Actions: protracts the scapula and rotates it upward

What are the actions of the rhomboid major and minor?

Actions: retraction and downward rotation of scapula; hold scapula close to thoracic wall

What does cholera toxin do to G-alpha-s?

Activates it, increasing cAMP and causing massive fluid loss through the intestines

What are genetic polymorphisms as they relate to drug metabolism?

Activity differences within P450 families among population groups (Poor metabolizers, Extensive metabolizers, and Ultrarapid metabolizers)

What is the function of cGMP?

Acts as a signal to relax the smooth muscles of the blood vessels leading to vasodilation and increased blood flow

What is the action of the pectoralis major?

Adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the humerus from an extended position

What is the function of the microbiome?

Affects the development and control of the immune system as well as such diverse conditions as obesity, type 1 diabetes, cognition, neurologic states, autoimmune diseases, and infectious diseases of the skin, GI tract, respiratory tract, and vagina

What divisions make up the posterior cord?

All three posterior divisions

What are sex-linked traits?

Alleles found on X or Y chromosome: -Sons and daughters may be affected in different frequencies. -Daughters inherit an X chromosome from each parent -Sons inherit an X chromosome from their mother only. -The Y chromosome is passed only from father to son.

What is the function of F-actin in the cytoskeleton?

Allows for polarity; dynamic and rapid polymerization and de-polymerization allow for flexible extension of the plasma membrane

What happens in the transamination reaction of amino acids?

Almost every amino acid that is deaminated (loses NH3+), has an alpha-ketoacid that becomes aminated (gains NH3+)

Where are hydroxyapatite crystals found?

Along collagen fibrils surrounded by ground substance and a hydration shell

Glutamate has what alpha-ketoacid pair, and what metabolic pathway is it involved with?

Alpha-ketoglutarate in the citric acid cycle

What are Anaplerotic reactions?

Anaplerotic (filling up) reactions replenish citric acid cycle intermediates Anaplerotic reactions are important because TCA cycle intermediates also serve as biosynthetic precursors

What is the cytotrophoblastic shell?

Anchors the chorionic sac to the endometrium. The cytotrophoblastic cells of the chorionic villi proliferate and extend through the syncytiotrophoblasts to form the cytotrophoblastic shell. The maternal spiral arteries and veins pass through gaps in the cytotrophoblastic shell to deliver and remove blood from the intervillous space.

What term refers to having incorrect chromosome number?

Aneuploidy

What are some neurological manifestations of UCDs?

Anorexia, Vomiting, Cognitive motor deficits, Lethargy, Ataxia, Asterixis, Brain edema, Cytotoxic and vasogenic edema, hypothermia, Seizures, Coma

What innervates the omohyoid?

Ansa cervicalis

What innervates the sternohyoid?

Ansa cervicalis

What innervates the sternothyroid?

Ansa cervicalis

What are the five polar charged amino acids?

Antarctica Gets Little Air Heat Aspartate - Glutamate - Lycine - Arginine - Histidine

Which apolipoprotein is specific to VLDL, IDL, and LDL?

ApoB-100

Which apolipoprotein is specific to chylomicrons?

ApoB-48

What is an important apolipoprotein for HDL

ApoC-II

What is the importance of exinuclease in nucleotide excision repair?

Can detect thymidine dimers, or larger DNA damage of single strands, and nicks DNA strand on 5' end

Long, thin, cytoplasmic process that come off of the lacunae and extend through the matrix are called?

Canaliculi

What are Volkman's canals?

Canals are perpendicular to the long axis of bone

A deficiency in MMR can lead to what disease?

Cancer (hereditary nonpolyposis colon cancer - HNPCC)

What is zero-order kinetics?

Capacity limited elimination -Constant amount of [drug] is eliminated per unit time -Is a saturable mechanism of drug clearance -Examples include phenytoin (antiepileptic), ethanol and aspirin *(REMEMBER: A pea is round like 0 in zero-order)

Ammonia detoxification in the live is linked to pyrimidine nucleotide metabolism because they share what?

Carbamoyl phosphate

Thiamine-PP (TPP) is involved in the metabolism of what?

Carbs Pyruvate Dehydrogenase******* -Pyruvate > acetyl CoA + CO2 Α-Ketoglutarate Dehydrogenase

What are considered macronutrients?

Carbs, fats, and proteins

What are Deontological ethics?

Certain actions are inherently right or wrong, regardless of their outcomes. You have a duty to always follow some absolute rules, based on the principles that people (including yourself) are always valuable, and so people cannot be used only as a means to desired ends.

Where are bone lining cells found?

Covering bone that is not remodeling. Periosteal bone lining cells are found on the external surface of bone. Endosteal bone lining cells line the internal surfaces of bone.

What are observational analytic studies?

Cross sectional, case-control, prospective and retrospective cohort

Differentiate the properties of polyacrylamide vs agarose in gel electrophoresis. How are they able to separate DNA by size?

Cross-linkages within these gels retard the movement of DNA based on size - larger molecules will have a harder time migrating through the gel. Polyacrylamide gel has higher cross-linking and can resolve smaller DNA molecules, while agarose is used for for much larger DNAs.

What cell shapes can osteoblasts have?

Cuboidal to columnar cell shapes

Describe the structure, location, and function of apocrine sweat glands.

Found in the axillary, anal, and areolar regions as well as ceruminous glands of the ear and the glands of the eyelid, the epithelium rests on a base of myoepithelial cells, and its sweat contains proteins, carbohydrates, ammonia, lipids, and ferric iron

Which cdks are associated with which cyclins?

Cyclin D - cdk4 or cdk6 Cyclin E - cdk2 Cyclin A - cdk2, 1 Cyclin B - cdk1

What controls the oscillation of of cyclin levels in the cell cycle?

Cyclin mRNA transcription, synthesis, and degradation

What is the difference between cyclin and cyclin-dependent kinases (cdks)?

Cyclins cycle and cdks do not cycle

Cystein

Cys - C - polar/uncharged

What is a zinc finger?

Cys/His coordinates zinc and generates a stable fold in a protein - common in TFs

What is the regulated step in pyrimidine synthesis?

Cytosolic carbamoyl phosphate formation

The ventral and dorsal roots merge to form spinal nerves. These spinal nerves, then split into what?

Dorsal and ventral primary rami which are mixed sensory and motor

The surface ectoderm regulates dorsal-ventral development by expressing what two things to its dorsal and ventral surface respectively?

Dorsal ectoderm expresses Wnt7a on the underlying mesoderm which induces Lmx-1 expression in the dorsal mesenchyme, and the ventral ectoderm counter-regulates with BMP and En-1

What are the two side branches of the roots and where do they stem from?

Dorsal scapular (C4-5) and long thoracic (C5-7)

Describe the histone modifying class of chromatin remodelers.

Enzymes can add chemical tags to the histone tails, readers read the tag and either silence or activate genes, and erasers remove the mark or tag - only specific amino acids of histone are modified (Lys, Arg, Ser, Thr) (E.g. acetylation, deacetylation)

How are amino acids accurately coupled to their tRNA?

Enzymes use hydrolytic editing to assure the correct AA is linked using an editing pocket, also aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases also recognize the whole tRNA and especially the anticodon

How does the ingression of epiblasts occur?

Epiblast cells downregulate cadherin expression and loose their epithelial character, detach from the epiblast and become migratory. This is termed an epithelial-mesenchymal transformation.

What is population health?

Epidemiology + Attitude". The "attitude" is that many determinants are social/behavioral and can be changed. It is the application of epidemiologic knowledge to improve health.

What is the effect of HSL activity by cAMP regulated phosphorylation in a fasted state?

Epinephrine, glucagon, and ACTH (which oppose insulin) produce cAMP in the adipocyte. cAMP activates protein kinase A, which phosphorylates/activates HSL. It also phosphorylates perlipin which recruits AGTL.

Most iron in the body is used for what?

Erythrocyte development (hemoglobin)

Most of the iron in humans is contained where?

Erythrocytes

ONLY what two components function within the blood stream?

Erythrocytes and platelets

Which polymerase adds nucleotides to DNA strand for eukaryotes, and which for E. coli?

Eukaryotes - Pol delta Prokaryotes - Pol III

Describe Meissner's corpuscles.

Found in the dermal papillae of glaborous skin, particularly common near the tips of fingers and toes, and adapted for transducing low frequency information (40-50 cycles per second)

What is ACAT?

Found in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver and activated by cholesterol. Requires acyl-CoA (primarily oleoyl-CoA) and cholesterol. Non-reversible reaction that allows cholesterol synthesis to move forward.

Where are cilia found?

Found in the tracheobronchial tree, uterus and oviduct.

What is a Pott's fracture?

Fracture of distal end of fibula and injury to distal end of tibia

What is a Colle's fracture?

Fracture of the radius, usually about 1 cm proximal to the wrist. Typically due to forceful trauma, like falling with outstretched hands.

Where do SNPs arise from?

From endogenous point mutation during the replication of DNA

What is the function of centromeric repetitive DNA?

Functions for attachments of proteins to pull the chromosomes during mitosis - does not have genotypic or phenotypic activity

What are free floating villi?

Further branches of the villi that are cut in cross-section; they are technically not free floating but only appear to be in histological sections.

What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens?

Eukaryotes - have a nucleus, organelles (fungi, parasites, and worms), tend to be larger Prokaryotes - do not have a nucleus or organelles, but do have a cell wall (bacteria and archaea) Both- have a cell membrane and ribosomes (although different types

How often is the integument renewed?

Every 15-30 days

What is edema?

Excess fluid in the interstitial space and/or serous cavities

Nonallelic homologous recombination (NAHR) leads to what phenomena?

Exon shuffling - since complete structural domains of proteins are often (not always) contained within an exon, this process is a major one on an evolutionary scale (100s of generations) that can produce new chimeric proteins with new functions.

What are sex limited traits?

Expressed only in one of the sexes (e.g., milk production). These genes are autosomal and present in both sexes, but are associated with primary or secondary sexual characteristics, therefore expression is limited to only one sex.

What are sex influenced traits?

Expression differs between sexes (probably for hormonal reasons) e.g. Pattern baldness - NOT X-linked, because a son can inherit the gene for baldness from either parent. However, males only need one "B" allele to exhibit this trait, females need to be homozygous dominant to express this trait.

What are the structures of the supraclavicular triangle?

External jugular vein, 3rd part of the subclavian, brachial plexus, phrenic nerve, and Virchow's/Troisier's nodes

Which pump uses the proton gradient to synthesize ATP?

F0F1

Polarity is established by differences in F-actin organization. Describe the polymerization/depolymerization of actin.

G-actin with ATP binds to lengthen the filament (plus end), and G-actin with ADP dissociates from the filament to shorten it (minus end)

Which tissues utilize fatty acids and why?

Heart, skeletal muscle, and liver • Local energy production to meet metabolic demand • Global energy production to withstand periods of fasting • Engage in a process termed "glucose sparing" which allows some tissue to rely on fatty acid oxidation for energy leaving glucose for those tissues that require it.

(Heating or cooling) DNA will cause strand separation; (heating or cooling) will cause random strand binding.

Heating; cooling

The apical ectodermal ridge (AER) stimulates the underlying mesenchyme to proliferate and migrate by expressing what?

FGF2, 4, and 8

Where do COPII vesicle bud from/target to?

FROM ER TO Golgi: anterior grade

Where is simple columnar ciliated epithelium found?

Fallopian tubes

What protein assists fatty acid movement within the cytosol?

Fatty acid binding protein (FABP)

Long chain fatty acid uptake by cells is enhanced by what?

Fatty acid transporters (FATP4 and SLC27A4)

Heart and skeletal muscle utilize what for energy production?

Fatty acids and ketones

What is referred pain?

Feeling of pain sensation in places other than the actual diseased body part. Particularly pain from a diseased internal organ can be referred to the body surface if their sensory nerves end on the same spinal cord segment. In such case our brain interprets the visceral pain as if it comes from the body surface innervated by the same spinal nerve = viscerocutaneous reflex.

Beta-lactam drugs are most effective against which types of bactera?

Gram +

Myeloid stem cells will form what types of cells?

Granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes

Myeloid stem cells (CFU-GEMM) mature into what cell types? Where do these cell types mature?

Granulocytes, monocytes, erythrocytes and megakaryocytes that mature in the bone marrow

What determines BMR?

Height/weight, age (growth, hormones, lean muscle mass), sex (lean muscle mass), activity level (lean muscle mass)

What is the role of helicases and single strand binding proteins in DNA replication?

Helicases separate the DNA strand, and SSBs prevent the denatured DNA from renaturing

What are the non-selective NSAIDs?

Ibuprofen, Diclofenac, Indometacin, naproxen, Piroxicam, ketoprofen, azapropazone

If DNA strands hybridize too quickly, what phenomena can occur? What temperatures would facilitate this phenomena?

If DNA hybridizes too quickly, mismatching can occur. This is facilitated by temperatures that are below Tm.

What is the difference between a homozygote and a heterozygote?

If a cell has 2 copies of the same allele, it is a HOMOZYGOTE. If it has one of each allele, then it is a HETEROZYGOTE.

In reading a pedigree, how can you tell if its dominant or recessive?

If its dominant, one of the parents must have the disease If its recessive, neither parent has to have it because they can both be carriers

What happens as a consequence of misplaced normal flora?

If misplaced they can cause infection, ex. skin flora into a catheter, or if person becomes compromised, normal flora may overgrow (ex. oral thrush, C.diff).

In reading a pedigree, how can you determine if its autosomal or x-linked?

If most of the males are affected, it is x-linked It its a 50/50 ratio between males and females, its autosomal

What is saturation kinetics?

If one determines the initial velocities of the reaction at increasing substrate concentrations and plots vo vs [S], a hyperbolic curve is observed. At very high [S] the vo levels off as it approaches a maximum velocity (Vmax).

V(D)J End Joining recombination produces immune diversity by what?

IgG light chain recombination

Isoleucine

Ile - I - nonpolar

Which amino acids can be either glucogenic or ketogenic?

Ile, Phe, Thr, Trp, Tyr

What are limitations to sound ethical decision making? Explain them.

Immediacy - urgent situations Unique Features - every ethical case is different; no two are the same Microscopic Understanding - hyperspecialization (masters of one field; lose the big picture) Egocentric Perspectives - everybody else in the world sees it as you do Binary Thinking - see ourselves in a scenario with only two options (right and wrong, either or)

Where are osteoclasts found?

In Howship's lacunae

What is the principle of dominance in Mendelian inheritance?

In a heterozygote, one allele may conceal the presence of the other. Thus, one allele is said to be DOMINANT over the other RECESSIVE allele

After the first and second responders arrive to a wound, what is the response of the epithelium? *Second step in wound healing

In a response to chemoattractants, epithelial cells begin to extend through the matrix and form new capillaries

Where are nascent chylomicrons made?

In intestinal epithelial cells

Where does the pentose phosphate pathway occur?

In the Cytosol of those tissues especially active in: Lipid biosynthesis, steroid biosynthesis,drug detoxification For example: Liver, Testes, Ovary, Adipose, Adrenal Cortex, Mammary Gland

All delta-9 desaturase reactions occur where?.

In the ER

Where are bile acids stored?

In the gallbladder

Where does gluconeogenesis generally occur?

In the liver

Where does the urea cycle occur?

In the liver

Where is albumin synthesized?

In the liver

Where is excess iron stored (organ)?

In the liver

Where is iron stored?

In the liver

Where are peroxisomes particularly important?

In the liver and kidney

Where is rRNA processed?

In the nucleus

Where does fertilization occur?

In the oviduct or fallopian tube

What happens in complex II (succinate dehydrogenase) in the ETC?

In the oxidation of succinate to fumarate, two electrons and two protons are transferred to FAD. The FADH2 transfers electrons to to UQ via FeS centers in the complex. There is no gain of free energy in complex II.

Microsomal Mixed Function Oxidase(MFO) Systems occur where?

In the smooth ER of liver, G.I., kidney, lungs and skin in microsomes

Where do T Cells mature?

In the thymus

How is nitrogen excreted?

In undigested protein in the feces, plus as urea and ammonia in urine and feces

What is "Ape" hand? What causes it?

Inability to move the thumb outside of the plane of the palm - inability to oppose the thumb and limited abduction of thumb. Cause by median nerve damage.

What is ecological fallacy?

Inappropriate conclusions regarding relationships at the level of the individual based on associations observed at the level of the group

Phase II reactions are conjugate reactions that do what?

Increase drug polarity (more H2O soluble) making them readily excreted and most often inactive

The last step in wound healing is re-epithelialization. What does this entail?

Individual epithelial cells migrate underneath the wound along the provisional matrix

What are communitarian ethics?

Individuals depend to some extent on other people, and individuals care about other people besides themselves (in their families and communities), so it is unethical to let individual health care harm the health of other people, and individual and community health needs should be weighed against each other.

What induces pyruvate kinase? What inhibits it?

Induce by insulin Inhibited by ATP and alanine

What induces PFK? What inhibits it?

Induced by insulin Inhibited by ATP, Citrate and PEP

What is induction as relates to drug metabolism?

Induced de novo synthesis of P450 enzymes accelerates metabolism of inducers or co-administered drugs effectively decreasing the therapeutic effect. It can also increase the toxicity of drug metabolites. (E.g. Felodipine and phenytoin)

When enzymes undergo a conformational change to enhance their interaction with the substrate, this is called __________________________ (2 words).

Induced fit

What is the role of glucocorticoids in the inflammation response?

Induces gene expression for anti-inflammatory proteins and suppresses gene expression for pro-inflammatory proteins Reduces the number of mast cells within the tissues which are the source of histamine and other mediators of inflammation

What is Purulent exudate (pus)?

Inflammatory exudate rich in neutrophils

What structures are contained in the muscular triangle?

Infrahyoid muscles, larynx, thyroid, parathyroid, cervical part of the trachea and the esophagus

The anti-inflammatory properties of the NSAIDs insure that the release of the prostaglandins, thromboxanes and leukotrienes are (inhibited or enhanced) in the area of tissue injury.

Inhibited

What inhibits glucokinase? What induces it?

Inhibited by a regulatory protein which binds to it in the presence of high F6P Induced by insulin

What inhibits non-heme iron availability?

Inhibited by oxalates, Ca2+, phytates, phenolic compounds

Rifampin inhibits the synthesis of RNA from DNA by doing what?

Inhibiting RNA polymerase and transcription

What is uncompetitive inhibition?

Inhibitor binds directly to the enzyme-substrate complex but not to the free enzyme; affects catalytic function but not substrate binding

What is non-competitive inhibition?

Inhibitor can bind to the free enzyme or the enzyme-substrate complex

What does pertussis toxin do to G-alpha-i?

Inhibits it, increaing cAMP by blocking its inhibitory effects

What is primary bone?

Initial type of bone laid down during growth, development and repair (woven bone) - collagen fibers are in random order (E.g. the first bone laid down over hyaline models in utero)

What are the two cell populations in the blastocyst?

Inner cell mass (embryoblast) - gives rise to the embryo Trophoblast - gives rise to the cytotrophoblast and syncytiotrophoblast of the fetal placenta.

What is the innervation and action of the coracobrachialis?

Innervation - musculocutaneous n. Action - adduction & flexion at shoulder

What is the innervation and action of the biceps brachii?

Innervation - musculocutaneous n. Action - flexion & supination of forearm

What is the innervation and action of the brachialis?

Innervation - musuclocutaneous n. Action - elbow flexion

What is the innervation and action of the triceps brachii?

Innervation - radial n. Action - elbow extension

What is the innervation and blood supply to the trapezius?

Innervation: Spinal accessory nerve Blood supply: transverse cervical artery

What is the innervation and blood supply of rhomboid major and minor?

Innervation: dorsal scapular nerve Blood supply : dorsal scapular artery (or deep branch of transverse cervical artery)

What is the innervation and blood supply to the levator scapulae?

Innervation: dorsal scapular nerve Blood supply: dorsal scapular artery

What is the innervation and blood supply of the pectoralis major?

Innervation: lateral and medial pectoral nerves Blood supply: pectoral branch of thoracoacromial trunk and lateral thoracic artery (derived from axillary artery)

What is the innervation and blood supply of serratus anterior?

Innervation: long thoracic nerve Blood supply : lateral thoracic artery

What is the innervation and blood supply of the pectoralis minor?

Innervation: medial pectoral nerve Blood supply: pectoral branch of thoracoacromial trunk and lateral thoracic artery (derived from axillary artery)

What is the innervation and blood supply of subclavius?

Innervation: nerve to subclavius Blood supply : clavicular branch of thoracoacromial trunk (derived from axillary artery)

What is the innervation and blood supply to latissimus dorsi?

Innervation: thoracodorsal nerve Blood supply: thoracodorsal artery

What is the insertion and action of the flexor digitorum profundus?

Insertion: distal phalanx of the medial four digits Action: Flexes the MP, PIP, and DIP joints

What is the insertion and action of the flexor digitorum superficialis?

Insertion: middle pharynx of four digits Action: Flexes MP and PIP joints

When there are similar sequence blocks repeated in tandem, misalignment of sequences can occur previous to the recombination event. This causes the wrong sequence block to exchange, resulting in what?

Insertions and deletions due unequal crossing over

Integrins signal inside our outside of the cell?

Inside

Microtubules have rapid cycles of of growth and breakdown, making them _______________________.

Instable

What is the effect of HSL by cAMP regulated phosphorylation in the fed state?

Insulin decreases cAMP and reduces the phosphorylation of HSL and perilipin.

What is the difference between integral and peripheral proteins?

Integral is irreversible through the membrane, and peripheral is reversible on the surface of the membrane

What are the important cell surface receptors that allow cells to migrate along the matrix?

Integrins

What are the functions of anabolic steroids?

Interact with androgen receptor; enhance muscle mass/athlete's performance; male sex hormones

Desmosomes are set up much like adhesion belts. How are they arranged?

Intermediate filaments are attached to adhesion plaque proteins which are attached to cadherins between neighboring cells.

Hemidesmosomes are set up much like focal adhesions. How are they arranged?

Intermediate filaments are attached to adhesion plaque proteins which are attached to integrins that are set in the basal lamina.

Where does oogenesis begin and end?

It begins during early embryonic development of the ovary, and ends at fertilization in the oviduct

Describe the pretracheal layer of the deep cervical fascia.

It breaks down into the muscular layer, which encloses the infrahyoid muscles, and the visceral layer, which surrounds the thyroid, larynx, trachea, pharynx, and esophagus

What does enzyme strain do?

It brings the substrate closer to the transition state, thus reducing the energy of activation

What is the role of the adenine nucleotide translocase?

It catalyzes a 1:1 exchange of ATP for ADP. New ATP is bound to the translocase in the matrix, which changes the conformation to face the cytosol, where the ATP is released in exchange for ADP.

What is the function of TPP?

It catalyzes decarboxylations of alpha-keto acids and the formation and cleavage of alpha-hydroxyketones

What does Pyruvate Dehydrogenase (PDH) do and what are its cofactors?

It catalyzes the reaction of pyruvate to Acetyl CoA and needs CoA, TPP, and NAD+

What happens on complex III (cytochrome bc1) in the ETC?

It catalyzes the transfer of two electrons from UQ to cytochrome C with the translocation of four protons across the membrane.

What is the structure of integrin and where is it found?

It contains one α and one β chain, and is found linking the cytoskeleton to the underlying matrix

Excess iron is stored in what (structure)?

Ferritin

What is the one muscle of the third layer of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm? What innervates this muscle?

Flexor digitorum profundus *Median and ulnar n.

What is exudate?

Fluid with high protein content and/or cellular debris; cloudy; color variable; defined as SG > 1.012; tends to occur later or with more severe injury

What is transudate?

Fluid with low protein content; clear - yellow; defined with SG < 1.012; tends to occur early and in less severe injury

What are the differences between focal adhesions and focal contacts?

Focal adhesions are more stable and more longer term than contacts. They can also have different subunits, and orders/types of adhesion plaque proteins. They are also signaled to form by different Rho-family GTPases. Focal contacts can become focal adhesions.

Trimethoprim and sulfonamides inhibit what within bacterial cells?

Folate synthesis which in turn inhibits nucleotide synthesis

What are branch villi?

Form from main stem villi and contain the fetal capillary network which is the site of exchange with the maternal blood supply.

What are main stem villi?

Form from the branches of the umbilical arteries and vein that are within the chorionic plate and extend into the intravillous space.

How are focal contacts formed?

Formed by signaling from a different Rho-family GTPase than focal adhesions.

What arteries form the superficial palmar arch?

Formed from the ulnar a. and contributed to by the superficial palmar branch of the radial a.

The transverse carpal ligament/flexor retinaculum forms what and is made up of what? Where is it located?

Forms the carpal tunnel's roof and is made up of nine tendons and a nerve: - Flex. dig. prof. (4) - Flex. dig. super. (4) - Flex. poll. long. - Median n. Located in layer 2 of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm

Where is teihoic acid found?

Found in cell wall of most Gram (+) bacteria. Teichoic acid can be linked to peptidoglycan layer (called wall teichoic acid) or anchored in the cytoplasmic membrane with a lipid anchor (called lipoteichoic acid).

Where is Lipopolysaccaride (LPS) found?

Found in outer membrane of Gram (-) bacteria

What is the structure of ATP synthase?

It contains three catalytic sites with each alternately passing through three functional states. It assumes a different conformation every 120 degree turn: one binds ADP and Pi, one of them catalyses the addition of Pi to ADP, and one of them releases ATP. The rotation of the shaft couples proton flux to ATP synthesis.

What is the function of complement in blood plasma?

It controls inflammation, activates macrophages, and binds mast cells

What is the function of micrococcal nuclease (MNase)?

It cuts the linker DNA between nucleosomes

What is the role of asparaginase?

It deamidates asparagine, producing ammonia, to make aspartate

What is the role of glutaminase?

It deamidates glutamine, producing ammonia, to make glutamate

What is the downfall of paternalism?

It denies another person their moral autonomy

Describe the investing layer of the deep cervical fascia.

It envelopes the entire neck and splits to enclose the SCM and the trapezius muscles

What drives eukaryotic transcription?

It follows defined programs, sometimes despite environment, epigenetic mechanisms, alternate arrangements of TFs

What is the function of fibrinogen (fibrin) in the blood?

It functions in blood clotting

What is an amphipathic helix?

It has a hydrophilic end and a hydrophobic end

What is special about the Mi2/NuRD complex, what does it do, and what is it associated with?

It has both deacetylase and ATPase functions, it functions to repress transcription, and has a MTA2 subunit that is associated with breast cancer

What does the cohesin complex do?

It holds sister chromatids together along their length

What is the role of glutamine synthetase?

It incorporates an NH4+ into glutamate, utilizing energy from ATP, to make glutamine

What is the role of asparagine synthetase?

It incorporates the NH2 from glutamine into aspartate, utilizing energy from ATP, to make asparagine

What is important about introns and alternative splicing?

It increases the complexity/diversity of possible proteins: Soluble or membrane bound, add or delete a phosphorylation site, change cell target, change whether a protein binds to a ligand, change stage expression, change enzymatic properties

Define health/healing.

It involves a wholeness, an integrity - its more than just the absence of illness.

What is chromatin?

It is a double stranded helix of DNA

What is the structure of the histone octamer?

It is a kernel of a H3(2)/H4(2) tetramer and two H2A/H2B dimers, with their N-terminal tails sticking out of the nucleosome

What makes up the plasma membrane?

It is a phospholipid bilayer in which cholesterol, glycoproteins, glycolipids, and proteoglycans are inserted. There is a net negative charge on the intracellular side, and the phospholipids have a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail

What is the function of Vitamin E?

It is a potent antioxidant (membrane oxidations)

What is recombination?

It is a process where genes exchange chromosomal locations

Describe the structure, location, and function of an eccrine sweat gland.

It is a simple coiled tubular duct found in the palmar and plantar skin and elsewhere. Its sweat is made up of water, Na, K, Cl, lactate, and urea. It can respond to emotional stimuli in the palms/soles, and heat stimuli elsewhere

Describe the beta pleated sheet?

It is a stretched out peptide backbone stabilized by H-bonds between C=O and NH groups of the backbone - side groups extend above and below the sheet - can be parallel or antiparallel -can be rolled into a barrel

What is the transition state?

It is a structure where the bond(s) undergoing transformation are such that they are neither like starting material or the product.

Describe the glycocalyx.

It is a thick carbohydrate layer on the surface of cells that plays critical roles in protection as well as cell to cell interactions.

What is the palmar carpal ligament and where does it lie?

It is a thickened antebrachial fascia and is superficial and proximal to the flexor retinaculum in layer 1 of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm

The surface layer of lipoproteins has what characteristics?

It is amphipathic, contains apoproteins, and is made of phospholipids and cholesterol

What is the endosteum?

It lines the inner surfaces of bone. Endosteum is much thinner than periosteum - only one layer comprised of periosteal cells

What is the periosteum?

It lines the outer surface of bones and consists of an outer layer of fibroblasts and collagen, and an inner layer of collagen

Where does glycolysis occur and what are its functions?

It occurs in the cytosol of every cell type in the body. It generates ATP and forms precursors for fatty acid, triglyceride, amino acid, and pentose synthesis.

What is the function of the H1 histone?

It packs the nucleosome into the 30 nm fiber

What is the function of the MAP kinase cascade?

It phosphorylates multiple target proteins that regulate gene expression for cell division, cell survival, and phenotypic differentiation.

What is the role of the syncytiotrophoblast?

It produces hCG (pregnancy test), which take over the function of LH

What is the role of the charge on glycoproteins in regards to the bone matrix?

It promotes calcium and phosphorous deposition

What happens to aged erythrocytes?

Lifespan 120 days: -phagocytosed by macrophages -degraded in lysosomes.

Describe signaling through G-protein coupled receptors.

Ligand-bound receptor-G-protein complex stimulates GDP-GTP exchange which activates the α-subunit. The alpha subunit of the G protein, in turn, activates other target membrane enzymes. One the G proteins do their duty, they return to an inactive state when bound GTP is slowly hydrolyzed to GDP. (E.g. Activation of Adenylate cyclase leads to hydrolysis of ATP to cAMP. cAMP (the second messenger) stimulates other proteins)

Tendons and muscle connective tissue are derived from what?

Limb bud mesenchyme

Where is stratified squamous epithelium found?

Lining surfaces such as the epidermis, oral cavity, esophagus, and vagina

Where is simple squamous epithelium found?

Lining surfaces such as the vascular system, lymphatics, Bowman's capsule of the kidney, respiratory spaces, and mesothelial lining of the peritoneal wall

What is the exception to independent assortment?

Linkage - Multiple genes are indeed "linked" together on the same chromosome. Physical exchanges ("recombination") between members of a chromosome pair during meiosis create chromosomes with new gene combinations. Recombination within chromosome pairs is normal, occurring regularly during meiosis.

Phospholipids are metabolized into what two products in the intestinal lumen? Which enzyme catalyzes this reaction?

Lysophospholipid and a fatty acid; phospholipases (PLA2)

What are azurophilic (primary) granules?

Lysosomes containing acid hydrolyases

Biceps brachii proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Long head: supraglenoid tubercle; Short head: coracoid process. DA: Tendon: radial tuberosity; Bicipital aponeurosis: indirect to ulna via deep fascia. Action: Flexes and supinates the forearm. (Flexes the supinated forearm; supinates the flexed forearm.) Innervation: Musculocutaneous n.

Brachialis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Lower portion of humerus, anterior surface. DA: Ulnar tuberosity Action: Flexes the forearm, independent of position. Innervation: Musculocutaneous n.

Flexor carpi radialis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Medial epicondyle via the common flexor tendon. DA: Base of the 2nd metacarpal bone. Action: Flexes wrist; radial deviation of wrist. Innervation: Median n.

Palmaris longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Medial epicondyle via the common flexor tendon. DA: Palmar aponeurosis. Action: Flexes wrist. Innervation: Median n.

Extensor pollicis longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Mid-portion of ulna and interosseus membrane (inferior to abductor pollicis longus). DA: Base of the distal phalanx of the thumb. Action: Extends the thumb; assists with radial deviation and wrist extension. Innervation: Posterior interosseus n.

Abductor pollicis longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Mid-portions of radius and ulna, including interosseus membrane, posterior side. DA: Base of 1st metacarpal bone. Action: Abducts and extends the thumb; weak wrist deviation to radial side. Innervation: Posterior interosseus n.

Flexor pollicus longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Middle portion of the radius, anterior surface. DA: Base of distal phalanx of thumb. Action: Flexes the interphalangeal (IP) joint and the MP joint. Innervation: Anterior interosseus n.

Flexor digitorum profundus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Superior 2/3 of ulna; anterior and lateral sides DA: Bases of distal phalanges of the four fingers. Action: Flexes distal interphalangeal (DIP) and PIP joints; also MP joint and assists with wrist flexion. Innervation: Anterior interosseus n. (radial half of muscle) and ulnar n. (ulnar half). (Anterior interosseus n. is a branch of the median n.)

Flexor carpi ulnaris proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Two heads. 1. Humeral head: medial epicondyle via common flexor tendon. 2. Ulnar head: Upper one-half (or more) of ulna; posterior side. DA: Pisiform bone. Action: Flexes wrist; ulnar deviation of wrist. Innervation: Ulnar n.

Pronator teres proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Two heads. 1. Humeral head: medial epicondyle via common flexor tendon. 2. Ulnar head: coronoid process. DA: Middle of radius; lateral side. Action: Pronator; weak flexor Innervation: Median n.

What are primers in reference to PCR?

Primers are short single stranded DNA of about 20 bases long. Their Tm are thus lower (60 to 60º C).

Developing gametes are derived from what?

Primordial germ cells which arise in the yolk sac endoderm early in development and migrate to the developing gonads

What are the two branches that come off of the deep palmar arch via the radial artery?

Princips pollicis a. and radialis indicies a.t

Proline

Pro - P - nonpolar

What is transcytosis?

Process in polarized (epithelial) cells where molecules are transferred across the cell to another side of the plasma membrane.

The third stage of spermatogenesis is spermiogenesis. What events occur?

Process through which spermatids become spermatozoa. During this time the acrosome forms from Golgi vesicles and covers the nucleus, the nucleus condenses, the flagellum forms, mitochondria localize to the base of the flagellum, and finally the excess cytoplasm is shed.

What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic mRNA?

