BOC Review

Which of the following are types of state regulation statues for athletic training? I. Certification II. Licensing III. Active IV. Registration V. Inactive A. I, II, V B. II, III, IV C. I, II, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II, III

C) The three types of state regulations that govern athletic training are certification, licensing, and registration.

Which muscle does the axillary nerve innervate? A. Deltoid B. Latissimus dorsi C. Pectoralis minor D. Trapezius E. Scalenes

A) The deltoid muscle of the upper arm is innervated by the axillary nerve.

Football helmets may fall into one or two categories. These two types are known as _____ or ______. A. Air- or fluid-filled, padded B. Gel-filled, padded C. Plastic, fiberglass D. Standard, adjustable E. Molded, non-molded

A) The two major categories that football helmets may fall into are the air- or fluid-filled helmet and the padded helmet

What is a protective spasm of the muscular abdominal wall called? A. Gas pains B. Rigidity C. Myositis D. Splinting E. Very painful

B) Protective spasm of the muscular abdominal wall is known as rigidity.

Which fo the following categories of drugs has an antagonistic effect to superficial and deep heat therapy? A. Peripheral vasodilators B. Skeletal muscle relaxants C. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics D. Systemic vasoconstrictors E. All of the above

D) Systemic vasoconstrictors may decreased perfusion of the peripheral tissue.

An acronym for the immediate care of an acute musculoskeletal injury is which of the following? A. RICE B. NSAID C. REST D. STAT E. HOPS

A) RICE stands for rest, ice, compression, and elevation.

Which of the following is not a preventive measure for fungal skin infections? A. Use powers to absorb moisture B. Wear the same pair of shoes everyday C. Shower frequently D. Avoid contact with contaminated surfaces E. Towelling off completely following a shower

B) The athlete should alternate pairs of shoes everyday to help prevent fungal skin infections

______ refers to the concept of dividing the annual training plan into smaller segments, phases, or cycles. A. Specificity B. Frequency C. Duration D. Segmental division E. Periodization

E) Periodization is the concept of dividing the annual training plan into smaller segments, phases, and cycles.

_________ is a method of massage that involves lifting and kneading of the skin, subcutaneous tissue and muscle with the fingers or hand. A. Friction B. Tapotement C. Effleurage D. Rolfing E. Petrissage

E) Petrissage is the method of massage that involves lifting and kneading the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle with the fingers or hand.

Sports medicine is a term that includes all of the following specialization related to study of sport except: A. Exercise physioilogy B. Biomechanics C. Sports psychology D. Sports nutrition E. Recreational therapy

E) Recreational therapy is not a field that is related to sports and injury.

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) normally occurs how long after a strenuous exercise session? A. 1 hour after exercise B. 12 hours after exercsie C. 24 to 72 hours after exercise D. 4 to 6 hours after exercise E. Immediately after exercise

C) DOMS normally occurs 24 to 72 hours postexercise.

Prevention of a chronic or debilitating illness or injury through appropriate care and rehabilitation is called what? A. Primary prevention B. Secondary prevention C. Tertiary prevention D. All of the above E. None of the above

C) Tertiary prevention is the prevention of a chronic or debilitating illness or injury through appropriate care and rehabilitation.

Which of the following is not a type of managed care organization? A. HMO B. Point-of-service C. Exclusive provider organization D. Third-party organization E. Preferred provider organization

D) Health maintenance organization, point-of-service, exclusive, and preferred provider organizations are all types of managed care organizations.

Which of the following is a type of exercise that involves a muscle contraction in which of the length of the muscle is changing while the contraction is performed at a constant velocity? A. Isokinetic B. Isotonic C. Isometric D. Progressive resistance E. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

A) Isokinetic exercise is a type of exercise that involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle is changing while the contraction is performed at a constant velocity.

_______ shock is a widely disseminated infection in many areas of the body, with the infection being borne through the blood from one tissue to another. A. Cardiogenic B. Septic C. Psychogenic D. Metabolic E. Hypovolemic

B) Septic shock is the result of a widely disseminated infection of the body.

Noxious stimuli that are created by musculoskeletal injury result in the relase of endorphins and enkephalins during the mediation of pain. These opoids are produced by the stimulation of the ______ of the midbrain and ______ in the pons and medulla. A Periaqueductal gray area, substantia gelatinosa B. Periaqueductal gray area, rahpe nucleus C. Central cortex, substantia gelatinosa D. Raphe nucleus, red nucleus E. Periaqueductal white area, substantia gelatinosa

B) The stimulation of the periaqueductal gray area (PGA) of the midbrain and raphe nucleus of the pons and medulla during injury will cause analgesia. Endorphins and enkephalins are produced in these two areas of the brain.

Which of the following tools has the interassociation task force recommended not be used as the primary tool for loop-strap removal on a football helmet after an injury? A. FM Extractor B. The "trainer's" angel C. A screwdriver D. The anvil pruner E. B and D

C) Because rust can develop on screws and t-bolds of a helmet or the screw can be damaged during a rescue, the effectiveness of a screwdriver has been determined to be limited and unreliable.

When using fluidotherapy, the treatment temperature is normally set at which of the following temperatures? A. 60 F to 70 F B. 85 F to 100 F C. 100 F to 113 F D. 75 F to 96 F E. 40 F to 60 F

C) Treatment temperature ranges of fuidotherapy are usually between 100 F to 113 F.

To determine if a victim is breathing you should do all of the following except: A. Place your ear over the victim's mouth to listen for breath sounds B. Observe the chest C. Feel for the rise and fall of the chest D. Ask the athlete to say his or her name E. A and C

D) To determine if an athlete is breathing, the athletic trainer should LOOK for the rise and fall of the chest, LISTEN for the breath sounds, and FEEL the breathing.

What type of fracture fails to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame? A. Malunion B. Oblique C. Osteogenesis D. Nonunion D. Spiral

D) A fracture that fails to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame is known as a nonunion fracture.

All of the following are predisposing conditions to heat illness except: A. Medications B. Age C. Conditioning levels D. Hydration status E. Small body mass

E) Medications, age, and conditioning levels of the athlete are all predisposing conditions to heat illness

The process by which something is done in a sports medicine program is defined as a(n) _______. A. Procedure B. Policy C. Agreement D. Chain of command E. Protocol

A) A procedure is an operation plan that provides specific guidelines and directions for an individual of the company or organization to follow.

All of the following are possible factors regarding why an athlete might be injury prone except: A. Bad luck B. Problems at home C. Joint hypermobility D. Poor endurance E. Poor coordination

A) An athlete might be prone to injury for a number of reasons, some of which are physical and some of which are psychological. Physical factors include poor strength and endurance, inflexibility or hypermobility, and poor coordination. Emotional factors include depression, family or school problems, or anxiety.

All of the following are exceptions to the rule of confidentiality except: A. When the media desires information regarding the athlete's health status B. When there is a clear and imminent danger to the athlete C. When there is clear and imminent danger to other persons D. When legal requirements demand that confidential information is released E. C and D

A) Confidentiality between the athlete and the athletic trainer cannon be broken by pressure from the media.

Where is the olecranon process located? A. Ulna B. Tibia C. Vertebrae D. Sternum E. Clavicle

A) The olecranon process is located on the proximal end of the ulna and extends posteriorly, preventing hyperextension of the elbow.

Which of the following is not a bone in the middle ear? A. Malleus B. Coachlea C. Stapes D. Incus E. All of the above

B) The cochlea is an osseous structure of the inner ear.

Which of the following is not recommended for the prevention of heat-related illnesses? A. Check the humidity and temperature daily B. Drink 20 ounces of water every 15 minutes C. Wear layers of lightweight clothing D. Acclimatize E. All of the above

C) Wearing layers of lightweight clothing is recommended for the prevention of clod-related injuries.

All of the following are times used to prevent internal ear damage from excessive noise except: A. Earplugs B. Earmuffs C. Semi-aural devices D. A headband E. B and C

D) A headband will not prevent internal ear damage from loud noises

When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Immediately B. After the injured part is "healed" C. After the inflammation is under control D. Once the pain subsides E. All of the above.

A) Rehabilitation should begin as soon as possible after an injury with the initiation of modalities for pain relief (ie, RICE).

Polydispia is also known as which of the following? A. Excessive urination B. Excessive hunger C. Excessive blood glucose D. Low urine pH E. Excessive thirst

E) Polydispia means excessive thirst.

All of the following muscles form the pes anserinus muscle group except: A. Semimembranousus B. Semitendinosus C. Gracilis D. Sartorius E. B and D

A) The pes anserinus muscle group is formed by the semitendinosus, gracilis, and sartorius muscles.

What is the primary care physician who is appointed by an insurance company to oversee the medical care given to an athlete and assigns any specialty and ancillary services called? A. The gatekeeper B. The participating provider C. The third-party administrator D. The policy holder E. None of the above

A) A gatekeeper is appointed by an insurance company to oversee the medical care given to an athlete and is usually a primary care physician.

An athlete comes to your office complaining of intense itching and burning pain between his toes, and he cannot find anything to help alleviate the symptoms. The area is reddened with some white flakes. What might you recommend? A. Neosporin ointment B. Tinactin spray C. Silvadene cream D. Eucerin cream E. Hydrocortisone

B) Tinactin is an anti-fungal medication that is supplied as an aerosol powder, cream, powder, or solution and is indicated for treatment of tinea pedis (athlete's foot) or tinea crutis (jock itch)

Which of the following medications is not an antihistamine drug? A. Dimetapp B. Ultram C. Benadryl D. Claritin E. Tavist D

B) Ultram is a centrally acting analgesic drug used to control moderate to severe pain.

