Blood Banking Exam Practice Questions

The following reactions were obtained by testing red cells from a donor unit with Rh blood group system antisera: Anti-D: + Anti-C: + Anti-E: 0 Anti-c: 0 Anti-e: + 1. What Rh antigens does the donor possess? 2. What is the Rh phenotype? 3. Determine the most probable Rh genotype. 4. What Rh antibodies could this donor make if he were to be transfused?

1. D, C, e 2. DCe 3. DCe/DCe ?? 4. Anti-E and anti-c

Cryoprecipitate if maintained in the frozen state at -18 degrees C or below, has a shelf life of A. 42 days B. 6 months C. 12 months D. 36 months

12 months

Given the following genotypes of the parents, which of the following statements best describes the most probable Rh genotypes of their children? Mom R1r Dad R1R1 A. 2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1 B. 3 are R1r, 1 is rr C. 1 is R0r, 1 is R1r, 2 are R1R1 D. 1 is Ror', 1 is R1R1, 2 are R1r

2 are R1r, 2 are R1R1

The proper storage requirements for granulocyte concentrates is: A. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 12 hours B. - 20 degrees Celsius, 48 hours C. 1 - 6 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours D. 20 - 24 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours

20 - 24 degrees Celsius, < 24 hours

The correct storage temperature and time limit for pooled platelets are: A. 20° to 24° C, 5 days. B. 1° to 6° C, 7 days. C. 1° to 10° C, 24 hours. D. 20° to 24° C, 4 hours.

20° to 24° C, 4 hours.

The optimum storage temperature for platelets is A. -20 degrees C B. -12 degrees C C. 4 degrees C D. 22 degrees C

22 degrees C

According to AABB standards, FFP must be infused within what period of time following thawing? A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 72 hours

24 hours

How many units of RBCs are required to raise the hematocrit of a 7 g/dL nonbleeding man from 24% to 30%? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

3 units needed 1g hgb = 3% hct

AHG (Coombs) control cells: A. can be used as a positive control for anti-C3 reagents B. can be used only for the indirect antiglobulin test C. are coated only with IgG antibody D. must be used to confirm all positive antiglobulin reactions

are coated only with IgG antibody ??

Which of the following prospective donors would be accepted for donation? A. 32-year-old woman who received a transfusion in a complicated delivery 5 months ago B. 19-year-old sailor who has been stateside for 9 months and stopped taking his anti-malarial medication 9 months previously C. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) and states that he feels wells, but is nervous about donating D. 45-year-old woman who has just recovered from a bladder infection and is still taking antibiotics

C. 22-year-old college student who has a temperature of 99.2F (37.3C) and states that he feels wells, but is nervous about donating

Blood needs to be prepared for intrauterine transfusion of a fetus with severe HDN. The red blood cell unit selected is compatible with the mother's serum and has been leuko-depleted. An additional step that must be taken before transfusion is to A. add pooled platelets and fresh frozen plasma B. check that the RBC group is consistent with the father's C. irradiate the RBCs before infusion D. test the RBC unit with the neonate's eluate

C. irradiate the RBCs before infusion

Rejuvenation of a unit a red blood cells is a method used to A. remove antibody attached to RBCs B. inactivate viruses and bacteria C. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels D. filter blood clots and other debris

C. restore 2,3-DPG and ATP to normal levels

True or False: For infants born to Rh negative females, a test for weak D is optional when initial D typing shows the newborn to be Rh negative.

False

Which of the following is the most likely discrepancy seen when a person demonstrates "acquired B-like" phenomenon? A. Forward typing appears to be B, reverse typing looks like O B. Forward typing appears to be AB, reverse typing looks like A C. Forward typing appears to be O, reverse typing looks like B D. Forward typing appears to be B, reverse typing looks like AB

Forward typing appears to be AB, reverse typing looks like A

Which of the following situations is most likely to cause intravascular hemolysis when an incompatible transfusion is given? A. Group B packed cells to a group O recipient B. Group A packed red cells to a group AB recipient C. Group AB plasma to a group A recipient D. Group AB plasma to a group O recipient

Group B packed cells to a group O recipient ??