Prokaryotic mRNA: 5′-end defined by transcription start site, polycistronic: RNA contains the protein coding region of many proteins, no splicing. 3′-end is defined by transcriptional termination, in prokaryotes, specific DNA sequences confer termination of RNA polymerase, no compartmentalization of transcription and translation Eukaryotic mRNA: 5′-end is capped, large intervening sequences (introns) are spliced out, 3′-end is processed to a polyA structure and the end is not defined by transcriptional termination, transcription and RNA processing are nuclear, the newly processed RNA must be transported outside the nucleus to function.

The first stage of spermatogenesis is spermatocytogenesis. What events occur?

Proliferation of type A spermatogonia and differentiation of type B spermatogonia. Once type A spermatogonia are committed to differentiation, all subsequent daughter cells resulting from mitosis and meiosis remain attached by cytoplasmic bridges due to incomplete cytokinesis.

What is the one muscle of the fourth layer of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm? What innervates this muscle?

Pronator quadratus *Anterior interosseous nerve

What is the relationship between the tyrosine kinase receptor and Ras?

Proteins that bind to phosphotyrosines sites of an activated tyrosine kinase receptor include adaptor molecules that recruit and stimulate Ras-activating proteins.

Classic uncouplers destroy what by carrying protons across the membrane?

Proton motive force

What is a syncytial knot?

Protrusions or aggregations of syntrophoblasts that may break off into the intervillous space

What is the function of teihoic acid?

Provides rigidity to cell-wall by attracting cations such as Na and Mg. When cells die, they are released as a toxin and they can activate macrophges and produce an inflammatory response.

What are the proximal and distal attachments of the brachialis?

Proximal - ant. distal humerus Distal - coronoid of ulna

What are the proximal and distal attachements of the coracobrachialis?

Proximal - coracoid process Distal - middle 1/3 of med. humerus

What are the proximal and distal attachments of the biceps brachii?

Proximal - coracoid process (short), supraglenoid tubercle (long) Distal -radial tuberosity & antebrachial fascia through bicipital aponeurosis (BA is roof of cubital fossa)

What are the proximal and distal attachments of the triceps brachii?

Proximal - infraglenoid tubercle (long), humeral shaft sup. to radial groove (lateral), humeral shaft inf. to radial groove (medial) Distal - Olecranon of ulna

What are the proximal and distal attachments of pectoralis major?

Proximal attachment: Clavicular head - medial half of the anterior clavicle Sternocostal head - sternum and costal cartilages Distal attachment: lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus of the humerus

What is the proximal and distal attachment of subclavius?

Proximal attachment: first rib Distal attachment: inferior surface of the clavicle

What are the proximal and distal attachments of rhomboid major and minor?

Proximal attachments: Minor - nuchal ligament, spinous processes of C7 and T1 Major - spinous processes of T2- T5 Distal attachments: Minor - medial border of scapula at the level of the scapular spine Major - medial border of scapula below the level of the scapular spine

What are the proximal and distal attachments of the pectoralis minor?

Proximal attachments: costal cartilages of ribs 3-5 Distal attachments: coracoid process of scapula

What are the proximal and distal attachments of serratus anterior?

Proximal attachments: lateral part of ribs 1-8 Distal attachments: anterior surface of the medial border of the scapula

What are the proximal and distal attachments of latissimus dorsi?

Proximal attachments: spinous processes of T7-T12, thoracolumbar fascia, iliac crest, ribs 9-12 Distal attachment: intertubercular sulcus of humerus

What are the proximal and distal attachments of levator scapulae?

Proximal attachments: transverse processes of C1-4 Distal attachments: medial border of scapula superior to scapular spine

What is reverse cholesterol transport?

Pulling cholesterol out of peripheral tissues and sending back to the liver (HDL). 1. Cholesterol and phospholipids are transferred via ApoA-1/ATP-binding cassette transporter 1 (ABCA1) to form pre-b-HDL (nascent HDL), then HDL3. 2. Cholesterol in HDL3 is converted to cholesteryl esters by HDL associated lecithin: cholesterol acyl transferase (LCAT)(Produced in liver then bind to HDL in plasma) 3. LCAT in HDL is activated by ApoA-1 4. Cholesteryl esters produced by LCAT can be transferred to VLDL and LDL by CETP. 5. PLTP catalyzes exchange of phospholipid between HDL and VLDL and vise versa 6. HDL degradation occurs in the liver. Uptake is mediated by scavenger receptor-BI (SR-BI). 7. ApoA-1 is recycled and remaining lipid metabolized by hepatic lipases. 8. Cholesterol returned by this pathway used to produce bile acids or is excreted.

What is the action of geniohyoid?

Pulls the hyoid anterosuperiorly, shortens the floor of the mouth, and widens the pharynx

Pyridoxine (Pyridoxal Phosphate - B6) is involved with what?

Pyridoxal P is required for synthesis, catabolism and interconversion of AA (aspartate transaminase)

Aminotransferase requires what coenzyme? This coenzyme is a form of what vitamin?

Pyridoxal Phosphate (PLP) derived from vitamin B6

Alanine has what alpha-ketoacid pair, and what metabolic pathway is it involved with?

Pyruvate in gluconeogenesis

What are common clinical and OTC inducers?

Quinidine, Barbiturates, St. John's wort, Phenytoin, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine and Chronicethanol use Queen Barbara Steals Phen and Refuses Greasy Carbs Chronically

What are the hematopoietic cells of the bone marrow?

RBCs, granulocytes, monocytes, lymphocytes, megakaryocytes

What innervates the five muscles of layer 1 of the posterior (extensor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm?

Radial nerve (deep branch)

What is the one branch of the radial artery?

Radial recurrent artery

What are some environmental causes of DNA damage?

Radiation, toxins, pathogens, chemical, chemotherapeutics

What are Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)?

Range of safe and appropriate intake

Signaling pathways are highly interconnected. Cross talk allows proteins to mutate in one pathway without having a severe effect. However there are still some proteins such as what that have mutations that lead to cancer or other abnormatities.

Ras

How is Ras inactivated?

Ras-GAPs inactivate Ras by stimulating its GTPase activity and thus its hydrolysis of GTP to GDP. The Ras-GAPs maintain most of the Ras protein (95%) in an unstimulated state

What is Fick's Law of diffusion?

Rate = (C1-C2) • [(Permeability • Area)÷Thickness] 1. Proportional to concentration gradient. 2. Inversely proportional to membrane thickness. 3. Proportional to membrane surface area. 4. Proportional to permeability (i.e., Ionizable vs. Non-Ionizable)

What happens in telophase II of meiosis II?

Reappearance of nuclear envelope and cytokinesis. Cytokinesis may be incomplete resulting in persistence of cytoplasmic bridges.

What is the function of Natural Killer Cells (NK)?

Recognize tumor cells or virally infected cells that have low MHC I molecules plus other cell surface receptors and kill with lytic granules.

What are the Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs)?

Recommended levels of intake of essential nutrients on the basis of available scientific knowledge, to adequately meet known nutritional needs of a healthy person

The thenar muscles are innervated by what is called the "million dollar nerve". Which nerve is this?

Recurrant median nerve

What are dietary sources of heme iron?

Red meat and liver

What are some dietary sources of heme iron?

Red meat and liver

What is epigenetics, and what causes epigenetic changes?

Refers to changes in the phenotype that are not dictated by changes in the underlying genotype (DNA sequence). Caused by changes in DNA methylation, chromatin structure, histone modifications or small, non-coding RNAs.

What is the chorionic plate?

Region of the chorion from which villi project; contains outer layer of syntrophoblasts, inner layer of cytotrophoblasts, embryonic mesoderm containing vessels

What is the function of vitamin D?

Regulate calcium & phosphorus homeostasis

What are the functions of glucocorticoids?

Regulate metabolism and immune function; anti -inflammatory activity by: -inhibit phagocytosis -inhibit synthesis of IL‑1, TNF, PGs LTs. inhibit antigen processing by macrophages -stabilizes lysosomal membranes -inhibits accumulation of neutrophils and monocytes at inflammation site -inhibit phospholipase A2

Nuclear receptors act by doing what?

Regulating gene expression

What is Net Protein Utilization (NPU)?

Relates to "usefulness" of a protein: the digestibility and its amino acid composition

What are interstitial lamellae?

Remnants of old inner or outer circumferential lamellae

Where is transitional epithelium found?

Renal minor calyces, ureter, bladder, urethra

How is induction counteracted?

Repeated drug co-administration to enhance P450 transcription and translation

What is repetitive DNA?

Repeats of a core sequence that are very long

What are some endogenous causes of DNA damage?

Replication mutations, reactive oxygen species (ROS) from metabolism, spontaneous chemical reactions

What is multifactorial inheritance?

Results from a combination of small variations in genes and environmental factors that can predispose to a congenital anomaly (disease states such as diabetes or obesity).

What is Type II mitochondrial disease?

Results from point mutations in mitochondrial genes; are usually maternally inherited; and often cause muscular, neurologic, and eye phenotypes. Example: Neuropathy, ataxia, and retinitis pigmentosa (NARP).

Lipophilic drugs ____________; Hydrophilic drugs __________________.

Retained; excreted

What mobilizes and transports Vitamin A?

Retinol binding proteins (RBPs)

Describe the transformation of Vitamin A in the eye.

Retinol is converted to retinal in the retina of the eye and is linked to opsin to form rhodopsin, a light-sensitive pigment protein in the rods and cones

What is an important signaling family that signals for both adhesion and migration within cells. Specific family members signal for the each of the different organizations of F-actin needed for cells to be motile.

Rho-family GTPases

Specificity of DNA hybridization is controlled by what?

Temperature

B6 deficiency results in what?

Sideroblastic anemia

What kind of receptors are the integrin family? What kind of signals do they transmit?

Single pass transmembrane receptors in the plasma membrane that transmit both mechanical and chemical signals

What is a very rare, very dangerous arrangement of the uterus for monozygotic twins?

Single placenta, single chorion, single amnion *umbilical cords get tangled

What is the blood supply to the bone marrow?

Sinusoids and Capillaries: Closed Circulation

What is the blood supply to the bone marrow?

Sinusoids and capillaries

What is site specific recombination?

Site-specific recombinases perform rearrangements of DNA segments by recognizing and binding to short DNA sequences: cleave the DNA backbone, exchange the two DNA helices involved and rejoin the DNA strands.

How many different enzyme activities are required to synthesize the pyrimidine ring?

Six

What things can determine the rate of diffusion?

Size and characteristics of the molecule, temperature, and lipid composition

Define clinical skills.

Skills that help you extrapolate, integrate, and apply basic and clinical science knowledge for individual patients

What is the first line of defense against invading pathogens?

Skin, mucous membranes, and secretions of the skin and mucous membranes

Where are the main sites of hemopoiesis in adults?

Skull, Ribs, Sternum, Vertebral Column, Pelvis, Proximal ends of the femur

What holds DNA polymerases onto the DNA?

Sliding clamps

Describe prokaryotic genome organization.

Small genomes, usually circular genomes, consist of naked DNA, genes are tightly packed, several genes can be transcribed together with one transcription event., transcription is physically coupled with protein synthesis (translation), translation can start even before transcription ends, simple structure, most are unicellular, extremely diverse in their metabolism.

Identify the eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and fourteen phalanges of the hand.

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Cannot Handle

What is required in prokaryotic elongation?

Some factors such as GreA/B and NusA/B can change the properties of transcribing RNA polymerase

What are the superior and inferior attachments of the platysma muscle?

Superior attachment: inferior border of the mandible Inferior attachment: Fascia covering the superior parts of the pectoralis major and deltoid muscles

What are the superior and inferior attachments for the SCM?

Superior attachment: lateral surface of the mastoid process Inferior attachment: Sternal head - anterior surface of the manubrium Clavicular head - superior surface of the medial third of the clavicle

What borders the anatomical "snuff box"?

Tendons of the EPL, APL, and EPB

What are the superior and inferior attachments of the trapezius?

Superior attachments: external occipital protuberance, nuchal ligament, and the spinous processes of C7-T12 Inferior attachments: lateral third of the clavicle, the acromion, and the scapular spine

What branch comes off of the first part of the axillary artery?

Superior thoracic artery

Dorsal to ventral polarity is determined by what?

Surface ectoderm

What is the function of the glycocalyx in the blood?

Terminal sugars determine ABO blood group type

What are analytical epidemiological studies?

Test the hypothesis regarding person, place, and time

Describe translation termination.

The 3 stop codons have no tRNAs. When a stop codon appears in the A-site, factors cleave the peptide and the ribosome disassembles

The upper limb is vascularized by what?

The 7th intersegmental artery

Terminal sugars on the glycocalyx of RBC's are responsible for what? Why is this clinically significant?

The ABO blood type - clinically relevant in blood transfusions, as blood types have to match in order avoid adverse reactions

What happens to DNA at Tm?

The DNA is half separated (or half annealed)

What is the electron transport chain? What does it do?

The ETC oxidizes the reduced cofactors (NADH and FADH2) by transferring electrons in a series of steps to O2, the terminal electron acceptor, while capturing the free energy of the reactions to drive the synthesis of ATP.

This principle states, " that both allele and genotype frequencies in a population remain constant* from generation to generation unless specific disturbing influences are introduced."

The Hardy-Weinberg Principle

There are two sequences associated with AUG start sites, one for prokaryotes and one for eukaryotes. What are the sequences, and which one goes with which organism?

The Kozak sequence is for eukaryotes A/GXXAUGG, and the Shine-Dalgarno sequence is for prokaryotes

In which phase in the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

The S phase

What are the borders of the anterior cervical triangle?

The SCM and the inferior border of the mandible

What happens in oogenesis at fertilization?

Meiosis II is completed, giving rise to a second polar body and the fertilized egg (ovum) - a small layer of follicle cells called the corona radiata surrounds the ovum

What cell types are the second responders to the site of injury/infection?

Monocytes, B cells, and T cellsWht

Genetic disorder caused by a mutation in a single gene. It follows Mendelian Inheritance pattern.

Monogenetic disorders: autosomal dominant, autosomal recessive, x-linked recessive, x-linked dominant

What is necrosis? What does it result from?

Morphologic manifestations of lethally injured cells that results from progressive degradative action of enzymes on lethally injured cell

What is the cauda equina?

Most spinal cord segments do not correspond to vertebral levels, therefore some of the nerves have to travel caudally through the vertebral canal to reach their corresponding intervertebral foramina. Those that travel below the level of the conus medullaris, therefore, form a "horse tail" like bundle, the cauda equina, in the vertebral canal.

How are fatty acids carried to tissues?

Mostly on albumin, but also on chylomicrons and VLDL

Is the deep branch of the cervical plexus sensory or motor?

Motor

What are the steps in targeting to peroxisomes?

Target sequence on a protein goes through a series of pex receptors to get into the cell.

The acromioclavicular joint is a weak joint reinforced by what?

The coracoclavicular ligamament

What artery may come off of the third part of subclavian?

The descending/dorsal scapular artery

What is cell induction?

The developmental fate of a cell or tissue can be influenced by surrounding tissues or cells

What is chemiosmosis?

The diffusion of ions across a selectively-permeable membrane, which are needed for ATP synthesis

What muscles divide up the anterior cervical triangle?

The digastric muscle, and the superior belly of the omohyoid

What is the "biomedical model" of healthcare?

The disease process is best understood when linked to a single abnormality (reduction). The assumption is when the abnormality is corrected, the symptoms will go away.

During the reactions of fatty acid oxidation and the TCA cycle, reducing equivalents derived from oxidation of substrates are transferred to NAD+ and FAD (forming NADH and FADH2) which are then oxidized by what?

The electron transport chain

What muscle divides up the triangles of the posterior cervical triangles?

The inferior belly of the omohyoid

How does TAG synthesis in the intestinal epithelium differ from that in the liver/adipose?

The intestinal epithelium uses 2-MAG + 2 acyl-CoA.

The initial velocity of an enzyme depends on what?

The substrate concentration - it increases with increasing substrate concentration

What is gluconeogenesis?

The synthesis of glucose from generally non-carbohydrate precursors

What is meant by these terms: cultural competence, culturally-competent care, culturally-sensitive care, cross-cultural care?

The knowledge, skills, attitude needed to provide effective health care to patients from a particular cultural group [different from one's own] or to work effectively in cross-cultural situations.

The Cori cycle is between what two structures?

The liver and RBCs

The alanine cycle occurs between what two structures?

The liver and muscle cells

What makes up the brachial plexus?

The lower four ventral rami (C5-C8) with that of T1

What is the principle of independent segregation in Mendelian inheritance?

The members of an allelic pair segregate cleanly from one another during gamete formation and pass, with equal frequency, from one generation to the next.

Once the fat products are absorbed into the intestinal cells ER lumen, they are reassembled into triacylglycerols. These are then packaged into what? What other products are included?

Nascent chylomicrons along with cholesteryl esters, phospholipids, and apolipoproteins (ApoB-48, ApoD, ApoA- II, ApoA-I)

What are the general supply areas of the external carotid?

Neck, Scalp, Face, Meninges of the brain, Oral and nasal cavities, Salivary glands, Ear

Who are the first responders to the site of a wound? What is their function?

Neutrophils rapidly migrate to the wound site (they are the fastest at migration) and they degrade damaged tissue as well as phagocytose micro-organisms

What cell types are the first responders to the site of injury/infection?

Neutrophils, complement, and immunoglobulins

What is the relationship between centrosomes and microtubules?

Nine triplets of short microtubules make up centrioles and two centrioles make up a centrosome

Can you make glucose from fat?

No

What is non-homologous end joining (NHEJ)?

No homology is needed, nor special DNA sequences. Repairs double stranded breaks. Broken DNA ends can recombine with another duplex.

What are the structures of the occipital triangle?

The nerve point and the nerves emerging from it, the spinal accessory nerve, and the superficial artery and vein

What hold the lipoprotein structure together?

Non-covalent bonds

What term refers to the unbalanced segregation of chromosomes?

Non-disjunction

How does iron loss occur?

Normal sloughing of epidermis and gastrointestinal mucosa

The electrons lost in the electron transport chain are transferred to ___________ to form ______________.

O2; H2O

What is the origin and insertion of the flexor digiti minimi brevis?

O: Hamate bone and flexor retinaculum. I: Base of the proximal phalanx.

What is the origin and insertion of the opponens digiti minimi?

O: Hook of hamate and flexor retinaculum. I: Shaft of 5th metacarpal.

What is the origin and insertion of the palmaris brevis?

O: Palmar aponeurosis. I: Skin over hypothenar eminence.

What is the origin and insertion of the abductor digiti minimi?

O: Pisiform bone and flexor retinaculum. I: Base of the proximal phalanx.

What are the origin and insertion of the lumbricals (4)?

O: Sides of the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus I: Radial side of the dorsal expansion of the next highest numbered digit. (That is, the first lumbrical m. has an action on the index finger, the 2nd on the middle finger, etc.)

What is the origin and insertion of the abductor pollicis brevis?

O: Trapezium and flexor retinaculum. I: Base of the proximal phalanx.

What is the origin and insertion of the flexor pollicis brevis?

O: Trapezium and flexor retinaculum. I: Base of the proximal phalanx.

What is the origin and insertion of the opponens pollicis?

O: Trapezium and flexor retinaculum. I: Shaft of the 1st metacarpal.

What is the origin and insertion of the dorsal interosseous muscles (4)?

O: the side(s) of the metacarpal bones. I: the dorsal expansion.

What is the origin and insertion of the palamar interosseous muscles (3)?

O: the side(s) of the metacarpal bones. I: the dorsal expansion.

Past Medical History, Social History, Family History

OO, MEDICAT, MIDE, NIDE, Allergies, SSS, HH, CRIP, Family, THEN SMODS

What is the role of F-actin in tight junctions?

Occludins and claudins velcro the cell together, they are attached to linker proteins (ZO-1, 2, 3) which contain actin

Flexor digitorum superficialis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Two heads. Humeroulnar head: medial epicondyle via common flexor tendon and the coronoid process of the ulna. Radial head: Upper portion of radius; anterior side. DA: Bases of the middle phalanges of the four fingers. Action: Flexes proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint and metacarpophalangeal (MP) joint; flexes wrist. Innervation: Median n.

Integrins bind extracellular matrix molecules (fibronectin, collagen, laminin) inside or outside the cell?

Outside

What is the problem with health care literacy?

Over half of the material we give out is not understood

Non-hem iron availability is inhibited by what?

Oxalates, calcium, phytates, and phenolic compunds

Asparate has what alpha-ketoacid pair, and what metabolic pathway is involved with it?

Oxaloacetate (OAA) in the citric acid cycle

The electron transport chain can only occur when what is available?

Oxygen

What are the proximal and distal attachments of the adductor pollicis?

PA = 1. transverse head, ant. body of 3rd metacarpal 2. oblique, bases of 2nd & 3rd metacarpals, trapezoid, capitate DA = med. base of prox. phalanx of polluxWh

Supinator proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: (1) Lateral epicondyle (NOT common tendon). (2) Posterior ulna (supinator crest). DA: Proximal portion of the radius, lateral side. Action: Supinates forearm. Innervation: Deep branch of the radial n.

Many enzymes require metal cofactors or coenzymes. Use the PAH gene to demonstrate this fact.

PAH requires the BH4 coenzyme and Fe as a metal cofactor.

What are some examples of autosomal recessive disorders?

PKU and cystic fibrosis

Generally, glucocorticoids inhibit what?

PLA2 and cytokine expression

Vitamin B6 is a precursor for what?

PLP

Where is the palmaris aponeurosis and what muscle inserts into it?

Palmaris longus

What is mitochondrial DNA code for?

Polypeptides involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation, as well as tRNAs needed for mitochondrial protein synthesis

Extensor carpi ulnaris proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: (1) Lateral epicondyle via common extensor tendon. (2) Posterior surface of ulna. DA: Base of the 5th metacarpal bone. Action: Extends the wrist and deviates wrist to the ulnar side. Innervation: Deep branch of the radial n.

Extensor digiti minimi proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: (Same as extensor digitorum). DA: (Independent tendon attaches as described for extensor digitorum). Action: Extends little finger. Innervation: Deep branch of the radial n.

Coracobrachialis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Coracoid process. DA: Middle of humerus, medial side. Action: Adducts and flexes the arm. Innervation: Musculocutaneous n.

Extensor carpi radialis longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Distal portion of humerus, lateral side, just inferior to brachioradialis m. DA: Base of 2nd metacarpal bone. Action: Extends wrist; deviates wrist to the radial side. Innervation: Radial n.

Extensor carpi radialis longus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Distal portion of humerus, lateral side, just inferior to brachioradialis m. DA: Base of 2nd metacarpal bone. Action: Extends wrist; deviates wrist to the radial side. Innervation: Radial n.

Brachioradialis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Distal portion of humerus, lateral side. DA: Distal portion of radius, lateral side. Action: Flexes forearm. Innervation: Radial n.

Extensor pollicis brevis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Distal portion of the radius and interosseus membrane. DA: Base of the proximal phalanx of the thumb. Action: Extends the MP joint and carpometacarpal joint of the thumb; weak deviation to radial side. Innervation: Posterior interosseus n.

Pronator Quadratus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Distal portion of ulna. DA: Distal portion of radius. Action: Pronation. Innervation: Anterior interosseus n.

Anconeus proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Lateral epicondyle DA: Lateral side of the olecranon Action: Extends the forearm (small muscle and therefore not a powerful action).

Extensor digitorum proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Lateral epicondyle via the common extensor tendon DA: Dorsal expansion of fingers. (Central band: Base of the middle phalanx. Lateral bands: Base of the distal phalanx.) Action: Extends all finger joints. Extends wrist. Innervation: Deep branch of the radial n.

Extensor carpi radialis brevis proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Lateral epicondyle via the common extensor tendon. DA: Base of the 3rd metacarpal bone. Action: Extends wrist; deviates wrist to the radial side. Innervation: Radial n.

Triceps brachii proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

PA: Long head: Infraglenoid tubercle. Lateral head: Posterior surface of humerus (lateral to the radial groove). Medial head: Posterior surface of humerus medial and inferior to the radial groove. DA: Olecranon. Action: Extends the forearm. Innervation: Radial n.

What are keratinocytes, and what are the three stages of their life cycle?

They are the predominent cell type in the skin and go through growth and proliferation, maturation and outward displacement, and desquamation

What are focal contacts? Where are they found?

They are transitory, cell-matrix adhesions found just behind the leading edge (and lamellipodia) of motile cells.

What happens if proteins are not folded properly?

They are transported out of the ER, ubiquitinated, and then degraded in a structure called a proteasome.

How are cyclins degraded?

They are ubiquitinated by SCF or APC and then degraded by proteosomes

What is the function of a focal contact?

They are used to provide adhesion behind the lamellipoida. They are not necessary or required for cell migration.

What is the danger of microsatellite DNAs?

They are very polymorphic making them mutation hotspots (insertion and deletions)

What are lamellopodium? How do they function?

They are wave-like extensions of the plasma membrane at the leading edge of a migratory cell. -Propelled forward by the polymerization of the F-actin-Arp2/3 complex meshwork. - Focal contacts may be located just behind the lamellipodium.

What are cotyledons?

They are wedges of tissue formed by the placental septae

The fate of fatty acids in the epithelial cell depends on their chain length. What is the fate of fatty acids with 12 or greater carbons?

They become bound to cytosolic fatty acid binding protein (iFABP) and transported into ER then converted to triacylglycerol

Where do phosphorylation inhibitors bind in the ETC?

They bind at ATP synthetase

Where do translocase inhibitors bind in the ETC?

They bind to membrane transporters

Where do electron transport inhibitors bind?

They bind to specific sites in the electron transport chain and inhibit electron flow

What is the role of myosin II filaments in cell motility?

They bind to the F-actin filaments in the trailing edge of migrating cells which re-orients the actin meshwork by retracting the trailing edge allowing the back half of the cell to jolt forward towards the leading edge.

What is the MOA of penicillin and its analogs?

They bind to the transpeptidase and interfere with transpeptidation

What is the function of osteoclasts?

They break down bone with enzymes that digest collagen - they pump H+ ions into the clear zone, just beneath the active cell at the bone surface

What are specific (secondary) granules?

They can bind to positive or negatively charged material and have specific functions for each type of granule

Transposons are more complex than IS elements in that they can do what?

They can insert there genes anywhere

What are the roles of NADH and FADH2 in the Citric Acid Cycle?

They carry electrons from the TCA Cycle to the electron transport chain

What are insertion sequences (IS)?

They consist of a fairly short (700 - 1500 bp) DNA segment flanked by a 10 - 40 bp inverted repeat sequence. The segment codes for the protein (transposase) that catalyzes the transposition event.

What are transposons?

They contain DNA segments flanked by short inverted repeat sequences - they encode transposases flanked IS and can move anywhere into a target chromosome

How do osteocytes communicate with each other?

They each have processes within the canaliculi that communicate with each other through gap junctions.

Describe free nerve endings.

They form the majority of the nerve endings in the skin, they are small, unmyelinated, branching axons, and they respond to heat, cold, pain, and mechanical displacement of skin or hair

What are the cell shapes/types found in the stratum spinosum?

They go from cuboidal to somewhat flattened (S)

How are fatty acids activated?

They go through a reaction catalyzed by acyl-CoA synthetase, and 2 ATP is required for each fatty acid activated

Describe the structure, location, and function of sebaceous glands.

They have an acinar type structure and secrete like a holocrine gland (sebum is shed with the cell in which it was produced). They consists of a lobular secretory portion and a ductal portion that empties into the upper hair follice.

Metronidazole and Quinolones inhibit DNA replication by doing what?

They inflict breaks in the DNA and inhibit topoisomerases

How do gram-negative bacteria stain and why do they stain this way?

They lose the crystal violet stain, and take up the color of the red stain used in the Gram method. These bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane containing lipoprotein and lipopolysaccaride.

What is the role of insulators in chromatin remodeling?

They maintain barriers at the ends of euchromatin to prevent the spread of heterochromatin into inappropriate regions

What is the route of nascent chylomicrons before they become chylomicrons?

They migrate through the Golgi in vesicles to the contra-luminal membrane then released into the intercellular space. Nascent chylomicrons do not enter capillary space or portal vein, but rather travel through lymph vessels and thoracic duct to the systemic venous system.

Describe the prokaryotic RNA polymerase.

They only have one that has multiple sigma factors to direct transcription

The fate of fatty acids in the epithelial cell depends on their chain length. What is the fate for fatty acids of less then 10 carbons?

They pass into portal circulation with no modification.

What is the function of melanocytes?

They produce melanin which is then transferred into the cytoplasm of karatinocytes

What are tonofilaments?

They provide structural support in the stratum spinosum against abrasion and deformation of the skin

Respiratory control occurs as a result of __________ _________ of electron transport and ATP synthesis

Tight coupling

Where are primary bile acids made? What are they?

Tjhey are re made in the liver hepatocyte (cholic and chenic acids).

What is the function of a northern/southern blot?

To detect specific sequences in a nucleic acid mixture (RNA or DNA) and to assess size of these specific sequences

What is the function of the extracellular connective tissue in bone marrow?

To provide physical support

What is base excision repair important for?

To repair oxidation that involves apoptotic cell death, recently linked to neural degenerative disorders (Parkinson's disease, Alzheimer's disease), wounding, injury, stress, and cancer.

What is half-life?

Time required to decrease [drug] by 50%: t1/2= (0.7 • Vd) ÷CL Important to note relationships of t1/2to Vd and CL -proportional toVd -inversely proportional toCL Rule of thumb:~4-5 t1/2to reach steady-state C

Protons are pumped where, creating the proton gradient?

To the intermembrane space ( hydrogen ion reservoir)

What are "complete proteins"?

They are of high biological value and supply adequate amounts of the essential amino acids to maintain nitrogen balance and permit growth

Describe pacinian corpuscles.

They are one of the largest sensory receptors found in subQ skin, especially under the dermis of the digits. It is very sensitive to vibration (700 cycles per second) and mechanical displacement

How are LDL receptors recycled?

They are recycled to the plasma membrane following endocytosis in a clathrin-coated vesicle via endosomal/lysosomal process.

What are enhancers?

They are regions of DNA that can regulate genes (increase expression) many nucleotides away by looping DNA so that their TFs interact with the TFs of a promoter

What are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)?

They are single base differences in a genetic population

What is the role of telomeres for chromosomes?

They are special sequences at the end of chromosomes that protect them from loss, damage, and fusion. They shorten as the DNA continues to replicate. (reverse transcriptase)

What are tRNAs?

They are the adaptors between amino acids and mRNA. The anticodon region complementary base pairs with the mRNA, and the 3' end has the attached, appropriate amino acid

What is linkage in reference to DNA recombination?

Two loci are inherited together more frequently than they are randomly assorted. Linkage rates increase the closer two alleles are together

Triacylglycerol is hydrolyzed into what two products in the intestinal lumen? What happens to them?

Two monoacylgylcerols and free fatty acids; they are absorbed by the epithelial cells of the small intestine

What makes up the organic matter of the bone matrix?

Type 1 collagen, proteoglycans, glycoproteins

The second stage of spermatogenesis is meiosis. What events occur?

Type B spermatogonia enter prophase I of meiosis to become primary spermatocytes. At the completion of the first meiotic division, they are called secondary spermatocytes. At the completion of the second meiotic division, the developing germ cells become spermatids.

Tyrosine

Tyr -Y - aromatic

Which amino acids can be phosphorylated?

Tyr, Ser, Thr

What are the most common enzyme linked receptors?

Tyrosine kinases

What makes up the spliceosome?

U1, U2, U4, U5, and U6 snRNAs are complexed to proteins (BBP) and called snRNPs

What are the two mobile carriers in the electron transport chain?

UQ and cytochrome C

What are the two deep nerves on the palmar side of the hand?

Ulnar and median nerves

What is the deeper artery in the palmar side of the hand?

Ulnar artery

The medial cord divides up into what two terminal branches?

Ulnar nerve and a portion of the medial nerve

What is the action of the SCM?

Unilaterally - laterally flexes the head and rotates it so the face is turned superiorly to the opposite side Bilaterally - extends the neck at the atlanto-occipital joint and flexes the cervical vertebrae so the chin approaches the manubrium

What arteries form the circle of Willis?

Vertebral arteries and carotid arteries

When can uncoupling be ok?

When UCP1 in brown adipose tissue acts as a heat generator

What is the function of Lipopolysaccaride (LPS) found?

When cells die, they released as a toxin, and they can activate macrophages.

What is Insulin Sensitive Glucose Transport?

When insulin hits its receptor, it initiates a signaling cascade which brings more glucose transporters to the surface

When do nascent chylomicrons become chylomicrons?

When nascent chylomicrons enter the systemic venous circulation and acquire other apolipoproteins from HDL (ApoC-III, ApoC-II, ApoC-I, ApoE)

What is consequentialist ethics?

When you decide what to do based on what the results of your actions are likely to be

What is the fetomaternal junction?

Where the villous chorion and and decidua basalis meet

Why is the electron transport chain necessary?

While the TCA cycle and glycolysis do make ATP, it is not nearly enough. The ETC is where the majority of ATP is created.

All organelles are present in the stratum spinosum, true or false?

True

Cholesterol synthesis intermediates are used for other pathways, true or false?

True

Most SNPs are inherited. True or false?

True

Most of the released iron is Fe3+ (ferric iron) in the oxidation state. It must be reduced for absorption. True or false?

True

PUFAs with 20 carbon atoms are typically not used for b-oxidation. True or false?

True

Promoters and enhancers are often free of nucleosomes, true or false?

True

The median nerve has no distributions in the arm, true or false?

True

The stratum basale is highly mitotic, true or false?

True

The ulnar nerve has no distributions in the arm, true or false?

True

What are experimental analytic studies?

True experiments, randomized, controlled, trials

What are the trinucleotide repeat disorders?

Try (trinucleotide) Hunting for My Fried Eggs (X) Huntington's disease = (CAG)n Myotonic dystrophy = (CTG)n Friedrich ataxia = (GAA)n Fragile X syndrome = (CGG)n

What is the structure of microtubules?

Tubulin dimers stack on top of one another to formed polarized protofilaments, and 13 protofilaments form a hollow microtubule

What is the key enzyme needed for utilization of ketone bodies?

acetoacetate:succinyl‐CoA transferase (thiophorase) that is not expressed in the liver and only found in tissues that utilize ketone bodies for energy

Where are compound tubular glands found?

duodenum

How is the energy content of food measured?

kcal - heat release upon ignition and total combustion

What are the steps for translation initiation?

tRNAi for Met is recognized by elF2 and forms a complex with the small ribosomal unit that binds to the 5' end through the cap and scans for the first AUG. Once it finds the start site, the rest of the ribosome assembles

Where are simple acinar glands found?

urethra

What are characteristics of myeloblasts?