Which of the following structures is not innervated? A. Periosteum of bone B. Periotneum of the abdomen C. Epithelium of the skin D. Enamel of the tooth E. All of the above

D) The pulp of a tooth is innervated, not the enamel.

While performing an isometric contraction, an athlete should be instructed to breathe normally to prevent the valsalva's effect. Which of the following occurs when the athlete produces the valsalva's effect? A. The athlete experiences dsypnea B. The athlete will hyperventilate C. The athlete becomes hypotensive D. There is a significant, rapid rise in blood pressure E. The athlete will pass out

D) Valsalva's effect occurs when the athlete holds his or her breath during the contraction, which increased the intrathoracic pressure and causes a dramatic rise in blood pressure.

An athlete is brought to the athletic training room after being struck in the back of the head with a bat by accident. He is complaining of blurred vision. Which lobe of the brain has been affected? A. Frontal B. Parietal C. Temporal D. Occipital E. None of the above

D) Vision is controlled by the occipital lobe of the brain

One of your athletes presents with abnormal pain that he describes as burning. He states that it becomes worse when he lies in supine or consumes caffeine, spicy foods, or alcohol. What might you suspect is the problem? A. Kidney stone B. Ruptured spleen C. Bowel obstruction D. Hernia E. Esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer

E) Abnormal pain associated with a burning sensation that gets worse when the athlete lies supine or consumes caffeine, spicy food, or alcohol is is highly indicative of esophageal reflux or peptic ulcer.

When assisting the general public in understanding the term sports medicine, the definition should include which of the following descriptors? A. Strength training B. Physician C. Rehabiliation D. Fitness E. Multidisciplinary

E ) According to the definition developed by the ACSM, sports medicine is a generic term that is multidisciplinary in nature.

What is the normal dosage for one tablet of aspirin? A. 200 mg B. 400 mg C. 500 mg D. 375 mg E. 325 mg

E) Aspirin is administered in 325 mg tablets.

The ______ is a nongovernmental, nonprofit organization that gathers injury data from a number of sources including education institutions. A. National Safety Council B. NOCSAE C. ACSM D. OSHA E. ISS

A) The National Safety Council is responsible for drawing sports injuries date from numerous sources.

Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity? A. Nystagmus B. Babinski's reflex C. Knee-jerk reflex D. Moro's reflex E. None of the above

C) The knee-jerk reflex (which is a monosynptic stretch reflex) is a simply example of muscle spindle activity.

Which one of these is not a step for recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel? A. Placing a position vacancy notice on the NATA Placement Vacancy Notices B. Interviewing C. Creating program goals D. Hiring a head athletic trainer E. All of the above are steps for the recruiting and hiring staff

C) Program goals are procedures carried out in the inspection-production supervision

According to Maitland's five grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain and spasm? A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

A) Grade 1 joint mobilization is appropriate for decreasing pain and spasm.

According to NCAA guidelines, how long a period of time should be allowed for acclimatization to prevent heat illness? A. 7 to 10 days B. 24 to 72 hours C. 2 to 7 days D. 10 to 14 days E. 1 month

A) According to NCAA guidelines, a period of 7 t0 10 days should be allowed for acclimatization to prevent heat illness.

Who is the accrediting body for athletic training education programs? A. CAATE B. Joint Review Committee on Athletic Training (JRC-AT) C. NATA-EC D. BOC E. CAAHEP

A) CAATE is the accrediting body for athletic training educational programs.

What is the primary indication for cervical traction? A. Muscle spasm B. Hemorrhage C. Muscle weakness D. Vertigo E. None of the above

A) The primary indication for cervical traction is to reduce muscle pain and spasm.

In order to improve an athlete's flexibility, PNF techniques may be incorporated into a training program. Which of the following technique involves contraction during the "push" phase? A. Hold-relax B. Contract-relax C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Fast-reversal-hold-relax E. Slow-hold-relax

B) Contract-relax requires that the antagonist muscles contract isotonically just prior to the "relax" (stretch) phase of the exercise.

How long should the abdomen be auscultated before the athletic trainer decides if the bowel sounds are absent? A. 30 to 60 seconds B. 2 to 3 minutes C. 60 to 90 seconds D. At least 5 minutes per region E. None of the above

B) Each quadrant of the abdomen should be auscultated for at least 2 to 3 minutes before deciding bowel sounds are abscent.

Which of the following is not a responsibility of the athletic trainer? A. Counsel and advise the athlete about health care B. Diagnose and treat illness C. Administer firs aid as necessary D. Supervise proper equipment fitting E. Organize and set-up pre-participation physical exams

B) Only a licensed physician may diagnose an illness and is in charge of overseeing the treatment administered by the athletic trainer.

Athletic trainers should carry what type of insurance? A. Catastrophic event insurance B. Professional liability insurance C. Accident insurance D. Life insurance E. Primary insurance

B) The athletic trainer should carry professional liability insurance and be familiar with the details of the policy

During prolonged, intense training and conditioning of an athlete, what cardiac change may occur over a period of time? A. Development of heart murmurs B. Development of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) C. Increase in heart size D. Decrease in heart size E. Mitral valve prolapse

C) As a result of prolonged training and conditioning, the heart may increase in size to meet the increased demands.

Which of the following categories of drugs does not have a synergistic effect to cryotherapy? A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics B. Skeletal muscle relaxants C. Systemic antibiotics D. Anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids) E. A and B

C) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory analgesics, skeletal muscle relaxants, and anti-inflammatory steroids (glucocorticoids) all have complementary/synergistic effects to cryotherapy treatments.

Tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature following overexertion is indicative of which of the syndrome? A. Chondromalacia B. Pes anserinus bursitis C. Periosititis D. Nerve compression syndrome E. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

C) Periostitis, myositis, tendinitis, or a combination of conditions may cause tenderness and pain with induration and swelling of the pretibial musculature of the athlete's lower leg. They may be classified as anterior or posteromedial "shin splints" depending on which group of structures are involved.

What is an excessive lateral curvature of the vertebral column called? A. Kyphosis B. Spondylolysis C. Scoliosis D. Lordosis E.None of the above

C) Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine with rotation of the vertebrae around its long axis. The ribs may become prominent on the convex side of the curve (rib hump) as the vertebral bodies rotate toward the convex side and the spinous processes rotate toward the concave side of the curve.

What is a type of athletic insurance that pays for covered medical expenses only after all other insurance policies have reached their limits? A. Self B. Primary coverage C. Secondary coverage D. Catastrophic E. Liability coverage

C) Secondary coverage begins when the individual's personal insurance or any other primary policy that may be in use has already paid.

Which nerves innervate the hip adductor musculature? A. Femoral, superior gluteal B. Femoral, tibial C. Femoral, obturator D. Femoral, obturator, inferior gluteal E. Tibial, obturator

C) The femoral nerve innervates the pectineus muscles, and the obturator innervates the adductor longus, magnus, brevis, and gracilis

Which of the following best describes a copayment? A. An occasional payment made by a policy holder to an insurance company B. The amount owed yearly by the policy holder before the insurance company will begin to pay for services C. The amount of money that both an employee and employer share when paying for medical benefits D. A percentage of the total amount the policy holder is required to pay for medical services rendered E. The amount of money that a provider offers as a discount for services

D) A copayment is a percentage of the total amount the policy holder is required to pay for medical services rendered.

Which of the following muscles does not flex the hip? A. Tensor fascia latae B. Pectineus C. Iliopsoas D. Rectus femoris E. Biceps femoris

E) The biceps femoris is one of the hamstring muscles and is active in hip extension.

What is a common bony process broken during adult CPR? A. Olecranon process B. The clavicle C. Styloid process D. Mastoid process E. The xyphoid process

E) The xyphoid process is the bony prominence most commonly chipped during CPR.

What is contraction that occurs as the muscle shortens? A. Isotonic B. Eccentric C. Isometric D. Concentric E. Static

D) A contraction that occurs as the muscle is shortening is known as a concentric contraction. An eccentric contraction occurs as the muscle lengthens against resistance

Which of the following organizations certifies football helmets to make sure they are able to withstand repeated blows of high mass and low velocity? A. FDA B. NSA C. NATA D. NFL E. NOCSAE

E) NOCSAE stands for the National Operating Committee on Standards of Athletic Equipment.

High-voltage pulsed monophasic generators (HVPG) deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used with this type of stimulator? A. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse B. Monophasic squared pulse C. Symmetrical biphasic pulses D. Monophasic spike delivered in pairs E. None of the above

D) A monophasic spike waveform delivered in pairs is used with HVPGs.

An athlete who has a seizure should be referred to a physician under which of the following conditions? A. After a seizure that lasts more than 5 minutes B. There is no history of previous seizures C. If the seizure does not fit into the person's pattern of previous seizures D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) A seizure that lasts over 5 minutes, a primary seizure, and a seizure that does not fit into the athlete's pattern of previous seizures are all indications for physician referral.

When resolving conflict, there are many approaches that an athletic trainer can take to successfully manage a difficult situation. Of the following conflict resolution methods, which one is least likely to successfully resolve a problem? A. Compromise B. Collaboration C. Negotiation D. Avoidacne E. A and B

D) Avoidance is one of the most frequent methods utilized by managers, but it resolves nothing. The conflict will occur again if the athletic trainer is not proactive in seeking a resolution.