Most Rh system antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class? A. IgM B. IgG C. IgA D. IgE

IgG

What incompatibilities are detected in the antiglobulin phase of a crossmatch? A. IgM alloantibodies in recipient's serum B. ABO incompatibilities C. room temperature incompatibilities D. IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum

IgG alloantibodies in recipient's serum

Polyspecific reagents used in the direct antiglobulin test should have specificity for A. IgG and IgA B. IgG and C3d C. IgM and IgA D. IgM and C3d

IgG and C3d

Most blood group antibodies are of what immunoglobulin classes? A. IgA and IgD B. IgA and IgM C. IgE and IgD D. IgG and IgM

IgG and IgM

Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) may be prevented by which of the following? A. Washing blood components B. Leukoreduction of blood components C. Irradiation of cellular products D. None of the above

Irradiation of cellular products

Which of the following sugars must be present on a precursor substance for A and B antigenic activity to be expressed? A. D-Galactose B. N-Acetylgalactosamine C. Glucose D. L-Fucose

L-fucose

A blood donor has the genotype hh, AB. What is his red blood cell phenotype? A. A B. B C. O D. AB

O

If the patient's RBCs were tested against anti-H lectin and did not react, this person would be identified as a(n) A. acquired B B. Oh phenotype C. secretor D. subgroup of A

Oh phenotype

If a D-positive person makes an anti-D, this person is probably A. partial D B. D-negative C. Weak D as position effect D. weak D due to transmissible genes

Partial D

Which of the following patient data best reflects the discrepancy seen when a person's red cells demonstrate the acquired-B phenotype? Patient A: Forward: B Reverse: O Patient B: Forward: AB Reverse: A Patient C: Forward: O Reverse: B Patient D: Forward: B Reverse: AB A. patient A B. patient B C. patient C D. patient D

Patient B

An antigen-antibody reaction alone does not cause hemolysis. Which of the following is required for red blood cell lysis? A. albumin B. complement C. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase D. antihuman globulin

complement

The most effective component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency A. FFP B. platelets C. fresh whole blood D. cyroprecipitate

cyroprecipitate

A patient with Multiple Myeloma has the following reactions in the ABO typing: Anti-A= w+ Anti-B = w+ Anti-A,B = w+ Auto control = w+ A1 Cells = 4+ B cells = 4+ What is probably causing these results? A. Rouleaux B. Subgroup of A C. Patient has hypogammaglobulinemia D. Patient has selective IgA deficiency

rouleaux

Which of the following explains an ABO discrepancy caused by problems with the patient's red blood cells? A. an unexpected antibody B. rouleaux C. agammaglobulinemia D. Tn activation

rouleaux

Which of the following phenotypes will react with anti-f? A. rr B. R1R1 C. R2r D. R2R2

rr

When performing an antibody screen, both screening cells are 4+ at immediate spin and w+ at AHG. The antibody panel shows 4+ reactions at immediate spin and w+ reactions at AHG. The autocontrol is negative. What would be the next step? A. have the patient redrawn B. repeat testing using warmed patient sample and reagents C. run a panel treated with enzymes

run a panel treated with enzymes ??

When administering FFP, which one of the following is considered standard blood bank practices? A. should be ABO compatible with the recipients blood cells B. must be the same Rh type as the recipient C. is appropriate as a volume expander D. component should remain frozen when it is issued

should be ABO compatible with the recipients blood cells

Select the test that uses IgG-sensitized red cells (check cells). A. Antiglobulin test B. D-antigen typing C. Rh-antigen typing D. B-antigen detection

antiglobulin test ??

Select the cell involved in humoral immunity. A. Neutrophils B. T lymphocytes C. B lymphocytes D. Monocytes

B lymphocytes

Which of the following is the correct storage temperature for the component listed? A. cryoprecipitated AHF, 4 degrees C B. Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20 degrees C C. Red Blood Cells, Frozen, -40 degrees C D. Platelets, 37 degrees C

B. Fresh Frozen Plasma, -20 degrees C

Which of the following viruses resides exclusively in leukocytes? A. CMV B. HIV C. HBV D. HCV

A. CMV

Which one of the following statements about anti-A1 is false: A. Anti-A1 is a naturally occurring antibody B. Anti-A1 reactive at 37o C can sometimes destroy transfused A1 positive cells C. A1 and A2 occur in 80 and 20 percent of the blood type A population, respectively D. A2 cells react with Dolichos biflorus lectin

A2 cells react with Dolichos biflorus lectin

A recipient with group A phenotype requires a transfusion of 2 units of frozen plasma. Which of the following types are appropriate to select for transfusion? A. AB and B B. B and A C. O and A D. AB and A