• An undifferentiated cell very similar in appearance to the proerythroblast • Round cell with large nucleus with dispersed chromatin and multiple nucleoli • Cytoplasm is moderately basophilic and devoid of granules. • Capable of cell division

Describe characteristics of clathrin-independent endocystosis.

• Caveolae - plasma membrane invaginations that are associated with lipid rafts (patches rich in cholesterol and sphingolipid). • They usually but do not always contain proteins called caveolins. • Caveolae can pinch off from the plasma membrane and deliver contents to a specialized endosome called a caveosome or fuse back to the plasma membrane.

What are characteristics of metamyelocytes?

• Condensation of the chromatin; no longer mitotically active from the stage onward • Nucleus contains a slight to moderate indentation that penetrates to less than half the distance from the farthest nuclear margin • Numerous specific granules (unique to each of the granulocytes)

What are characteristics of polychromatophilic erythroblasts?

• Greater chromatin condensation • Polyribosomes decrease and hemoglobin increases leading to a blue-grey color of the cytoplasm • Last cell of erythroid origin that can undergo mitosis

What are characteristics of erythrocytes?

• Has a biconcave disc shape • Acidophilic stain due to abundance of hemoglobin • Lacks ribosomes and organelles

What are characteristics of proerythroblasts?

• Large nucleus - often 2 nucleoli • Rim of cytoplasm is slightly basophilic due to polyribosomes

What are characteristics of segmented mature granulocytes?

• Lobed nucleus - lobes are joined by thin strands of chromatin • Distinct granules for each granulocyte • Cells function outside the blood stream (mainly in connective tissue)

What are characteristics of bands?

• Nucleus is U-shaped; relatively long and narrow; indentation of the nucleus extends more than half the distance from the furthest nuclear margin and may show 1 or more constrictions along its length. • 3-5% of leukocytes within the peripheral blood are band (stab) forms • Obvious in the neutrophilic line but very rarely if ever observed in the eosinophilic or basophilic cell lines.

What are characteristics of orthochromatophilic erythroblasts?

• Nucleus is condensed further - it is completely pyknotic (condensed or reduced in size) • Last of nucleated cells in this linage • Most organelles have been lost • Cytoplasm is uniformly acidophilic

What are characteristics of promyelocytes?

• Nucleus occupies less space than in myeloblast • Cytoplasm is more basophilic and contains azurophilic granules • Largest cell of granulocytic linage

What are characteristics of myelocytes?

• Slight nuclear flattening at one side, called eccentric location (but no nuclear indentation) • Cell division continues and gives rise to metamyelocytes • Specific granules appear as the smallest granules in the cytoplasm which depicts separate paths of differentiation

What are characteristics of basophilic erythroblasts?

• Slightly smaller cell with rim that is strongly basophilic • Smaller nucleus with more condensed heterochromatin and the nucleolus is no longer visible

Describe passive nuclear transport.

• Small molecules (ions) and small proteins <50 kD pass freely though open channels in nuclear pore complex • Bidirectional transport of these molecules

What is the nucleolus? What happens in it?

• The most prominent substructure in the nucleus • Site for ribosomal RNA transcription and processing • Site for ribosome assembly • Size varies depending on the metabolic activity of the cell

What are characteristics of reticulocytes?

• The pyknotic nucleus has been expelled • Cytoplasm contains aggregates of residual ribosomes that appear like a bluish network in a pink cytoplasm as well as residual organelles. • Number in bone marrow is greater than that in blood circulation.

What are some characteristics of acid hydrolases (lysosomal proteins)?

• They are enzymes that are active at pH 5 and inactive at neutral pH ~7.2 • These enzymes degrade a wide range of intracellular and extracellularly acquired material. The resulting amino acids, sugars, and nucleotides are transported into the cytoplasm and are reused. Recycling! • These enzymes all contain many N-linked oligosaccharides that are modified in the cis-Golgi Network to obtain a phosphate on mannose residues (mannose-6-phosphate=M6P). • The many N-linked oligosaccharides help protect the acid hydrolases from degradation in the harsh environment of the lysosome AND the mannose-6-phosphate is the signal that targets the acid hydrolases for transport from the trans-Golgi-network to the lysosomes.

Where are compound acinar glands found?

pancreas

Most immune cells are involved in what process?

phagocytosis

What is the initial organization of the vasculature of the limb buds?

primary axial artery → capillary network → marginal sinus → venous outlet (marginal sinuses later form basilic and cephalic veins)

How many ATP are made per FADH2 oxidized?

1.5

Threonine

Thr - T polar/uncharged

What two amino acids do not participate in transamination reactions?

Thr and Lys

What is a single screening question you could ask to assess literacy?

"How confident are you filling out medical forms?"

What is apoptosis?

"Programmed cell death" Designed for elimination of cells during embryogenesis and normal physiologic processes

Identify and name the superficial veins of the neck.

1. Retromandibular 3. Facial 4. Lingual 6. Internal jugular 7. External jugular 8. Subclavian

What is the histological structure of red bone marrow?

*Mainly RBCs and hemopoietic cells S = sinusoids Arrows = Macrophages MK = Megakaryocytes

What is the histological structure of yellow bone marrow?

*Mainly adipoctyes AC = Adipose Cell H = Hemopoietic Cord C = connective tissue S = sinusoids A = arteriole

What is non-contact mediated intercellular communication?

- A chemical signal - Signal is nearby or at a distance

What are some characterisitcs of metamyelocytes?

- Condensation of the chromatin; no longer mitotically active from the stage onward - Nucleus contains a slight to moderate indentation that penetrates to less than half the distance from the farthest nuclear margin - Numerous specific granules (unique to each of the granulocytes)

Describe the dynamics of cell motility.

- Cells that are rapidly migrating (A) will often slow down (B) thereby oscillating between these two states. - After reaching the wound or target destination they will become stationary (C).

What are some characteristics of the polychromatophilic erythroblast?

- Greater chromatin condensation - Polyribosomes decrease and hemoglobin increases leading to a blue-grey color of the cytoplasm - Last cell of erythroid origin that can undergo mitosis **(N2)

What causes fragile x syndrome?

- Having >200 trinucleotide repeats - Increased DNA methylation of CG's - Loss of gene expression

What are some characteristics of the proerythroblast?

- Large nucleus - often 2 nucleoli - Rim of cytoplasm is slightly basophilic due to polyribosomes

What are some characteristics of segmented mature granulocytes?

- Lobed nucleus - lobes are joined by thin strands of chromatin - Distinct granules for each granulocyte - Cells function outside the blood stream (mainly in connective tissue)

What are the primary migratory cells in adult homeostasis?

- Macrophages - Neutrophils - Fibroblasts

What are some characteristics of bands?

- Nucleus is U-shaped; relatively long and narrow; indentation of the nucleus extends more than half the distance from the furthest nuclear margin and may show 1 or more constrictions along its length. - 3-5% of leukocytes within the peripheral blood are band (stab) forms - Obvious in the neutrophilic line but very rarely if ever observed in the eosinophilic or basophilic cell lines.

What are some characteristics of the orthochromatophilic erythroblast?

- Nucleus is condensed further - it is completely pyknotic (condensed or reduced in size) - Last of nucleated cells in this linage - Most organelles have been lost - Cytoplasm is uniformly acidophilic **(N3)

What are come characteristics of promyelocytes?

- Nucleus occupies less space than in myeloblast Cytoplasm is more basophilic and contains azurophilic granules - Largest cell of granulocytic linage

What are some characteristics of myelocytes?

- Slight nuclear flattening at one side, called eccentric location (but no nuclear indentation) - Cell division continues and gives rise to metamyelocytes - Specific granules appear as the smallest granules in the cytoplasm which depicts separate paths of differentiation

What are some characteristics of the basophilic erythroblast?

- Slightly smaller cell with rim that is strongly basophilic - Smaller nucleus with more condensed heterochromatin and the nucleolus is no longer visible **(N1)

What are some characteristics of the reticulocyte?

- The pyknotic nucleus has been expelled - Cytoplasm contains aggregates of residual ribosomes that appear like a bluish network in a pink cytoplasm as well as residual organelles. - Number in bone marrow is greater than that in blood circulation.

What is contact-mediated intercellular communication?

- display molecules are on the cell surface - recognized by receptor on another cell

Describe the development of the arteries of the upper limbs starting with the primary axial artery.

- primary axial artery becomes brachial and anterior interosseus arteries - radial and ulnar arteries form as branches from the brachial artery - radial and ulnar arteries take ascendency by connecting to the terminal plexus while the anterior interosseus and median arteries partially regress.

Describe the development of the arteries of the lower limbs starting with the primary axial artery.

- primary axial artery gives rise to deep artery of the thigh, then mostly degenerates; gives rise to three remnants → sciatic (ischiatic) a., part of popliteal a., part of peroneal a. - external iliac artery forms femoral artery which forms virtually all of the other arteries of the lower limb. after

What is the translation initiation codon and what does it code for?

AUG and it codes for Met

What results as an excessive accumulation of granulation tissue?

-"Proud flesh" -Keloid -Hypertrophic scar

How do you know if a disorder is x-linked or autosomal?

-If more males in the pedigree are affected, then the disorder is X-linked -If it is a 50/50 ratio between men and women the disorder is autosomal.

What are the three hypothenar muscles?

-Abductor digiti minimi m. -Flexor digiti minimi brevis m. -Opponens digiti minimi m.

What are the three thenar muscles?

-Abductor pollicis brevis m. -Flexor pollicis brevis m. -Opponens pollicis m.

What are three functions of cytokines?

-Activates macrophages, cytotoxic T cells -Promotes Ig switching and Th cell differentiation -Causes fever (IL-1, 6)

What are some characteristics of myeloblasts?

-An undifferentiated cell very similar in appearance to the proerythroblast -Round cell with large nucleus with dispersed chromatin and multiple nucleoli - Cytoplasm is moderately basophilic and devoid of granules. - Capable of cell division

How do you determine if a disorder is dominant or recessive?

-If the disorder is dominant, one of the parents of the affected individual must have the disorder. -If the disorder is recessive, neither parent has to have the disorder because they can be heterozygous.

What are four functions of thromboxanes?

-Cause platelets to aggregate -Causes vasoconstriction -Causes smooth muscle contraction -Enhances function of inflammatory cells

What are the most vulnerable cellular systems to injury?

-Cellular membranes -Aerobic respiration (energy systems) -Enzyme synthesis and structural proteins -Preservation of genetic components of cells

How does necrosis occur?

-Cellular swelling -Denaturation / coagulation of cytoplasmic proteins -Breakdown of cell organelles -Enzymatic digestion of cell

How does high dietary cholesterol intake effect expression of LDL receptors?

-Cholesterol enters liver cell on chylomicron remnant (ApoB-48 and ApoE receptor) -Down regulation of LDL receptor when plasma cholesterol concentration is high -Receptor is sequestered and its synthesis is inhibited -Inhibition of hepatic HMG-CoA reductase and decreased cholesterol synthesis -Remaining LDL in circulation taken up by non-regulated receptors on other tissues

In order to be culturally competent, one needs have knowledge in what areas?

-Communication styles -Decision-making -Models of disease -- role of biomedicine -Gender issues

What are common covalent and non-covalent prosthetic groups (tight)?

-Covalent: Lipoamide*, TPP, and biotin -Noncovalent: FAD and FMN

What are some symptoms of fragile x syndrome?

-Cryptorchidism (enlarged testes) -Long face with large jaw -Large everted ears -Autism -Mitral valve prolapse

Where is normal flora found within the body?

-Cutaneous surfaces, including urethra and outer ear (staphylococcus epidermidis). -Nose (staphylococcus aureus) -Oropharynx (Viridans strepococci, and strep mutans -Colon: Bacteroides, E.coli, Bifidobacterium -Vagina: lactobacillus, group B strep.

What are common biochemical alterations of cells?

-Defects in membrane permeability (Ions, water, Calcium) -ATP depletion / Energy compromise, anaerobic oxidation -Free radical formation - further damage to membranes / genetic material -Irreversible mitochondria damage -Structural and enzymatic protein changes

What inhibits conversion of cholesterol to bile acids?

-Elevated liver cholesterol -Down regulated liver LDL receptor -Hypercholesterolemia -Premature gallstone formation

What are some systemic responses to injury?

-Fever -Leukocytosis -Acute phase reaction proteins -Fatigue -Anorexia -Anemia -Myalgia -Stress

What makes up the ferritin complex?

-H ferritin (heart) has iron binding and ferroxidase activity -L ferritin (liver) -Each complex has a combo of H and L ferritin.

What do basophil specific granules contain?

-Heparin -Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans -Histamine

What are some characteristics of the liver that aid in cholesterol regulation?

-Highest level of HMG-CoA synthase and reductase activity -Expresses majority of body's LDL receptors -Site for conversion of cholesterol to bile acids

How are bile acids transported?

-Ileal absorption is mediated by apical Na+-dependent bile acid transporters (ASBT or SLC10A2). -Ileal enterocyte to blood is mediated by anion exchange proteins (OSTa-OSTb). -Blood to liver cells is mediated by Na+ taurocholate co-transporting polypeptide (NTCP or SLC10A1) and unconjugated by Na+-independent organic acid transporters (SLC01A2, SLC01B1, SLC01B3). -Liver cell to bile is mediated by a bile salt export pump (BSEP) or ABCB11 (ABC transporter). Liver cholesterol is also lost to excretion via these pumps. Phospholipid loss is mediated by the MDR2 pump (ABCB4).

What are the five main functions of histamines?

-Increases gap junction space -Causes tissue congestion & swelling -Causes bronchoconstriction -Causes sneezing, watery eyes, itching -Causes pressure & pain

What are four functions of leukotrienes?

-Increases vessel permeability and leakiness -Stimulates platelet aggregation -Stimulates neutrophils pavement -Act as powerful chemotactic signals for: monocytes macrophages neutrophils

What are some local factors that play a role in wound healing?

-Infection status -Mechanical and functional status -Foreign bodies -Size, location and type of wound

What is Chronic (Persistent) Inflammation?

-Inflammation of prolonged duration (weeks to years) in which active inflammation, tissue destruction and attempts at repair procede simultaneously -May or may not follow acute inflammation -Frequently has insidious onset

Each monomer of fatty acid synthase contains what?

-Ketoacylsynthase -Acetyltransferase -Malonyltransacylase -Hydratase -Enoyl reductase -Ketoacyl reductase -Thioesterase -ACP

What are some factors of unassociated transport?

-Ketone bodies (b-hydroxybutrate and acetoacetate) -All are water soluble so there is no need for ancillary transport or carrier molecules.

Why do people lose or never attain health care literacy?

-Lack of educational opportunity -Language barriers -Cognitive decline in older -Learning disabilities -Use it or lose it

What is yellow bone marrow?

-Less active or inactive in hematopoiesis -Color is due to presence of a large number of adipose cells. *Inactive bone marrow: The hemopoietically active red marrow has been replaced completely by fat. Ex: Adult long bones. *Partially active bone marrow: Approximately half the bone marrow has been replaced by fat. Ex: Adult ribs, vertebrae, pelvis, shoulder girdle. C = connective tissue S = sinusoids A = arteriole H = Hemopoietic Cord AC = Adipose Cel

What are some consequences of having low health care literacy?

-Less knowledge about chronic diseases -Increased hospitalization -Decreased use of preventive services -Lower compliance to therapy in HIV -Poorer outcomes in diabetes -EMBARRASSMENT, SHAME

What coenzymes are involved with oxidation-reduction?

-NAD+, NADP+ (hydride transfer) -FMN, FAD (hydrogen atom transfer) -Heme (e- transfer to O2) -vitamin C -vitamin K

What are the primary migratory cells in embryogenesis?

-Neural crest cells -Axons and dendrites -Differentiating cells to their target locations

What are some systemic factors that play a role in wound healing?

-Nutrition -Metabolic status -Circulatory status -Hormones -General health assessment

What populations are at risk for poor health care literacy?

-Older -Disadvantaged minorities -Immigrants -Low income -Chronic physical/mental conditions

What is different about mitochondrial fatty acid elongation vs elongation in the cytosol?

-Operates by reversal of the pathways of b-oxidation with the exception of the last step. -Requires acetyl-CoA and both NADH and NADPH as electron donors. -NADPH-linked enoyl-CoA reductase replaces FAD-linked acyl CoA dehydrogenase (b-oxidation). Prefers 16:0 -System primarily elongate short chain fatty acids to palmitate.

What are some behaviors & responses that may indicate limited literacy?

-Patient forms incomplete or inaccurate -Frequently missed appointments -Unable to name medications, errors in taking meds -Written materials handed to person accompanying patient -"I forgot my glasses, I'll read this later." -"I forgot my glasses, Can you read this to me?"

The best targets for antimicrobials are those that occur in a bacteria and not in the host. What are come common targets?

-Peptidoglycan -DNA, chromosome, replication -Metabolism -RNA synthesis -Translation

What are some common settings of chronic inflammation?

-Persistent infection, delayed hypersensitivity -Prolonged exposure to toxic agents -Auto-immunity

What are five mediators on inflammation?

-Prostaglandins -Histamine -Thromboxanes -Leukotrienes -Cytokines

What are three tools to help one measure health care literacy?

-REALM - Rapid Estimate of Adult Literacy in Medicine -TOFHLA - Test of Functional Health Literacy in Adults -Comprehending food labels

What hematopoietic cells and precursors are found in the bone marrow?

-Red Blood Cells (Erythropoiesis) -Granulocytes (Granulopoiesis) -Monocytes -Lymphocytes -Megakaryotocytes (Platelets)

What non-hematopoietic cell are contained in the bone marrow?

-Reticular Cells - ECM, Growth Factors, Cytokines -Osteoclasts and Osteoblasts -Adipose Cells -Macrophages -Mast Cells

Describe some similarities and differences between fatty acid elongation in the ER vs the cytosol.

-Similar to that catalyzed by cytosolic fatty acid synthase, but uses CoA rather than ACP. -Requires malonyl-CoA and NADPH as an electron donor. -Preferred substrate is palmitoyl-CoA -Primary product is stearic acid (18:0).

What is the role of red bone marrow?

-Site of active hemopoiesis -Color is due to presence of blood and blood forming cells -Main functions: • Production of blood cells • Destruction of red blood cells • Storage of iron (in macrophages) - derived from the breakdown of hemoglobin S = sinusoids Arrows = Macrophages MK = Megakaryocytes

What factors modify the rate at which a drug leaves the site of administration?

-Solubility -Absorbing Surface Area -Concentration of Drug -Circulation -Anatomical Location

Longer chain fatty acids can occur in mammals how?

-These can be taken in from dietary sources -Mammals can also make these fatty acids de novo (mitochondria or cytosol) -The fatty acid being elongated must be coordinated with CoA (an acyl-CoA)

What is polygenic inheritance?

-Traits affected by many genes (polygenic) -Are also affected by environmental factors -Inheritance patterns do not fit usual Mendelian ratios -Includes a large number of heritable traits : Height, Weight, Running speed, etc. -Results from a combination of small variations in genes and environmental factors that can predispose to a congenital anomaly (in disease states such as diabetes or obesity.

Saturated fatty acids longer than 22 carbon atom can also be made in the peroxisome. How?

-Uses peroxisomal-derived acetyl-CoA to make peroxisomal malonyl-CoA -Longer saturated fatty acid occur in a tissue specific manner and used in the formation of sphingolipids and ether phospholipids.

What are the five main functions of prostaglandins?

-Vasodilation (PGE2, PDG2) -Bronchodilation (PGI2) -Enhances Vessel Permeability -Directly Cause Pain -Induces Fever

What are the fat soluble vitamins?

-Vitamin A -Vitamin D -Vitamin E -Vitamin K

What are the four main families of the ATP-dependent chromatin remodelers?

1. SWI/SNF 2. NURF 3. NuRD 4. INO80

Define disease.

An objective biological event involving anatomic/physiologic disruption cause by a pathology

How many protons are required to synthesize each ATP?

3

What are some misunderstandings about culture?

-≠ race, ethnicity - can't look at a person and know their -culture -All belong to many cultures -All within a culture not the same -Not static - acculturation

How many protons are required to translocate each ATP out of the mitochondrion?

1

What happens during the lateral fold portion of development?

1) Growth of the spinal cord and somites forces the lateral edges of the embryo to move ventrally and then ventromedially to form a cylindrical embryo. 2) Some endoderm & yolk sac is incorporated into the embryo to form the midgut during this process. 3) Eventually, ventral medial movement of the lateral folds reduces the size of the connection between the midgut and the yolk sac. This reduced connection is termed the yolk stalk. 4) Ventrolateral folds eventually fuse medially everywhere except at the yolk stalk and connecting stalk. Helps establish the future body cavities. 5) The amnion eventually enfolds the yolk stalk and the connecting stalk during this process to form the lining of the umbilical cord.

What are the rules for x-linked dominant traits?

1. All affected males have an affected mother 2. All affected fathers have an affected daughter 3. No sons of affected fathers are affected.

The most active form of Vitamin D is what?

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3)

How do Microsomal Mixed Function Oxidase(MFO) Systems work?

1. 2 e-reduce drug-P450 and O2 2. Forms activated O2-P450-substrate complex 3. Transfers O2 forming H2O and oxidized product

What are some examples of sex chromosome non-disjunction/aneuploidy?

1. 47, XXX - female; normal appearance, fertile, 15 - 25% have some cognitive impairment 2. 47, XXY - male, Klinefelter syndrome, infertile 3. 47, XYY - male; normal appearance, some evidence for elevated growth rate 4. 45, X - female; Turner syndrome; due to non-disjunction during spermatogenesis

How is the vertebral column divided up?

1. 7 cervical 2. 12 thoracic 3. 5 lumbar 4. 5 sacral 5. 4 coccygeal

The placenta is a fetomaternal organ that is comprised of 2 components. What are they?

1. A fetal portion that develops from the chorionic sac 2. A maternal portion that develops from the endometrium of the uterus

Describe the ABC family of transporters.

1. ATP-binding cassette transporter superfamily 2. Members of this superfamily of membrane proteins contain a conserved ATP-binding domain 3. Use the energy of ATP hydrolysis to drive the transport -Binding of ATP changes conformation -ATP hydrolysis does not lead to phosphorylation of the transporter

The median nerve is called the "laborers nerve" in the hand. What is its motor nerve distribution in the hand?

1. Abductor. pollicis brevis 2. Opponens pollicis 3. Flexor pollicis brevis (superficial head) 4. 1st & 2nd lumbricals

Discuss the participation of the GI tract in nutrition: include absorption and bacterial flora.

1. Absorption of foods or supplements 2. Impaired absorption leading to deficiencies -Impaired lipid absorption (example: biliary obstruction) (Vitamins A, D, E, and K) -Severe diarrhea -Competition for absorption (minerals) 3. Production from Bacterial flora -Vitamin K and biotin

What are the four basic functions of the epithelium?

1. Absorption; ex., intestinal columnar cells 2. Secretion; ex., gastric glands 3. Sensation; ex., taste buds, olfaction 4. Contraction; ex., myoepithelial cells

What changes occur to the connective tissue of the endometrium during decidulization?

1. Accumulation of glycogen and glycoproteins 2. Cells enlarge and stain lighter *influenced by high levels of progesterone

What are some dominantly inherited genetic conditions?

1. Achondroplasia (dwarfism) 2. Huntington's Disease (a neurological disorder) 3. Marfan Syndrome (tall, gangly stature) 4. Ehler-Danlos syndrome (a connective tissue disorder) 5. Neurofibromatosis (tumor-like growths on the body)

What three structures can make up the cytoskeleton?

1. Actin filaments 2. Intermediate filaments 3. Microtubules

If a liver, heart, or muscle cell is going to use fatty acids for energy production, what three things must occur?

1. Activation 2. Transport in mitochondria 3. Oxidation

What are the three stages of inflammation?

1. Activation of macrophages/mast cells: Releases mediators of inflammation (chemokines, cytokines, etc). 2. Vasodilatation: Increase in diameter of blood vessels allows fluid, proteins, and cells to pass into tissues. 3. Inflammatory cell migration: leads to phagocytosis or activation of the complement system.

Flux through the TCA cycle depends on what?

1. Activity of the rate-limiting enzymes - can be changed by allosteric effectors of enzyme activity 2. The concentration of cycle intermediates - anaplerotic reactions replete cycle and some biosynthetic reactions take intermediates out of the cycle 3. Cellular needs for ATP

What are the three functions of neutrophils?

1. Acute Inflammatory Response to Tissue Injury -Cell surface activated in response to injury -Cells roll along surface of endothelium -Squeeze between endothelial cells and migrate to wound 2. Highly Motile - generally first at wound site 3. Highly Phagocytic - engulfs foreign cells and bodies

How are fatty acids oxidated?

1. Acyl‐CoA dehydrogenase 2. Enoyl‐CoA hydratase 3. 3‐L‐hydroxy‐CoA dehydrogenase 4. beta-ketoacyl‐CoA thiolase

What is the cAMP cascade?

1. Adenylate cyclase generates cAMP 2. cAMP activates protein kinase A 3. Protein kinase A enters the nucleus and phosphorylates proteins

What are the four major classes of plasma proteins?

1. Albumin 2. Globulins 3. Fibrinogen 4. Complement

What are the four plasma proteins?

1. Albumin 2. Globulins 3. Fibrinogen 4. Complement

What are two functions of albumin?

1. Colloid Osmotic Pressure - prevents blood from leaking out of vessels 2. Transports molecules

What are the branches of the ulnar artery?

1. Anterior and posterior ulnar recurrent arteries 2. Common interosseous artery -Interosseous recurrent artery - Posterior interosseous artery 3. Anterior interosseous artery

What are the steps in endogenous lipid transport?

1. ApoC-II and ApoE exchange occurs between nascent VLDL and HDL to allow triacylglycerol delivery (lipoprotein lipase) 2. Function of VLDL and IDL is primarily the delivery of triacylglycerol to extrahepatic tissue (similar to chylomicron). 3. Function of LDL is the delivery of cholesterol to peripheral tissues that require cholesterol for membrane function or steroid hormone synthesis (adrenals and gonads) or returned to liver to be recycled into nascent VLDL mediated by ApoB-100 and ApoE receptors (LDL receptors). 4. In the circulation cholesteryl ester and triacylglycerol exchange occurs between HDL and VLDL and LDL. Catalyzed by cholesteryl ester transfer protein (CETP). -CETP synthesized/secreted by the hepatocyte -Expression induced by diet induced hypercholesterolemia (Fed state). 5. Phospholipid exchange occurs via phospholipid transfer protein (PLTP).

Rules of Autosomal Dominance Inheritance

1. Appears in both sexes with equal frequency 2. Both sexes transmit the trait to their offspring 3. Trait Does not skip generations 4. Affected offspring must have an affected parent unless they posses a new mutation 5. When one parent is affected (het.) and the other parent is unaffected, approx. 1/2 of the offspring will be affected 6. Unaffected parents do not transmit the trait

Rules of Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

1. Appears in both sexes with equal frequency 2. Trait tend to skip generations 3. Affected offspring are usually born to unaffected parents 4. When both parents are heterozygous, approx. 1/4 of the progeny will be affected 5. Appears more frequently among the children of consanguine marriages

How does the processing of the 3' end of RNA occur?

1. As the RNA Pol nears the end of the gene, the CTD sequesters factors needed to process the 3' end 2. CPSF binds to the AAUAAA sequence 3. CstF binds to the GU rich sequence 4. Another factor cleaves the RNA at the CA sequence between the AAUAAA and GU sequence 4. poly-A polymerase adds many adenosines to the end and poly-A binding proteins bind to them

What are the steps in targeting to the ER?

1. As the protein emerges from the ribosome, a signal recognition particle (SRP) recognizes a signal sequence on the protein and binds to it, halting translation 2. The SRP escorts the complex to the RER and binds to an SRP receptor 3. GTP binds and the signal sequence is transferred from the SRP to the translocon 4. The signal sequence binds to the neck of the translocon and the gate opens 5. The protein is translated into the ER lumen, and the siganal sequence is cleaved

What are the four branches of the inferior thyroid artery?

1. Ascending cervical 2. Inferior laryngeal 3. Esophageal/tracheal 4. Glandular branches to thyroid

What is the villous chorion?

1. At 5 weeks it extends around the chorion 2. They expand in the region associated with the decidua basalis 3. Becomes smooth chorion as they are lost in the region associated with the decidua capsularis

What are the four branches of the thoracoacromial trunk?

1. Atlantic - Acromial 2. City - Clavicular 3. Police - Pectoral 4. Department - Deltoid

What are two types of cytoplasmic granules?

1. Azurophilic (Primary) Granules * LYSOSOMES - contain acid hydrolyases 2. Specific (Secondary) Granules * Have Specific Function for each Granulocyte * Stain: Neutral, Eosinophilic or Basophilic

How do insulators stop the spread of heterochromatin?

1. Barrier elements block the linear spread of silenced chromatin from the reporter gene 2. Enhancer blocking elements interfere with enhanced transcription when placed between the enhancer and a promoter 3. Can flank a transgene and generate a functionally independent domain protected from enhancers and silencers

The basal surface of the epithelia is characterized by several functionally important characteristics like what?

1. Basal Lamina. Underlying all epithelial sheets whether simple or stratified is a basal lamina. The basal lamina is composed of collagen types, IV, VII, XIII, and XV as well as glycoproteins including laminin, enactin and proteoglycans. 2. Cell to cell extracellular matrix junctions; comprised of focal adhesion sites and hemidesmosomes. Anchoring fibrils extend from hemidesmosomes into the underlying extracellular matrix to increase adhesion. 3. Basal membrane surface involutions; these infoldings serve to increase surface area between cell membrane and extracellular matrix.

What three muscles are contained in the anterior osteofascial compartment of the arm? In general, what is their action?

1. Biceps brachii 2. Coracobrachialis 3. Brachialis Action: Flexion

What are the functions of erythrocytes?

1. Bind Oxygen and Deliver O2 to Tissues 2. Exchange Oxygen for Carbon Dioxide and Remove CO2 from Tissues

What are the steps in nucleotide excision repair (NER)? Include the enzymes involved.

1. Binding of a multi-protein complex at the damaged site (UvrA and UvrB) 2. Double incision of damaged strand, 8 nucleotides away from DNA damage on both sides (UvrC and UvrB) 3. Removal of the damage-containing oligonucleotide from between the two nicks (UvrD) 4. Filling of the gap with DNA Pol I 5. Ligation of the nick by DNA ligase *UVRA-B-C-D-Pol-Lig

Describe the Ser/Thr kinase activation of SMAD?

1. Binding of the ligand induces dimerization. 2. Serine/threonine are phosphorylated 3. Activation of SMAD by phosphorylation 4. SMAD oligomerize and regulate gene expression.

What are four important pharmacokinetic relationships?

1. Bioavailability (F): Fraction of drug dose absorbed into systemic circulation 2. Clearance (CL): Measure of the body's ability to eliminate a drug 3. Volume of Distribution (Vd): Measure of apparent body volume that contains total drug dose 4 .Half Life (t1/2): Time required to eliminate 50% [drug] from the body

What is the allantois and what does it become?

1. Blood formation during weeks 3-5. 2. Its blood vessels will persist as the umbilical vein and arteries. 3. Associated with the development of the urinary bladder. 4. As the bladder enlarges, it forms a tube called the urachus. After birth the urachus becomes the medial umbilical ligament which extends from the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus.

Rules of X-linked dominant inheritance.

1. Both males and females are affected; often more females than males are affected 2. Does not skip generations 3. Affected sons must have an affected mother 4. Affected daughters must have either an affected mother or an affected father 5. Affected fathers will pass the trait on to all their daughters 6. Affected mothers if heterozygous will pass the trait on to 1/2 of their sons and 1/2 of their daughters

What are the three main arteries that supply the forearm?

1. Brachial artery 2. Radial artery 3. Ulnar artery

Why are maintaining blood glucose levels so important?

1. Brain and RBCs have an absolute requirement for glucose 2. Glucose is essential for triglyceride formation in adipocytes 3. All cells need to synthesize glycoproteins and produce pentoses for nucleotide synthesis

What are some steps to improve adherence?

1. Build relationships 2. Seek an agreement 3. Address anxiety, depression, psychosocial, living situation 4. Support patient education

What are the steps in receptor mediated endocytosis?

1. CCV (clathrin coated vesicle) with AP2 form at the plasma membrane 2. Vesicle scission from the plasma membrane 3. Clathrin coat disassembly 4. Vesicle Fusion with Early Endosomes (slightly acidic) 5. Some receptors and phospholipids recycle Back to Plasma Membrane 6. Maturation of Early Endosomes to Late Endosomes (moderately acidic) 7. CCV with AP1 bud from the TGN (trans-Golgi-network), then fuse with early or late endosomes and lysosome formation begins! 8. Recycling of Mannose-6-Phosphate (M6P) Receptor from Endosomes back to TGN 9. Lysosome Formation (very acidic) is complete when a "full complement" of acid hydrolyases and a pH ~5 has been obtained / reached.

What are some examples of cell to cell interactions that play a role in differentiation and determination?

1. Cadherins 2. Immunoglobulin superfamily CAMS 3. Gap junctions

What are the four major families of CAM? Describe them.

1. Cadherins: Regulate growth and cell differentiation. Control cell recognition and embryonic cell migration. 2. Integrins: Regulate cell to cell adhesion. Control cell movement and shape. Participate in cell growth and differentiation. 3. Selectins: Mediate leucocyte to endothelial cell interactions 4. Immunoglobulins: Mediate lymphocyte movement into lymphatic tissue. Cell adhesion and differentiation. Cancer and tumor metastasis. Angiogenesis.

How do cell-substrate interactions regulate differentiation and determination (matrix)?

1. Can form barriers 2. Migration 3. Cell guidance* 4. Source of cell signals 5. Cell sorting

What are the mechanisms of inhibition in drug metabolism?

1. Competition of co-administered drugs for the same P450 enzyme -reversal is quick (h) after discontinuation 2. Drug metabolites also can competitively inhibit P450 enzymes 3. Suicide inhibition by a parent drug or metabolites irreversibly bind hememoiety of P450 enzymes -slow reversal (days)

What makes up the blood supply to the elbow?