Which of the following organisms is one of the most common causes of vaginitis in women? A. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDs) B. Genital herpes C. Chlamydia trachomatis D. Candida E. All of the above

D) Candid is a yeast infection that causes vaginitis.

Where is the most heat lost from the body in cold weather? A. Hands B. Feet C. Torso D. Head and neck E. A and B

D) Heat is lost in the warm, vascular areas of the head and neck, which may account for 50% of heat loss from the body.

A player presents to you with a suspected shoulder dislocation. What should you do? A. Evaluate the injury then reduce the dislocation as soon as possible B. Evaluate the shoulder motion and send the athlete to the hospital C. Tell the athlete to sit and wait until you have time to deal with it D. Check the neurovascular status of the upper extremity, including dermatomes and myotomes. E. Immediately immobilize the joint and refer the athlete to team physician

D) IF the athletic trainer suspects shoulder dislocation, it is important to check the neurovascular status of the upper extremity, including the dermatomes and myotomes.

When counseling an athlete about the proper way to self-administer a medication it is important that the athletic trainer make the athlete aware of what two factors? A. Any side effects and, in detail, how the drug works on the body B. If the drug may be addicitive and how long the effects will last C. If the drug may cause depression and, in detail, how the drug works on the body D. When to take the medication and what foods/drugs not to mix with it. E. B and C

D) It is important that the athlete be advised as to when to take his or her medication and with which foods/drugs it should not be combined.

Which of the following things would you not want to do for someone who has gone into shock? A. Maintain the airway B. Keep the athlete calm C. Provide care for specific injury D. Give food or drink to the athlete E. Monitor their vital signs

D) It is not wise to give food or fluids to an athlete who is in shock because of the possibility of aspiration.

The athletic trainer can avoid the risk of litigation by doing all of the following except: A. Keep medical records confidential B. Establish positive personal relationships with atlhetes C. Create a safe playing environment with documentation and such D. Keep an updated resume on file with the athletic director E. B and C

D) Keeping an updated resume on file with the athletic director will have no impact on avoiding litigation. However, it is important for the athletic trainer to have a written job description on file.

Asking the athlete to move his or her eyes from side to side and up and down tests the integrity of which cranial nerve? A. II B. V C. I D. III E. None of the above

D) Movements of the eyes are controlled by the oculomotor nerve - cranial nerve III.

All of the following are important steps in avoiding legal problems when administering care to the athlete except: A. Keeping accurate records B. Staying familiar with the health history of the athlete C. Following orders of the team physician D. Allowing the coach to decide when the athlete should return to play after injury E. B and C

D) Only the team physician has the authority to clear an injured athlete so he or she can return to play.

Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for the resorption of bone during its growth or repair? A. Osteoblasts B. Osteocytes C. Osteophils D. Osteoclasts E. None of the above

D) Osteoclasts are the cells that reabosrb bone during growth.

An athlete comes to the athletic trainer holding a tooth that has just been knocked out of his mouth. What would be the proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to allow for a successful reimplantation? A. Try to put it back in place and use a topical ointment for pain B. But the tooth in a jar of water, tell the athlete to store it in a refrigerator until he can see a dentist C. There is nothing the athletic trainer can do because the tooth is dead D. Place the tooth in a cloth soaked in saline or water and get the athlete to a dentist within 30 minutes E. None of the above

D) Placing the tooth in a moist cloth and encouraging immediate implantation is the only means by which to save the tooth. Tooth reimplantation after 24 hours has a poor success rate.

Running utilizes ________ motion of the entire body and ________ motion of the arms and legs. A. Decelerant, accelerant B. Vertical, horizontal C. Rotary, translatory D. Linear, angular E. Vertical, rotary

D) Running utilizes linear motion of the entire body and angular motion of the arms and legs.

Which of the following is not an approach to ethical decision making? A. Egoism B. Utilitarianism C. Formalism D. Socialism E. A and C

D) Socialism is not an approach to ethical decision making. Eogism involves athletic trainers' making decisions that result in the greatest benefit to themselves. Utilitarianism involves choosing a course of action that benefits the greatest number of people. Formalism is most likely to be followed by athletic trainers who see a clear professional duty that they believe should be implemented universally.

Information gained during the palpation phase of the athletic trainer's initial assessment might include all of the following except: A. Presence of crepitus B. Sensory function C. Presence of a deformity D. Degree of functional movement E. A and B

D) Tactile information alone will not provide the athletic trainer with enough information to adequately assess the athletes functional status. It is crucial that a well-planned, comprehensive evaluation is performed to assess all aspects of the athlete's condition prior to treatment.

_______ and ________ are both examples of histamine-2 blockers. A. Xanax, Tegretol B. Benadryl, Seldane C. Proventil, Ventolin D. Tagamet, Zantac E. Benadryl, Tagamet

D) Tagamet (cimetidine) and Zantac (ranitidine) are both examples of histamine-2 blockers, which reduce stomach acid output by blocking the action of histamine cells in the stomach.

Which type of insurance should the athletic trainer carry in case of a criminal complaint involving negligence? A. General secondary insurance B. Catastrophic insurance C. Accident insurance D. Professional liability insurance E. Primary insurance

D) The athletic trainer should carry professional liability insurance in case of a criminal suit.

Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program? A. The stage of tissue healing B. Pain with joint motion C. The severity of the injury D. How soon the coach feels the athlete should return to play E. A and B

D) The coach's opinion concerning when the athlete should return to play should not influence the athletic trainer's professional judgement in designing a rehabilitation program and following prudent guidelines for care.

Which of the following is one of the most common eye injuries sustained in athletics? A. Detached iris B. Detached retina C. Zygomatic fracture D. Corneal abrasion E. None of the above

D) The cornea, which is the clear surface covering the front of the eye, is most often injured by a foreign body, causing a corneal abrassion.

During a lower extremity D1 flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? A. Extension, abduction, internal rotation B. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation C. Extension, adduction, external roation D. Flexion, adduction, external rotation E. Flexion, abduction, external rotation

D) The hip is moving into a pattern of flexion, adduction, and external rotation during a DI flexion pattern.

What is the most common and devastating mechanism of injury seen in neck injuries sustained during football? A. Cervical hyperextension B. Forceful cervical lateral flexion C. Cervical hyperflexion and rotation D. Cervical hyperflexion and axial compression E. None of the above

D) The most devastating cervical injuries sustained in athletic participation occur from cervical hyperflexion and axial compression.

Which of the following muscles does not dorsiflex the ankle? A. Extensor digitorum longus B. Peroneus tertius C. Tibialis anterior D. Peroneus brevis E. A and C

D) The peroneus brevis assists to plantar flex and pronate the foot

A football quarterback is "sacked" during a game. He comes off the field holding his throwing arm and complains of chest and anterior shoulder pain. After evaluating the athlete, the athletic trainer suspects a torn pectoralis major muscle. Which of the following physical findings will be seen if the athletic trainer is correct? A. Ecchymosis around the xyphoid process B. Palpable defect in the posterior axilla C. Weakness in abduction and external rotation D. Weakness in adduction, flexion, and internal rotation of the affected arm E. All of the above

D) The primary movements of the pectoralis major are shoulder adduction, flexion, and internal rotation. If the pectoralis muscle is torn, the athlete will experience pain and weakness with resistance to these movements, as well as pain in palpation of the injured area.

One of your lacrosse players has blond hair, light eyes, and very fair complexion. You suggest she wear a sunscreen with which of the following levels of SPF? A. 4 B. 6 C. 10 D. 30 E. 8

D) Those individuals with blonde or light hair and fair complexions are much more susceptible to severe sunburn as a result of prolonged exposure to ultraviolet tight. This type of athlete should use a sunscreen that has an SPF of 15 or greater.

Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device? A. Free weights B. A Total Gym C. A squat rack D. Wall pulleys E. A wall

E) A wall is an immovable object and may be used for an isometric exercise. During isometric exercise, there is a fixed resistance with variable speed of movement.

There are different models of supervision that may be used by a head athletic trainer when managing an athletic training staff. Two of these models are known as _____ and _____ supervision. A. Monarchial, sovereign B. Clinical, directional C. Transitional, directional D. Inspection-production, administrative E. Clinical, developmental

E ) There are four types of supervisory models commonly used by athletic trainers: clinical, developmental, inspection, and production. Inspection and production are usually combined because they have very few differences. Clinical supervision involves direct observation of the employee's work and the subsequent development of an action plan to improve any deficiencies in his or her performance. Developmental supervision involves participative management, in which the employees discuss common problems and develop solutions with their supervisors. Inspection-production supervision was originally developed and implemented in industrial settings. It emphasizes authoritative managerial efficiency. It relies on the strict observance of program policies and procedures and measure success through the measurement of input and output, which is not easily accomplished in the sports medicine setting. This model is the least utilized in athletic training

An AED is used for what purpose? A. To provide immobilization of the lumbar spine and pelvis after a spinal injury B. To treat arryhmias of the heart C. The treat hypovolemic shock D. To assess the athlete's level of consciousness after a head injury E. To defibrillate the heart when an unconscious victim has no pulse

E) An AED, or automated external defibrillator, is used when an unconscious victim has no pulse.

One of your athletes is experiencing an anxiety attack. He is hyperventilating. You talk to him to calm him down and have him slowly rebreathe into a paper bag. What process does rebreathing into a paper bag reverse? A. The release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland B. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis E. Respiratory alkalosis

E) Anxiety caused by fear may in turn lead to hyperventilation. An increased breathing rate results in the athlete rapidly blowing off carbon dioxide, which causes respiratory alkalosis, which is manifested by peripheral numbness, tingling, and light-headedness.