AB and A

A cause for permanent deferral of blood donation is A. diabetes B. residence in an endemic malaria region C. history of jaundice of uncertain cause D. history of therapeutic rabies vaccine

B. residence in an endemic malaria region

The accepted interval between blood donations is: A. 12 weeks B. 8 weeks C. 6 weeks D. Depends on hematocrit level

8 weeks

Why would a unit of group O blood never be administered to a Bombay patient: A. Anti-A in donor B. Anti-B in donor C. Anti-H in donor D. Anti-H in recipient

Anti-H in recipient

Prior to blood donation, the intended venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing A. hypochlorite B. isopropyl alcohol C. 10% acetone D. PVP iodine complex

D. PVP iodine complex

A unit of Red Blood Cells is issued at 9 am. At 9:10 am the unit is returned to the blood bank. The container has not been entered, but the unit has not been refrigerated during this time span. The best course of action for the technician would be to A. culture the unit for bacterial contamination B. discard the unit if not used within 24 hours C. store the unit at room temperature D. record the return time, record the temperature of the unit

D. record the return time, record the temperature of the unit

All donor testing must include A. complete Rh phenotyping B. anti-CMV testing C. direct antiglobulin test D. serological test for syphilis

D. serological test for syphilis ??

A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 am. The expiration time for each aliquot is now A. 4 pm on the same day B. 8 pm on the same day C. 8 am the next morning D. the original date of the unsplit unit

D. the original date of the unsplit unit

Which of the following tests is most commonly used to detect antibodies attached to a patient's red blood cells in vivo? A. direct antiglobulin B. complement fixation C. indirect antiglobulin D. immunofluorescence

DAT

A white female's red blood cells gave the following reactions upon phenotyping: D+ C+ E- c+ e+ Which of the following is the most probable Rh genotype? A. DCe/Dce B. DCe/dce C. DCe/DcE D. Dce/dCe

DCe/dce

How would you interpret the results if both the anti-D reagent and the Rh control were 2+ agglutination reactions? A. D-positive B. D-negative C. Unable to determine without further testing D. Depends on whether the sample was from a patient or a blood donor

Unable to determine without further testing

A 91-year-old female patient was admitted to the ED with a fractured hip. Her physician has ordered two units of Red Blood Cells to be administered prior to surgery to correct presurgical anemia. Pretransfusion ABO grouping results were as follows: Anti-A Anti-B Anti-A A1 Cells B 4+ 0 4+ 0 0 Which of the following techniques would be the MOST useful in the initial evaluation of these findings? A. Repeat reverse typing with an extended incubation at room temperature or below B. Repeat forward typing with different lot numbers of anti-A and anti-B reagents. C. Include O cells in the reverse grouping.

Repeat reverse typing with an extended incubation at room temperature or below

An individual of the dce/dce genotype give dCe/dce blood has an antibody response that appears to be anti-C plus anti-D. What is the most likely explanation for this? A. The antibody is anti-G B. The antibody is anti-partial D C. The antibody is anti-Cw D. The reactions were read incorrectly

The antibody is anti-G

True or False: Group O plasma is considered the universal donor of plasma products.

True

True or False: The serum of some group A individuals may agglutinate group A1 cells.

True ??

Which of the following contains all the possible phenotypes that could be the result of parents who are type O and type A: A. Type A or type O only B. Type A only C. Type O only D. All possible blood types

Type A or type O only

Lectins are useful in determining the cause of abnormal reactions in blood bank serology. These lectins are frequently labeled as anti-H, anti-A1, etc. The nature of these lectins is explained by which of the following? A. an early form of monoclonal antibody produced in nonvertebrates B. a plant substance that chemically reacts with certain RBC antigens C. naturally occurring antibodies in certain plants D. the ability of plants to respond to RBC antigens by antibody production

a plant substance that chemically reacts with certain RBC antigens

In the direct and indirect antiglobulin tests, false negative reactions may result if the A. patient's blood specimen was contaminated with bacteria B. patient's blood specimen was collected into tubes containing silicon gel C. saline was used for washing the serum/cell mixture has been stored in glass or metal containers D. addition of AHG is delayed 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture

addition of AHG is delayed 40 minutes or more after washing the serum/cell mixture

Which of the following will cause a false negative result with antiglobulin techniques? A. red cell/AHG test sample is over centrifuged B. patient blood sample was collected in a SST tube C. saline used for washing the test samples was stored in a squirt bottle D. addition of AHG was delayed for 40 minutes after final saline wash.

addition of AHG was delayed for 40 minutes after final saline wash.