1. Deep brachial a. (profunda) 2. Superior ulnar collateral a. 3. Inferior ulnar collateral a. 4. Radial a. -Radial recurrent a. 5. Ulnar a. -Ant. ulnar recurrent a. -Post. ulnar recurrent a

What are the steps of fatty acid synthesis in eukaryotes?

1. Carbohydrate metabolized to pyruvate then acetyl-CoA 2. Acetyl-CoA from mitochondria is transferred to cytosol 3. Acetyl-CoA is carboxylated to malonyl-CoA (regulated step catalyzed by acetyl CoA carboxylase) 4. Synthesis of fatty acids from malonyl-CoA by fatty acid synthase complex (multifunctional protein) (Can also get fatty acids synthesis in the mitochondria from acetyl-CoA) 5. Synthesis of mono- and polyunsaturated fatty acids from de novo and dietary sources.

What is the order in which mesoderm ingresses or maps?

1. Cardiac and extraembryonic 2. Notochord, head mesoderm, somites, intermediate mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm

What are some potential problems with case control studies?

1. Cases and controls may not remember or may selectively remember (recall bias) 2. Dietary status or recall may be influenced by the disease, not vice-versa (reverse causality)

What is the function of cdks in the cell cycle?

1. Cdks phosphorylate proteins that are involved in the cell cycle. 2. Cyclin-dependent kinase activity is regulated by cdk binding to cyclins to form a functional complex

What is the insertion of the extensor digitorum?

1. Central band = base of middle phalanx 2. Lateral bands = base of distal phalanx 3. Extensor expansion (hood) on dorsum of phalanges of medial four digits

What are four examples of repetitive DNA classes?

1. Centromeric 2. Variable Number Tandem Repears 3. Transposons 4. Microsatellite

What are the four parts of the vertebral artery?

1. Cervical 2. Vertebral 3. Suboccipital 4. Intracranial

How many segmental divisions (spinal nerves) are there for each region of the spinal cord?

1. Cervical 8 (C1 - C8) 2. Thoracic 12 (T1 - T12) 3. Lumbar 5 (L1 - L5) 4. sacral 5 (S1 - S5) 5. Coccygeal 1 (C1)

What are some phenotypic consequences of copy number variation (CNV)?

1. Change in copy number. For some genes, this may not have much an effect, for others, the effect can be considerable (lethal) 2. Genes at a new location may alter its expression due to surrounding enhancer elements and/or local chromatin conformation (e.g hetero vs euchromatin). 3. Deletion could manifest a recessive allele on other chromosome.

What blocks polyspermy?

1. Change in the egg membrane 2. Cortical reaction - release of cortical granules. Contents alter the zona pellucida so that the sperm cannot bind and penetrate it

Describe gap junctions.

1. Channels between two plasma membranes on adjacent cells 2. Protein complexes called connexons form the channels 3. Allows small molecules and ions to move from cytoplasm of one cell to the cytoplasm of neighboring cell 4. Couple cells both electrically (ions) and metabolically (small molecules)

What are three ways genes can be regulated?

1. Chromatin modification 2. DNA methylation 3. Non-coding RNAs

Where does the acetyl CoA and NADPH supply for fatty acid synthesis come from?

1. Citrate transport system is needed to transport acetyl-CoA to cytosol 2. Pentose phosphate pathway is needed to generate NADPH 3. Glucose is necessary for the production of all of the above. 4. Entry of carbon atoms into de novo fatty acid synthesis regulated by acetyl-CoA carboxylase.

What are the three types of vesicles?

1. Clathrin 2. COPI 3. COPII

What are the functions of peroxisomes?

1. Clearing Toxic Substances (E.g. catalase activity) 2. Breakdown of fatty acids, amino acids and uric acid via oxidation reactions 3. Lipid Biosynthesis (E.g. bile acids)

What are the two major targeting pathways?

1. Co-translational - sorting mechanism begins while protein is still being synthesized on the ribosome 2. Post-translational - sorting mechanism occurs after protein is fully synthesized in the cytosol

What happens directly after fertilization?

1. Completion of Meiosis II and extrusion of the second polar body. 2. Sperm nucleus and a centriole enter the oocyte cytoplasm. Sperm nucleus enlarges and becomes the male pronucleus. The centriole organizes into a centrosome. 3. Oocyte nucleus also enlarges and becomes the female pronuclei. 4. Male and female pronuclei move close together, chromosomes duplicate, the sperm derived centrosome duplicates, the pronuclear envelopes breakdown and a spindle forms. The chromosomes then align on the spindle and the first cleavage division occurs.

What are the components of each of the four complexes of the electron transport change?

1. Complex I - NADH dehydrogenase, FMN, and Fe-S centers 2. Complex II - Succinate dehydrogenase, FAD, Fe-S centers, b-type heme 3. Complex III - Cytochrome complex, 2 b-type hemes, Fe-S center, c-type heme 4. Complex IV - cytochrome complex, 2 a-type hemes, Cu ions

What are some characteristics of vitamins?

1. Complex, small organic substances required in very small quantities in diet relative to other nutrients 2. They are essential - can't be produced by our own tissues at all or in sufficient quantities under normal conditions 3. Are classified by solubility

What conditions are necessary for a valid clinical enzyme lab assay?

1. Consistent pH, temperature 2. Saturating substrate concentrations throughout the reaction time (zero order kinetics) 3. Linear relationship between [E] and vo

What is the function of the mitochondrial matrix?

1. Contains enzymes of the TCA cycle and fatty acid oxidation 2. Where the formation of ketone bodies take place 3. Houses the mitochondrial DNA and gene expression machinery

What are three ways that F-actin can be organized within a cell?

1. Contractile bundles (F-actin, myosin II, and a-actinin) 2. Gel-like network (F-actin, ARP 2/3, cofilin in disassembly) 3. Tight parallel bundle

What are four functions of complement?

1. Control Inflammation 2. Activate Macrophages 3. Lytic Membrane Attack 4. Bind Mast Cells

What is the musculocutaneous motor nerve distribution?

1. Coracobrachialis 2. Biceps brachii 3. Brachialis

What are two main classes of drugs used to control inflammation?

1. Corticosteroids 2. NSAIDs

What two processes contribute to genetic variation in gametogenesis?

1. Crossing over 2. Random assortment

What are some recessively inherited genetic conditions?

1. Cystic Fibrosis (respiratory disorder) 2. Phenylketonuria (a disorder of amino acid metabolism) 3. Sickle-cell anemia (hemoglobin disorder) 4. Tay-Sachs disease (lipid storage disorder)

What two enzymes are needed for the Microsomal Mixed Function Oxidase(MFO) System?

1. CytochromeP450 Reductase 2. CytochromeP450

What two things control osteoclast activity?

1. Cytokines - osteoclast stimulating factor 2. Hormones: Calcitonin - acts on osteoclasts to decrease absorptive activity occurring at the Howships lacunae PTH - binds to osteoblasts which releases osteoclast stimulating factor which acts on osteoclasts to increase absorptive activity

The trophoblast proliferates and develops into what two layers?

1. Cytotrophoblast - inner layer; source of new cells for the syncytiotrophoblast. 2. Syncytiotrophoblast - outer layer; multinucleated mass with no distinct cell boundaries i.e. a syncytium. They invade the endometrium. Occurs through the elaboration of finger-like projections into the endometrium and the secretion of enzymes and other compounds that breakdown the endometrial tissue.

What are the steps to base excision repair (BER)? Include the enzymes involved.

1. DNA N-glycosylase (OGG1) finds and removes the incorrect base 2. APE-1 nicks the damaged DNA strand 3. DNA Polymerase-beta extends the 3' OH terminal 4. DNA is sealed by ligase (E.g. oxo-dG) *OGG1 - APE1 - Pol B - Ligase

Variable number tandem repeats (VNTR) are used primarily for what two things?

1. DNA fingerprinting for forensic identification and paternity testing 2. To study genetic diversity

What are five factors that influence nucleosome positioning?

1. DNA preference for the nucleosomes themselves 2. DNA methylation 3. Histone variants and post-translational modifications 4. Higher order chromatin structure 5. The action of chromatin remodelers and DNA-binding proteins

What are the five functions of chromatin?

1. DNA recombination 2. DNA replication 3. Gene expression 4. DNA repair 5. Gene silencing

Describe what happens with a Holliday Junction in homologous recombination?

1. DNAs are aligned and nicked (recBCD) 2. Nicked strands cross over to complementary strand (RuvA binding) and pairing (recA) 3. Branch migration and resolve (RuvB migration, RuvC resolvase) 4. Nicks are sealed (DNA ligase) 5. Exchange strands and ligate. The intermediate newly formed is called a Holliday intermediate or Holliday structure 6. Resolve the structure. There are two ways to separate the DNAs: If the same strands are cleaved a second time then the original two DNA molecules are generated. If the other strands are cleaved, then recombinant molecules (gaining info from another DNA) are generated

What happens in telophase of mitosis?

1. Daughter nuclei reform 2. Spindle disappears 3. Nucleolus reappears

The decidua refer to a pregnant uterus. What are the three decidua layers and what do they surround?

1. Decidua capsularis - caps the embryo on the uterine side 2. Decidua basalis - covers the embryo on the maternal side/deep to the site of implantation (will form the maternal portion of the placenta) 3. Decidua parietalis - everything else

What is the effect of mitochondrial poisons on the ETC?

1. Decrease ATP synthesis 2. Uncouplers destroy the coupling mechanism. Mitochondria will increase electron transfer (respiration) in an attempt to compensate 3. The three other types of inhibitors will directly (ETC inhibitors) or indirectly (phosphorylation and transport inhibitors) decrease electron flow and respiration

What five arteries come off of the brachial artery?

1. Deep artery of the arm (profunda brachii) 2. Superior ulnar collateral artery 3. Inferior ulnar collateral artery 4. Radial artery 5. Ulnar artery

What are the steps in glucose sparing in heart and skeletal muscle?

1. During fasting (or exercise) acetyl‐CoA carboxylase activity and malonyl‐CoA concentrations are low thus increasing mitochondrial beta-oxidation. 2. Increasing mitochondrial ‐oxidation increases the ratio of acetyl‐CoA and NADH. An increase in acetyl‐CoA and NADH will inhibit mitochondrial pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) activity. 3. Inhibiting PDH while increasing acetyl‐CoA will increase mitochondrial and cytosolic citrate. An increase in cytosolic citrate will inhibit phosphofructose kinase (PFK) that will lead to the accumulation of glucose‐6‐phosphate. 4. The accumulation of glucose‐6‐phosphate will result in the negative feedback inhibition of hexose kinase and GLUT4 activity. This will act to ultimately "spare" glucose oxidation in the muscle for other tissues

What are the steps in elongation?

1. EF-TU (EF1) recognizes and escorts the AA-tRNA to the A-site 2. Initially it binds in a bent conformation, and if its correct, GTP hydrolyzes, and its able to snap into a straight formation 3.EF-GU couples GTP to the ribosome and the process moves on to the next codon

What are some important features of RNA Pol II promoters?

1. Each gene has its own promoter 2. It can include numerous regulatory sequences (cis-elements) many nucleotides away that are used in certain cells and/or at certain times 3. They may need enhancers or silencers 4. They are very large

What are the advantages of an ecological study?

1. Ecologic status can be a good source of hypotheses about the causes of disease at the individual level 2. They are relatively inexpensive and can be performed relatively quickly

What are the three primary germ layers?

1. Ectoderm 2. Endoderm 3. Mesoderm

In order for fats to be absorbed by the small intestine, they must be acted on by bile acids. What are two functions of these bile acids on dietary fats?

1. Emulsification of lipid aggregates - emulsifies fat globules into minute, microscopic droplets. It greatly increases the surface area of lipids, making it available for digestion by lipases 2. Solubilization and transport - bile acids solubilize lipids by forming micelles that can remain suspended in water - they can then carry them

What are four types of intercellular communication? Know what each one involves.

1. Endocrine - synthesized in one tissue or gland and travel through general circulation to reach distant target cells that express gene receptors 2. Paracrine - secreted by a cell and travel a relatively short distance to interact with receptors on a neighboring cell 3. Neuronal 4. Contact-dependent

What are the three embryonic germ layers and what do they become?

1. Endoderm - trachea, lungs, liver 2. Mesoderm - endothelia 3. Ectoderm - mouth, esophagus, nose

What is the function of the inner mitochondrial membrane?

1. Energy conservation via electron transport 2. The proton gradient 3. ATP synthesis

What are the metabolic functions of nucleotides?

1. Energy metabolism: ATP 2. Nucleic acid synthesis: NTPs, dNTPs 3. Physiological mediators: Ado, ADP, cAMP, cGMP 4. mRNA capping: GTP 5. Amino acid hydroxylation: GTP to BH4 6. Coenzymes: NAD, FAD, FMN, CoA 7. Activated intermediates: UDP-glucose, CDP-choline, AdoMet, PAPS 8. Allosteric effectors: ATP, AMP, dATP

What are two ways in which we get vitamins and minerals from processed food?

1. Enriched - nutrients removed are added back at original levels 2. Fortified - nutrients are put back at levels beyond the original level

What are some features of enzymes as markers of tissue damage? Give an example.

1. Enzymes ("liver enzymes", for example) become elevated in blood as a result of cellular/tissue damage 2. The magnitude, timing, and duration of the marker is dependent on protein size, intracellular concentration, subcellular location, and stability. 3. The most useful enzyme markers arise predominantly from the tissue or organ of interest 4. Timing of the enzyme's diagnostic window following acute tissue injury is important (E.g. CK-MB in the diagnoses of MI)

What are four important structures of the dermal-epidermal junction?

1. Epidermal rete ridges 2. Dermal papillae 3. Anchoring fibrils 4. Dermal microfibril bundles

What are the two layers of the integumentary system and where do they originate from?

1. Epidermis (from the ectoderm) 2. Dermis (from the mesoderm)

What are the three spaces in relation to the spinal meninges?

1. Epidural space - between the vertebral canal and the dura mater 2. Subdural space - between the dura mater and arachnoid mater (a potential space) 3. Subarachnoid space (between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater - filled with cerebrospinal fluid or CSF)

Why do doctors give epinephrine in the ER?

1. Epinephrine increases cAMP levels activates PKA 2. PKA activates MLCK 3. Increased cardiac muscle contractility 4. In Liver it breaksdown glycogen and thus increases blood glucose levels

How is HSL activity regulated by cAMP‐mediated phosphorylation in the fasted state?

1. Epinephrine, glucagon and ACTH oppose insulin and produce cAMP in an adipocyte 2. cAMP activates kinase A 3. Kinase A phosphorylates HSL and perilipin 4. Perilipin, which normally coats the fat, falls away and allows HSL to bind to TAG and recruits AGTL

What are the three main cell types in the blood?

1. Erythrocytes (red blood cells): 39-50% blood volume in men and 35-45% in women 2. Leukocytes (white blood cells) 3.Platelets (thrombocytes)

What are the steps in fracture repair?

1. Fractures cause destruction of bone matrix and nearby osteocytes. 2. Blood clot forms 3. Clot and damaged bone - removed by macrophages and the clot is replaced by a highly vascular granulation tissue 4. Periosteum and Endosteum undergo intense proliferation & form thick Ct that surrounds & penetrates the fracture 5. Periosteum & Endosteum can differentiate into: Chondroblasts or Osteoblasts 6. The blast cells then replace the fibrous tissue with hyaline cartilage known as the provisional callous. 7. The provisional callous is then strengthened by deposition of calcium salts. 8. Primary Bone forms by both intramembranous & endochondral ossification 9. Irregular trabeculae of bone bridge the edges of the fracture forming the Bone Callus 10. "Stress" to the bone aids in remodeling the primary bone & bone callus 11. Secondary mature lamellar bone them forms

Where to clathrin vesicles bud from/target to?

1. From TGN to Endosomes; CCV plus adaptin 1 (AP1) 2. From plasma membrane to early endosomes; CCV plus adaptin 2 (AP2) 3. FROM/TO TGN TO/FROM Secretory Vesicles for regulated secretion 4. FROM Endosomes TO TGN

Ethical Problem Solving operates in two different directions. What are they? Describe them.

1. From the General to the Specific: -Typical classroom approach -Takes a principle (universal) and forces it to give us an ethical conclusion 2. From the Specific to the General: -Typical real-life situation -Takes a decision we believe is right and tries to justify it by an ethical principle

Describe characteristics of ketone bodies.

1. Fuel molecules ‐ derived from excess acetyl‐CoA in the mitochondria of liver 2. Water soluble ‐ readily and quickly transported to other tissues for energy 3. Major source of energy for brain during extreme starvation, but can also be used to a lesser extent by skeletal muscle and kidney.

List and describe each of the cell cycle checkpoints.

1. G1 - checks for cell size and damaged DNA 2. G2 - Check for unreplicated or damaged DNA 3. M - checks for misaligned chromosomes

What are three major targeting mechanisms?

1. Gated-transport (nuclear pore) 2. Transmembrane transport (signal recognition and receptor) 3. Vesicular transport (ER to the Golgi)

How are genes distributed in a chromosome?

1. Gene density is higher in light, GC rich R-bands 2. Gene density is lower in dark, AT rich G-bands 3. Heterchromatin at centromeres has no genes

Drug clearance by the kidneys depends on what three things?

1. Glomerular filtration - dependent on bulk flow and drug fraction bound to plasma proteins (e.g., albumin) 2. Passive reabsorption in proximal and distal tubules - Non-ionized forms of drugs, pH dependent (urinary pH range is ~5-8), Useful in the treatment of drug poisoning (e.g.,"meth" case study) 3. Active proximal tubular secretion - Organic ions added to glomerular filtrate by active carrier-mediated secretion (e.g., multidrug transporter -MDT), Non-selective process

Triacylglycerols are synthesized in liver and adipose from what two compounds? Where do they come from?

1. Glycerol-3-phosphate -derived from dihydroxyacetone phosphate (glycolysis-fed state or glyceroneogenesis-fasted state) or directly from glycerol via glycerol kinase (liver). 2. Acyl-CoA -derived from lipoprotein lipase (fed state)

Glucose-6-p is a metabolite for what for processes?

1. Glycogen synthesis 2. Pentose phosphate pathway 3. Continuation through glycolysis 4. Glucose

What is the UNDSMHS objective on cultural competency?

1. Graduates will demonstrate sensitivity and respect for diversity of culture, religion, age, gender, sexual orientation, and physical disabilities. 2. Patient care skills: Create supportive environment Communicate effectively Address patient's understanding, concerns, fears Treat patients with...respect

What are the two types of leukocytes?

1. Granulocytes 2. Mononuclear leukocytes

What are two types of leukocytes?

1. Granulocytes 2. Mononuclear leukocytes

What tissues are derived from the endoderm?

1. Gut and its derivatives (lateral folding) 2. Thyroid 3. Lining of the respiratory tract 4. Liver and pancreas 5. Bladder

Why is breaking bad news so hard?

1. Hasn't been taught 2. Tendency to avoid emotion 3. Tendency to view emotions as negative 4. Emotion blurs the professional and the personal 5. The situation is painful for us

Describe the flow of nitrogen transport?

1. In times of energy need, protein is degraded, and the amino groups from the amino acids are transferred to Gln and Ala 2. Gln and Ala shuttle the amino groups to the liver where they are deaminated for the urea cycle, or they are shuttled to the kidneys for excretion 3. Carbon back bones are used for energy or transported to the liver for gluconeogenesis

What are the three types of T Cells? Describe each.

1. Helper - Stimulate B cells to produce antibodies 2. Suppressor - Diminish or suppress antibody production by B cells 3. Cytotoxic - Kill! Recognize virally infected or tumor cells via MHC I bound peptides, kill with lytic granules.

What are the three types of T Cells and what are their functions?

1. Helper - Stimulate B cells to produce antibodies 2. Suppressor - Diminish or suppress antibody production by B cells 3. Cytotoxic - Recognize virally infected or tumor cells via MHC I bound peptides and kill with lytic granules.

What are the four stages of healing in a simple bone fracture?

1. Hematoma formation (mass of clotted blood) at fracture site. Tissue in fracture site swells, very painful, obvious inflamation, and bone cells are dying. 2. Fibrocartilaginous callus develops over a 3 to 4 week period. This process involves; Capillary growth in the hematoma phagocytic cells invading and cleaning-up debri in injury site Fibroblasts and osteoblasts migrating into site and beginning reconstruction of bone . Note that the fibrocartilaginous callus serves to splint the fracture. 3. Bony callus begins forming after 3 to 4 weeks after injury and is prominent 2 to 3 months following the injury. Continued migration and multiplying of osteoblasts and osteocytes results in the fibrocartilaginous callus turning into a bony callus. 4. Remoldeling any excess material of the bony callus is removed and compact bone is laid down in order to reconstruct the shaft. Remoldeling is the final stage.

How is iron recycled from erythrocytes?

1. Heme is degraded in cytosol by heme oxygenase. 2. Released iron stored in ferritin or transported out through ferroportin 3. Macrophages use a GPI lipid tailed ceruloplasmin to oxidize Fe(II) to Fe(III) which is then bound by transferrin.

What do basophil specific granules contain?

1. Heparin 2. Chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans 3. Histamine

What regulates the enzymes of glycolysis?

1. Hexokinase (most tissues) 2. Glucokinase (liver) 3. Pyruvate Kinase 4. Phosphofructokinase (PFK-1)

What is the function of macrophages?

1. Highly Motile - 2nd at wound 2. Highly Phagocytic - aged cells 3. Process and Present Antigens

What are the functions of monocytes?

1. Highly Motile - 2nd at wound 2. Highly Phagocytic - aged cells 3. Process and Present Antigens *In the blood, they have NO function

Which eosinophil specific granules are responsible for modulating immediate type hypersensitivity reactions - allergic reactions?

1. Histaminase 2. Arylsulfatase

What are the two classes of chromatin remodelers?

1. Histone modifying 2. ATP-dependent

What are the six critical elements (qualities) of therapeutic PPR?

1. Honest/integrity 2. Respect 3. Empathy 4. Whole person knowledge 5. Quality of communication 6. Trust

What are three examples of TF regulation of differentiation and determination?

1. Hox genes - control segmental identity long the body axis (vertebral column) 2. Pax genes - regulate somite differentiation, neural tube and crest development 3. Basic helix-loop-helix genes - control muscle development, myogenic regulatory factors

What are the five phases of lipid digestion?

1. Hydrolysis of triacylglycerol to free fatty acid and monoacylglycerol in the intestinal lumen. 2. Solubilization by bile acids (detergents) and transport from intestinal lumen to surface of the lining epithelial cells 3. Uptake of Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerol into the epithelial cells and synthesis of triacylglycerol 4. Packing of triacylglycerol into chylomicrons 5.Exocytosis of chylomicrons from intestinal epithelial cells into the lymph

What are the functions of Vitamin C?

1. Hydroxylations of proline and lysine (essential for collagen) 2. Metabolism of Tyr in brain 3. Fe mobilization from spleen 4. Prevention of the toxic effects of some metals (cancer) 5. Ameliorates allergic responses 6. Can stimulate the immune system (so less respiratory infection)

What are the functions of basophils?

1. Immunological response to parasites including ticks and parasitic worms 2. Allergic reactions - mass release of histamine

What are some characteristics of dietary carbs?

1. Important energy source 2. Excess is stored as glycogen and triacylglycerol 3. Adaptation to varying levels is driven by glucagon and insulin

What are the steps in nuclear import?

1. Importin recognizes and binds the NLS on a cargo protein and transports it into the nucleus 2. Ran-GTP binds to the importin/protein complex which releases the protein 3. The importin/Ran-GTP complex exits the nucleus

What are some common causes of vitamin deficiencies?

1. Inadequate intake** 2. Malabsorption** 3. Impaired matabolism 4. Disruption of conezyme biosynthesis or regeneration 5. Lack of intestinal flora

What root makes up the middle trunk?

C7

What are some mechanisms to decrease cellular and/or circulating levels of cholesterol?

1. Increase efflux of cholesterol from the membrane to lipoproteins of low cholesterol potential, particularly to HDL, promoted by LCAT (lecithin:cholesterol acyltransferase). 2. Increase esterification of cholesterol by ACAT (acyl-CoA:cholesterol acyltransferase). Little free cholesterol is found within the cell, with the exception of membranes. 3. Utilization of cholesterol for synthesis of other steroids such as hormones or bile acids. 4. Decrease dietary intake of foods high in cholesterol. 5. Increase the transport of circulating cholesterol into the intestine (via ApoA-1/ABCG1). 6. Inhibit the cellular production of cholesterol (Statins).

What is the role of Cyclin B-cdk 1 in mitosis?

1. Increased levels promote entry in mitosis 2. Decreased levels are required for an exit from mitosis (M-phase checkpoint)

How does exercise affect blood glucose and insulin?

1. Increases gene expression 2. Increases AMPK activity and surface GLUT 4 levels 3. Lower blood sugar and insulin levels

What are three ways in which nucleosomes can be positioned?

1. Independent - they have their own defined positions on the DNA 2. Statistical - there is a positional barrier against which the nucleosomes order themselves 3. A combination of both independent and statistical

What three arteries come off of the thyrocervical trunk?

1. Inferior thyroid - supplies the thyroid and parathyroid glands, the pharynx, the esophagus, the larynx and the trachea. 2. Transverse cervical 3. Suprascapular

What is the flow of epiblasts in ingression and what to they become?

1. Ingressing epiblast cells initially insert into the hypoblast and proliferate to form intraembryonic endoderm. Contribute to the gut endoderm and prechordal plate. 2. Waves of ingressing epiblast cells later migrate between the epiblast and intraembryonic endoderm to form intraembryonic mesoderm.

What hormones control blood glucose?

1. Insulin - Promotes glucose uptake in muscle and adipose, Glycolysis and Glycogenesis 2. Glucagon and Epinephrine - Promote Glycogenolysis and Gluconeogenesis 3. Glucocorticoids - Promote Gluconeogenesis, amino acid mobilization, inhibition of glucose uptake in muscle and adipose

How is HSL activity regulated by cAMP-mediated phosphorylation in the fed state?

1. Insulin decreases cAMP levels and reduces phosphorylation of HSL and perilipin

Describe the interaction of insulin with its receptor.

1. Insulin secreted from pancreatic b cells, binds to the α-subunit of the receptor 2. Leads to conformational change that activates the β- subunit to undergo autophosphorylation on at least six tyrosine residues 3. The β-subunit is a membrane protein containing a tyrosine-specific protein kinase activity on its cytosolic domain. 4. The phosphorylation of tyrosine residues on the β-subunit activates the receptor tyrosine kinase 5. The insulin receptor tyrosine kinase (IRTK) catalyzes phosphorylation of tyrosine's on various cellular signaling proteins, including insulin receptor substrate-1 (IRS-1)

What hormones control glycolysis and gluconeogenesis?

1. Insulin: Induces Glucokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate Kinase Represses G6Pase, PEPCK, F-1,6-P2ase 2. Glucagon: Induces PEPCK, F-1,6-P2 ase, G6Pase Represses Glucokinase, Phosphofructokinase, Pyruvate kinase

What are the two forms of osteogenesis?

1. Intramembranous - de novo bone formation 2. Endochondral - bone formation within a cartilage model

What are the six parts of the medical history?

1. Introduction 2. CC 3. HPI 4. PMH 5. Family Hx 6. Social Hx

What are some properties of cytochrome P450 reducatase?

1. Is a flavoprotein supplying electrons from NADPH for oxidation reactions 2. Is the rate limiting step in Microsomal Mixed Function Oxidase(MFO) Systems (Phase I reaction)

Describe the function of the rough ER.

1. It functions in protein processing and folding 2. All ER, Golgi, lysosome, plasma membrane, and extracellular proteins target here 3. KDEL and KKXX are retention signals for proteins

What does DNA polymerase utilize to minimize errors?

1. It only polymerizes in the 5' to 3' 2. Has 3' to 5' exonucleolytic proofreading 3. Strand-directed mismatch repair

The stratum spinosum has what four cell types?

1. Keratinocyte 2. Melanocyte, 3. Langerhans' cell 4. Merkel cell.

What are the two types of granules in the stratum granulosum?

1. Kerato-hyalin granules contain filaggrin and tricohyaline which bind keratin filaments into organized tonofibrils. 2. Lamellar granules form the water-impermeable matrix consisting of an intracellular protein layer and an extracellular lipid barrier.

What are some ways in which mutations can affect enzyme activity?

1. Km usually increases 2. Kcat usually decreases 3. Protein is normal, but the amount is different 4. Decrease in stability 5. Decreased ability to form higher order structures 6. Change in solubility 7. Premature stop codon 8. Garbled sequence

What are five functions of endocytosis?

1.Acquiring Nutrients 2. Pathogen Entry 3. Clearance of aged or apoptotic cells 4. Receptor Regulation 5. Synaptic Transmission

What are the steps in the uptake of fatty acids from chylomicrons?

1. Lipoprotein lipases have APoC-II receptors that bind to APoC-II 2. This binding traps the chylomicron and activates an apoprotein lipase that hydrolizes TAG to glycerol and 3 fatty acids 3. Fatty acids enter the cells, are activate to acyl-CoA and are used for beta-oxidation in muscle or converted back to TAG in adipose 4. Glycerol returns to the liver for gluconeogenesis or TAG synthesis

What is the role of the proton pump in lysosomes?

1. Located within lysosomal membrane 2. Functions to actively concentrate H+ ions 3. Responsible for 100x higher concentration of H+ inside the lysosome

What are common characteristics of chronic inflammation?

1. Longer duration 2. Associated with the presence of lymphocytes and macrophages, and the infiltration of mononuclear cells/tissue destruction/fibrosis (E.g. Arthritis)

What are the stages in the maturation of lymphocytes?

1. Lymphoblast 2. Prolymphocyte 3. Mature Lymphocyte -T Cells - Thymus -B Cells - Bone Marrow, gut-associated lymphatic tissue, spleen -NK Cells - Bone Marrow

What is the sequential order of lymphocyte maturation?

1. Lymphoblast 2. Prolymphocyte 3. Mature lymphocyte **Unlike other cell types, lymphocytes can proliferate outside the bone marrow - mainly in tissues of the immune system.

What are two types of mononuclear leukocytes?

1. Lymphocytes 2. Monocytes

What are two types of mononuclear leukocytes?

1. Lymphocytes 2. Monocytes

What are some examples of mitopathies?

1. MERRF - myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers 2. MELAS - mitochondrial encephalopathy with lactic acidosis and stroke 3. NARP - neurogenic muscle weakness, ataxia and retinitis pigmentosa 4. LHON - Leber's hereditary optic neuropathy (may be autoimmune)

Describe tight junctions.

1. Mainly in epithelial cells 2. The closest known contacts between adjacent cells 3. Transmembrane proteins act as "molecular velcro" 4. Critical to the function of epithelial sheets as barriers between compartments

Which eosinophil specific granules are responsible for strong cytotoxic effects on parasites?

1. Major Basic Protein (MBP) 2. Eosinophil peroxidase (EPO) 3. Eosinophil cationic protein (ECP)

What do the eosinophil specific granules contain?

1. Major Basic Protein (MBP) 2. Eosinophil peroxidase (EPO) 3. Eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) 4. Histaminase 5. Arylsulfatase

List and describe the structures of the mitochondria.

1. Matrix (interior) - high concentration of enzymes for oxidative reactions (pyruvate and fatty acids) & site of citric acid cycle, site of genes (mtDNA), ribosomes, tRNAs 2. Inner membrane - folding of cristae creates a huge increase in the surface area of this membrane; impermeable barrier, principle site of ATP generation, electron transport chain oxidative reactions, contains H+ gradient that drives ATP synthase reactions 3. Outer membrane - porin allows molecules < 5 kD to pass 4. Intermembrane space - chemically equivalent to the cytosol

What happens in oogenesis at puberty.

1. Maturation of the primordial follicle (usually one per month) and Meiosis I is re-initiated in the oocyte. 2. Steps in follicle maturation (called folliculogenesis) are as follows: -Primary follicle: primary oocyte surrounded by one or more layers of cuboidal follicle cells. A zona pellucida surrounds the oocyte and separates it from the follicle cells. -Secondary follicle: primary oocyte, zona pellicuda and multiple layers of follicle cells. An antrum containing liquor folliculi is present in the layer of follicle cells. -Mature Graffian follicle: Follicle just before ovulation. The primary oocyte surrounded by the zona pellucida and a small layer of follicle cells (termed the corona radiata) undergoes the first meiotic division, giving rise to a secondary (2°) oocyte and a polar body.

Describe the early innervation of muscle in the limb.

1. Medially located motor neurons in the developing spinal cord project to the ventral muscle mass; laterally located motor neurons project to dorsal muscle mass - regulated by differential expression of regulatory signals (E.g. Lmx-1) 2. Formation of brachial and lumbosacral plexuses at the base of upper and lower limbs respectively, guided by cues from the limb bud 3) Sensory neurons follow motor neurons 4) Neural crest gives rise to Schwann cells and melanocytes *Brachial plexus

What are some factors that influence adherence?

1. Medication/treatment issues 2. Patient factors/beliefs 3. Patient/physician relationship

Describe the development of platelets.

1. Megakaryoblasts (15-50 μm in diameter): - Large ovoid or kidney shaped nucleus with many nucleoli present - Cytoplasm is homogeneous and intensely basophilic - This cell undergoes multiple rounds of endomitoses where the chromosomes replicate but the cell does not undergo cytokinesis. 2. Megakaryocyte (35-150 μm in diameter): - Huge cell in size - Nucleus is irregularly lobulated with no visible nucleoli - Mature megakaryocytes have numerous invaginations of the plasma membrane throughout the cytoplasm - this indicates the areas that can shed huge numbers of platelets. 3. Platelets (1.5-3.5 μm in diameter): - Are shed by fragmentation of the cytoplasm from megakaryocytes.

What is the origin of platelets?

1. Megakaryoblasts - 15-50 mm in diameter -Numerous nucleoli -Undergoes multiple rounds of endomitosis where the chromosomes replicate but the cell does not undergo cytokinesis 2. Megakaryocyte - 35-150 mm in diameter -Huge Cell -No Visible Nucleoli -Nucleus has many lobes 3. Platelets - 1.5-3.5 mm in diameter -Shed by fragmentation of Megakaryocytes

What are the two basic principles of ethics?

1. People have the ability to make meaningful decisions -Moral Autonomy 2. What is right (or wrong) in one situation is right (or wrong) in all other similar situations -Universal Applicability

What are the functions of cholesterol?