When stretching during a warm-up routine, which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to an injury? A. Ballistic B. Active C. Static D. Plyometric E. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation

E) Ballistic stretching places high, intermittent demands on the muscle, possibly exceeding its physiological limitations, leading to a muscle tear.

What would be the most appropriate type of roentgenogram for a possible tibial stress fracture? A. X-ray B. Pet scan C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. Computed tomography (CT) scan E. Bone scan

E) Because stress fractures of the bone can be so small, a typical x-ray will often miss the injury. A bone scan involves injection of a radioactive substance into a vein, which is absorbed by bone. A scanner is used to detect abnormal levels of uptake or hot spots in the bone, indicating a stress fracture or abnormal lesion.

Which of the following organizations establishes standards of quality for organizations that provide rehabilitative services? A. JCAHO B. AMA C. APTA D. OSHA E. CARF

E) Commission on Accreditation of Rehabilitation Facilities (CARF) establishes standards of quality for organization that provide rehabilitation services.

All of the following symptoms are considered "red flags" requiring urgent referral to a physician, expect: A. Persistent headaches B. Constant pain C. Insomnia D. Malaise, fatigue E. Hunger

E) Constant pain, insomnia, malaise, and fatigue are all considered red flags that should alert the athletic trainer to certain pathologies.

Which cranial nerve is injured if the athlete complains of a decrease in the sense of smell after a high velocity head injury? A. II B. IV C. III D. V E. I

E) Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve

Which modality would be best utilized if the desired therapeutic effect is decreased pain, edema, and inflammation? A. Moist heat packs B. Ultrasound C. Diathermy D. Fluidotherapy E. Ice packs

E) Cryotherapy is used an an anesthetic and to prevent or decrease the inflammatory process.

What is air hunger marked by labored or difficult breathing called? A. Dysuria B. Dystrophy C. Diaphoresis D. Dysphagia E. Dyspnea

E) Dyspnea is air hunger marked by labored or difficult breathing

Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen? A. Osteocytes B. Osteoblasts C. Granulocytes D. Osteoclasts E. Fibroblasts

E) Fibroblasts become active during the regeneration phase of the inflammatory response to begin building collagen.

Which of the following should a certified athletic trainer be concerned with when treating athletes? A. Foreseeable harm B. Tort C. Malfeasance D. The good samaritan act E. Malpractice

E) Malpractice occurs when an athletic trainer has an adverse outcome from a patient treatment. An athletic trainer can be sued for malpractice when he or she is not in full compliance with protocols set forth by state law and practice acts

When transporting an athlete off the field by manual conveyance, it is most convenient to do this with how many athletic trainers? A. 6 B. 4 C. 1 D. 3 E. 2

E) Manual conveyance is a method by which an injured athlete is transported a greater distance than he or she is able to walk with ease. The most convenient carry is performed by two athletic trainers.

Which scale is important in assessing the severity of a head injury? A. Beck's Orientation Scale B. Romberg's Cognition Scale C. Ranchos Los Amigos Amnesia Scale D. Intracranial Pressure Scale E. Glasgow Coma Scale

E) The Glasgow Coma Scale is used to determine an individual's level of consciousness or degree of coma. The three indicators of consciousness used are the stimulus needed to elicit eye opening, type of verbal response, and type of motor response.

When following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise, the first set of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is _____ of the weight that will be lifted in set three. A. 10% B. 25% C. 100% D. 75% E. 50%

E) The first set of 10 repetitions is with a weight that is 50% of the weight that will be lifted in set three when utilizing the DAPRE technique of progressive restive exercise.

Which muscle flexes both the foot and the knee? A. Biceps femoris B. Flexor digitorum C. Posterior tibialis D. Anterior tibialis E. Gastrocnemius

E) The gastrocnemius muscle plantar flexes the foot and flexes the knee.

CEUs may be obtained through all of the following methods except: A. Attending a BOC-approved seminar B. Completing a NATA journal quiz C. Completing postgraduate course work D. Writing a medical column in a local newspaper or popular magazine E. Home study courses

D) Continuing education units would not be awarded by the BOC for writing a medical or health-related column in a local newspaper or popular magazine.

Extrinsic risk factors of athletic injury include which of the following? A. Training errors B. Poor inappropriate coaching C. Improper technique D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) Extrinsic factors are those factors that are independent of the individual's physical makeup. Intrinsic risk factors are inherent in the physical makeup of the individual.

What does it mean when one fails to act when there is a legal duty to do so? A. Negligence B. Malpractice C. Commission D. Misdemeanor E. Omission

E) Omission is the failure to carry out your legal duty.

Which of the following physiological adaptations does not occur in skeletal muscle during endurance training? A. Increased aerobic enzyme activity B. Increased myoglobin levels C. Increased mitochondrial density D. Decreased mitochondrial density E. A and B

D) There is increased mitochondrial density in the skeletal muscle with endurance exercise.

What is a form of exercise that helps develop eccentric control during dynamic movement? A. Isometric B. PNF C. Hydraulic training D. Isokinetics E. Plyometric

E) Plyometric exercise helps develop eccentric control during dynamic movements.

What is the nerve root that affects elbow extension? A. C4 B. C8 C. C5 D. C6 E. C7

E) The C7 nerve most innervates the triceps muscle, which extends the elbow.

Which of the following is an example of a papule? A. A freckle B. A wart C. A hive D. A friction blister E. All of the above

B) A papule may be described as a solid, well-defined pink/red elevated area on the skin. A wart is an infection of the skin caused by the Pailloma virus. The lesions are raised flesh-colored or pink papules with a rough surface that tend to grow inward into the foot, causing pain while walking.

How far from the nose should the face mask of a football helmet be located? A. 1 inch B. Two finger widths C. Three finger widths D. 0.75 inch E. 3 inches

C) The face mask should be located three finger widths from the nose for a correct fit.

A soccer player gets kicked in the low bak and is brought to the athletic training room. During his examination, he goes to the bathroom and reports that there is blood in his urine. Which of the following terms describes this sign of an internal injury? A. Hyperpnea B. Hematoma C. Hypernatremia D. Hemarthrosis E. Hematuria

E) Hematuria means blood in the urine.

If an athlete is unconscious from a blow to the head, he or she should be assumed to have a neck injury in addition to a possible head injury. If the airway appears to be impaired, all of the following would be appropriate steps in management except: A. Cut the face mask with an appropriate tool and move it out of the way B. Leave the helmet on C. Stabilize the head and neck D. Do a finger sweep of the mouth to remove any debris and clear the airway E. Activate EMS

D) In this case, it is known the athlete is unconscious from a blow to the head and neck, not from aspirating an object or debris. It is only necessary to perform a finger sweep if the athletic trainer cannont ventilate the athlete and an object that is blocking the passage of air is visible in the mouth.

The amount of power generated by an ultrasound is defined as what? A. Frequency B. Duty cycle C. Duration D. Intensity E. An ohm

D) Intensity is the amount of power given off by the ultrasound unit during treatment.

Isotonic external rotation of the glenohumeral joint during shoulder rehabilitation focuses on what muscles? A. Infraspinatus B. Teres minor C. Posterior deltoid D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) Isotonic exercise for external rotation of the glenohumeral joint focus on the infraspinatus, teres minor, and posterior deltoid muscles.

What is the possible consequence of a poorly managed shin contusion? A. Anterior tibialis tendinitis B. A fasciotomy C. Osteochondritis dissecans D. Osteomyelitis E. Extensor digitorum contracture

D) A shin contusion that is poorly managed can lead to osteomyelitis, which results in the destruction and deterioration of the bone.

All of the following are signs of an injury except: A. Change in skin color or texture B. Change in body temperature C. Change in blood pressure D. Complaint of headaches E. Change in respiratory rate

D) A sign is an objective entity, one that can be measured, felt, seen, smelled, or heard. A symptom, such as dizziness, is subjective in nature. Symptoms can only be experienced by the individual who is affected by the ailment or injury.

Hip internal/external rotation occurs in the ______ plane around a _______ axis. A. Sagittal, medial-lateral B. Horizontal, anterior-posterior C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Horizontal, vertical E. Sagittal, anterior-posterior

D) In the anatomic position, hip rotation occurs in the horizontal plane around a vertical axis.

While evaluating an athlete's shoulder, you note that the athlete is unable to abduct though the full range of motion against gravity. When performing a manual muscle test, this finding would be assigned which of the following muscle grades? A. +2/5 B. 3/5 C. -4/5 D. 1/5 E. -3/5

E) A -3/5 muscle denotes an incomplete movement against gravity.

Which of the carpal bones is the most commonly dislocated? A. Scaphoid B. Lunate C. Cuboid D. Hamate E. Triquitrum

B) The lunate is the most frequently dislocated carpal bone, which occurs from a fall on an outstretched hand. This in turn opens the space between the proximal and distal carpal bones, and the lunate dislocates to the palmar side of the wrist.

Electrical stimulating currents are classified into three categories. Which of the following is not one of these categories? A. Interferential current B. Direct current C. Pulsed current D. Alternating current E. Galvanic current

A) Interferential current is not a classification of electrical stimulation.

Treatment for facet dysfunction consists of all of the following except: A. Facet joint mobilization B. Passive rotation C. Pelvic rock exercises D. McKenzie extension exercises E. Abdominal strengthening

D) McKenzie extension exercises are used for degenerative disk disease and postural dysfunction.