The test for weak D is performed by incubating patient's red cells with A. several different dilutions of anti-D serum B. anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum C. anti-Du serum D. antiglobulin serum

anti-D serum followed by washing and antiglobulin serum

If D-negative red cells are given to an R1R1 individual what is the most likely antibody that could develop? A. Anti-E B. Anti-d C. Anti-D D. Anti-c

anti-E

If a patient has the Rh genotype DCe/DCe and receives a unit of red blood cells from a DCe/dce individual, what Rh antibody might the patient develop? A. Anti-C B. anti-c C. Anti-d D. Anti-E

anti-E

If an Rh negative patient is administered a unit of R1R1 packed red cells, which one of the following antibodies would be most likely to develop: A. Anti-C B. Anti-E C. Anti-e D. Anti-D

anti-E

Even in the absence of prior transfusion or pregnancy, individuals with the Bombay phenotype will always have naturally occurring A. anti-Rh B. anti-Ko C. anti-U D. anti-H

anti-H

Washed RBCs would be the product of choice for a patient with A. multiple red cell allantibodies B. an increased risk of hepatitis infection C. warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia D. anti-IgA antibodies

anti-IgA antibodies

Which of the following is not a major Rh antigen: A. D B. d C. C D. c

anti-d

In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: A. equivalence. B. antigen excess. C. antibody excess. D. serum-to-cell ratio.

antibody excess

What is the most prudent step to follow to select units for crossmatch on a recipient who has antibodies identified? A. perform DAT and IAT on patient cells and donor units B. antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched C. crossmatch several units just in case

antigen type patient cells and any donor cells to be crossmatched??

Refer to the following data: Forward group: anti-A: 4+ anti-B: 0 anti-A1 lectin: 4+ Reverse group: A1 cells: 0 A2 cells: 2+ B cells: 4+ Which of the following ABO groups do these results match with? A. Group A1 B. Group A2 C. Group A3 D. another subgroup of A

group A1

Which of the following blood groups reacts least strongly with an anti-H produced in an A1B individual? A. Group O B. Group A2B C. Group A2 D. Group A1

group A1

Biochemical changes occur during the shelf life of stored blood. Which of the following is a result of this "storage lesion"? A. increase in pH B. increase in plasma K C. increase in plasma Na D. decrease in plasma hemoglobin

increase in plasma K

Which of the following is proper procedure for preparation of platelets from whole blood? A. light spin followed by a hard spin B. light spin followed by 2 hard spins C. 2 light spins D. hard spin followed by a light spin

light spin followed by a hard spin

Irradiation of a unit of Red Blood Cells is done to prevent the replication of donor A. granulocytes B. lymphocytes C. red cells D. platelets

lymphocytes

Which of the following types of packed RBCs could be transfused to a group O patient: A. Group A B. Group B C. Group AB D. None of the above

none of the above

What is the most likely cause of the following ABO discrepancy? Patient cells: anti-A: 0 anti-B: 0 Patient serum: A1 cells: 0 B cells: 0 A. recent transfusion with group O blood B. antigen depression due to leukemia C. false negative cell typing due to rouleaux D. obtained from a heel stick of a 2-month old baby

obtained from a heel stick of a 2-month old baby

The antibody produced during the secondary response to a foreign antigen is usually A. IgM B. a product of T lymphocytes C. produced a month or more after the second stimulus D. present at a higher titer than after a primary response

present at a higher titer than after a primary response

All of the following are reasons for conducting compatibility testing except A. prevent recipient alloimmunization B. verify ABO and Rh C. select proper blood products D. avoid hemolytic transfusion reactions E. detect antibodies against donor cells

prevent recipient alloimmunization

An antiglobulin crossmatch is performed with a donor red blood cell unit. The antiglobulin crossmatch result is a 2+ agglutination reaction. What is the most likely explanation for this result? A. recipient's RBCs are demonstrating polyagglutination B. recipient's RBCs have a low-frequency antigen C. recipient possesses an IgG alloantibody D. recipient possesses a cold autoantibody

recipient possesses an IgG alloantibody

Which of the following is the component of choice when a physician is concerned about restoring or maintaining oxygen-carrying capacity? A. albumin B. cryoprecipitate C. whole blood D. red blood cells

red blood cells