1. Membrane Component - maintains membrane dynamics (fluidity). Most of the free cholesterol is found associated within the membranes. Excess cholesterol within the cell is esterified by fatty acyl CoA:cholesterol acyl transferase (ACAT) 2. Precursor for Steroid Hormone Synthesis (physiological signaling) 3. Precursor for Bile Acid Synthesis (Lipid absorption and Excretion of cholesterol)

What are lysosomes?

1. Membrane enclosed organelles 2. Contain enzymes involved in degrading proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates and lipids 3. Are derived from endosomes and represent an intersection between the secretory and endocytosis pathways

What are the steps in autophagy?

1. Membrane nucleation and enclosure: of an organelle or small area of cytoplasm in a membrane most likely derived from the ER 2. Autophagosome formation: enclosed in a double lipid bilayer 3. Autolysosome formation: due to fusion with lysosome(s) 4. Degradation: of inner membrane and of engulfed intracellular material

What is the difference between merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine glands?

1. Merocrine - secrete their products through exocytosis of membrane bound vesicles (goblet) 2. Holocrine - cell fills with product and then spills its contents (sebaceous) 3. Apocrine - secretes through the discharge of free unbroken membrane bound secretory vesicles (breast and sweat)

What are the steps in intramebranous ossification?

1. Mesenchymal cells "condense" and osteoblasts differentiate from these condensed cells 2. Osteoblasts lay down matrix & alkaline phosphatase-containing vesicles, which begins the ossification process 3. Bone is laid down in trabeculae that fuse forming the primary spongiosa 4. Fusion process continues until bone is complete (E.g. fontanelles in infants)

What are the developmental steps in skeletal limb formation up to endochronral bone formation?

1. Mesenchyme (from somatic lateral plate mesoderm) condenses to form skeletal primordia 3) Skeletal primordia undergo chondrification first, under the influence of several different BMPs, some of which become restricted in their expression to the perichondrium and periosteum while others are expressed in the cartilaginous skeletal primordium. 4) Joints form by splitting of precartilagenous rods. Regulated by expression of Wnt14, Gdf-5 and Noggin 5) Bone primordia undergo ossification through endochondral bone formation.

What are four structures that F-actin helps shape?

1. Microvilli 2. Focal adhesions 3. Lamellopodia/Filopodia 4. Contractile ring

What are the stages in maturation of monocytes?

1. Monoblast 2. Promonocyte 3. Mature Monocyte 4. Macrophage -Monocyte that has entered CT -Increases in Size and becomes actively phagocytic

What is the sequential order of monocyte maturation?

1. Monoblast 2. Promonocyte 3. Mature monocyte 4. Macrophage - monocyte that has entered the connective tissue where it increases in size and becomes actively phagocytic.

How do ethical case studies help in ethical decision making?

1. Moral rehearsing: can examine our principles without external limitations or pressures and reduce confusion 2. Moral imagination: multi-perspectival and dialectical 3. Ethical experimentation: can control for the independent variable and push the limits of the ethical boundaries

What are some outcomes of good communication?

1. More accurate information 2. Increased satisfaction 3. Better adherence to treatment 4. Better physical outcomes 5. Fewer malpractice claims

Rules of X-linked recessive inheritance.

1. More males than females are affected 2. Affected sons are usually born to unaffected mothers, thus the trait skips generations 3. Approximately 1/2 of carrier mothers' sons are affected 4. It is never passed from father to son 5. All daughters of affected fathers are carriers

Describe the iron distribution in humans.

1. Most of the iron in humans is in erythrocytes 2. Remainder is predominately in macrophages, liver and other cells (myoglobin, cytochromes, Fe-S proteins etc.) 3. Plasma represents only a small fraction of iron (4 mg) and this iron is carried by transferrin

Describe synthesis in the smooth ER.

1. Most phospholipids, glycolipids and cholesterol are synthesized in the SER. 2. Synthesis occurs on the cytosolic side of the membrane. 3. Enzyme flippase catalyzes a reaction where phospholipids flip from cytosol to lumenal side of the SER membrane.

What is the fate of newly synthesize TAG in the liver, adipose, and muscle?

1. Muscle - stored for local use 2. Adipose - stored for release to other tissues 3. Liver - Newly synthesized TAG is packaged into very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) - analogous to the synthesis of chylomicrons in intestine but uses apolipoprotein ApoB100 instead of ApoB-48 - TAG is transported on VLDL to other tissue for use or storage in exactly the same manner as found with chylomicrons (ie. ApoC-II binding to lipoprotein lipase).

What are the steps in mismatch repair (MMR)? Include the enzymes involved.

1. MutS recognizes the mismatches and binds to them 2. MutL stabilizes the complex 3. MutS/MutL complex activates MutH and nicks the newly synthesized strand opposite the methylated old strand 4. MutU (UvrD) unwinds the DNA from the nick in the direction of the mismatch 5. DNA Pol repairs the gap 6. Nick is repaired by ligase *SLHDPL

What are the three types of granulocytes?

1. Neutrophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils

What are three types of granulocytes?

1. Neutrophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Basophils

What asked the question of "how much time do I have" after an adverse prognosis, what are some important things to remember?

1. Never avoid the question 2. Avoid precise answers - be vague 3. Assure them you are going to do everything you can

What are some histological characteristics of RBCs?

1. No nucleus 2. Cytoplasm had no organelles, pink/red cytoplasm that may or may not appear to have a "hole" in the center of the cell.

What are the two categories of NSAIDs?

1. Non-selective anti-inflammatory drugs. 2. Selective anti-inflammatory drugs, COX-2 inhibitors.

What are some characteristics of dietary fiber?

1. Not digested by our enzymes 2. Insoluble fiber - increase in stool bulk, decrease intestinal transport time (veggies, wheat, grain) 3. Soluble fiber - digestible by gut bacteria, decrease rate of gastric emptying and sugar uptake (fruit, oats, legumes)

What are two types of signal transduction?

1. Nuclear (Intracellular) Receptor 2. Cell Surface Receptor

List and describe the structures of the nucleus.

1. Nuclear envelope - separates nuclear contents from cytoplasm and provides a structural framework; disassembles and then reassembles during and after mitosis. 2. Inner nuclear membrane - associates with proteins unique to the nucleus 3. Outer nuclear membrane - continuous with the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) 4. Nuclear lamina - meshwork of lamins (intermediate filaments) and site of chromatin attachment 5. Nuclear pore complex - A large structure composed of ~100 proteins.

What happens in prometaphase of mitosis?

1. Nuclear envelope breaks down 2. Spindle microtubules enter nuclear region 3. Spindle microtubules attach to kinetochores - Astral microtubules - Interpolar microtubules - Kinetochore microtubules

What three features help distinguish blood cells?

1. Nucleus - presence, shape, how condensed it is Cytoplasm - size, color, presence of granules Size - use RBC as 'ruler'

What is the structure of a reticulocyte?

1. Nucleus: None 2. Cytoplasm: bluish stain of residual organelles 3. Size: close to size of RBC (slightly larger)

What are the two subtriangles of the posterior cervical triangle?

1. Occipital 2. Supraclavicular

What are some distinguishing features of leukocytes?

1. One nucleus with five lobes 2. Contains cytoplasmic granules 3. Slightly larger than a RBC

What happens in oogenesis before birth.

1. Oogonia form from primordial germs cells, proliferate and then enter meiosis I. At this point, the germ cell is termed a primary (1°) oocyte. 2. Primary oocytes arrest at Prophase I until puberty and no new primary oocytes are produced after birth. 3. A single layer of flattened follicle cells surrounds the primary oocyte and together these are termed a primordial follicle.

Drugs are distributed to interstitial and cellular fluids based on what?

1. Organ Size: Determines concentration gradient between blood and organ 2. Blood Flow: Important for rate of uptake into organ. Well perfused organs achieve high concentrations rapidly 3. Lipid solubility of drug 4. Binding to plasma proteins: albumin(acidic) and α1-acid glycoprotein(basic)

Describe the process of remodeling the Haversian system.

1. Osteoclasts bore a 200 uM tunnel or a cutting zone 2. A capillary loop and osteoblasts follow in the direction of the cutting zone forming a closing zone 3. The combined actions of the osteoclast resorption and the osteoblast deposition is referred to as the bone remodeling unit 4.The successive lamellae are deposited from the periphery inward by the osteoblasts 5. Older osteons are more mineralized than younger osteons through progressive secondary mineralization

What are some common examples of referred pain?

1. Pain from the gall bladder radiates to the right shoulder 2. Pain from the heart radiates to the medial side of the left arm 3. Pain from the stomach radiates to the interscapular region of the back

What two important processes happen in prophase I?

1. Pairing of homologous chromosomes 2. Recombination/crossing over

What are the five vitamin derived coenzymes of the Citric Acid Cycle?

1. Panthothenic acid - CoA* 2. Thiamine - thiamine pyrophosphate** on PDH 3. Lipoic acid - lipoamide** on PDH 4. Riboflavin - flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD)** 5. Niacin - nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD)*

What are three ways that F-actin can be organized?

1. Parallel bundle - microvilli 2. Contractile bundle - stationary or dividing 3. Network - migratory

What are the functions of eosinophils?

1. Parasitic Defense 2. Damage Control of allergic reactions 3. Role in Chronic Inflammation - asthma, allergies; or due to long lasting parasitic infections

What are four ways in which a drug can pass through a membrane?

1. Passive Diffusion (channels, tight junctions) 2. Passive Diffusion though membrane bilayer 3. Carrier Mediated Transport (Facilitated or Active) 4. Receptor Mediated Transport (Endocytosis - Exocytosis)

What are the branches of the internal thoracic artery?

1. Pericardiacophrenic -to the pericardium, pleura, and diaphragm 2. Anterior intercostal - supply the upper 6 anterior intercostal spaces 3. Musculophrenic - lateral terminal branch to the 7th - 10th intercostal spaces and the diaphragm 4. Superior epigastric - medial terminal branch descending to the abdominal wall through the sternocostal triangle. 5. Perforating branches - to muscles of the thoracic wall and the breast.

Biotransformation reactions are classified as two types. What are they?

1. Phase I functionalization reactions (oxidation, hydrolysis, etc.) 2. Phase II biosynthetic conjugation reactions

What is involved in the short term regulation of HMG-CoA reductase?

1. Phosphorylated reductase is less active (like acetyl CoA carboxylase) 2. Insulin activates HMG-CoA reductase activity by reducing HMG-CoA phosphorylation 3. Glucagon via cAMP reduces HMG-CoA reductase activity by promoting HMG-CoA reductase phosphorylation 4. Oxysterols, inhibit HMG-CoA reductase expression

What is cyclin B-cdk 1 involved in?

1. Phosphorylates nuclear lamins > nuclear envelope breakdown 2. Phosphorylates condensins > condense chromosomes 3. Phosphorylation of microtubule and motor proteins > formation of the mitotic spindle 4. Phosphorylation of myosin > inhibition of cytokinesis

What are the steps of protein processing in the Golgi?

1. Phosphorylation of oligosaccharides on lysosomal proteins 2./3. Processing of N and O-linked oligosaccharides 4. Sulfation of tyrosines and carbs 5. Proteins are sorted, packaged into vesicles, and transported to their final destination 6. Lipid synthesis

What are three types of placental abnormalities?

1. Placenta accrete - aggressive invasion 2. Placenta percreta - super aggressive invasion 3. Placenta previa - covers the cervix (cannot let the woman dialate) *all cause excessive bleeding

What are the two types of B Cells and what are their functions?

1. Plasma Cells - Secrete antibodies 2. Memory B Cells - respond quickly next time antigen present

What are two types of B Cells? Describe each.

1. Plasma Cells - Secrete antibodies 2. Memory B Cells - respond quickly next time antigen present

What are the three superficial muscles of the neck?

1. Platysma 2. SCM 3. Trapezius

Describe the mitochondira.

1. Powerhouse of the cell: energy derived from the breakdown of carbohydrates and fatty acids generating ATP by the process of oxidative phosphorylation. 2. Critical to the function of cells 3. The number of mitochondria depend on the energy requirement of the cell 4. Contains it's own DNA that encodes for rRNA, tRNA and some proteins 5. Replicate by division

What is the function of the zona occludens (tigh junction)?

1. Prevent the unregulated flow of solutes and substrates between juxtaposed epithelial cells. 2. Prevent migration of lipids and specialized membrane proteins between the apical and lateral compartments. 3. Recruit and sequester signaling molecules to the cell surface. 4. The Zonula occcludin regulates passage of substances through the epithelial layer. *The transcellular process moves substances from the apical surface to the lateral surface. *The paracellular process is regulated through the presence (or absence) of aqueous pores

What are the specific functions of the integumentary system (8)?

1. Prevention of water loss through dehydration (stratum granulosum) 2. Receptor organ for interactions with external environment (sensory neural). 3. Protection from physical injury. 4. Protection from UV radiation damage (pigmentation). 5. Immune surveillance and antigen presentation (Langerhans' cells). 6. Thermoregulation (capillary plexuses). 7. Metabolism and excretion of waste products (glands). 8. Production of vitamin D3

What are some indications for a genetic referral?

1. Previous child with multiple congenital anomalies, mental retardation, or an isolated birth defect 2. Family history of hereditary condition-Ask about early-onset of disease which is relevant to the present illness 3. Ask about all first-degree relatives 4. Record racial and ethnic background 5. Keep it up-to-date all the information 6. Make a pedigree of the family 7. Prenatal diagnosis for advanced material age or other conditions 8. Consanguinity 9. Teratogen exposure 10. Repeated pregnancy losses or infertility 11. Newly diagnosed abnormality or genetic entity 12. Before undertaking genetic testing and after receiving results 13. As follow-up for a positive result of a newborn screening test; a heterozygote screening test; or a positive first- or second-trimester maternal serum screen or abnormal fetal ultrasound examination

What is the difference between primary, tertiary, and secondary villi?

1. Primary villi: syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblast core 2. Secondary villi: syncytiotrophoblasts, cytotrophoblasts and a mesodermal core. 3. Tertiary villi: syncytiotrophoblasts, cytotrophoblasts, mesoderm, and blood vessels.

The lagging strand in DNA replication is replicated in okazaki fragments. What does this mean/how does this work?

1. Primase synthesizes short RNAs complementary to the DNA strand 2. Polymerase adds to the primer to start an okazaki fragment - it fills the gap with DNA 3. The primer is replaced with DNA 4. The nicks are sealed between the fragments

Explain the growth of the epiphyseal plate.

1. Resting zone - thin, inactive layer 2. Proliferative zone - dividing chondrocytes - form columns of cells 3. Hypertrophic zone - chondrocytes enlarge, matrix thins. 4. Calcified cartilage zone - chondrocytes dye, matrix becomes calcified. 5. Ossification zone - new bone forming

What is the role and fate of the primitive streak, primitive node and notochord?

1. Primitive node induces formation of the body axis - organizer 2. Notochord induces formation of the neural plate ectoderm and influences neural tube development. 3. Primitive streak regresses caudally as the notochord elongates anteriorly. Failure of the the primitive streak to completely regress can result in the formation of a sacrococcygeal teratoma. 4. Notochord degenerates during formation of the vertebrae (reminants remain as nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs).

What are the two functions of keratinocytes?

1. Production of keratin 2. Formation of the water barrier

What is the sequential order of cells in erythropoiesis (6)?

1. Proerythroblast 2. Basophilic erythroblast 3. Polychromatophilic erythroblast 4. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast 5. Reticulocyte 6. Erythrocyte

What are the six cell differentiations in erythropoiesis?

1. Proerythroblast 2. Basophilic erythroblast 3. Polychromatophilic erythroblast 4. Orthochromatophilic erythroblast 5. Reticulocyte 6. Erythrocyte (red blood cell)

What are the four muscles of the first layer of the anterior (flexor) osteofascial compartment of the forearm? What innervates these muscles?

1. Pronator teres 2. Flexor carpi radialis 3. Palmaris longus 4. Flexor carpi ulnaris *Median and ulnar nerve

The macrophages' affects on endothelial cells (the cells that line the blood vessels and largely control inflammation by controlling the flow of cells and fluids out of the post-capillary venules) result from release of?

1. Prostaglandins 2. Leukotrienes 3. Cytokines such (IL-1, IL-8 and tumor necrosis factor-a)

What are the functions of the placenta and fetal membranes?

1. Protection 2. Nutrition 3. Respiration 4. Excretion

How does protein folding occur in the rough ER?

1. Proteins with a signaling sequence are targeted to the ER 2. They are then co-translated into the ER lumen or membrane 3. Chaperones then fold the protein over and over until they are in the correct 3D conformation

How does ATP synthase work?

1. Protons accumulated in the intermembrane space flow back into the mitochondrial matrix through a pore in the ATP synthase (because of the gradient). 2. Conformational change of the F1 subunit catalyzes the phosphorylation of ADP to ATP. 3. Gradient is changed into energy (ATP)

What are the three mechanisms of cell migration?

1. Protrusion: Filapodia determine the direction for migration; lamellipodia allow the cell to protrude forward in the direction of a chemoattractant 2. Attachment: the lamellipodia attach to the matrix. Other matrix attachments form just behind the leading edge some of which may be focal contacts. 3. Traction: The leading edge including the lamellipodia are now stabilized. Myosin II-Actin filaments towards the trailing edge of the cell contract allowing the back portion of the cell to jolt forward towards the leading edge.

5-Phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP) is a postive allosteric effector of what?

1. Purine nucleotide synthesis:.PRPP amidotransferase 2. Pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis: CPS-II

What are the two different transferrin receptors and what tissues are they located on?

1. R1 in most cell types 2. R2 in liver (R2 has lower Km for transferrin-Fe(III) than does R1)

What is included in the transcription initiation complex (TIC)?

1. RNA polymerase II 2. General transcription factors 3. Mediator complex 4. Kinases TFIIH and P-TEFb

What is the radial motor nerve distribution in the forearm?

1. Radial nerve: anconeus , brachioradialis, extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis 2. Deep radial nerve: extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, extensor digiti minimi, supinator 3. Posterior interosseus nerve: abductor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis longus, extensor pollicis brevis, extensor indices

How is importin/Ran-GTP recycled?

1. Ran-Gap binds to the importin/Ran-GTP complex, hydrolyzes the Ran-GTP to Ran-GDP, and releases the importin 2, NTF2 escorts Ran-GDP back into the nucleus 3. Ran-GEF exchanges the GDP for GTP on the Ran protein

What happens during the tail fold portion of development?

1. Rapid growth of the neural tube causes folding of the caudal end of the embryo. As a result, a portion of endodermal germ layers folds into the embryo to form the hindgut. 2. Connecting stalk becomes ventrally located and the allantois is incorporated into the embryo.

What are common characteristics of acute inflammation?

1. Rapid onset (seconds/mins) and short duration 2. Exudation of fluid and plasma proteins (edema) 3. Migration of leukocytes (neutrophils) (E.g. Cellulitis)

What are four functions of the plasma membrane?

1. Receives information from outside the cell (signaling) 2. Import and export of molecules 3. Capacity to move and expand 4. Barrier that isolates the cytoplasm and protects the cell

What is the difference between the receptor, transducer, and effector?

1. Receptor - perceives the signal (transform), passes it along or stimulates a response 2. Transducer - relays the signal from where it is received to where the response will be produced 3. Effector - convert the signal into a specific response

What are the steps in phagocytosis?

1. Receptor Binding and Activation - Triggers extension of pseudopodia around particle 2. Phagosome Formation - Pseudopodia eventually surround the particle and membrane fuses 3. Phagolysosome Formation - phagosome has fused with lysosome(s) 4. Degradation of ingested material 5. Release of degraded materials

What are the four anterior vertebral muscles?

1. Rectus capitis anterior 2. Longus colli 3. Longus capitis 4. Anterior scalene

What are the five lateral vertebral muscles?

1. Rectus capitis lateralis 2. Splenius capitits 3. Levator scapulae 4. Posterior scalene 5. Middle scalene

Statins do what?

1. Reduce circulating cholesterol 2. Increase angiogenesis

What are two important things to do before delivering bad news to a patient?

1. Rehearse what you are going to say 2. Anticipate how you will act, how they will react, and what questions might be asked

What happens in prophase of mitosis?

1. Separating centrosomes form spindle poles 2. nuclear envelope is intact 3. chromosomes condense, and sister chromatids are held together by cohesins

What does the acronym SPIKES stand for in breaking bad news?

1. Setting - preparation and listening skills 2. Perception - patient/Parents' awareness 3. Invitation - patient's Desire For Information 4. Knowledge -sharing the information 5. Explore - explore emotions and empathize 6. Strategy - plan and summary

In what two ways can calcium be mobilized from bone?

1. Simple movement of Ca++ ions into interstitial fluid & blood stream (mostly in cancellous bone) 2. Hormone control: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) - increases blood calcium levels. PTH binds Osteoblasts and stimulates release of Osteoclast simulating Factor. Calcitonin - decreases blood calcium levels; inhibits Osteoclasts

What are 6 Steps to improve interpersonal communications with patients?

1. Slow down. 2. Use plain, non-medical language and short sentences. 3. Show or draw pictures. 4. Limit the amount of information provided, and repeat it. 5. Use the teach-back or tell-me/show-me technique. 6. Create a shame-free environment.

What are the steps in regulated exocytosis?

1. Sorted in TGN 2. Packaged into vesicles 3. Contents condensed 4. Vesicles remain located near plasma membrane 5. Contents released upon signaling 6. Recycling of Secretory Vesicle Components and Membranes - critical for maintaining a stable plasma membrane volume.

What are some characteristics of dietary proteins?

1. Source of amino acids for protein synthesis 2. Maintain nitrogen balance

What are some characteristics of dietary fats?

1. Source of triacylglycerol and essential fatty acids 2. Also phospholipids and sterols

What are three application for controlled DNA hybridization?

1. Southerns and Northern blots for detection and sizing nucleic acids 2. Oligonucleotide hybridization for "priming" in PCR or DNA sequencing. 3. In situ hybridization for localizing sequences on chromosome spreads.

How do clathrin coated vesicles assemble?

1. Specific sequence at the C-terminus of transmembrane proteins directs these proteins into coated pits (receptors). 2. Clathrin assembles in cages on cytoplasmic side of the developing vesicles. 3. The vesicle is pinched off by dynamin 4. Clathrin disassembles and leaves a naked vesicle

What are the cell shapes/types found in the stratum corneum?

15-20 layers of highly keratinized, squamous, dead cells and provide protection from abrasion and penetration

What are the five steps of fertilization?

1. Sperm penetrate the corona radiata 2. Sperm bind to the zona pellucida through interactions between ZP3 and sperm membrane proteins (e.g. galactocyltransferase), ZP3 is one of three zona pellucida proteins (ZP1, ZP2, ZP3). Other sperm receptors include SED1, an adhesive protein secreted by the epididymis. 3. Acrosome reaction - initiated by binding of sperm to ZP3. Results in fusion of the acrosomal membrane with the sperm plasma membrane and release of acrosomal enzymes (e.g. acrosin). Enzymes degrade the zona pellucida and allow the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida. 4. Fusion of the sperm and egg plasma membranes. Requires an egg surface protein termed CD9 (a cell-cell adhesion protein), as well as sperm associated proteins - IZUMO (cell-cell adhesion), ADAM2/fertilin (a disintegrin associated with sperm-egg adhesion and fusion.

What are the three main contents of the vertebral canal?

1. Spinal cord and its meninges 2. Spinal nerve roots 3. Blood vessels (spinal arteries and veins, internal vertebral venous plexus)

What are the main contents of the intervertebral foramen?

1. Spinal nerve 2. (Recurrent) meningeal branch of spinal nerves 3. Segmental medullary vessels 4. Radicular vessels - to the roots 5. Spinal ganglion

What causes alternative splicing?

1. Splicing repressors and enhancers in the exon 2. Tissue-specific expression of splicing factors 3. SR proteins

Describe the hemopoietic tissues from the early embryo to adult..

1. Starts in the yolk sac mesoderm as an early embryo 2. Moves to the liver (2-8 months) and spleen (3-6 months) 3. Starts in the bone marrow at 5 months and is the main site of hemopoiesis through birth and as an adult 4. It can also occur in lymphoid tissues like the kidney, spleen, and thymus

What three components make up the shoulder?

1. Sternoclavicular joint 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Glenohumeral joint

What are the four infrahyoid muscles?

1. Sternohyoid 2. Sternothyroid 3. Thyrohyoid 4. Omohyoid

What are the layers of the uterus starting from the uterine cavity?

1. Stratum compacta - thin surface layer of the endometrium 2. Stratum spongiosa - broad middle layer with lots of uterine glands 3. Stratum basale - is retained during/after menstruation and is the source of the regenerating endometrial tissue after menstruation. It regenerates the stratum functionale. The glands in this region are called basalis glands. 4. Myometrium - muscle of the uterus

What are the five layers of the epidermis?

1. Stratum corneum (C) 2. Stratum lucidium (palms and soles - between C and G) 3. Stratum granulosum (G) 4. Stratum spinosum - thickest layer (S) 5. Stratum basale (B)

What are the two cutaneous nerves of the superficial fascia of the palmar surface of the hand?

1. Superficial branch of the ulnar n. 2. Palmar branch of median n.

What are the two layers of the dermis?

1. Superficial papillary dermis 2. Deep reticular dermis

What are the branches of the external carotid?

1. Superior thyroid - thyroid, larynx, infrahyoids, SCM 2. Ascending pharyngeal - pharynx, prevertebrals, middle ear, and meninges 3. Lingual - Tongue, hyoid, lingual branches 4. Facial - floor of the mouth, submandibular gland, palatine tonsil, and face 5. Occipital - posterior aspect of the scalp 6. Posterior auricular - Pinna, parotid gland, muscles, nerve, and scalp 7. Maxillary 8. Superficial temporal

The descending scapular artery supplies what?

1. Supplies the superficial muscles of the back attached to the medial border of the scapula 2. Participates in the formation of the scapular anastomosis (arcade).

What are five functions of bone?

1. Support 2. Protection 3. Reservoir for calcium and phosphate 4. Contains bone marrow 5. Provides levers for body movement

Describe some features of the amniotic sac.

1. Surrounds the developing embryo 2. It is composed of the amniotic membrane, and the amniotic cavity filled with amniotic fluid 3. The amnion is composed of amniotic ectoderm and amniotic mesoderm 4. Increases in size during the 4th week and eventually fuses with the smooth chorion

What are the four generic steps in cell signaling?

1. Synthesis 2. Release by the signaling cell 3. Transport to the target cell 4. Detection by a specific receptor protein

What are the metabolic roles of the pentose phosphate pathway?

1. Synthesis of NADPH - Utilized in detoxification and synthetic pathways 2. Synthesis of Ribose-5-P - Utilized in the synthesis of Nucleotides

What are the therapeutic outcomes of nuclear receptors?

1. Synthesis of new proteins takes longer, so there is a lag time of 30 mins to several hours 2. Once the agonist is removed, the effects can last for hours or days

What are three advantages to storing energy as fat rather than as a carbohydrate?

1. They are a much more efficient form of energy storage, yielding much more ATP 2. They conserve more space, as they are stored without associated water (hydrophilic) 3. They have a virtually unlimited capacity for storage

What are the steps of iron absorption in the small intestine?

1. The Fe2+ is transported by DMT1 (divalent metal transporter 1) a symport transporter which co-transports H+) 2. Heme is transported by Heme carrier protein 1 (HCP1) by endocytosis - Iron is freed from heme by heme oxygenase 3. If body stores of iron are sufficient, iron is stored by binding to ferritin. -Because lifespan of duodenal enterocyte is 3-4 days, considerable iron is lost when these cells sloughed off from the villus. 4. Iron is transported out of enterocyte by ferroportin 5. Oxidized to Fe3+ by ferroxidase hephastin Iron then transported in blood stream by transferrin 6. Normally only about 20-30% of transferrin has bound iron - Remainder acts as buffer for the influx of iron after meals

What are the acid/base properties of amino acids?

1. The NH2 and COOH side groups can gain or loose protons depending on pH 2. Acids donate protons, bases accept them 3. Carboxyl groups deprotonate at low pH 4. Amino acid groups deprotonate at higher pH

What is the function of the microvilli?

1. The base of the microvilli are specialized for endocytosis of non absorbable materials such as lipids 2. Increase surface area of cells involved in absorptive functions. (The actin allows changes in the shape of the microvilli).

What happens during cleavage of the zygote?

1. The cells divide into a 2, 4, 6, 8 cell stage (8 cell stage involves compaction) 2. 16-32 cell stage is called a morula 3. A cavity forms at about 4-5 days, and its called a blastocyst (happens in the fallopian tube)

What are the three main cellular components of the inflammatory response? What cell types are included in each?

1. The circulating cells (in blood; mainly neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils and platelets) 2. The connective tissue cells (in tissues; mainly mast cells, macrophages, and fibroblasts) 3. The extracellular matrix (consists of structural fibrous proteins (collagen, elastin) adhesive glycoprotein's (fibronectin, collagen), and proteoglycans.

Describe the cytoplasm.

1. The cytoplasm is the material located outside the nucleus that is non-membrane bound and contained within the plasma membrane. 2. Contains free (non-membrane bound) ribosomes for protein synthesis of intracellular proteins 3. Contains the cytoskeleton and is the site where the filaments are formed and broken down. 4. Is the site for enzymatic, metabolic and signaling reactions that regulate many cellular processes.

How is HMG-CoA reductase degraded?

1. The first step occurs when lanosterol triggers the binding of HMG CoA reductase to Insig-1 or Insig-2. Insig exists in a complex with a membrane-embedded E3 ubiquitin ligase, gp78. In turn, gp78 is bound to the E2 ubiquitin-conjugating enzyme Ubc7 and to VCP, an ATPase that plays a role in extracting ubiquitinated proteins from membranes. 2. In the second step, the E3 activity of gp78 ubiquitinates the reductase. 3. In the third step, the ubiquitinated HMG CoA reductase is extracted from the membrane by VCP and delivered to the proteasome for degradation.

What are the steps to a nothern/southern blot?

1. The gel is laid onto a membrane or blotting paper, and through capillary action, fluid is transferred through the gel, carrying the nucleic acid with it, to the membrane, and finally the nucleic acid binds to the paper such that the pattern of nucleic acid in the gel is represented on the membrane. 2. Next the membrane is placed in a bottles and a labeled piece of nucleic acid (whatever is complementary to the sequence that you are looking for) is added to the mixture for hybridization. 3. Hybridization specificity is controlled by chemicals and salt in addition to temperature. 4. After hybridization and development the specific DNA bands can be visualized. 5. On the final blot, relative band intensity correlates to the amount of specific sequence present, and the position relative to size markers reflects the size (in base pairs) of the detected sequence.

What are the steps in notochord formation?

1. The notochordal process is a cord of mesoderm that forms from cells which ingress through the primitive pit and migrate cranially. A canal (notochordal canal) forms down the center of the notochordal process and communicates with the amniotic cavity through the primitive pit. 2. Degeneration of the floor of the notochordal process and underlying endoderm followed by intercalation of the remainder of the notochordal process with the adjacent endoderm. The result is the formation of a notochordal plate and the transitory appearance of a neurenteric canal which allow communication between the amniotic cavity and the yolk sac. Failure of the neurenteric canal to close can leave a connection between the spinal cord and the gut. 3. Dorsal evagination and folding of the notochordal plate to form the tubular notochord.

A fundamental property of all epithelial cells is their inherent polarized orientation. This characteristic is manifested how?

1. The orientation and basal-apical position of the organelles in the cytoplasm, 2. The differential composition of the apical, basal and lateral surfaces and the specialized structures associated with each. 3. The presence of a basal lamina to which the basal surface of the cell is attached

What happens in oogenesis just before ovulation?

1. The primary oocyte completes the first meiotic division and becomes a secondary oocyte and a polar body 2. The follicle is called a Graffian follicle, and the oocyte is surrounded by the zona pellucida

What factors affect blood glucose?

1. The rate of consumption of dietary carbohydrate (DC) 2.The rate of intestinal absorption of DC 3. The rate of utilization of glucose by peripheral tissues 4. The rate of loss of glucose through the kidney tubule 5. The rate of removal of glucose from the body by the liver 6. The rate and extent of release of glucose from the liver via glycogenolysis plus gluconeogenesis

One signaling molecule can be involved in many different reactions. How can this be?

1. There are different cell surface receptors in each reaction 2. There are different downstream signaling proteins (G-protein) (E.g. Acetylcholine in heart muscle, salivary glands, and skeletal muscle)

Targeting to the ER is pretty similar to targeting to the mitochondria, but there are some differences. What are they?

1. There is a different signal sequence 2. Proteins are made completely in the cytoplasm before they are translocated across the membrane 3. Require TIMs and TOMs to cross both layers of the mitochondrial membranes

What are some clinical applications of enzymes?

1. They are markers of tissue damage 2. They can be used as therapeutic agents 3. They can be used as clinical reagents

What is the importance of ethical dilemmas?

1. They force binary thinking 2. They are not routine; there is no simple solution 3. Not all people identify the same ethical dilemmas

In general, what is the MOA of corticosteroids?

1. They reduce the production of inflammatory mediators 2. They inhibit inflammatory cell migration by inhibiting adhesion molecules 3. They promote the death and apoptosis of leukocytes and lymphocytes

What are the functions of the microtubules and their motor proteins?

1. They transport and position organelles and vesicle within the cell 2. They move chromosomes toward the spindle poles (dynein) 3. They organize into an axoneme and move cilia and flagella

Describe the activity of the Na/K ATPase

1. Three Na ions bind from within the cytosolic side 2. ATP binds and phosphorylates the ATP site 3. A conformational change occurs and the Na ions are released to the extracellular side 4. The affinity for K is increased, and two K bind on the extracellular side 5. The ATP site is unphosphorylated and a conformation change occurs that releases the K to the cytosol *High K intracellular, Low K extracelluar and vv

Beta subunits of the insulin receptor become phosphorylated and activates 3 signaling pathways. What are they?

1. Through phospholipase C: regulates lipid and glycogen synthesis. 2. Insertion of GLUT4 in the PM via PI-3 kinase pathway. 3. Through MAPK signaling, it modulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis and gene regulation

What are five types of lateral domain cell connections?

1. Tight junctions 2. Zonula adherens 3. Desmosomes 4. Gap junctions 5. Hemidesmosomes

What are some factors of lipoprotein assicated transport?