An athlete sustains a blunt trauma injury to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen. What structure might be injured in this area? A. Liver B. Gallbladder C. Spleen D. Pancreas E. Kidney

A) The liver is located in the upper right quadrant and may be injured with blunt trauma to the area of the abdomen.

A diet that is very low in carbohydrates may result in all of the following except: A. Fatigue B. Hypoglycemia C. Ketosis D. Very high blood pH levels E. Headaches

D) To rectify low blood glucose levels, more free fatty acids are mobilized from adipose tissue than the liver can metabolize, resulting in ketosis. These excess ketone bodies are released into the urine and during respiration resulting in low blood pH levels.

True leg-length discrepancy is measured between which two points? A. The posterior inferior iliac spine to the medial malleolus B. The umbilicus to the midpatella C. The umbilicus to the lateral malleolus D. The anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus E. The anterior superior iliac spine to Gerdy's tubercle

D) True leg length discrepancy is measured between the anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleolus.

What type of muscle fiber is more prevalent in a sprinter's lower extremity? A. Pink B. Type 1 C. Slow twitch D. Smooth E. Fast twitch

E) Type II or "fast twitch" muscle is more prevalent in the printer, as this type of activity is more anaerobic in nature.

Where is a Morton's neuroma most commonly located? A. Between the first and second metacarpals B. Between the third and fourth metatarsals C. Between the second and third metacarpals D. Between the second and third metatarsals E. Plantar surface of the heel

B) A Morton's neuroma is most commonly found located between the third and fourth metatarsals

Which of the following is not a major type of open wound? A. Laceration B. Contusion C. Abrasion D. Avulsion E. Incision

B) A contusion is a closed wound (ie, an injury of the soft tissue beneath the skin).

What is amenorrhea? A. Diminished flow during menses B. Absence of flow during menses C. Painful menses D. Late onset of menses E. None of the above

B) Amenorrhea is defined as an absence of flow during menses.

What are cost-based providers contracted by the federal government and charged with review Medicare claims made by hospitals called? A. An intermediary B. An insurance "carrier" C. A joint review board D. An insurance network E. Business manager

B) An insurance "carrier" is a charge-based provider contracted by the federal government charged with reviewing Medicare claims made by physicians or other health care providers.

An athletic trainer working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman's test be recorded? A. Subjective (S) B. Objective (O) C. Assessment (A) D. Plan (P) E. Special tests (S)

B) Any finding that the athletic trainer observes, palpates, or measures is recorded under the objective (O) section of a SOAP note.

Circuit training is an effective training technique if the athletic trainer desires to improve ______ and ______. A. Agility, endurance B. Strength, flexibility C. Agility, proprioception D. Power, endurance E. Strength, power

B) Circuit training is an effective technique for improving strength and flexibility.

Your athlete is on a medication for a staphylococcus aureus infection. Which of the following adverse reactions might you expect with antibiotic treatment? A. Palpitations B. Abdominal cramping C. Dry mouth B. Headache E. All of the above

B) Common side effects of antibiotic therapy are abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting.

What should the athletic trainer do when teaching an athlete how to properly use crutches? A. Make sure the athlete's weight is fully supported on his or her hands and armpits B. Caution the athlete not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches' axillary pads C. Teach him or her how to use a cane first D. Teach the athlete a four-point gait E. Teach the athlete a five-point gait

B) Constant pressure on the axilla may cause crutch or "Saturday night" palsy, which is temporary or permanent numbness in the upper extremities and hands.

Which of the following documents would be most likely subpoenaed during a civil litigation suit against an athletic trainer? A. Equipment inventory B. Treatment log C. Budget reports D. Sporting event schedules E. Proof of ATC credentials and certifications

B) Documentation such as the athletic trainer's treatment log or SOAP notes could be subpoenaed during a civil litigation.

An athlete comes to the athletic training room after being kicked in the lower leg by an opponent during a football game. He is complaining of decreased sensation in the L4 dermatome. What is this change in sensation called? A. Paresthesia B. Hypoesthesia C. Hyperesthesia D. Referred pain E. Anesthesia

B) Hypoesthesia is dulled sensation to touch.

An athlete falls on an outstretched hand and injuries his wrist. After evaluating the injury, the athletic trainer suspects a schapoid fracture. Because this area has a poor blood supply, which of the following conditions may occur if the injury is mistreated? A DeQuervian's syndrome B. Aseptic necrosis C. Carpal tunnel syndrome D. Swan neck deformity E. Brunet's deformity

B) If a scaphoid fracture is not properly immobilized, aseptic necrosis may occur and the fracture will not heal.

A female field hockey player reports to the athletic trainer complaining that her knee still hurts from a grade II medial collateral ligament sprain that she suffered almost 3 months ago. How long may it take for a ligament to completely heal after a significant injury? A. Between 4 to 6 months B. Up to 1 year C. Up to 4 months D. Between 1.5 and 2 years E. Between 4 and 6 weeks

B) It may take up to 1 year for a ligament to completely heal with scar maturation.

The pre-event meal should be eaten _____ to ____ hours before competition to ensure proper digestion. A. 2 to 3 hours B. 3 to 4 hours C. 5 to 6 hours D. 6 to 8 hours E. 1 to 2 hours

B) It takes a minimum of 3 to 4 hours for food to digest. Fats take as long as 5 hours to leave the stomach. Proteins take as long as 3 hours and carbohydrates take approximately 2 hours to pass into the upper small intestine.

When rehabilitating an athlete who has been diagnosed with "jumper's knee," which muscle group should eventually be strengthened? A. Hamstrings B. Quadriceps C. Hip adductors D. Hip extensors E. Triceps surae

B) Jumper's knee is an overuse syndrome of the extensor mechanism of the knee. There is injury to the proximal pole of the patella, as it is subjected to the repetitive traction pull of the quadriceps muscle should be strengthened during rehabilitation to prevent further injury.

Pain occurring at a site distant to damaged tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what type of pain? A. Muscular B. Referred C. Radicular D. Visceral E. Parasympathetic

B) Pain that occurs at a site distant to damaged tissue and does not follow the course of a nerve is known as referred pain.

When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses, it is known as what? A. Adhesive capsulitis B. Passive insufficiency C. Hypomobility D. Muscle contracture E. None of the above

B) Passive insufficiency of a muscle occurs when the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over which the muscle crosses.

A dynamic program of prescribed exercise for preventing or reversing the destructive effects of inactivity while returning an individual to his or her former level of competition is known as what? A. Pilates' B. Rehabilitation C. A DAPRE program D. Cardiovascular program E. Yoga

B) Rehabilitation or a reconditioning program is developed with the main goal of returning the athlete to his or her previous functional level.

Which is not a sign/symptoms of post-concussion syndrome? A. Dizziness B Restlessness C. Behavioral changes D. Visual disturbances E. All of the above are signs or symptoms of post-concussion syndrome

B) Restlessness is not a sign/symptom of postconcussion syndrome. The athlete will show signs of fatigue.

______ is a type of electrotherapy used to re-educate muscle. A. Interferential B. Russian C. Iontophoresis D. Premodulated E. Low intensity

B) Russian stimulation deeply penetrates the muscle and causes an intense contraction of the muscle.

The D2 flexion pattern of the hip works which group of muscles? A. Abductors, flexors, internal rotators B. Abductors, flexors, external rotators C. Adductors, flexors, internal rotators D. Adductors, extensors, external rotators E. The abductors and flexors only

B) The D2 flexion pattern works the abductors, flexors, and external rotators of the hip.

During your examination of an athlete who has been complaining of weakness when using the rowing machine in the weight room, you notice his right latissimus dorsi muscle appears atrophied. Which nerve is affected? A. Trigeminal B. Thoracodorsal C. Dorsal scapular D. Thoracic spinal E. None of the above

B) The latissimus dorsi muscle is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve.

What is the primary component of striated skeletal muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Muscle fiber C. Myofibril D. Fasicle E. None of the above

B) The primary component of striated muscle is the muscle fiber.

Contraindications to cervical traction include all of the following except: A. A positive vertebral artery test (VAT) B. A positive ALAR ligament test C. Disc herniation D. Increased radicular symptoms with treatment E. Nystagmus

C ) Cervical traction is indicated with a cervical disc herniation.

Anabolic steroids are often abused by athletes. Which of the following results may occur in the female athlete after ingesting testosterone? A. Decreased libido B. Gynecomastia C. Hirustism D. Increased body fat E. All of the above

C) A female may develop a condition known as hirsutism, which is the excessive growth of hair in unusual places, with the ingestion of testosterone.

The purpose of a proper cool-down period after exercising is to _______ and _______. A. Decrease the heart rate, decrease cardiac output B. Increase ventilation, prevent dizziness C. Help the blood return to the heart to be reoxygenated, decrease muscular lactic acid build-up D. Improve flexibility, decrease body temperature E. Decrease heart rate, restore thermoregulation

C) A proper cool down aids the return of blood to the heart and assists in decreasing lactic acid levels in the muscle.

Knee braces can be classified as either functional, prophylactic, or rehabilitative. Which type of brace might be worn for 1 to 2 weeks after a grade II medial collateral ligament tear? A. Functional B. Prophylactic C. Rehabilitative D. Custom fit E. No brace is necessary for this injury

C) A rehabilitative brace might be used postoperatively or during rehabilitation after an acute injury.