1. Transport relatively high concentrations of triacylglycerol and cholesterol during fed- and fasted-state. -Dietary TAG transport -Achieved by "packing TAG into chylomicrons -Acts to distribute dietary fatty acid throughout the body 2. Facilitate solubility 3. Facilitate directional transport and recycling of lipid. 4. Provides lipid homeostasis throughout the whole-body.

What are some autosomal examples of non-disjunction/aneuploidy?

1. Trisomy 21 - Down syndrome 2. Trisomy 18 - Edwards syndrome 3. Trisomy 13 - Patau syndrome

When describing other people's values, what should you do/not do?

1. Try to avoid starting for a solution and working backwards 2. Apply the principle of falsification 3. Understanding before Judgment 4. Recognize that disagreement is expected & (often) good 5. Hearing values, not claims

What are the steps in receptor down-regulation?

1. Ubiquitination of receptor 2. Sequestration 3. Formation of multivesicular body 4. Fusion with late endosome/lysosome 5. Lysosomal degradation of ligand, receptor, and portion of membrane

What are three essential elements of patient centered care?

1. Understanding the patient's perspective 2. Getting to know the patient as a whole human being 3. Reaching common ground

What are some relationships between molecules in facilitated transport?

1. Uniport 2. Symport 3. Antiport

Vasodilation makes what three changes two blood vasculature and flow?

1. Vasodilatation leads to increased blood flow and blood pooling creating redness and warmth (rubor and calor) 2. Increased permeability for plasma proteins and cells creating swelling (tumor). Fluid loss leads to concentration of red blood cells and slowed blood flow (stasis) 3. Emigration of leukocytes from microcirculation due to stasis and activation leads migration towards offending agent

Each nerve attaches to the spinal cord by two roots. What are they?

1. Ventral (anterior) root = a motor or efferent root with somatic (voluntary) and autonomic components (somatic efferent and visceral efferent) 2. Dorsal (posterior) root = a sensory or afferent root also with somatic and autonomic components (somatic afferent and visceral afferent)

What tissues are derived from the mesoderm?

1. Vertebrae and ribs (scleratome) 2. Dermis (dermatome) 3. Skeletal muscle (myotome) 4. Urogential system (intermediate mesoderm) 5. Connective tissue, vaculature of the gut (splanchnic mesoderm) 6. Connective tissue, vasculature of the body wall (somatic mesoderm)

What are the characteristics of genomic DNA?

1. Very large - too large to use a gel 2. Usually sheared when pipetted 3. Needs to be restricted - cut into smaller pieces

What are the three products of the electron transport chain?

1. Water (with the help of the O2 we breathe) 2. Up to 34 ATP 3. NAD and FAD ( which are recycled to be used again in the TCA cycle and glycolysis)

What are four important (rate limiting) enzymes in gluconeogenesis?

1. glucose-6-phosphatase 2. fructose bisphosphatase 3. PEP carboxykinase 4. pyruvate carboxylase

Summarize the main events in limb formation which occur in the first 8 weeks.

1. Week 4: appearance of limb buds; upper limb visible by day 24, lower limb 1-2 days later 2. Week 5: formation of hand and foot plate; appearance of skeletal primordia (mesenchymal condensation) 3. Week 6: development of digital rays; appearance of cartilage 4. Week 7: appearance of joints and development of digits, beginning of osteogenesis 5. Week 8: fingers and toes distinct, limbs rotate

What is an ethical dilemma?

1. When two moral values come into conflict 2. When one moral value does not give a clear direction * Come about because there are multiple moral values that vary across individuals

What two things does nucleosome positioning affect?

1. Which regions of DNA are in the linker 2. Which face of DNA is exposed on the nucleosome surface

What are the three functions of the dermal-epidermal junction?

1. bind the epidermis to the dermis, 2. support the epidermis 3. prevent the transfer of materials and substances across the junction.

What are four common 2nd messengers? What does each influence?

1. cAMP - cAMP dependent protein kinase A (PKA) and guanine nucleotide exchange 2. cGMP - cyclic nucleotide-gated channels and cGMP dependent protein kinase G (PKG) 3. Diacylglycerol (DAG) - Protein kinase C (PKC) 4. 1, 4, 5 inositol triphosphate (IP3) - IP3 receptor > Ca2+ release > calmodulin > calmodulin-regulated enzymes

What factors mediate adhesion and invasion - the second and third stages of implantation?

1. cell adhesion molecules: integrins, selectins, trophinins, found on the surface of trophoblast and endometrium 2. extracellular matrix molecules: collagen IV, vitronectin, fibronectin, laminin 3. growth factors: e.g. EGF (troph/decidual cells), heparin binding-EGF (endometrium), TGFbeta (troph/endometrium), FGF, insulin-like growth factor (endometrium) 4. cytokines (e.g. LIF, IL-1) 5. hormones and other factors: progesterone, hCG, prostaglandins 6. matrix metalloproteases (MMP), MMP activators (e.g. uPA, tPA, PAI), MMP inhibitors (e.g. TIMP)

5-Phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP) is a substrate for what?

1. de novo purine nucleotide synthesis 2. Purine salvage 3. De novo pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis 4. Pyrimidine salvage 5. NAD+ synthesis

What are three objectives of the medical interview?

1. gathering information 2. establish rapport 3. educate/support the patient

What are four important (rate limiting) enzymes in glycolysis?

1. glucokinase 2. phosphofructokinase-1 3. pyruvate kinase 4. pyruvate dehydrogenase

What mechanisms are utilized in the regulation of purine nucleotide synthesis?

1. inhibition 2. Cross-utilization of nucleotides as substrates - XMP and adenylsuccinate can inhibit the enzymes that synthesize them in order for them to stay in sync

How is rRNA processed?

1. intervening sequences are cleaved out by nucleases 2. Sites to be modified are directed by snoRNPs - the enzyme is recruited to the site to make the modification

What are the five mRNA specific translation regulating mechanisms? Explain each.

1. mRNA's with extensive 5' secondary structure - hairpin structures cause double stranded regions upstream of AUG, which increases ribosomal scanning time because the complex must unwind the RNA with helicase 2. Upstream ORFs - an AUG followed by a long sequence stretch with no stop codons. Ribosome spends time translating the upstream UTR and the stop codon disassembles the complex 3. Internal ribosome entry sites (IRES) - Bypasses 4E-cap-mediated initiation. Cells under extreme stress will translate a small class of stress-response mRNAs using IRESs 4. Sequence specific RNA binding proteins - Has the greatest specificity. Sequences in the 5′- and 3′-UTR confer the binding of protein factors. (Usually the sequence confers the formation of a hairpin structure. Bound factors in the 5′-end usually are repressors that are removed via signals or switches within the cell) 5. Micro-RNAs - Small non-coding RNAs that regulate other genes. One mode in which micro-RNAs regulate genes is through blocking the translation of certain mRNAs

What are the two fates of food?

1. nondigestible energy - lost in feces or used by bacteria 2. digestible energy - mostly absorbed and metabolized for energy, but some is lost in the urine, sweat, or sloughed

What is the epidural space used for?

1. to inject contrast medium during radiologic exams (myelography) 2. to inject anesthetic drugs (epidural analgesia, epidural anesthesia, caudal or sacral anesthesia)

What is the subarachnoid space used for?

1. to obtain CSF for diagnostic purpose (lumbar puncture) 2. to measure CSF pressure 3. to inject anesthetic drugs (spinal anesthesia)

What UCDs does ND screen for?

1.(ASA) Argininosuccinate acidemia* 2.(CIT 1) Citrullinemia or ASA Synthetase Deficiency* 3.(ARG) Argininemia** 4.(CIT-II) Citrullinemia type II**

FADH2 yields how much ATP?

1.5

What are the steps in endochondral ossification?

1.Initial bone formation initiates degenerative process in cartilage: 2. Chondrocytes enlarge (hypertrophy), matrix becomes calcified & cells die 3. Blood vessels grow into dying region and bring in osteoprogenitor cells - differentiate 4. Osteoblasts bind to calcified cartilage matrix 5. Osteoblasts lay down primary bone = Primary Ossification Center, this process continues through the central region - forms diaphysis 6. Rounded ends of cartilage then begin ossification process = Secondary Ossification Centers forms the epiphyses (2 regions) 7. Not all cartilage in secondary centers dies - remains as articular cartilage

What is the basic mechanism for excretion of nitrogen in humans?

1.Produced in the liver 2.Transported to the kidney 3.Excreted into urine *The first urea nitrogen is from ammonia *The second urea nitrogen is from aspartate

How often to SNPs occur?

1/1000 or every 1250 bps

When coupled to oxidative phosphorylation, how much net ATP does the TCA cycke produce?

10

Intravenous bioavailability is always what percentage?

100%

How many different enzyme activities are required to synthesize the purine ring? Which step is the only regulated step?

10; step one

What is the ratio observed between the Vmax and the enzyme concentration?

1:1

Anaerobic glycolysis produces how much net ATP?

2

What is the makeup of the umbilical cord?

2 arteries, 1 vein, Wharton jelly, covered by amnion

How many ATP are made per NADH oxidized?

2.5

NADH yields how much ATP?

2.5

When does the trilaminar embryo develop?

3 weeks after fertilization

What are the cell shapes/types found in the stratum granulosum?

3-5 cell layers thick and composed of flattened polygonal keratinocytes filled with two species of granules

Pyrimidine nucleotide synthesis is energetically expensive. How many moles of ATP are need per mole of UMP?

4 moles

Purine synthesis is energetically expensive. How much ATP is needed per mole of IMP?

6 moles

During the development of skeletal limb formation, how do the digits separate (joint development)?

6) Separation of digits occurs by programmed cell death (apoptosis); regulated by AER, FGF, BMPs and retinoic acid. 7) The identity of the digits is determined by Shh expression and by the concentration of BMPs in the interdigital mesoderm. BMP in each interdigital region regulates the development of the digit anterior to that interdigital region (see figure below).

About how many days after fertilization does implantation occur?

6-7 days

The purine nucleotide synthesis pathway is inhibited by what anti-cancer drug? How does it do this?

6-mercaptopurine - it mimics the allosteric inhibitors

Aerobic glycolysis produces how much net ATP?

8

What is a dermatome?

A skin area innervated by a single sensory spinal nerve, therefore the number of dermatomes corresponds to the number of spinal nerves (30, 1st cervical has no dermatomal distribution)

Describe the A, P, and E site of ribosome.

A - initial aminoacyl-tRNA docking site P - peptidyl-tRNA site where the growing peptide chain is attached to the tRNA E- where the tRNA leaves the ribosome after donating its AA

Penicillin and its analogs all contain what structure?

A beta-lactam ring

What is a Haversian canal?

A canal that runs parallel to the long axis of the bone, contains blood vessels and nerves, and is surrounded by lamellae - osteocytes, in lacunae, follow rings of lamellae around canals

What are the structures of the spinal cord as displayed in a cross section?

A central "H" or butterfly shaped gray matter surrounded by a peripheral white matter. The gray mater contains pairs of ventral (anterior) horns, dorsal (posterior) horns - sensory, and lateral horns in some segments

What is a silent mutation?

A change that makes the same amino acid

What is a missense mutation?

A change that produces a different amino acid

What is a nonsense mutation?

A change that produces a stop codon

What is subclavian steal syndrome?

A condition that results from the stenosis or occlusion of the subclavian artery proximal to (before) the origin of the vertebral artery with impairment of blood flow to the upper limb of the affected side. The blockage causes the reversal of the normal direction of blood flow in the epsilateral vertebral artery, which is termed the "steal", because it steals blood from the cerebral (vertebrobasilar) circulation. When the affected limb is exercising, blood is drawn from the contralateral vertebral artery or basilar artery regions into the low-pressure ipsilateral upper limb vessels.

What structure in the inner mitochondrial membrane uses the energy stored as the proton gradient to synthesize ATP?

ATP synthase (complex V)

What roots make up the inferior trunk?

C8 & T1

Mature mRNAs are selectively exported from the nucleus. What "tags" help mark the mRNA for transport?

A nuclear export receptor, SRs, EJCs, Poly-A binding proteins, 5' cap

What is the primitive pit?

A pit in the center of the primitive node formed by ingression of epiblast cells at the primitive node

The sternoclavicular joint has no muscles that cross it and is what kind of joint?

A planar joint

Describe the structure of the secondary follicle.

A primary oocyte is surrounded by a zona pellucida which is surrounded by multiple layers of follicle cells - there is also an antrum containing liquor folliculi present in the layer of follicle cells

What is the synaptonemal complex?

A protein structure that forms between homologous chromosomes (two pairs of sister chromatids) during meiosis and is thought to mediate chromosome pairing, synapsis, and recombination.

What is a promoter?

A region in the genome that signals the RNA polymerase to start transcription

What is an intron?

A region of a gene, a copy of which will be excluded (spliced out) from mature RNA

What is an exon?

A region of a gene, a copy of which will be part of mature RNA

What is a gene?

A region of genome coding for meaningful RNA

What is culture?

A set of behaviors, beliefs, values shared by a group of people: ethnic/racial, socioeconomic, national origin, age, sexual orientation, disability

What is a point mutation?

A single base change

What are single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)?

A single base change in the DNA sequence. It must be >1% in the population to be defined as a polymorphism otherwise it is a rare sequence variant

Extensor indices proximal and distal attachments, action, and innervation.

A: Distal portion of the ulna and interosseus membrane, posterior side. DA: Joins tendon from extensor digitorum at the dorsal expansion. Action: Extends index finger. Innervation: Posterior interosseus n.

5-Phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP) is negatively regulated by what?

ADP, 2,3-BPG

Which sequence is on the 3' splice site of the intron?

AG

What are ganglion cycsts?

AKA. "bible bumps" Cyst derived from tendon sheath seen as a firm swelling on dorsum of hand/wrist. Can occur anywhere, but most common at scapho-lunate joint.

What is "claw" hand? What causes it?

AKA. "intrinsic minus" MP joints extended & IP joints flexed due to injury to ulnar n. at wrist.

What is the effect of muscle acetyl‐CoA carboxylase on beta-oxidation in an active state?

AMP levels are high increasing AMP‐dependent protein kinase activity inhibiting acetyl‐CoA carboxylase that decreases malonyl‐CoA and stimulated CPT I and beta-oxidation

What is the effect of muscle acetyl‐CoA carboxylase on beta-oxidation in an inactive state?

AMP levels are low and AMP‐dependent protein kinase activity is low stimulating acetyl‐CoA carboxylase that increases malonyl‐CoA and inhibits CPT I and beta-oxidation.

Regulation of purine nucleotide synthesis maintains a balance of what two components?

ATP and GTP

What is the role of ATP in splicing?

ATP hydrolysis produces the RNA-RNA arrangements between the snRNPs and the introns

Alanine

Ala - A - nonpolar

Which amino acids are considered glucogenic?

Ala, Arg, Asn, Asp, Cys, Gln, Glu, Gly, His, Met, Pro, Ser, Val

What are the non-essential amino acids?

Ala, Arg, Asp, Asn, Glu, Gln, Gly, Pro,

What are the non-essential amino acids?

Ala, Cys, Pro, Asp, Glu, Ser, Asn, Gln, Tyr, Gly, Arg

What are the three modes of lipid transport in the body?

Albumin associated, lipoprotein associated, and unassociated.

What is an allele?

Alternate forms of a gene - one allele may be dominant over another

Signaling molecules are chemically diverse. What are some examples of signaling molecules?

Amino acids (glycine, glutamate), Nucleosides (adenosine), Gasses (nitric oxide), Voltage, Photons, Polypeptides, Glycoproteins, Steroid-related, Amines

What is a zwitterion?

Amino acids will carry a + and - charge at a neutral pH

What things are consumed in the urea cycle?

Ammonia, bicarbonate, aspartate, and 4 ATPs

Oxidative deamination of glutamate yields what? What enzyme is needed to catalyze this reaction?

Ammonia; glutamate dehydrogenase

What is Bioavailability (F)?

Amount of drug absorbed into systemic circulation divided by the amount of drug administered.

What is secondary protein structure?

An alpha helix or a beta pleated sheet

What is a reticulocyte?

An immature RBC

Why kind of relationship is there between risk and value?

An inverse relationship

What innervates the digastric muscle?

Anterior belly - nerve to mylohyoid Posterior belly - digastric branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)

In general, what are the two compartments of the arm, how many muscles are in each compartment, what innervates each compartment, and what is the blood supply to each compartment?

Anterior compartment: Musculocutaneous nerve and brachial artery (three muscles) Posterior compartment: Radial nerve and deep brachial artery (one muscle)

What innervates the longus capitis?

Anterior rami of C1-C3 spinal nerves

What innervates the longus colli?

Anterior rami of C2-C6 spinal nerves

What innervates the middle scalene?

Anterior rami of cervical spinal nerves

What innervates the posterior scalene?

Anterior rami of cervical spinal nerves C7 and C8

The 2nd part of the sublavian is under what?

Anterior scalene

What is the amniochorionic membrane?

As the fetus grows, the amnionic sac will completely consume the chorionic cavity and the amnion and chorion will fuse - the smooth chorion will eventually fuse with the decidua parietalis opposite to the implantation site

Asparagine

Asn - N - polar/uncharged

Aspartate

Asp - D - polar/charged

Ionic bonds can occur between which amino acids?

Asp/Glu and Lys/Arg/His

What is the first committed step in pyrimidine synthesis?

Aspartate carbamoyl phosphate synthesis

What are some common examples of NSAIDs?

Aspirin, ibuprofen, Celebrex, and less commonly acetaminophen (Tylenol)

What is genomic imprinting?

At some loci, only one allele is active; the other is inactive due to DNA methylation or production of non-coding RNAs. With one allele inactive, deletion of the active allele usually results in disease. (E.g. IGF2 and H19/Angelman and Prader-Willi)

Where is the carotid body, and what does it do?

At the angle of the bifurcation of the common carotid artery, near the carotid sinus, there is a small paraganglion called carotid body, which is a peripheral chemoreceptor stimulated by decreased pO2 and pH or by raised pCO2.

What are the guiding values in bioethics?

Autonomy - patient autonomy Veracity - telling the truth Beneficence - doing what is good Nonmaleficence - not harming Confidentiality - do not disclose patient info Fidelity - building a relationship Justice - treating all the same

Which cyclins are associated with the M phase?

B

What innervates geniohyoid?

C1 via the hypoglossal nerve

What innervates the thyrohyoid?

C1 via the hypoglossal nerve

The dermatome at the level of the root of the neck near the trunk?

C4

Arm buds develop between which somites?

C4-T2

What roots make up the superior trunk?

C5 & C6

What makes up the five roots of the cervical plexus?

C5-T1

What is the transcription factor that differentiates osteoprogenitor cells from pluripotent mesenchymal stem cells?

CBFA-1

Describe DNA methylation.

CG sequences can be methylated or not. They are frequent at gene promoters. When they are methylated, genes are usually repressed. It can be transmitted to the next generation.

What is the equation for drug clearance?

CL= Rate of elimination ÷C [plasma] *Is an additive value (kidney + liver = total)

What are the five enzymes required in the urea cycle?

CPSI carbamoyl phosphate synthase (mitochondrial) OTC ornithine transcarbamoylase (mitochondrial) ASS arginosuccinate synthetase (cytosolic) ASL Argininosuccinate lyase (cytosolic)

What two specific cytochrome P450 enzyme isoforms account for > 80% of clinical drugs in use today?

CYP2 and CYP3

What is the function of the smooth ER?

Ca+2 storage, lipid synthesis and metabolism, and steroid synthesis

What makes up the inorganic matter of the bone matrix?

Calcium and phosphorous

The myotome differentiates into what two muscle masses in the limb?

Dorsal (extensor) precursors and ventral (flexor) precursors.

What is Type I mitochondrial disease?

Caused by mutations in nuclear genes and have traditional Mendelian patterns of inheritance (e.g. Leigh syndrome)

What are some newer, COX 2 selective NSAIDs that protect against GI side effects?

Celecoxib, Rofecoxib, Etoricoxib, Lumiracoxib, Parecoxib, Valdecoxib *Increases chance of MI despite reduction in GI effects

What happens in cytokinesis of mitosis?

Cell cleaves into two via an actin/myosin contractile ring

What is the significance of having different chromatin states? How are they maintained?

Cells in different tissues have different states. These states can be maintained through cell division via the epigenetic memory. However, chromatin is dynamic (can be changed), which changes the longevity of the memory. Dysfunction of remodelers can lead to diseased chromatin states.

What is Caseous Necrosis?

Central necrotic "cheesy" area with surrounding granulomas. Is Seen in TB and some fungi.

There are two enlargements of the spinal cord. What are they and why are they there?

Cervical enlargement (C4 - T1) - brachial plexus originates Lumbarsacral enlargement (T11 - S2) - lower limb plexus *Innervate the limbs

What innervates the anterior scalene?

Cervical spinal nerves C4-C6

What are the five regions of the spinal cord?

Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar, Sacral, Coccygeal

What is epigenetics?

Changes in gene expression that are stably inherited, but are not due to changes in DNA sequence.

What is decidualization?

Changes that occur in the endometrium at implantation - Decidual cells produce cytokines, growth factors and proteases involved in implantation.

____________________________ is made in the skin by the action of _____________________ on 7-dehydrocholesterol (precursor)

Cholecalciferol; UV light

What is the first (regulated) enzyme in synthesis of bile acids?

Cholesterol 7-alpha hydroxylase

What are the differences between cholesterol transport and reverse cholesterol transport?

Cholesterol transport to peripheral tissues: -Cholesterol is delivered to tissues via the LDL particle -The LDL particle is taken up into cells via a receptor-mediated process via LDL receptor binding to ApoB-100, ApoE. -Some cholesterol transport occurs by binding to non-specific LDL-type receptors. Reverse cholesterol transport: -Mediated by HDL -Excess cellular cholesterol in the plasma membrane is picked up by HDL and transported to the liver -In liver cholesterol is converted to bile acids and is recycled or excreted .

What enzyme converts cholesteryl esters from LDL back to cholesterol in the lysosome ?

Cholesteryl esterase

What is coagulative necrosis?

Common in ischemia, pale cells outline coagulated proteins, surrounding hyperemia is common

What is required in eukaryotic elongation?

Chromatin remodeling factors, chromatin modification factors. control of promoter escape (P-TEFb, TFIIS), co-transcriptional RNA splicing.

Genetic disorder caused by an excess or deficiency of the genes that are located on chromosomes, or by structural changes within chromosomes. chromosome abnormalities

Chromosome disorders: trisomies and monosomies

What happens during the S phase?

Chromosomes (DNA) and centrioles duplicate - sister chromatids from each duplicated chromosome remain attached to each other through a protein complex termed cohesins

What happens in metaphase of mitosis?

Chromosomes align on the metaphase plate as a result of opposing forces within the spindle pulling the chromosomes in opposite directions.

What is the exogenous (dietary) pathway for lipid transport?

Chylomicrons

What are common environmental inducers?

Cigarettes, charcoal-grilled meats, cruciferous vegetables, chronic ethanol use, PCBs, dioxin

What is the structure of cilia?

Cilia are elongated motile structures which project from the apical surface of an epithelial cell.

What are the two branches of the subscapular artery?

Circumflex scapular and thoracodorsal

What is the effect of liver acetyl‐CoA carboxylase on beta-oxidation in a fed state?

Citrate is high, cAMP‐dependent phosphorylation is low, therefore acetyl‐CoA carboxylase is active increasing malonyl‐CoA which inhibits CPT I and in turn beta-oxidation.

What is the effect of liver acetyl‐CoA carboxylase on beta-oxidation in a fasted state?

Citrate is low, cAMP‐dependent phosphorylation is high, therefore acetyl‐CoA carboxylase is inactive resulting in less malonyl‐CoA that stimulates CPT I and in turn beta-oxidation.

Pantothenic acid (Coenzyme A, CoA[CoASH], B5) is involved in what pathways?

Citric acid cycle, fatty acid, and cholesterol synthesis; metabolism of fat, proteins, and carbs

What is the structure of clathrin coated vesicles?

Clathrin is made up of triskelions, and each triskelion consists of three heavy chains and three light chains. These structures form cages.

Target plasma concentration of a drug is inversely proportional to what?

Clearance

What is the difference between population health and clinical medicine?

Clinical medicine focuses on mechanisms while population health is more outcome orientated - can be effective when the mechanism is unknown

Members of gene families tend to do what?

Cluster together

All longer chain saturated and unsaturated fatty acids are modified as what?

CoA derivatives

To enter into an elongation or desaturation reaction, all fatty acids must be in what form?

CoA form (an acyl-CoA)

What are the two types of RNA? Give examples of each.

Coding-RNA: messenger RNA Non-coding RNA: tRNA, rRNA, miRNA

Symptoms of vitamin deficiencies reflect the loss of specific enzyme activities because their functions are dependent on the _____________________________ of the vitamin

Coenzyme(s)

What is the actin-binding protein that facilitates the breaking down or depolymerization of F-actin?

Cofilin

What is the function of colipase?

Colipase works with pancreatic lipase to prevent feedback inhibition by reaction products and bile acids

What are Sharpey's fibers?

Collagen fibers in the inner layer of the periosteum that penetrate bone matrix - binds things such as tendons to bones

Where is simple cuboidal epithelium found?

Collecting ducts of kidneys, salivary glands, pancreas, surface epithelium of the ovary, follicular cells of the thyroid, proximal convoluted tubules of the kidney

What happens in anaphase II of meiosis II?

Completion of cohesin breakdown; separation of sister chromatids

What is the structure of peptifoglycan in gramp-positive bacteria?

Composed of carbohydrate chains made of N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl-muramic acid NAM). Contain 13 amino acids, including a pentaglycine chain and lysine instead of DAP.

What is the structure of peptidoglycan in gram-negative bacteria?

Composed of carbohydrate chains made of N-acetyl-glucosamine (NAG) and N-acetyl-muramic acid NAM). Contain an octapeptide containing DAP or diaminopimelic acid.

What is the structure and function of the bacterial envelope (peptidoglycan)?

Composed of sugars and amino acids and protect the bacteria from lysis and help it determine its shape.

What is nutrition?

Composition and quantity of food intake and the utilization of food by the human organism (add water also)

What structures are contained within the dermal layers?

Connective tissue, elastic fibers, fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells, vascular and neural tissue for itself and the epidermis, and capillary loops for the dermal papillae

Blood is a ________________ tissue inside of a __________ matrix.

Connective; fluid

What is nucleotide array?

Consists of hybridizing genomic DNA fragments to small oligonucleotide sequences, arrayed on a microchip. It can scan a million SNPs at once

What is the difference between constitutive and facultative chromatin?

Constitutive is always open or always closed, while facultative is open or closed depending on cell type

What is the significance of the carotid sinus?

Contains pressoreceptors (baroreceptors, mechanoreceptors) that sense changes in the blood pressure, particularly raised blood pressure. Simple stimulation of these receptors (e.g. carotid sinus massage) can cause slowing of heart rate, vasodilatation, fall in blood pressure and syncope = Carotid sinus syndrome (carotid sinus hypersensitivity). The carotid sinus nerve (nerve of Hering) carries the afferent impulse from these receptors to the circulatory center in the medulla oblongata.

How is the Golgi organized.

Contains stacks of cisternae that have polarity: 1. Cis Golgi network (CGN): Positioned adjacent to the ER and nucleus 2. Cis, medial. trans cisternae 3. Trans Golgi network (TGN): Orients towards the plasma membrane

What is the connection between the carotid sheath and the intermediate tendon of the omohyoid muscle?

Contraction of this muscle keeps the lumen of the jugular vein open, and when injury occurs to this vein, air can be sucked in and cause an embolism.

What is Teihoic acid?

Copolymer of glycerol phosphate OR ribitol phosphate AND carbohydrates linked by phosphodiester bonds. Anionic molecule.

What are retrotransposons?

Copy their DNA through an RNA intermediate and insert in a new location

What is a moral value?

Cost expenditure (including opportunity costs) and a component of our personal identity

What do transferase enzymes in Phase II reactions do?

Couple endogenous reactants (diet is important) with phase I metabolites or parent drugs in a microsome or in the cytosol

Which cyclins are associated with the G1 phase?

D and E

What are the three joints of the digits?

DIP, PIP, and MP

The DNA is pulled through a replisome, a complex of proteins, when it is being replicated. What makes up the replisome?

DNA polymerase, DNA helicase, sliding clamp, and SSBs

What are composite transposons?

DNA segments that are flanked by an IS element at either end. Instead of each IS element moving independently, they now act in concert and move together along with the intervening DNA - more complex than IS and can contain drug resistance genes

Microsatellites occur from what?

DNA slippage

Iron reacts spontaneously with O2 and with hydrogen peroxide to form "reactive oxygen species". What do these do?

Damage cellular lipids, proteins and nucleic acids

What are some specific types of endogenous/environmental DNA damage?

Deamination, depurination, single or double strand beaks, and Oxo-dG (transversion)

What is inhibition as it relates to drug metabolism?

Decreased P450 activity enhances pharmacological effect and incidence of toxicity for inhibitor or co-administered drug (E.g. Erythromycin and CYP3A inhibitors)

What is the blood supply to the posterior osteofascial comparmtent of the arm?

Deep brachial artery (profunda brachii)

What results as an inadequate formation of granulation tissue?

Dehiscence and ulceration

What is compact bone?

Dense bone without cavities that surrounds the outer surfaces of bone and that comprises most of the bone in the diaphysis

Insulin increases fatty acid synthesis because it promotes what?

Dephosphorylation

What is the action of the omohyoid?

Depress and retract the hyoid

What is the action of the thyrohyoid?

Depress the hyoid and elevate the larynx

What is the action of the sternohyoid?

Depresses the hyoid after elevation during swallowing

What is the action of the sternothyroid?

Depresses the hyoid and larynx

What is the action of the digastric muscle?

Depresses the mandible and elevates the hyoid during speaking/swallowing

What connects the epidermis and the dermis?

Dermal papillae which interdigitate with epidermal ridges

The stratum basale cells are connected to each other via what?

Desmosomes

The stratum spinosum is attached to the stratum basal and itself via what?

Desmosomes at the end of spiny cellular protuberances

What are the functions of progestins?

Development of female sex organs and characteristics

How is the uterus arranged in 35% of monozygotic twins?

Dichorion, diamnion, fused placenta

Where does the cholesterol that is delivered to the liver come from?

Diet and peripheral tissues

In the stomach, Fe3+ is reduced to Fe2+ (ferrous iron) by what?

Dietary components and stomach acid

Cholesterol synthesis is similar to ketone body production, but has some differences. What are they?

Different HMG-CoA synthase compared to mitochondrial ketone body formation. It is in the cytosol, not the mitochondria.

What is an isozyme?

Different structural forms of a protein that catalyze the same reaction

Focal Adhesions are more stable, longer term structures than Focal Contacts and will prevent migration if they are not what?

Disassembled

Where are variable number tandem repeats (VNTR) often found?

Dispersed randomly through euchromatin, commonly near the telomeres

What are isoenzymes?

Distinct gene products with related amino acid sequences which catalyze the same reaction: different tissue distribution, different properties (E.g COX1 and 2)

The dorsal primary rami split into what? They supply what?

Divide into medial and lateral branches that supply the skin and deep muscles of the back, posterior neck and scalp *Exception = C1, no cutaneous branch.

Target plasma concentration of a drug is proportional to what two things?

Dose and bioavailability

What is the does rate equation for IV administration?

Dose/T= Dosing rate = CL• TC

Fluctuations in plasma concentration of a drug are proportional to what?

Dosing (time) interval;

What is the dose rate for oral administration of a drug?

Dosing rate oral= (CL• TC) / Foral

Time to [steady-state] is independent of what?

Dosing rate, (i.e., 4-5 t1/2)

Recombinational repair (HR or NHEJ) is used for repairing what?

Double strand breaks (Holliday Repair)

What is the action of levator scapulae?

Downward rotation of the scapula, tilting the glenoid fossa inferiorly

What happens during the head fold portion of development?

Dramatic increase in forebrain development is accompanied by folding of the anterior (cranial) end of the embryo. This results in rotation of the developing heart, the transverse septum and the oropharyngeal membrane so that they are ventral to the neural tube.

What is the action of the platysma?

Draws the corners of the mouth inferior and widens them, as well as tenses the skin of the neck superiorly when the teeth are clenched

What is Plasmic-Mediated Drug Resistance?

Drug resistance often associated with bacterial DNA plasmids, which can be transferred between bacteria. Can be between from normal flora to a pathogen.

Why must all polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) must be taken in via diet.?

Due to the inability to insert double bonds beyond the 9th carbon atom

Besides the stomach, what other structure is able to reduce iron?

Duodenum also capable of reducing iron (ferric reductase, Dcytb (duodenal cytochrome b))

When do we see a positive nitrogen balance?

During growth, pregnancy, lactation, and recovery from stress

What are the microtubule motor proteins, and how do they move cargo?

Dyneins - move cargo to the negative end Kinesins - move cargo the positive end

The limb buds originate from what tissues?

Ectoderm and mesenchyme from somatic lateral plate mesoderm *Photo D

Which cyclins are associated with the S phase?

E and A

Which polymerase of E. coli removes the RNA primer and which for eukaryotes?

E. coli - Pol I Eukaryotes - RNaseH/FEN1

What are the two elongation factors used in protein synthesis?

EF-TU (eukaryotic EF1) and EF-GU (eukaryotic EF2)

Age related non-disjunction usually occurs due to what two things?

Either altered recombination (meiosis I errors) or age related changes in spindle assembly and function (meiosis II errors).

What are oxidation-reduction reactions?

Electrons are transferred from a suitable electron donor (reductant) to a suitable electron acceptor (oxidant), and together they form a redox couple

What is the action of the stylohyoid?

Elevate and retract the hyoid

What is the action of the mylohyoid?

Elevates the tongue, floor of mouth, and the hyoid when swallowing/speaking

What is the action of the trapezius?

Elevates, retracts, and depresses the scapula

Define curing.

Eliminating or controlling a disease

What is the difference between empathy and sympathy?

Empathy is understanding the feelings of another, and sympathy is sharing the feelings of another

What is the primary mechanism of iron uptake by tells?

Endocytosis: Transferrin with bound iron binds to transferrin receptor and is endocytosed in a clathrin dependent manner

What are two types of DNA damage reagents?

Endogenous and environmental factors

How are amino acids incorporated into a protein?

Energy is transferred from the ester bond with the tRNA to the formation of the peptide bond between the amino acids

What three extracellular matrix proteins are being constantly remodeled throughout the wound healing process?

Fibronectin, Laminin, and Collagens

Motor axons begin invading the limb bud during what week of development?

Fifth

What cell types make up the stratum lucidium?

Flattened, highly keratinized cells

What is the action of longus capitis?

Flex the head

What is the action of rectus capitis anterior?

Flex the head

What is the action of the anterior scalene?

Flex the head

What is the action of rectus capitis lateralis?

Flexes and stabilizes the head

What is the action of the middle scalene?

Flexes the neck laterally and elevates the 1st rib during forced inspiration/

What is the action of the posterior scalene?

Flexes the neck laterally and elevates the 2nd rib during forced inspiration

What is the action of the longus colli?

Flexes the neck with rotation to opposite side if acting unilaterally

What allosterically inhibits hexokinase?

G6P

How is Ras activated?

GEFs activate Ras by stimulating it to give up its GDP for GTP. The cytosolic [GTP] is 10 times > [GDP], so Ras readily binds GTP once GDP has been ejected.

What are common examples of gram-negative bacteria?

GI bacteria, gonococci (venereal disease), meningococci, cholera, bubonic plague, E. coli, etc.

Which sequence is on the 5' site of the intron?

GU

Lactose breaks down into what two sugars by what enzyme?

Galactose and glucose by lactase

Where is simple columnar epithelium found?

Gall bladder, intestines, female reproductive tract, urinary system, respiratory tract

The developmental process whereby male and female gametes are produced is called ________________________.

Gametogenesis

How are bone lining cells and osteoclasts connected?

Gap junctions interconnect bone lining cells to each other and to underlying osteocytes - they provide nutritional support to underlying osteocytes

Triacylgylcerols are digested in the stomach and small intestine by ____________ and ________________ lipases.

Gastric and pancreatic

What is VDJ recombination (a type of non-homologous recombination)?

Gene rearrangement is a diversity generating assembly process affecting the variable domain of immunoglobulin or T cell receptor (TCR) genes. Rearrangement of variable (V), diversity (D) and joining (J) gene segments generates a vast repertoire of TCRs or Abs, enough versatility to cope with millions of pathogens (E.g. IgG light chain recombination)

What are Hofbauer cells?

Generally thought to be macrophages; found more commonly in the early placenta. Clinical note: HIV infected placentas show that HIV is mainly located within Hofbauer cells as well as in syncytiotrophoblasts.

Describe eukaryotic genome organization.

Genes constitute a small proportion of the genome, genes are transcribed individually from their own promoters, linear chromosomes located in the nucleus consist of chromatin instead of DNA, coding regions of genes are interrupted by introns and assembled into mRNA together during transcription (spliced), alternative splicing of the same gene product can generate multiple mRNA variants from the same DNA sequence, transcription is separated from translation by the nuclear membrane, extremely complex structure, most are multicellular, very similar in their metabolism.

What are pseudogenes?

Genes interspersed in gene clusters that represent "fossils" of former genes that have become inactivated by the accumulation of mutations. Some are actually transcribed but fail to make protein due to frame-shift mutations or premature stop codons.

What is Chromosomal-mediated antibiotic resistance?

Genes may modify a receptor for a drug, so that the drug can no longer bind. In general, causes low level of drug resistance rather than high.

What is the central dogma of gene expression?

Genome (DNA) replication > transcription (RNA) > translation (protein)

What does G-alpha-i do?

Gi inhibits adenylyl cyclase upon GTP binding, thus decreasing cAMP

Glutamine

Gln - Q - polar/uncharged

Describe globular proteins.

Globular and compact, highly soluble, capable of movement in three dimensions, hydrophilic and hydrophobic residues (E.g. actin, myosin, cytosolic enzymes)

Glutamate

Glu - E - polar/charged

What is the simplest breakdown of glycolysis?

Glucose > Fructose 1, 6 biphosphate > 2 pyruvate which can be used for anaerobic homolactic fermentation or aerobic oxidation and then to the citric cycle

Sucrose breaks down into what two sugars by what enzyme?

Glucose and fructose by sucrase

The brain can utilize what for energy production?

Glucose and ketone bodies

Starch breaks down into what by what two enzymes?

Glucose by amylase and alpha-glucosidases

What are some examples of enzymes as therapeutic/diagnostic reagents?

Glucose meters, ELISA, thrombolytics for MI and stroke, enzyme therapy for Gaucher disease

Glycogen storage disease type 1 (von Gierke) is caused by what?

Glucose-6-phosphatase

What is the obligate amino/alpha-ketoacid pair in most transaminase reactions?

Glutamate/alpha-ketglutarate

Glycine

Gly - G - nonpolar

What enzyme is needed for glycogen degradation?

Glycogen phosphorylase/debrancher enzyme

What is the difference between glycoproteins and proteoglycans?

Glycoproteins consists of a protein core and short, stubby sugar chains, while proteoglycans have a protein core with long sugar chains

What are the five non-polar/hydrophobic amino acids?

Going Away Via Lake Intruders Glycine - Alanine - Valine - Leucine - Isoleucine

What is an ecological aggregate study?

Groups are the unit of analysis

What conditions are associated with a positive nitrogen balance?

Growing children, pregnancy, and re-feeding after starvation

Insulin signaling is responsible for what two things?

Growth and metabolism

What does G-alpha-s do?

Gs activates adenylyl cyclase upon GTP binding thus increases cAMP.

Which two enzymes regulate cGMP?

Guanylate cyclases (synthetic) and cGMP phosphodiesterases (degradative)

What enzyme is needed for glycogen synthesis?

Gylcogen synthase/branching enzyme

DMT1 transports Fe2+ in symport with what other molecule?

H+

Describe the alpha helix.

H-bonding between main chain C=O of one residue and the main chain NH group four residues away - side groups extend outward and are not involved - every 7th residue lines up

What are the five lipoproteins that exist in the fed state?

HDL, LDL, IDL, VLDL, chylomicrons

What are the four lipoproteins that exist in the fasted state?

HDL, LDL, IDL, and VLDL

What is the rate limiting step in cholesterol synthesis?

HMG-CoA reductase

What regulates HSL and AGTL?

HSL - PKA phosphorylation AGTL - perilipin/CGI‐58 in response to PKA phosphorylation

Fluctuations in plasma concentration intensity of a drug are inversely proportional to what?

Half-life

What is the difference between cellular hypertrophy and atrophy?

Hypertrophy: Increase in size and functional capacity of an individual cell Atrophy: Decrease in size and function of cells

The stratum basale is connected to the basal lamina via what?

Hemidesmosomes

What is cytochrome P450?

Hemoprotein which is a terminal oxidase

Transport of iron by ferroportin into or out of cells is under hormonal regulation. What hormone?

Hepcidin

What purine and pyrimidine salvage?

Here PRPP plays a central role as an acceptor of the various purines and pyrimidines that are generated during nucleotide degradation. Salvage pulls purine nucleotides out of the degradation pathway thus reducing the possibility of gout. Disruption of purine salvage leads to gout and worse.

What is the difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin?

Heterochromatin is more condensed and less transcriptionally active, and euchromatin is less condensed and more transcriptionally active

Expression of acetyl-CoA carboxylase increases in what kind of diet?

High carbohydrate

Expression of acetyl-CoA carboxylase decreases in what kind of diet?

High fat

What are some common properties of RNA polymerase?

Highly regulated enzymes, do not need an RNA primer to start transcription, require promoters to start transcription and termination signal to end transcription, multisubunit: complex structure, structure and sequence is similar among all organisms, use bimetal catalytic mechanism (Mg2+), substrates are the 3'-OH of the RNA chain and template-specific 5'-ribonucleoside triphosphate (NTP).

Histidine

His - H - polar/charged

What are the essential amino acids?

His, Ile, Leu, Lys, Met, Phe, Thr, Trp, Val

What happens to old histones?

Histone chaperones bring in new tretramers to fill the gaps

The exocoelomic membrane is derived from what, and what does it line?

Hypoblast; exocoelomic cavity (blastocystic cavity)

What are descriptive epidemiological studies?

How disease varies by person, place, and time

Proximal to distal expression patterns in the limb bud (differentiation) is regulated by what?

Hox genes 9-13

What hormones do the fetal/placental membranes produce?

Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) Human chorionic thyrotropin (hCT) Human chorionic corticotropin (hCACTH) Progesterone Estrogens

What two things affect bioavailability of a drug?

Hydrophobicity and active transport of drug

Most calcium and phosphorous in bone is in the form of what?

Hydroxyapatite crystals (Inorganic matter of bones)

What is the difference between hyperplasia and metaplasia?

Hyperplasia: Increase in NUMBERS of cells Metaplasia: Change in cell differentiation to another mature cell type

What are the essential amino acids?

Leu, Met, Trp, His, Ile, Phe, Val, Lys, and Thr

What structures make up the lateral portion of the axillary space?

Intertubercular groove with the tendon of the biceps long head

What makes up most of the size of genes? What does this mean of the other components of genes?

Introns - this makes other components (exons and promoters) a small target for mutation

What are second messengers?

Ion or biomolecule released or produced at the cell plasma membrane in response to binding of a signal molecule (E.g. first messenger) to its receptor located herein. They amplify the signal.

What are dietary sources of non-heme iron?

Iron oxides and salts - lentils, beans, spinach enhanced by dietary acids (Vit C, citric acid) and by ethanol, fructose

What is the structure of fatty acid synthase?

Is a homodimer that contains at least 7 different enzyme activities and two acyl carrier proteins (ACP)

What is a chemoattractant?

Is a molecule, such as a growth factor or cytokine, that stimulates a target cell (neutrophil, fibroblast, etc.) to migrate directionally towards the source of that molecule (i.e. wounded tissue, leukocytes - inflammation, bacteria - infection).

Describe diffusion.

Is powered by random movement of molecules in a solution from regions of high concentration to regions of low concentration - substances can cross membranes by diffusion if they can dissolve in the oily interior of the membrane (hydrophobic)

What is the importance of mismatched repair?

Is responsible for correcting replication errors, accounting for 99% of all repairs (always following behind replication fork), it is very important for homeostasis.

What is a drumstick chromosome?

Is the Barr body from the quiescent X-chromosome in female neutrophils

What is the chiasma in reference to chromosomes?

Is the point where two homologous non-sister chromatids exchange genetic material during chromosomal crossover in meiosis (prophase I)

What are uncouplers?

It abolishes the coupling between electron transport and ATP synthesis. Electron transport can continue, but without ATP synthesis. They pick up a proton in the intermembrane space and rapidly diffuse into the mitochondrial matrix where they lose their proton. This dissipates the proton gradient.

What is a non-histone? What is a prominent example?

It is any structural protein found in a chromosome that is not a histone (E.g. RNA polymerase)

What are the borders of the interscalene triangle, and what structures run through it?

It is bordered by the middle and anterior scalene, as well as the first rib, and the brachial plexus and the subclavian artery run through it

What is the danger of ROS?

It is capable of damaging cellular lipids, proteins and nucleic acids

What is the structure of the axoneme?

It is composed of a central pair microtubules, surrounded by nine doublets of microtubules

What is the fate of cholesterol in epithelial cells?

It is converted to cholesterol esters by cholesterol acyltransferases

What is primary active transport?

It is driven by ATP hydrolysis or by light (photons), may go with or against the gradient, models Michaelis-Menten kinetics

What is myoepithelium?

It is found among duct cells between the basal lamina and the basal pole of the secretory or duct cell, it enwraps secretory epithelial cells, contracts, and secretes the contents

Describe the superficial cervical fascia.

It is immediately under the skin, and includes fat, superficial nerves and vessels, and muscle (platysma)

Where is the "danger space" located, and what is the significance of it?

It is located between the alar layer and prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fascia. It is a significant route for the spreading of disease processes.

What makes an amino acid glucogenic?

It is metabolized to intermediates in glycolysis or the citric acid cycle

Carbamoyl phosphate is the entrance into the urea cycle. How is it synthesized and activated?

It is synthesized by carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I (CPSI) - combining ammonia and bicarbonate - using two ATP and being allosterically activated by N-acetylglutamate

What is Km?

It is the Michaelis constant - the concentration of substrate needed to achieve 1/2 Vmax - low Km indicates a more efficient enzyme

What is Troisier's sign?

It is the clinical finding of palpable left supraclavicular lymph node, which is considered to be pathognomonic of metastatic abdominal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer

What is secondary active transport?

It is the coupled to the transport of another solute with its concentration gradient

What is homologous recombination?

It is the exchange of matched segments between two DNA strands

What is autophagy?

It is the intracellular mechanism responsible for the gradual turnover of the cells own components (intracellular degradation of organelles and cytoplasm).

What is Kcat/Km?

It is the measure of enzyme efficiency - higher value indicates a more efficient enzyme

What is the action of myosin?

It is the motor protein for the actin filaments

What is transpositional site specific recombination?

It is the movement of specific DNA sequences in the genome. Simple transposition excises a sequence in the genome and inserts it elsewhere, and replicative transposition copies a sequence and inserts it somewhere else (keeps the original).

What is tertiary protein structure?

It is the overall shape of the protein

Describe the structure of the primary follicle.

It is the primary oocyte surrounded by one or more layers of cuboidal follicle cells - a zona pellucida surrounds the oocyte

What is the function of albumin in blood plasma?

It regulates colloid osmotic pressure which prevents blood from leaking out of vessels and transports molecules

What is the role of FEN1 in eukaryotic DNA replication?

It removes the last nucleotide of the RNA primer

What is the "biopsychosocial" model of healthcare?

It retains the biomedical model, but adds psychological, family, and social factors. It recognizes the patient's illness experience as a legitimate part of the responsibility of medicine

Describe the prevertebral layer of the deep cervical fascia.

It surrounds the cervical vertebral column and the associated muscles, and it splits into the alar layer and the prevertebral layer

Why does it take more heat energy to separate GC in comparison to AT?

It takes more heat energy to separate GC in comparison to AT because the former has three hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides whereas AT has only two

What happens in complex I in the ETC?

It transfers electrons from NADH, to FMN, to FeS centers, and then to UQ, coupled with the transport of four protons across the membrane, contributing to the proton-motive force required for the synthesis of ATP.

What is the role of the phosphate translocator?

It transports cytosolic phosphate plus a proton into the matrix in a 1:1 ratio. It depends on the proton gradient.

Describe acid/base catalysis.

It utilizes ionizable amino acid side chains - reaction is aided by transfer of a proton from an acid (donating) or abstraction of a proton by a base (accepting).

What makes an amino acid ketogenic?

It will be metabolized to acetoacetate or acetyl CoA

Describe the deep cervical fascia in general.

It wraps around and compartmentalizes the deep structures of the neck

Where does the spinal cord end?

Its caudal tapering end, the conus medullaris, ends at the level of the intervertebral disc between: L2 and L3 in newborn children and L1 and L 2 in adults

What happens to the decidua capsularis as the baby grows?

Its like dipping a deflated balloon in paint, and then blowing it up - shreds

What is a leucine zipper?

Leucine residues are at every 7th position on a helix - stabilizes helix-helix interactions - common in TFs

Where are integrin cell receptors found?

Leukocytes, Fibroblasts, Epithelial Cells, Muscle Cells, etc

What are some common inhibitors in drug metabolism?

Ketoconazole, Erythromycin, Grapefruit juice, Acute ethanol use, Sulfonamides, Isoniazid, Cimetidine Inhibit yourself from drinking beer from a KEG because it makes you Acutely SICk

What is the most essential route of drug elimination/clearance?

Kidney

What is the function of NK Cells?

Kill! Recognize tumor cells or virally infected cells that have low MHC I molecules plus other cell surface receptors, kill with lytic granules.

What types of enzymes mediate the action of an effector? How do they do this?

Kinases; they phosphorylate target proteins by recognizing specific sequences and this causes its activation or inhibition

Leg buds develop between which somites?

L1-S2

Osteocytes lie in spaces called ______________________ and are surrounded by ________________________ _________________________.

Lacunae; calcified matrix

What makes up an osteon?

Lamellae and central canals surrounded by a cementing substance

Where is pseudostratified columnar ciliated epithelium found?

Large respiratory airways

What is copy number variation?

Large sized deletions or duplications that occur in the genome that exhibit a high degree of variation between individuals of a population. Unequal crossing over is the predominant mechanism of CNV. The rate of mutation is at the level of that of SNPs.

What branch comes from the lateral cord?

Lateral pectoral nerve (C5-7)

What is the action of splenius capitis?

Laterally flexes and rotates the head and neck to the same side, bilaterally extends the head and neck

What borders the lumbar triangle?

Latissimus dorsi, external oblique, and iliac crest

What are some dietary sources of non-heme iron?

Lentils, beans, and spinach

What can occur as a result of HGPRTase (hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyl transferase) deficiency?

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

What nerves are contained in the superficial branch of the cervical plexus?

Lesser occipital, greater auricular, transverse cervical, and supraclavicular that emerge at the nerve point

Leucine

Leu - L - nonpolar

Which amino acids are considered ketogenic?

Leu and Lys

What is Enzymatic Fat Necrosis?

Lipolysis of cells with calcification and inflammation

What is Liquefaction Necrosis?

Liquefied center of necrotic cellular debris, common in some bacteria, seen in the brain with most injuries, also abscesses

Bile acids are synthesized by the __________ from ______________.

Liver; cholesterol

What is the equation for a loading dose drug administration?

Loading Dose = Vd• TC

Describe Merkle discs.

Located in the epidermis and are particularly dense in the fingertips, lips and external genitalia. They have a plate like ending which is in contact with the Merkel cell. They respond to light pressure and can discriminate shape and texture.

What is cancellous bone?

Long trabeculae within the marrow cavity and that comprises most of the bone in the epiphysis

What is a Dupuytren's Contracture?

Longitudinal slips of the palmar aponeurosis develop cysts. Slips contract & produce passive flexion of affected fingers.

The electrons stored in NADH and FADH2 gain or lose their energy as they travel through the electron transport chain?

Lose

What is Nonallelic homologous recombination (NAHR)?

Low copy repeats or segmental duplications that lead to errors during homologous recombination (cross-over events at meiosis). This occurs if the repeats are within 10 Mb of each other. Leads to gene duplication and rise of gene families organized into clusters.

What is the affect temperature on enzymes?

Low temp - reduces the kinetic energy of the enzyme Optimal temp - enzyme functions optimally High temp - denatures the enzyme

5-Phosphoribosyl-1- pyrophosphate (PRPP) is low or high in resting cells? Is it elevated or decreased in dividing cells?

Low; elevated

What structures are contained in the submental triangle?

Lymph nodes, arteries,and small veins

Lymphoid stem cell will form what types of cells?

Lymphocytes

What is the third line of defense against invading pathogens?

Lymphocytes and antibodies

Pluripotent stem cells (PPSC) differentiate into what two types of multipotent stem cells?

Lymphoid stem cells (CFU-L) and myeloid stem cells (CFU-GEMM)

Lysine

Lys - K - polar/charged

The synthesis of triacylglycerols involves the formation of what two acids?

Lysophosphatidic and phosphatidic acid

What are some common inhibitory antibiotics that affect translation?

Macrolides, tetracycline, and aminoglycosides

What are some examples of minerals?

Macrominerals - Ca, Cl, P, K, Mg, Na, S Trace minerals - Fe, Z, Cr, F, Mn, Cu, Se, Co Unestablished - As, B, , Cd, Li, Ni, Si, Sn, Va

Once a monocyte has migrated out of the blood stream and into the connective tissue it becomes a what?

Macrophage

Who are the second responders to the site of a wound? What is their function?

Macrophages arrive shortly after neutrophils but will persist longer. They phagocytose debris and damaged cells, and secrete chemoattractants

Where can HDL be synthesized?

Mainly in the liver and to a lesser extent in the intestine as a ApoA-1 (lipid poor HDL).

What are the functions of mineralcorticoids?

Maintain blood volume and renal excretion

What is the maintenance dose equation for oral drug administration?

Maintenance dose = Dosing rateoral•Dosing interval = [(CL• TC) / Foral] •Dosing interval

What is "amplification" in reference to extracellular signaling?

Make the cell signal stronger, so that a few extracellular signal molecules are enough to evoke a large intracellular response.

Niacin reacts with what enzyme?

Malate dehydrogenase

What is feedback inhibition?

Many allosteric effectors are downstream metabolites or end products in a metabolic pathway. The build-up of these compounds within a cell signals to an upstream rate limiting enzyme that enough product has been formed. In this situation, the enzyme is inhibited

How is the uterus arranged in 65% of monozygotic twins?

Monochorionic, diamniotic, single placenta *one smaller twin

Mitochondrial disease are inherited how?

Maternally

What is secondary bone?

Mature Bone with collagen in matrix in parallel circles (lamellar bone)

What are two important surface landmarks of the humerus?

Medial and lateral epicondyle

What are the three side branches from the medial cord?

Medial pectoral (C8-T1), medial brachial cutaneous (C8-T1), medial antebrachial (C8-T1)

What are the two superficial nerves of the palmar surface of the hand?

Median n. and redcurrant branch of median .

Where does the spinal cord superiorly extend from?

Medulla oblongata

Cobalamin (Cobalamin- B12 ) deficiency results in what?

Megaloblastic anemia

What makes up the extraembryonic mesoderm?

Mesenchyme derived from the yolk sac forms around the yolk sac and the amnion and separates these structures from the cytotrophoblast.

What dictates the identity or nature of limb structures (E.g. upper limb vs lower limb; humerus vs radius; arm skin vs leg skin)?

Mesoderm

Methionine

Met - M - nonpolar

What is the basal metabolic rate?

Metabolic activity for basic maintenance of body, life, and function in a steady state - measures O2 consumption and CO2 and N excretion after a fast

When do we see a negative nitrogen balance?

Metabolic stress, inadequate protein intake, and lack of essential amino acids

The receptor-signal complex plays roles in what?

Metabolism, function, and development

What is the problem with migration in reference to cancer?

Metastases to other tissues

Which metabolic processes utilize vitamin B12?

Methionine salvage and proprionate metabolism

What increases the synthesis of cholesterol 7-alpha hydroxylase?

Mevalonate, thyroid hormones, and glucocorticoids increase synthesis

What is the function of migratory cells in wound healing?

Migrate to wounds to clear debris, bacteria, synthesize new matrix, close the wound

What is chemotaxis?

Migration toward an increasing concentration of a chemoattractant. This involves leaving the current environment the cell is in, such as a blood vessel, an epithelial sheet or the ECM, by disrupting cell-cell adhesions, cell-matrix adhesions and degrading the matrix so that migration can occur.

Which traits are only passed through the mother?

Mitochondrial inheritance

Transposons have the ability to do what?

Move and/or replicate in the genome

Describe membrane proteins.

Movement two dimensionally, receptors for hormones/extracellular signals, ion channels/pumps, cell adhesion, cell recognition,

Genetic disorder caused by a combination of small inherited variations in genes, often acting together with environmental factors

Multifactorial inheritance disorders: heart disease, diabetes, cancer

The lateral cord divides up into what two terminal branches?

Musculocutaneous nerve and a portion of the medial nerve

What is Type III mitochondrial disease?

Mutations are mostly sporadic-occurring mitochondrial deletions and duplications that can cause a spectrum of diseases (e.g. Pearson syndrome, Kearns- Sayre syndrome).

Pluripotent stem cells differentiate into what to types of multipotent stem cells?

Myeloid stem cells (CFU-GEMM) and lymphoid stem cells (CFU-L)

The dorsal and ventral muscle masses will differentiate into their individual muscle groups as a result of what?

Myoblast differentiation and then myoblast fusion to form myotubes.

What are some risks associated with NSAID use due to the inhibition of COX I?

Myocardial infarction, renal failure Ulcers and potentially internal bleeding

What are the three types of myosin?

Myosin I - 1 head, 1 short tail Myosin II - 2 heads, 2 long tails Myosin II Filament - thick filament

How do actin and myosin work in muscle contraction, and what triggers a contraction?

Myosin filament heads grab the F-actins and bring them closer together - this is triggered by nerve impulses which stimulate a huge release of calcium from the smooth ER

Limb muscle is derived from what? When during development does muscle development occur?

Myotome during the 5th week

What are some common cofactors (loose)?

NAD+, NADP+, and CoA

What is the MOA of glucocorticoids?

NFkB (transcription factor) binds to IkB, which keeps it inactive, upon activation (stimulus) the IkB subunit is phosphorylated and degraded, the active NFkB subunit than activates inflammatory cytokines. In the presence of glucocorticoids, the active NFkB is again inhibited thus decreases inflammation.

Irreversible cell injury leads to what?

Necrosis or apoptosis

How can you tell the difference between the suprascpular artery and nerve in reference to the transvere scapular ligament?

Nerve - Navy under the bridge Artery - Army over the bridge

What innervates the mylohyoid?

Nerve to mylohyoid

The superior trunk has two branches. What are they and where do they stem from?

Nerve to subclavius (C5-6) and suprascapular (C5-6)

What is the "fed state" in regards to lipid metabolism?

Net deposition of triacylglyceride in adipose tissue from dietary fat and excess carbohydrate and amino acid metabolism in the liver.

What is the fasted state in regard to lipid metabolism?

Net release of fatty acid from triacylglycerol stores and net increase in liver ketone body production.

What is carpal tunnel syndrome?

Neurogenic (compression of median n.) Symptoms: Burning, tingling, itching, numbness thumb, all over sensation loss over median n. distribution, possible referred pain in forearm

Glucocorticoid receptor (GR) is what type of receptor?

Nuclear

What happens in telophase I of meiosis I?

Nuclear envelope reappears

What is involved with long term regulation of HMG-CoA reductase?

Nuclear signaling. (Top panel) Low cholesterol promotes Scap-mediate transport of SREBP from the ER to Golgi by binding to the Sar1/Sec23/Sec24 complex. Once SREBP is in the Golgi it is proteolytically processed to generate their nuclear forms that increases the expression of genes needed for cholesterol synthesis and uptake. (Bottom panel) High cholesterol promotes binding of Scap/SREBP to Insig that inhibits proteolytic processing of SREBP that prevent gene expression

The distance that a cell can migrate is determined by what?

Nuclear translocation

Folic acid (Tetrahydrofolate-B9) is necessary for what? What disorder can it lead to?

Nucleic acid synthesis; megaloblastic anemia

How are nucleic acids visualized in gel electrophoresis? What is the mechanism of the visualization agent?

Nucleic acids are visualized using the fluorescent dye ethidum bromide. Planar in structure, they can insert themselves between the bases in the core of the DNA. They illuminate when exposed to UV light. They expose position and intensity of the nucleic acid

Describe the structure, function and distinguishing features of neutrophils.

Nucleus: 4-5 Segments or Lobes Cytoplasm: "neutral" stained granules Size: larger than an RBC Function: 1. Acute Inflammatory Response to Tissue Injury -Cell surface is activated in response to injury -Cells roll along the surface of endothelium -They squeeze between endothelial cells and migrate to the wound 2. Highly Motile - generally first at the wound site 3. Highly Phagocytic - engulfs foreign cells and bodies

What are the defining characteristics of neutrophils?

Nucleus: 4-5 Segments or Lobes Cytoplasm: "neutral" stained granules Size: larger than RBC

Describe the structure, function and distinguishing features of basophils.

Nucleus: Bilobed (2-Lobes) Cytoplasm: basophilic stained large granules that generally do not consume all of cytoplasmic space Size: much larger than RBC Function: 1. Immunological response to parasites including ticks and parasitic worms 2. Allergic reactions - mass release of histamine

What are some histological characteristics of basophils?

Nucleus: Bilobed (2-Lobes) Cytoplasm: basophilic stained large granules that generally do not consume all of cytoplasmic space Size: much larger than RBC

Describe the structure, function and distinguishing features of eosinophils.

Nucleus: Bilobed (2-lobes) Cytoplasm: dark eosin stained small granules that consume cytoplasmic space Size: much larger than RBC Function: 1. Parasitic Defense 2. Damage Control of allergic reactions 3. Role in Chronic Inflammation - asthma, allergies, or due to long lasting parasitic infections

What are the histological characteristics of eosinophils?

Nucleus: Bilobed (2-lobes) Cytoplasm: dark eosin stained small granules that consume cytoplasmic space Size: much larger than RBC

Describe the structure, function and distinguishing features of monocytes.

Nucleus: Large, indented (kidney bean shape) Cytoplasm: lightly stained Size: larger than RBC Function: No function in the blood

What are histological characteristics of monocytes?

Nucleus: Large, indented (kidney bean shape) Cytoplasm: lightly stained Size: larger than RBC

Describe the structure and distinguishing features of platelets.

Nucleus: None Cytoplasm: 'lumpy' Size: much smaller than RBC Shape: Round oval discs

Describe the structure, function and distinguishing features of erythrocytes.

Nucleus: None Cytoplasm: No organelles, pink/red cytoplasm that may or may not appear to have a "hole" in the center of the cell Size: used as a "ruler" with which to compare other cells Shape: Biconcave Function: Bind oxygen and deliver O2 to tissues, exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide and remove CO2 from tissues

Describe the structure of reticulocytes.

Nucleus: None Cytoplasm: bluish stain of residual organelles Size: close to size of RBC (slightly larger)

What are the histological characteristics of platelets?

Nucleus: None Cytoplasm: 'lumpy' Size: much smaller than RBC

What are some histological characteristics of lymphocytes?

Nucleus: Single Round that consumes most of cell space Cytoplasm: lightly stained, small volume of total cellular space Size: slightly larger than RBC

Describe the structure and distinguishing features of lymphocytes.

Nucleus: Single, dense, round that consumes most of cell space Cytoplasm: lightly stained, small volume of total cellular space Size: slightly larger than RBC

What drives bacterial transcription?

Nutrients, metabolites, and environmental conditions - they are super flexible which contributes to drug resistance

Irons reacts spontaneously with what two things to make reactive oxygen species?

O2 and hydrogen peroxide

Where does peroxisomal oxidation occur and what does it do?

Occurs in liver, kidney and other tissues when fatty acids are too long to be handeled by the mitochondria (>C22). The initial dehydrogenation is accomplished by an oxidase (Flavoprotein) that produces H2O2. H2O2 is consumed by catalase. - Following the initial oxidation the fatty acids are beta-oxidized similar to that found in the mitochondria, but cannot go further then C8. Beyond C8 occurs in the mitochondria. - Also involved in chain shortening of dicarboxylic acids, conversion of cholesterol into bile acids, and formation of ether lipids. - Peroxisomes maintain diverse metabolic roles thus when absent due to inherited defects can result in multiple disorder (Zellwegers syndrome).

Where does alpha-oxidation occur and what does it do?

Occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum and mitochondria and involves monooxygenases (P450 family) that requires O2, NADH, or NADPH. - Long chain fatty acids (C18, C20, and C24) are hydroxylated for sphingolipid synthesis. - Short chain fatty acid are hydroxylated so they can enter into beta-oxidation

What is capacitation of sperm?

Occurs in the female reproductive tract and is required for fertilization to occur. Initiated by depletion of membrane cholesterol and influx of bicarbonate ion. Bicarbonate influx stimulates sperm specific adenylate cyclase> PKA activation > lipid rearrangement and phosphorylation of several proteins (e.g. ZP receptor).

Where does omega-oxidation occur and what does it do?

Occurs primarily in peroxisomes and to a lesser extent in the endoplasmic reticulum. Hydroxylation occurs on the methyl end of the fatty acid and involves a monooxygenase enzyme, O2, and NADPH. - The hydroxylated fatty acids can be transported to the cytosol to form dicarboxylic acids via alcohol and aldehyde dehydrogenases. - These can then be beta-oxidized to shorter chain dicarboxylic acid such as adipic (C6) and succinic (C4) acids.

What is covalent catalysis?

Occurs when part or all of a substrate molecule forms a covalent bond bond with a component of the enzyme's active site before transfer to a second substrate; will stabilize an intermediate in a chemical reaction by covalently attaching to one part of the substrate

What are three important surface landmarks of the radius and ulna?

Olecranon, styloid process of the ulna, styloid process of the radius * interosseous membrane

Where are osteoblasts found?

On new bone surface

Where are osteoprogenitor cells found?

On the external and internal surfaces of bones and their vasculature canals

What is incomplete or partial dominance?

One allele is only partially dominant over the other - results in a third phenotype in which the expressed trait is a combination of the alleles.

What is an impacted fracture?

One end of fractured bone is forced into the other bony end

What is interconversion of purine nucleotide synthesis?

One way for cells to conserve on energy is to interconvert nucleotide pools instead of always synthesizing de novo. Excess GTP stimulates GMP to AMP conversion. Excess ATP stimulates AMP to GMP conversion.

What is penetrance?

Only a fraction of those with a particular genotype express the phenotype (black or white) - the degree to which those with a particular genotype express the phenotype. Many mutations can show incomplete penetrance, where they do not exhibit the trait even if they have the genotype for it. In other words, if 50 people have the BRCA1 mutation, not all 50 will get breast cancer, because the penetrance is not 100%. e.g. Breast cancer (mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2) can be influenced by age, smoking, obesity, etc.

Disulfide bonds can occur between which amino acids?

Only cysteine

Production of eggs in females is called _________________________.

Oogenesis

Non-disjunction and aneuploidy occur more often during what type of gametogenesis? It is more often linked with what cell cycle?

Oogenesis; meiosis I

Most NSAIDs are what kind of compounds?

Organic acids

What are vitamins?

Organic micronutrients, present in minute quantities in natural foodstuffs, that are essential to normal metabolism

What is the origin and insertion of the digastric muscle?

Origin: Anterior belly - digastric fossa of the mandible Posterior belly - mastoid notch Insertion: intermediate tendon to the body and greater horn of the hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the geniohyoid?

Origin: inferior mental spine of the mandible Insertion: body of the hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the sternohyoid?

Origin: manubrium and medial end of the clavicle Insertion: body of the hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the mylohyoid?

Origin: mylohyoid line of the mandible Insertion: mylohyoid raphe and the body of the hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the thyrohyoid?

Origin: oblique line of the thyroid cartilage Insertion: inferior border of the body and greater horn of hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the sternothyroid?

Origin: posterior surface of the manubrium Insertion: oblique line of the thyroid cartilage

What is the origin and insertion of the stylohyoid?

Origin: styloid process Insertion: body of the hyoid

What is the origin and insertion of the omohyoid?

Origin: superior border of the scapula near the suprascapular notch Insertion: inferior border of the hyoid

Bone lining cells are derived from what?

Osteoblasts

Osteocytes are derived from what?

Osteoblasts

When activated, osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into what?