Which of the following is a sign of heat stroke? A. Pale, cold, clammy skin B. Unequal pupils C. Hot and relatively dry skin D. Slow pulse E. Diaphoresis

C) A sign of heat stroke is hot and relatively dry skin.

All of the following principles must be considered before the athletic trainer begins an activity designed to improve balance except: A. Multiple planes of motion must be stressed B. The activities must progress to sport-specific activities C. The activity should incorporate a unisensory approach D. The exercises must be safe but challenging E. A and B

C) An exercise designed to improve balance must incorporate a multi sensory approach.

Athletic directors, owners, staff, and ______ are all part of a major inside interest group. A. Parents B. Clients C. Coaches D. Professional groups E. None of the above

C) Athletic directors, owners, staff, and coaches are all part of a major inside interest group.

"Cauliflower ear" is an injury to which structure of the ear? A. Tympanic membrane B. External auditory canal C. Pinna D. Eustachian tube E. None of the above

C) Cauliflower ear is an injury to the pinna of the ear caused by continuous friction or direct trauma to the auricle, which results in bleeding into the soft tissue of the ear. It is characterized by localized perichondrial swelling, discomfort, and deformity of the outer ear.

Which type of training program is most beneficial if the coach or athletic trainer is trying to improve muscular strength and flexibility? A. Plyometric training B. Anaerobic training C. Circuit training D. Power lifting E. All of the above

C) Circuit training is one of the best means of improving muscle strength and flexibility because it includes weight training, flexibility, and calisthenics at various stages.

The acute phase of an injury lasts approximately 3 to 4 days. What occurs at the time of initial trauma? A. Phagocytosis, followed by vasoconstriction and diapedesis B. Transitory vasodilation, inflammation, and phagocytosis C. Transitory vasoconstriction, followed by vasodilation and increased permeability D. Vasoconstriction, increased permeability and granulation E. All of the above

C) During the initial phases following a soft tissue injury, there is transitory vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation and increased permeability, causing redness and swelling of the area.

Each lever has a _______, which is the perpendicular distance from the line of force to the axis, and a ________, which is the perpendicular distance from the resistance to the axis. A. Force arm, rotary arm B. Short arm, long arm C. Force arm, resistance arm D. Rotary arm, translatory arm E. Force arm, translaroty arm

C) Each lever has a force arm, which is the perpendicular distance from the line of force to the axis, and a resistance arm, which is the perpendicular distance from the resistance to the axis.

Which type of heat injury is considered a medical emergency? A. Dehydration B. Heat cramps C. Heat stroke D. Heat exhaustion E. All of the above except for A

C) He stroke is considered a medical emergency. Heat stroke results in severe hyperthermia with the failure of the thermoregulatory system and dysfunction of the central nervous system. This condition does not spontaneously reverse its course, and the athlete may die without immediate medical attention.

As the director of a free-standing sports medicine clinic, it is important to keep accurate records of an employee's personnel record. All of the following should be included in the file except: A. Performance evaluation records B. Salary and promotion records C. Time-off request sheets D. Employee contracts E. B and D

C) Only confidential information relating to a staff member's employment should be included in the personnel file. This would include performance evaluations, salary and promotion records, employee application information, and employee contracts.

Shoulder abduction occurs in the _______ plane and moves around a _______ axis. A. Frontal, sagittal B. Horizontal, vertical C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Sagittal, medial-lateral E. Frontal, superior-inferior

C) Shoulder abduction occurs in the frontal plane around an anterior-posterior axis.

Sixty-five percent of the heat produced by the body during exercise is lost through what? A. Convection B. Conduction C. Evaporation D. Radiation E. None of the above

C) Sixty-five perfect of heat produced by the body during exercise is lost by evaporation.

Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? A. Slow reversal B. Rhythmic stabilization C. Slow-reversal-hold-relax D. Rhythmic initiation E. All of the above

C) Slow-reversal-hold-relax is a PNF stretching technique.

Which of the following is the proper protocol for administering Tylenol to an adult athlete (assuming the athlete is not allergic to acetaminophen)? A. Initial dose; two tablets, 200 mg each, repeat every 6 to 8 hours, PRN B. Initial does two tablets, 225 mg each, repeat every 4 to 6 hours, PRN C. Initial does; two tablets, 325 mg each, repeat every 4 to 6 hours, PRN D. Initial dose; two tablets, 12.5 mg each, repeat every 6 hours PRN E. Initial does tree tablets, 200 mg each, repeat every 8 to 12 hours, PRN

C) The initial dose of Tylenol (acetaminophen) is two tablets 325 mg each. The dose may be repeated every 4 to 6 hours, PRN.

Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on the hands on the hands and feet as a method of superficial heat. To keep the Paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: A. 100 F to 115 F B. 80 F to 105 F C. 126 F to 130 F D. 118 F to 125 F E. 140 F to 150 F

C) The temperature of a paraffin bath should be maintained between 126 F and 130 F to keep it in a molten state.

Which of these are innervated by the tibial nerve? I. Gastrocnemius II. Flexor hallucis longus III. Extensor hallucis longus IV. Tibialis anterior V. Biceps femoris A. I, II, III, IV B. II, III, V C. I, II, V D. I, III, IV, V E. I, II, III

C) The tibial nerve innervates the gastrocnemius, flexor hallucis longus, and biceps femoris musculature.

Athletic training equipment can be either leased or bought. Which of the following is an advantage to leasing equipment? A. Higher overall cost B. No ownership C. Lower initial cost D. Higher effective interest rate than traditional financing E. None of the above

C) There is a lower initial cost with leasing eqiupment

An athlete's pulmonary function is tested via spirometry. Several measurements are taken during this test. What is the maximal amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration called? A. Maximum expiratory flow rate B. Forced expiratory volume C. Vital capacity D. Tidal volume E. Residual volume

C) Vital capacity is defined as the maximum amount of air that can be expired after maximum inspiration.

Which of the following acoustical interfaces is most reflective of ultrasound energy? A. Water-soft tissue B. Soft tissue-fat C. Soft tissue-bone D. Soft tissue-air E. None of the above

D) 99.9% of ultrasound energy is reflected when it is met with air.

Which of the following professionals possesses expertise in the analysis of human motion? A. A physiatrist B. An exercise physiologist C. A strength and conditioning specialist D. A biomechanist E. An athletic trainer

D) A biomechanist is an expert in analyzing human movement through the use of video and computer-enhanced digital analysis equipment.

A flak jacket is a piece of equipment designed to protect the athletes after what type of injury? A. Scapular injury B. Hip pointer injury C. Abdominal injury D. Rib injury E. Clavicle injury

D) A flak jacket is a piece of protective equipment designed to protect the thoracic area after a rib injury

What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a flexor injury? A. Use a KT-1000 arthrometer B. Assessing the strength of a handshake C. Manual muscle testing the wrist D. Use a hand dynamometer E. EMG Testing

D) A hand dynamometer is a simple tool used to objectively assess the functional strength of the hand and forearm.

The ideal relationship between the athletic trainer and athlete is built on ________ and _______. A. Encouragement, effective listening B. A positive attitude, a sense of humor C. Luck, "good chemistry" D. Trust, mutual respect E. Trust, a good insurance policy

D) A relationship between the athletic trainer and the athlete build on trust and mutual respect is essential to the athlete's psychological and physical well-being.

A second-degree burn will have which of the following characteristics? A. A raised, reddened appearance B. A white, mottled appearance C. A blackened, hard appearance D. A reddened area with blisters E. Blanched, shiny appearance

D) A second-degree burn is also known as a partial thickness burn and appears as a bright red area with blisters

Why is it important for an athlete to follow a varied diet that reflects the food pyramid? A. The athlete will maintain a healthy appetite B. Vitamin toxicity will be avoided C. Strict vegetarians tend to become anemic D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) A well-balanced diet will provide the required vitamins and minerals to keep the athlete healthy.

Which of the following organizations sets the standards for eye protection for racquet sports? A. American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) B. NATA C. FDA D. American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) E. NOCSAE

D) ASTM is responsible for setting the standards for eye protection for racquet sports

Under what condition can CPR be stopped? A. If a rib is fractured during the effort B. The athlete vomits C. The athlete aspirates D. Not until the athletic trainer is exhausted, spontaneous respirations and pulse have returned, or a physician or another party continues CPR in place of the athletic trainer E. A and C

D) CPR should not be stopped until the athletic trainer is too exhausted to continue, spontaneous breathing and circulation have resumed, or another responsible party continues CPR in place of the athletic trainer.

What would be included in the capital expenses of an athletic training program? A. Staff salaries B. Equipment under $500 C. Athletic training supplies D. Buildings and room construction E. All of the above

D) Capital expenses include major costs, costs such as buildings and land. Small supplies, such as tape, ultrasound gel, and others used for treatment purposes, are direct costs, while office supplies are indirect costs. Staff salaries are not a capital expense.

Fixed payments made on a monthly basis to a managed care provider are known as what type of reimbursement? A. Point-of-service plan B. Fee for service C. Third-party reimbursement D. Capitation E. Managed Care Option

D) Capitation is a fixed method of payment made to a provider per member over a specific period of time, regardless of the amount of services provided.

Which of the following conditions often contributes to shoulder impingement? A. Acute bicipital tendinitis B. Suprascapular nerve entrapment C. Adhesive capsulitis D. Glenohumeral instability E. Serratus anterior weakness

D) Glenohumeral instability allows increased movement of the humeral head within the glenoid fossa, which in turn may lead to microscopic damage to the tissues that lie beneath the coracoacromial arch. Resultant edema and microhemorrhage cause a reduction in the joint space and impingement, most commonly of the suprapinatus tendon.