Osteoblasts

What is the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH) in bone formation?

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) binds Osteoblasts which then release Osteoclast Stimulating Factor

What is a greenstick bone fracture?

Partial fracture on one side of the bone as the bone bends. Common in kids since their bones are more "flexible" (bones of children have not fully ossified)

What occurs in anaphase I of meiosis I?

Partial loss of cohesin complex; separation of homologous chromosomes

What is diapedesis?

Passage through a vessel wall

What is facilitated diffusion?

Passive transport mediated by transmembrane proteins/channels, no energy is required, moves from high to low concentration, models Michaelis-Menten kinetics

What is fibrinoid material in reference to pregnancy?

Patches of fibrin and other matrix components collect and form on the surfaces of villi towards the end of the pregnancy. Fibrinoid material is a result of placental aging and appears to reduce the efficiency of placental transfer.

What structures form the anterior portion of the axillary space?

Pectoralis muscles, sublcavius, clavipectoral fascia, and clavicle

Niacin (NAD+, NADP+ - B3) deficiency results in what disease? How does it manifest?

Pellagra - characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia or death

What are some common peptidoglycan inhibitors?

Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Vancomycin, Bacitracin

What is the fate of glucose in RBCs?

Pentose phosphates and lactate *(GLUT 1 transport)

What is the fate of glucose in brain tissue?

Pentose phosphates and pyruvate (can be converted to Acetyl CoA and used in the Kreb's Cycle) *(GLUT 3 transport)

What is the fate of glucose in liver parenchymal cells?

Pentose phosphates, glucurinides, back out as glucose, as fat, as lactate, the Kreb cycle, or stored as glycogen

What is the fate of glucose in muscle and heart tissue?

Pentose phosphates, pyruvate (can be converted to Acetyl CoA and used in the Kreb's Cycle or converted to lactate), or stored as glycogen * (GLUT 4 transport)

What is the fate of glucose in adipose tissue?

Pentose phosphates, stored as glycogen, or converted to pyruvate which is converted to Acetyl CoA which is converted to fat *(GLUT 4 transport)

What are the five special amino acids?

Please Pretend This Team Matters Proline - Phenylalanine - Tyrosine - Tryptophan - Methionine

All cells involved in immunity originate from what?

Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

Dispersion of lipid droplets is aided by what two mechanics of the digestive tract?

Peristalsis and gastric churning

Knowing the specific genetic contributors in an individual patient allows you to tailor your treatment to the patient's individuality. This is known as what?

Personalized medicine

What is the second line of defense against invading pathogens?

Phagocytic white blood cells, antimicrobial proteins, and the inflammatory response

Phenylalanine

Phe -F - aromatic

What inactivates Ras and RTK?

Phosphatases and Ras GAP

What regulates cdk activity?

Phosphorylation by activating and inhibitory kinases and cdk inhibitors (p21, p27, and p16)

What are some post-translational modifications that can happen to proteins?

Phosphorylation, glycosylation, lipidation, hydroxylation, methylation, acetylation, addition of cofactors, coenzymes, and other prosthetic groups

What are two direct reversal repair mechanisms for DNA?

Photoreactivation (DNA photolyase) and demethylation (MGMT)

Describe eukaryotic RNA polymerase.

Pol I - nucleolus - large rRNA Pol II - nucleoplasm - mRNA, some non-coding RNA Pol III - nucleoplasm - tRNA, 5s rRNA, some non-coding RNA

Cells must have what property in order to migrate? What drives this cell property?

Polarity; Rho-family GTPases

How is mRNA degraded?

Poly-A shortening and degradation - once the mRNA reaches the cytosol, exonucleases begin shortening the tail (countdown clock) 3' to 5' Decapping - cap is removed and exonucleases degrade 5' to 3' *translation is the only thing that can save them

What are some autosomal dominant disorders?

Polycystic kidney disease, Marfan syndrome, achondroplasia

What nerves are contained in the deep branch of the cervical plexus?

Phrenic nerve, inferior root of ansa cervicalis, muscular branches, and communicating branches

Describe the paternalistic model of PPR.

Physician is in control, patient's role is to assent, patients well-being is more important than autonomy (may be ok in an emergency situation)

Describe the informative/consumer view of PPR.

Physician provides patient with information and the patient chooses, the patient is in control (could be appropriate in procedural care)

What are some sources of vitamins?

Plants, fungi, Vit D from sun, Vit K from gut bacteria, general food sources (seeds, yeast, liver/organ meats, veggies, dairy products)

What is the difference between plasma and serum?

Plasma contains clotting factors, while serum does not

Is the superficial branch of the cervical plexus sensory or motor?

Sensory

What innervates the splenius capitis?

Posterior rami of cervical spinal nerves

What are some social determinants of mental health?

Poverty/income Experience of discrimination Exposure to war, violence

What is heteroplasmy?

Presence of both normal and mutated mtDNA, resulting in variable expression in mitochondrially inherited disease.

What arteries come off of the second part of sublcavian?

Right costal cervical trunk, and maybe descending/dorsal artery

How is the brachial plexus divided?

Robin Thicke Drinks Cold Beer Nightly Roots Trunks Divisions Cords Branches Nerves

What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?

Rubor = redness Tumor = swelling Calor = heat Dolor = pain Functio laesa = loss of function

What is the Popeye deformity?

Rupture of the long head of the biceps brachii at the origin of the bicipital groove

What signaling molecules are are recruited from activation of the tyrosine kinase receptor?

SH2 and PTB domains recognizes the phosphate group at the receptor and forms a scaffold, whereas PH recognizes the phosphate group at the lipid molecule SH3 domains brings accessory proteins together, but does not bind to a phosphate group.

What syndrome develops as a result of compression of the interscalene triangle and what maneuver helps diagnose it?

Scalenus anticus syndrome or cervical rib syndrome diagnosed by the scalene or Adson maneuver

What borders make up the cervicoaxillary canal?

Scapula, 1st rib, and clavicle

What structures form the posterior portion of the axillary space?

Scapula, subscapularis, posterior axillary fold, latissimus dorsi, and teres major

What is LCAT?

Secreted by liver located on HDL, requires phosphatidylcholine (lecithin) and cholesterol, and is reversible.

What happens in anaphase of mitosis?

Separation of the chromosomes. Each kinetochore in sister chromatid pairs must be attached to microtubules from opposite poles before anaphase can begin. Initiation of anaphase then requires degradation of the cohesin complex holding the sister chromatids together. This occurs through a sequence of protein interactions that are initiated by the ubiquitin ligase, APC. This represents the M phase checkpoint. that consists of two events: - Anaphase A: separation and poleward movement of sister chromatids, mediated by kinetochore microtubule shortening and microtubule motor proteins - Anaphase B: interpolar MT elongation and centrosome separation (mediated by microtubule associated motor proteins)

Serine

Ser - S - polar/uncharged

What structures make up the medial portion of the axillary space?

Serratus anterior, ribs, and intercostals

What is the difference between serum and plasma?

Serum lacks clotting factors, plasma contains clotting factors.

What is the function of globulins?

Serves as a vesicle for transport of other molecules *Includes immunoglobulins

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

Seven

What is an operon?

Several mRNAs can be made from the promoter and translated from the same RNA (E.g. the lac operon)

Describe the partnership view of PPR?

Shared goals reached through discussion and more equal power (may be appropriate for chronic disease care)

The interaction between what two elements gives RBC's their characteristic biconcave shape?

Short F-actin filaments and the actin-binding protein called spectrin

The Biconcave Shape of RBC is due to interactions between what two things?

Short F-actin filaments and the actin-binding protein spectrin

What is the structure of microvilli?

Short, finger-like extensions of membrane, cytoplasm and actin microfilaments from which extends a glycoprotein coat called the glycocalyx.

Explain conditions in which some "nonessential" amino acids may also be classified as "essential". Which amino acids does this affect?

Some non-essential amino acids are synthesized from essential amino acids. When the precursor amino acid is limited, the non-essential amino acid is also limited. This affects Arg, Cys (Met), and Try (Phe).

What are the five polar uncharged amino acids?

SomeTimes Cold Amino Greet Serine - Threonine - Cysteine - Asparagine - Glutamine

Each segment of the spinal cord (spinal nerve) is associated with embryonic body segments called __________________________.

Somites

How are extraembryonic coeloms formed?

Spaces begin to form in the extraembryonic mesoderm. These coelesce to form a cavity.

What are hemopoietic sinuses?

Specialized networks of blood vessels and are similar to capillaries in that they are interposed between arteries and veins. They are comprised of endothelial cells, basal lamina, an outer reticular (adventitial) cell layer, and the vessel lumen. (Cells in the sinus lumen are within the blood stream and therefore, are free floating.)

Production of sperm in males is called _______________________.

Spermatogenesis

What is a spermatozoan and what are its structural features?

Spermatozoan are specialized motile cells containing a head (nucleus, acrosome) and tail (flagellum, axoneme, axonemal accessary proteins, mitochondria) -Head - condensed nucleus capped by acrosome. Acrosome contains enzymes - Neck - centriole and connecting piece - Tail : Middle piece - mitochondria and sheath annulus, principle piece - axoneme and outer dense sheath, endpiece - axoneme and plasma membrane

What are the two branches of the ascending cervical artery?

Spinal (to the spinal cord) and muscular (to the muscles of the neck and back)

What innervates the SCM?

Spinal accessory nerve (CN XI)

In general, what does one have to do to be able to distinguish between lymphocytes?

Stain their cell surface receptors

What are common examples of gram-positive bacteria?

Staphylococci, streptococci, pneumococci, anthrax, etc.

Describe the migration of hemopoiesis as one develops.

Starts in the yolk sac mesoderm, then moves to the liver (~2 to 8 months embryo) and spleen (~3 to 6 months embryo), then to the bone marrow - starts at month 5 and is main site of hemopoiesis at birth and in adult, and also in lymphoid tissues like lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus

Describe the migration of hemopoiesis as one develops.

Starts in the yolk sac mesoderm, then moves to the liver (~2 to 8 months embryo) and spleen (~3 to 6 months embryo), then to the bone marrow at month 5 and is main site of hemopoiesis at birth and in adult, and also in lymphoid tissues like lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus

What is a cohort study?

Starts with people who are healthy and follows them over time

What is a case-control study?

Starts with people who are sick and compares their exposures with people who are not sick

What conditions are associated with a negative nitrogen balance?

Starvation, disease, dietary deficiency in essential amino acids, and senescence

Focal adhesions are consistent in (stationary or mobile) cells?

Stationary

What is the structure of sterocilia?

Sterocilia are not cilia at all, they are highly elongated non-motile microvilli. They are sometimes branched.

Cholesterol is a precursor to what two things?

Steroid hormones and bile acids

What function is specific to Major Basic Protein (MBP)?

Stimulates basophils and mast cells to release histamine - exacerbating asthma

Iron containing proteins are degraded in the ______________.

Stomach

What is the function of the blood clot?

Stop bleeding, trap microorganisms, keep microorganisms from entering circulation

Focal Adhesions contain a larger clustering of integrins and F-actin filaments called what?

Stress fibers

What do eosinophil specific granules contain?

Strong Cytotoxic Effect on Parasites: -Major Basic Protein (MBP) -Eosinophil peroxidase (EPO) -Eosinophil cationic protein (ECP) Modulate Immediate Allergic Reactions: -Histaminase -Arylsulfatase

What is the primitive groove?

Structure formed by ingression of epiblast cells at the primitive streak

What does the internal carotid generally supply?

Structures in the cranial cavity and the orbit

Explain the mobility of the plasma membrane.

Structures inserted in the membrane can move left, and right, and spin but cannot go through the membrane

What does the external carotid generally supply?

Structures outside the skull, as well as the face and part of the neck

What innervates the stylohyoid?

Stylohyoid branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)

What structures are contained in the digastric triangle?

Submandibular gland, hypoglossal nerve, facial and lingual arteries, and facial and retromandibular vein

What are the three branches that come off of the third part of the axillary artery?

Subscapular, anterior circumflex humeral artery, posterior circumflex humeral artery

What regulates transporters?

Substrate concentration, cytoskeletal structure, circulating inhibitors, hormones, and the requirement for phospholipids

What factors influence pH optimum?

Substrate ionization, substrate binding site ionization, catalytic site ionization

Riboflavin (FMN, FAD - B2) involves what enzyme?

Succinate dehydrogenase

The ulnar nerve is referred to as the "muscian's nerve". What is the ulnar nerve distribution in the hand?

Superficial branch of ulnar n.: -Palmaris brevis Deep branch of ulnar n.: -Lumbricals 3 & 4, -3 Palmar interossei -4 Dorsal interossei -Abductor digiti minimi -Opponens digiti minimi -Flexor digiti minimi. -1-1/2 thumb muscles: *Adductor pollicis *1/2 (deep head) of Flexor pollicis brevis

The transverse artery branches into which two arteries?

Superficial cervical (to trapezius), and descending/dorsal scapular

What are the three main types of lymphocytes?

T Cells, B Cells, and NK Cells

Lymphoid stem cells (CFU-L) mature into what cell types? Where do these cell type mature?

T cells, B cells, and NK cells that leave the bone marrow and mature in lymph tissues like the lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus

The dermatome at the level of the umbilicus?

T10

The dermatome at the level of the nipples?

T4

What is the primitive streak?

The accumulation of cells at the caudal end of the embryonic disc

What is the citrate cleavage pathway?

The acetyl CoA produced by glycolysis is in the mitochondria and is not easily transported across the IMM to be used in fatty acid synthesis in the cytosol, so citrate from the TCA cycle is transported to the cytosol via the tricarboxylate acid cycle where it is then cleaved by ATP citrate lyase into acetyl CoA and OAA.

What is the principle of independent assortment?

The alleles of one gene sort out independently from the alleles of another

What is the primary protein structure?

The amino acid sequence

What makes up the divisions of the brachial plexus?

The anterior and posterior branches of each trunk

What division makes up the medial cord?

The anterior division from the inferior trunk

What two division make up the lateral cord?

The anterior divisions from superior and middle trunks

The internal thoracic artery supplies what?

The anterior thoracic wall, the breast, anterior abdominal wall, thymus, mediastinum, trachea, bronchi, diaphragm, pleura and pericardium.

Proximal to distal limb polarity is determined by what?

The apical ectodermal ridge (AER) *Photo C

How is the webbing between our fingers resolved during limb development?

The apical epidermal ridge is lost between digits through the expression/repression of multiple factors displayed in the image.

The vertebral arteries meet to form what artery?

The basilar artery

What is allosteric regulation?

The binding of one ligand decreases/increases the affinity for substrate at other active sites. The substrate can still bind to the enzyme, but the inhibitor changes the shape of the enzyme so it is no longer in optimal position to catalyze the reaction or is more optimal to catalyze a reaction

What is the blood supply of the anterior osteofascial compartment of the arm?

The brachial artery and its branches

What controls whether or not fatty acid synthesis occurs?

The carboxylation of acetyl-CoA

What innervates the platysma?

The cervical branch of the facial nerve (CN VII)

What is the microbiome?

The collection of microbial genomes residing in or on mammalian organisms

What structures are contained within the carotid sheath?

The common and internal carotid, the vagus nerve, and the internal jugular vein

What is the function of miRNAs?

The complementary bind to RNAs and prevent their function

Define compliance.

The consistency and accuracy with which a patient follows the regimen prescribed by a physician or other health professional

How are blood and nutrients exchanged between the mother and the baby?

The embryonic villi are surrounded by and bathed in maternal blood. Nutrients, ions, gases, waste, etc. exchange from the maternal blood in the intervillous space to the embryonic vessels in the villi. The embryonic blood - now oxygenated and nutrient rich travels back to the chorionic plate, then into the umbilicus and then into the embryo. Oxygen rich blood leaves the placenta and travels to the embryo through the umbilical vein. Oxygen poor blood travels from the embryo and arrives at the placenta through 2 umbilical arteries.

Transamination of essential amino acids is normally unidirectional since the body cannot synthesize what?

The equivalent alpha-ketoacid

What is the filum terminale?

The extension of the pia mater that attaches the conus medullaris to the 1st coccygeal vertebra

Define adherence.

The extent to which a patient continues the agreed-upon treatment

What is "wobble" base pairing?

The first two codons complementary base pair, and the third codon participates in "wobble" base pairing (inosine) - it allows for greater flexibility in pairing with other bases

What is gastrulation?

The formation of the trilaminar embryo

Glutamine is a major vehicle for transport of nitrogen in the body. What is the goal?

The goal is to keep circulating NH4+ manageable and shunted to the liver for urea production and eventual secretion.

The glenohumeral joint is the generic shoulder between what two structures?

The humeral head and the glenoid fossa

Describe the shape and key components of the hyoid bone.

The hyoid bone is a U-shaped bone with a set of greater horns, lesser horns, and a body.

What makes up the bilaminar embryonic disc?

The hypoblast and the epiblast

What structures are contained in the carotid triangle?

The hypoglossal nerve, the roots of ansa cervicalis, the vagus nerve, the superior laryngeal nerve, common, external, and internal carotid, and the internal jugular veins

What does it mean to say Ras is an proto-oncogene?

The normal version of the gene is essential for proper cell function, but the mutated version leads to inappropriate proliferation and migration resulting in cancer. Inhibition of GTP hydrolysis will increase proliferation leading to cancer.

What is the isoelectric point or pI?

The pH at which there is no net charge on an amino acid

Define illness.

The patient's subjective experience of the disease - unique to the patient.

What is the primary function of the skin vasculature, and how does it achieve this?

The primary function of the dermal vascular network is thermal regulation. Because the major role of the dermal vasculature is to regulate heat, sensitive control of perfusion rates are achieved through the presence of vascular shunts

The hypoblast and exocoelomic membrane give rise to what?

The primary yolk sac (also termed the primary umbilical vesicle) . This represents extraembryonic endoderm.

What is cell determination?

The process whereby cell fate becomes established

What is signal transduction?

The process whereby one type of signal is converted to another. A target cell converts an extracellular signal (molecule A) into an intracellular signal (molecule B).

What is cell differentiation?

The process whereby the cell expresses its final phenotype

Generally, NSAIDs block what?

The prostaglandins/thromboxanes synthesis (E.g. ibuprofen/aspirin inhibit the cyclooxygenase (COX))

The stepwise movement of electrons from high energy to low energy produces the what?

The proton gradient

What arteries make up the deep palmar artery?

The radial artery and contributions from the palmar branch of the ulnar artery

What is the Lyon effect?

The random inactivation of one of the X chromosomes in females - it becomes condensed into a Barr body

What is first-order kinetics?

The rate of elimination = CL xC -50% of the [drug] eliminated per half-life -CL is proportional to the drug concentration -non saturable

Maintenance of a target concentration (TC) for a drug will be achieved when what is happening?

The rate of elimination or clearance (CL) equals the rate of drug administration (dose/dosing interval)

What is Kcat?

The rate of product formation per active site of the enzyme determined under saturating substrate conditions - the turnover number. It does not change unless you do something to the enzyme. High Kcat indicates a more efficient enzyme.

What is inflammation?

The reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury

Describe signaling through nuclear receptors.

The receptors are located intracellularly. The signaling molecule is small and hydrophobic to be able to get through the lipid bilayer. Once it is released from the transport protein, it diffuses into the nucleus. It binds to the nuclear receptor activating it. It then complexes with response elements within the DNA, which synthesizes new proteins that cause a biological response.

What is the transcription start?

The region of the genome, usually within the promoter region where RNA polymerase actually begins RNA synthesis

What is transcription factor competition?

The same gene can be controlled by many combinations of TFs depending on cell type

What happens in oogenesis at ovulation?

The secondary oocyte is expelled from the follicle and arrests at metaphase II (day 14 of the cycle), and the endometrium prepares for implantation

What is conservative site specific recombination (CSSR)?

The segment of DNA (to be moved) carries specific short sequence elements, called recombination sites, where DNA exchange occurs -Ser recombinases introduce double stranded breaks and swap the strands -Tyr recombinases break and rejoin one pair of DNA strands at a time -Cre circularizes the linear genome during an infection (lox cites)

Where does spermatogenesis occur?

The seminiferous tubules

What determines the final product of fatty acid synthesis?

The specificity of the thioesterase (is specific for pamitate 16C)

What is the position of the spinal accessory nerve in relation to the posterior triangle and the cervical plexus?

The spinal accessory nerve originates from the spinal cord, enters through the foramen magnum, and exits again through the jugular foramen. It innervates the SCM, then crosses obliquely across the posterior triangle of the neck, and ends in the deep surface of the trapezius. Its posterior and deep to the nerve point.

What is epigenetics?

The study of heritable changes in gene activity that do not involve changes in DNA sequence (mutations). Can occur cell to cell or transgenerationally

What is pharmacodynamics?

The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanism of action (MOA)

What is epidemiology?

The study of the distribution and determinants of disease frequency in human populations. The basic science of public health.

The 7th intersegmental artery becomes the what?

The subclavian artery

What is competitive inhibition of enzymes?

The substrate and the inhibitor compete for the same site, and can out-compete each other by increasing the concentration of one or the other

What is the extensor retinaculum?

The thickened part of the antebrachial fascia that holds the tendons of the extensor muscles in place

The most competitive inhibitors are those that mimic what?

The transition state

What are the borders of the posterior cervical triangle?

The trapezius, SMC, and clavicle

Which nerve and artery runs between the palmar carpal ligament and the flexor retinaculum?

The ulnar nerve and artery

The lower limb is vascularized by what?

The umbilical and external iliac arteries (divisions of common iliac artery)

What makes up the cervical plexus?

The upper four ventral primary rami (C1-C4)

What is Vmax?

The velocity of an enzyme reaction at saturating substrate concentration

The ventral primary rami form what?

The ventral rami of spinal nerves in the different regions of the spinal cord form plexuses, except those from T2 -T12 that form intercostal nerves. C1 - C4 = cervical plexus C 5 -T1 = brachial plexus L1 - L4 = Lumbar plexus L4 - S4 = sacral plexus S5 - Co1 = Coccygeal plexus

What is the function of the cilia?

Their function is to enable directional flow of substances over the surface of the epithelial sheet via a forward effective stroke and a backward recovery stroke

What is the Sherman Paradox in reference to fragile x syndrome?

There an increase in the number and proportion of individuals with mental retardation in successive generations in fragile X families.

Describe ruffini endings.

These are found deep in the skin as well as in ligaments and tendons. These likely respond to internal stimuli and serve proprioceptive modalities as well as mechanical displacement of skin

What is the function of stimulated Ras-activating proteins?

They act as GEFs to enhance the exchange of GTP for GDP on Ras itself which results in accumulation of Ras molecules with an active GTP-bound conformation. These active Ras proteins trasniently bind to and stimulate a family of Ser/Thr protein kinases that trigger the MAP kinase cascade.

What is the function of osteoblasts?

They actively synthesize new bone matrix: collagen type 1, proteoglycans, and glycoproteins

Describe ion channels.

They allow for rapid, selective movement of ions. (E.g. K ion channel)

What happens with the metabolism of hexoses other than glucose?

They are all funneled into glycolysis at some step in their pathway

What is the arrangement and function of intermediate filaments?

They are arranged like a steal cable and provide mechanical strength to the cell (allows them to stretch)

What does it mean to say that lymphocytes are immunocompetent?

They are capable of recognizing antigen and are in transit from one tissue to another

What is the structure of an integrin? What does this structure mean of their binding capacity?

They are comprised of various combinations of dimers (α and β chains) that will determine the type of matrix molecules they can bind, the intensity of that binding, the signaling potential, and the type of adhesion plaque proteins that can link them to the cytoskeleton.

Pericytes are involved in the third step of wound healing. What are they, and how do they respond?

They are contractile cells with 'stem-cell-like' properties that will detach from the endothelial basement membrane and migrate into the matrix to assist with new vessel formation

What are Howship's lacunae?

They are dimples in bone matrix created by breakdown by osteoclasts

What are the flexor tendon sheaths of the hand and how do they form?

They are elongated synovial sacs wrapped around tendons that protect tendons from surfaces like bone. Sheath produces small amount of synovial fluid that reduces friction.

What are filopodium? How do they function?

They are finger or spike-like extensions of the plasma membrane at the leading edge of a migratory cell. - Are propelled forward by tightly bundled F-actin polymerization. - Function as "directional sensors".

How are ketone bodies formed and why are they important?

They are formed from acetyl‐CoA in the liver and to a lesser extent in the kidney, and they are an important adaptation to produce energy during prolonged fasting.

Where are stereocilia located?

They are found in the epididymis and the vas deferans where they function as microvilli. Also found within the inner ear where they respond to mechanical displacement with alterations in membrane potential.

What are some characteristics of osteoclasts?

They are large, multinucleate, mobile cells

Where are melanocytes located?

They are located beneath the cells of the stratum basale

Where are secondary bile acids made? What are they?

They are made from bacterial reduction in the intestine (deoxycholate and lithocholate)

Describe signaling through ligand-gated ion channels.

They are made up of two key components: a ligand-binding domain accessible from the surface of the cell and a transmembrane domain containing the permeation channel. Binding of ligand to the exofacial surface of the receptor generates a conformational change that results in opening of a pore, allowing ions to travel across the plasma membrane *The fastest singaling

What is the function of Rho-family GTPases?

They provide the signaling behind the organization of actin filaments that allows for a cell to become polarized so that it can migrate. These proteins acts as molecular switches by interacting with cell surface receptors to regulate: the assembly of the extracellular matrix, the clustering of integrins, and the organization of the actin cytoskeleton.

The fourth step of wound healing involves fibroblasts. How do they respond/what is their function?

They respond to the chemoattractants and slowly migrate into the wound site. They replace the damaged ECM, undergo cell division, and close the wound using focal adhesion to contract collagen and ECM fibrils.

How do gram-positive bacteria stain and why do they stain this way?

They retain the color of the dye because of the thick peptidoglycan wall.

What is the function of globulins in blood plasma?

They serve as vesicles for transport of other molecules (alpha, beta, gamma, and immunoglobulins)

What is the function of sterocilia?

They serve to increase surface area thus facilitating passage of materials into and out of a cell

What is a more specific/extra function of major binding protein (MBP) in eosiniphils?

They stimulate basophils and mast cells to release histamine (this can exacerbate asthma)

What is the role of topoisomerases in DNA replication?

They untwist the supercoiled DNA - they cause a break in the strand, untwist it, and reseal it. Type I does single strand breaks, and type II does double stranded breaks.

Beri Beri results as a deficiency in what Vitamin? How does this disease manifest?

Thiamine - problems with the heart, nervous system, & infants

What is a spiral bone fracture?

This ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to the bone.

What two branches come off of the second part of the axillary artery?

Thoracoacromial trunk and the lateral thoracic artery

What is quantitative/multigenic/polygenic inheritance?

Traits are governed by a combination of several alleles

What is the function of the intermembrane space?

Transfer energy from the matrix to the cytosol

Phase II reaction enzymes are always what?

Transferases

What happens in complex IV of the ETC?

Transfers electrons from cytochrome c, through Fe and Cu, to O2, the terminal electron acceptor, to form water coupled to translocation of protons across the membrane

Levels of critical proteins are regulated by what?

Translational & post transcriptional controls

Describe active nuclear transport.

Transport for most proteins and RNA in one direction - gated

What is the function of blood?

Transport of gases, nutrients, cells and waste products

What is the difference between channels/pores and transporters?

Transporters literally carry molecules across a membrane, channels permit the diffusion of molecules in aqueous environments

What are some factors of albumin associated transport?

Transports fatty acids from adipose throughout the body, ~7 fatty acids bind to albumin with moderate to high affinity, and they are able to handle a wide concentration range of fatty acid found during fasting.

What enzyme catalyzes transposition, and what do they recognize/act on?

Transposases; insertion sequences (IS)

What type of recombination is most closely associated with drug resistance?

Transpositional recombination

What borders the triangle of auscultation?

Trapezius, latissimus dorsi, and rhomboid major

What is contained in the lipid core of lipoproteins?

Triacylglycerol and cholesteryl ester

How is triacylglycerol broken down in adipose, and where do the components go?

Triacylglycerol is catalyzed by HSL and AGTL into diacylglycerol and a fatty acid. The diacylglycerol is further catalyzed into glycerol and 2 fatty acids. The fatty acids are transported to the muscle, etc. on albumin, and the glycerol is returned to the liver.

What is the radial motor nerve distribution in the arm?

Triceps brachii

What muscle makes up the posterior osteofascial compartment of the arm? In general, what is its action?

Triceps brachii Action: extension

Tryptophan

Trp - W - aromatic

What three branches come off of the posterior cord?

Upper subscapular (C5-6), thoracodorsal (C6-8), lower subscapular (C5-6)

What is produced in the urea cycle?

Urea and fumarate (a TCA cycle intermediate

What is the end product of purine nucleotide degradation?

Uric acid

Describe the ATP-dependent class of chromatin remodelers.

Uses ATP to reposition nucleosomes along the DNA, removes nucleosomes (histone free regions), replace histones with histone variants, or re-wrap the DNA differently around the histone

Describe fibrous proteins.

Usually helices and sheets, typically insoluble, high mechanical strength (E.g. collagen and keratin)

What is the fate of urea cycle fumarate?

Utilized by the TCA cycle: 1. Two thirds is directed into gluconeogenesis via malate 2. Some is used to recycle Aspartate via oxaloacetate 3. ATP generated from entry of fumarate into the TCA cycle compensates for ATP loss from urea cycle and gluconeogenesis

What is the endogenous pathway in lipid transport?

Utilizing VLDL, IDL, and LDL

What arteries come off of the first part of subclavian?

VIT C Vertebral, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical, L. costocervical

Valine

Val - V - nonpolar

What is expressivity?

Variable degree of expression among individuals with the same genotype (grey area) E.g. Piebald spotting in Beagles. Let's say there are 10 dogs, all with the same gene for piebaldism (SP). Not all dogs will have the same amount of spotting on their coats. You might get dogs with several shades of spots, some with just one or two.

What is the difference between genotype and phenotype?

Variations in DNA (GENOTYPE) cause visible changes in individuals (PHENOTYPE).

What is volume distribution?

Vd= total amount of drug in body ÷C (normalized to kg) -Represents an apparent volume necessary to contain total drug amount in a homogeneous compartment

What are the differences between bacteria and viruses?

Viruses - no cellular structure, nucleus, ribosomes, mitochondria, or motility. They are very small, can have DNA or RNA, and replicate in the host. Bacteria - have cellular structure, nuclear region, ribosomes, and some motility. They are larger, can have DNA or RNA, have some motility, and replicate via binary fission.

What decreases synthesis of cholesterol 7-alpha hydroxylase?

Vit C deficiency

What are the water-soluble vitamins?

Vitamin C Thiamine Niacin Pantothenic Acid Riboflavin Pyridoxine

Scurvy results from what Vitamin deficiency? How does the disease manifest?

Vitamin C - Slow wound healing, hemorrhaging, osteoporosis and anemia (due to bleeding)

Availability of non-heme iron is enhanced by what?

Vitamin C, citric acid, ethanol, and fructose

What is the function of Vitamin K?

Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting. Carboxylation of 10 glutamyl residues on prothrombin (to form gamma -carboxy-Glu residues) is catalyzed by K-dependent enzyme (liver microsomal -glutamyl carboxylase)

What are considered micronutrients?

Vitamins and minerals

What are leukocytes?

WBCs

Other than the four major plasma proteins, what else is contained within the plasma?

Water, proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, blood gases, hormones, enzymes, matrix molecules in soluble form (i.e. fibronectin, vitronectin, fibrinogen)

What are the placental septum?

Wedge-shaped walls that extend into the intravillous space

When does embryionic folding occur?

Week 4

What are leukocytes?

White blood cells

Hydrophobic interactions can occur between which amino acids?

With non-polar groups and water

What is wrist drop? What causes it?

Wrist hangs flaccidly due to lack of extension at wrist which is caused by radial nerve damage

Which two components of the purine nucleotide synthesis pathway play a role in feedback inhibition of this pathway?

XMP and adenylsuccinate

Defects in nuclear excision repair lead to what disease?

Xeroderma pigmentosum - susceptible to cancer and sensitive to sunlight

In which trait will only males be affected, and all sons of affected fathers will be affected?

Y-linked traits

Does pH affect enzyme activity?

Yes

Can multiple ribosomes assemble on a single mRNA?

Yes.

Can histones vary? If yes, give some examples.

Yes. CENP-A is a special histone found in centromeres, and H3T is a special histone found in the testes

What is the utilitarianism strategy?

You do what you think will produce the most benefits for your patient and other people relative to the likely costs or harm

Cranial to caudal (anterior to posterior) polarity is determined by what?

Zone of polarizing activity (ZPA)

What is the role of F-actin in focal adhesions?

alpha-actinin links F-actin into contractile bundles which also contain plaque proteins. This actin skeleton is bound to the extracellular matrix by integrins

In what pathways do we get acetyl-CoA production?

b-oxidation, amino acid oxidation, and pyruvate

What is codominance in inheritance?

both alleles are expressed to the same degree

What is the key regulated site in pyrimidine synthesis?

carbamoyl phosphate synthase II (CPII)

What are the non-hematopoietic cells of the bone marrow?

cellular matrix, growth factors, cytokines, osteoclasts, osteoblasts, adipose, macrophages, and mast cells

Where are simple tubular glands found?

colon

Where are simple coiled tubular glands found?

eccrine sweat glands

Where are compound tubuloacinar glands found?

mammary glands

What are osteoprogenitor cells derived from?

mesenchymal stem cells

What are two key enzymes in the synthesis of ketone bodies?

mitochondrial HMG‐CoA synthase (cytosol) and HMG‐CoA lyase (liver only)

pH>pI = ?

negatively charged protein

What is the Hardy-Weinberg equation and what do its components stand for?

p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1 Where p is used to describe the frequency of the dominant allele in the population and q is the frequency of the recessive allele 1.Frequency of A allele is p and 2.Frequency of allele a is q, so p+q=1 3. Probability of two gametes having A allele together will be p.p=p2 4. And the Chance of obtaining aa genotype is q.q=q2 5. The chance of obtaining Aa is 2pq (two way forming the heterozygote)

pH<pI = ?

positively charge protein

What are common precursors of gluconeogenesis?

pyruvate, glycerol, lactate, and certain amino acids (predominately alanine)

Skeletal primordia are formed from the condensation of mesenchyme which is derived from what?

somatic lateral plate mesoderm

Where are simple branched tubular glands found?

stomach

Where are branched acinar glands found?

stomach cardiac region