During a track meet, you notice one of the runners appears somewhat disoriented. During your assessment of this athlete, you find he is complaining of being light-headed, his skin is cool and clammy, he is sweating profusely, and his radial pulse is rapid. You take a rectal temperature and find it is mildly elevated (102 F). you suspect the athlete is suffering from which of the following problems? A. Heat cramps B. Prickly head C. Heat stroke D. Heat exhaustion E. None of the above

D) Heat exhaustion is characterized by profuse sweating, cool clammy skin, rapid pulse, a mildly elevated rectal temperature (approximately 102 F), and hyperventilation.

When advising an athlete about his year-long strength program, the athletic trainer should have the athlete limit his heavy lifting workouts to which periods? A. In-season and postseason B. Preseason and in-season C. Postseason and off-season D. Off-season and preseason E. None of the above

D) Heavy strength training work-outs should be limited to off-season and preseason periods.

After an acute injury, chemical mediators are given off by various cells. Which of the following chemicals is the first to appear? A. Serotonin B. Heparin C. Prostaglandins D. Histamine E. Thrombin

D) Histamine is given off by blood platelets basophilic leukocytes, and mast cells during the beginning of the inflammatory process, causing arterial delation and capillary permeability.

All of the following functions contribute to the athlete's ability to maintain a steady state during periods of increased metabolic needs while exercising except: A. Pulmonary diffusion B. Vascular adaptation C. Physical condition of the involved muscles D. A high-protein pre-event meal E. A and C

D) Measuring the maximal O2 consumption during exercise is a good way to determine the athlete's ability to adapt to increased metabolic demands. Adequate pulmonary diffusion, appropriate vascular adaptation, and good physical condition of the active musculature all contribute to the athlete's ability to maintain homeostasis during exercise.

During a preparticipation physical, an athlete is diagnosed with myopia. What is this athlete's problem? A. Double vision B. Farsightedness C. Blindness in one eye D. Nearsightedness E. None of the above

D) Myopia is nearsightedness

All of the following forms are critical parts of the athlete's permanent medical record and should be completed before the athlete is permitted to participate in the first team practice except: A. Permission-to-treat form B. Preparticipation physical examination form C. Release form for athletes subjected to high risk D. Coach's injury report form E. Medical history form

D) Permission-to-treat forms, preparticipation physical examination forms, and release forms for athletes with increased risks should be completed and given to the athletic trainer prior to the first team practice.

_______ and ______ are two means that deliver medication via sound waves and electricity. A. Ultrasound, iontophoresis B. Ultrasound, phonophoresis C. Micromassage, phonophoresis D. Phonphoresis, iontophoresis E. High volt electric stimulation, iontophoresis

D) Phonophoresis is the delivery of medication via sound waves, and iontophoresis is the delivery of medication via direct electrical current.

A baseball player comes to see the athletic trainer and is complaining to diffuse pain, clicking, and a sensation of "slipping: of his right shoulder when throwing. What pathology might the athletic trainer suspect with this type of presentation? A. Torn rotator cuff B. Thrower's exostosis C. AC joint pathology D. Labral pathology E. Bicipital tendinitis

D) Recurrent anterior subluxation of the shoulder most frequently occurs with repetitive throwing motions, primarily during the cocking and follow-through phases. With constant repetition, the anterior capsule and labrum may stretch or tear, allowing the humeral head to slip anteriorly.

Shock after a severe injury can result from ______ or _______. A. Pain, increased blood pressure B. Decreased heart rate, infection C. Hemorrhage, hypothermia D. Hemorrhage, stagnation of blood E. Increased heart rate, pain

D) Shock after a severe injury can result from hemorrhage or stagnation of the blood.

When developing a functional progression for an athlete who is undergoing a rehabilitation program, all of the following factors need to be considered except: A. The physician's expectations for the athlete's return to activity B. The athlete's expectation for his or her return to activity C. The severity of the athlete's disability D. The length of the rehabilitation program E. The athlete's position in the sport

D) The length of a rehabilitation program is irrelevant in regards to the development of a functional progression sequence.

When taking a history during a physical examination of an athlete, all of the following information is pertinent except: A. The mechanism of the injury B. If a "pop" or "snap" was heard or felt C. If the athlete is on medication D. Whether or not the athlete has medical insurance E. History of previous injury

D) Whether or not the athlete has medical insurance should not be an immediate concern of the athletic trainer during the history-taking portion of the initial evaluation. Only those pieces of information that assist the athletic trainer in developing a course of action or treatment plan for the athlete should be considered pertinent.

An athlete has a suspected fracture involving the knee. Which of the following areas should be splinted? A. The ankle and lower leg areas B. The knee and thigh C. The ankle, knee, and thigh D. The lower limb joints and one side of the trunk E. The hip and ankle

D) With a suspected fracture of the knee joint or of the surrounding area, the splint should stabilize all of the lower limb joints and one side of the trunk.

when trying to decrease the chance of injury during activity, one should stretch thoroughly. Which one of these stretches represents bouncing type movement to achieve a stretch? A. Ballistic B. Dynamic C. Static D. Active E. PNF-slow-reverse hold

A) Ballistic stretching involves a bouncing motion during stretching and should be discouraged in favor of a static stretching

All of the following symptoms should alert the athletic trainer to serious pathology that requires immediate referral to a physician except: A. Itchy skin, especially when it involves area on the feet and toes B. Painful urination C. Unexpected weight loss D. Night pain E. Palpable lump in the breast or axilla

A) Itchy skin on the feet and toes is not a medical emergency requiring immediate referral to a physician.

The foot becomes a "rigid level" for push off when it is what position? A. Supination B. Pronation C. Dorsiflexion D. Adduction E. Plantarflexion

A) The foot becomes a rigid lever in preparation for push-off during gait when the foot is supinated in midstance.

What occurs at the articulating surfaces of a joint that is subjected to a compressive load? A. The joint surfaces are brought closer together B. The joint surfaces are forcefully seperated C. There is a "twisting" movement at the joint D. There is a "bending" motion that occurs at the joint surfaces E. There is a "gliding" motion that occurs at the joint surfaces

A) With compressive loading, the articular surfaces are brought closer together.

A shoe with _____ and _____ cleats has been shown to reduce the risk of knee injuries. A. Longer, fewer B. Shorter, more C. Longer, more D. Shorter, fewer E. Longer, sharper

B) A shoe with shorter and more cleats is better because the foot does not become fixed to the surface and the shoe still allows controlled running and cutting.

An excessive valgus force to the knee may result in an injury to which ligament? A. Lateral collateral ligament (LCL) B. Medial collateral ligament (MCL) C. Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) D. Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) E. Posterior ligament

B) An excessive valgus force would cause tension on the medial collateral ligament, resulting in a sprain or tear

All of the following are ways of reducing risk of injury except: A. Assess activity areas are safety B. Frequent handwashing C. Proper equipment maintenance D. Documentation of treaments E. All of the above

B) Assessing activity areas for sefety, proper equipment maintenance, and documentation of treatments area area ll ways of reducing the risk of injury.

Which of the symptoms below are seen with acute mountain sickness? I. Insomnia II. Vomiting III. Shortness of breath with exertion IV. Headache V. Fatigue A. II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I, II, III, V E. II, III, IV

B) Insomnia, shortness of breath with exertion, headache, fatigue, tachycardia, bradycardia, confusion, and edema are all symptoms of acute mountain sickness.

What role does the quadriceps musculature assume during active knee extension against gravity? A. Antagonist B. Agonist C. Synergist D. Stabilizaer E. None of the above

B) The agonist muscle is the primary mover while the antagonistic muscle is the muscle that causes the opposite reaction (ie, the quadriceps are the agonist muscle and the hamstrings are the antagonistic musculature during knee extension).

What is wrong with an athlete eating a 12- to 16- ounce steak, baked potato, scrambled egg, and coffee with sugar 4 hours prior to an event? A. Coffee with sugar may take as long as 3 hours to metabolize B. The intestinal tract will be full at the time of competition because it is a large meal C. The athlete may be hungry 8 hours later after he or she competes D. Nothing' the pre-event meal should be at least 500 calories or more E. Nothing; the athlete should eat whatever makes him or her feel comfortable

B) This meal is high in fat and protein and will take a long time to pass through the digestive tract.

An athlete needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal sit-up. What should the athletic trainer recommend? A. Place his hands behind his head, take a deep breath and hold it, and pull his torso up toward his bent knees B. Cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees C. Place his hands behind his head, bend his knees, exhale completely first, and inhale deeply as he pulls his torso up toward his knees. D. Keeping his arms down by his sides, bend his knees, inhale deeply, and hold it as he pulls his torso up toward his knees E. None of the above

B) When performing an abdominal crunch (sit-up), the athlete should cross his arms across his chest, tuck in his chin, bend his knees, inhale, and then exhale as he pulls his torso up toward his knees.

All of the following are indications of ice massage application except: A. Subacute injuries B. Contusions C. Anesthetized skin D. Muscle spasm E. Overuse injuries

C) Ice massage should never be applied to anesthetized skin because of the loss of sensation to the area.

Which of the following is a term that refers to a group of techniques used for the purpose of relieving soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia? A. Glides B. Traction C. Myofascial release D. Therapeutic massage E. Joint mobilization

C) Myofascial release is a term that refers to a group of techniques used for the purpose of relieving soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia.

Where do primitive stem cells mature into red and white blood cells and platelets? A. Liver B. Spleen C. Gallbladder D. Bone Marrow E. Epidiymis

D) The bone marrow contains immature stem cells that differentiate into red and white blood cells and platelets.

When taking a history from an athlete during the initial evaluation after an injury, at which of the following "levels of listening" should the athletic trainer be functioning? A. Passive B. Active C. Courteous D. Appreciative E. Analytical

E) When taking a history during an initial evaluation, the athletic trainer should be functioning at the "analytical" level of listening. The analytical level of listening involves listening for very specific kinds of information.

Which of the following are braces used after rehabilitation? A. Functional B. Prophylactic C. Patellofemoral D. Rehabilitative E. Postoperative

A) Functional braces are used after rehabilitation to prevent recurrent injury but maintain range of motion (ROM).

Repeated rubbing over the epidermis may cause which of the following conditions? A. Avulsion B. Blisters C. Contusions D. Bursitis E. Impetigo

B) Blisters may form in the epidermal layer of the skin as a result of continuous friction of the area. It

Which of the following carries impulses toward the central nervous system? A. Synaptic connections B. Afferent pathways C. Efferent pathways D. Dendrites E. Efferent axons

B) Afferent pathways carry impulses toward the central nervous system.

What is the efferent response to sensory information called? A. Kinesthesia B. Neuromuscular control C. Proprioception D. Coordination E. Parathesia

B) The efferent/motor response to neural/sensory information is known as neuromuscular control.

One of your female gymnasts has been complaining of feeling generally fatigued on a constant basis. After being examined by the team physician, he orders a complete blood count (CBC). This blood test assesses all of the following except: A. Red blood cell count B. White blood cell count C. Plasma volume D. Hemoglobin levels E. Platelet count

C) A CBC is a test that assesses the red and white blood cell count, hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, and platelet count.

What is the usual mechanism of injury for a Colles' fracture? A. A fall on the closed fist B. A fall on a bent elbow C. A fall on an outstretched arm and hand D. A twisting movement of the knee when the lower leg is planted E. Direct trauma to the forearm

C) A Colles' fractures is a fracture of the distal radius and tip of the lunate. This usually occurs as a result of a fall on an outstretched arm and hand.

A dry, nonproductive cough is most often caused by which of the following? A. Lung infection B. Bronchitis C. Alleriges D. Pneumothroax E. Cancer

C) A dry, nonproductive cough is most often caused by allergies to environmental irritants.

All of the following are considered members of the primary sports medicine team except: A. Coach B. Athletic trainer C. Physical therapist D. Team physician E. A and D

C) A physical therapist is not considered a member of the primary sports medicine team.

Which of the following is not part of a SOAP note? A. Subjective information B. Objective information C. Assessment D. Participation level E. Plan

D

Ultrasound waves are reflected by _______ and absorbed by _______. A. Bone, skin B. Skin, connective tissue C. Skin, blood D. Bone, muscle E. Nerve, muslce

D_ Ultrasound waves are reflected by bone and absorbed by muscle.

Athletes can prevent lower leg injuries by all of the following except: A. Stretching B. Proper footwear C. Proprioceptive training D. Strength training E. All of the above

E) Stretching, wearing proper footwear, and proprioceptive training may prevent injuries to the lower leg.

Which of the following is not part of the treatment for plantar fasciitis? A. Heel cups B. Soft orthotics C. Ultrasound D. Arch taping E. Use of a metatarsal bar

E) A metatarsal bar is used for treatment of metatarsalgia and seasmoiditis.

When using short wave diathermy, which of the following objects should not be located within the treatment area? A. Towels B. Wooden treatment tables (metal free) C. A container of ultrasound gel D. Swiss balls and Theraband E. Metal stools

E) There should be no metal in the immediate treatment area when using short wave diathermy.

Which of the following structures is not part of the pelvis? A. Coccyx B. Pubic symphysis C. Ileum D. Innominate bones E. Sacrum

C) The ileum is part of the lower small intestine.

Which of the following medications is not an NSAID? A. Aspirin B. Motrin C. Tylenol D. Celebrex E. Aleve

C) Tylenol (acetaminophen) has analgesic and antipyretic properties but is not an anti-inflammatory drug.

What is the average range of motion of knee flexion? A. 0 to 180 degrees B. 0 to 120 degrees C 0 to 100 degrees D. 0 to 155 degrees E. 0 to 135 degrees

E) The average range of motion of the knee is 0 to 135 degrees.

How often should an ultrasound unit be calibrated to ensure the safe application of ultrasound? A. Every 3 months B. Every month C. Every other year D. Every 5 years E. At least once a year

E) Ultrasound units should be calibrated at least once a year to ensure their safe use.

What medium does not transmit ultrasound waves? A. Water. B. Gel. C. Body lotion D. Steroid creams E. Air

E) Ultrasound waves cannot be transmitted through air. Ultrasound energy must be transmitted through a coupling medium, such as water or a lotion.

Which of the following describes an insurance "rider?" A. A supplementary clause to an insurance contract that covers the cost of conditions that extend beyond those associated with the standard policy. B. The usual fee charged by a health care provider for a particular service C. A policy that pays for medical expenses only after all of the athlete's other medical insurance policies have reached their limit D. A universally accepted insurance claim form used by hospitals E. None of the above

A) A "rider" is a supplementary clause to an insurance contract that covers the cost of conditions that extend beyond those associated with the standard policy.

Which of the following describes a neurapraxia? A. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads a conduction block. usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks B. Loss of disruption of the axon and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still intact C. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit D. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact E. None of the above

A) A neuropraxia is the demyelination of the axon sheath of a nerve fiber. This condition will cause a failure of the nerve to conduct impulses, causing a conduction block. It is usually reversible.

If a palpable "clunk" or shift at approximately 20 to 30 degrees of knee flexion is found during a pivot-shift test, this may be indicative of what? A. Anterolateral rotary instability of the knee B. Anteromedial rotary instability of the knee C. Posterolateral rotary instability of the knee D. Posteromedial rotary instability of the knee E. All of the above

A) A positive finding, such as a palpable clunk or shift with 20 to 30 degrees of the knee flexion, is indicative of an anterolateral instability of the knee, secondary to a torn anterior cruciate ligament or torn posterolateral capsule of the knee.

What is a stretching exercise that consists of a "stretch and hold" position called? A. Static stretch B. PNF pattern C. Ballistic stretch D. Warm-up E. B and C

A) A static stretch requires that the athlete stretch the muscle and hold the position to prevent a muscle injury, which may occur with ballistic stretching.

One of your athletes presents with a sudden onset of chest pain, dyspnea, hemoptysis, and cyanosis. What do you suspect is the problem? A. Pneumothorax B. Lung cancer C. Endocarditis D. Pulmonary infection E. Acute appendicitis

A) A sudden onset of chest pain, dyspnea, heoptysis, and cyanosis is highly suspect for a pneumothorax.

Under what condition(s) is an athlete likely to experience a stress fracture of a bone? A. After a few high loads or many small loads are applied to the bone B. After a large traumatic insult to the bone C. After a traumatic incident that is quickly followed by a few small loads to the bone D. After one or two small loads are applied to the bone E. None of the above

A) An athlete may sustain a stress fracture of the bone if he or she is subjected to a few high loads (eg, jumping on a hard floor) or many small loads (eg, jogging long distances).

During which of the circumstances below should an athlete be immediately referred to a dentist? I. The tooth is knocked out II. When a tooth is displaced 2 mm or more III. When a crown is fractured and the tooth is still alive IV. When a filling is knocked out or fractured and the athlete is sensitive to hot or cold food. V. When an artificial plate is broken during competition A. I, II, III B. I, II, III, V C. I, V D. II, III, IV E. I, III, IV

A) An athlete should be immediately referred to a dentist if a tooth has been knocked out, if a tooth has been displaced 2 mm or more, or when a crown is fractured and the tooth is still alive.

Which of the following is not a cause of a weight-training injury? A. The use of a "spotter" B. Barbell or platform defects C. Poor technique D. Not properly warming up before lifting weights E. C and D

A) An athlete should have a spotter when lifting at all times to prevent weight-training injuries

Which of the following describes an impacted fracture? A. A fracture that telescopes one part of the bone on the other B. The bone splits along its length C. The fracture is at a right angle to the shaft D. A fracture consisting of three or more fragments at the fracture site E. None of the above

A) An impacted fracture is a fracture in which one part of the bone telescopes on the other part of the bone.

Which of the following may occur as a result of a puncture wound that has not been properly treated? A. A tetanus infection B. A streptococcus infection C. A spirochete infection D. A staphylococcus infection E Dissemination of the wound

A) An infection caused by tetanus bacillus may occur secondary to a deep puncture wound.

At the secondary school level, the athletic training student should be involved in the educational efforts involving blood-borne pathogens. These educational items should include all of the following except: A. Education on the availability of herpes testing B. Education/training in the use of universal precautions and wound care C. Education on access to hepatitis B virus (HBV) vaccinations and testing D. Education of parents and guardians regarding the students' risk of infection E. Education on the modes of infection and risk of infection from the athletes they care for

A) At the secondary school level, educational items that involve the athletic training student should include the education/training of the universal precautions and first aid for wounds, education regarding the risks of transmissions/infection from the athletes for which they care, education on the availability of HIV testing, education on the availability of HBV vaccinations and testing, and the education of parents/ guardians regarding the students' risk of infection.

What type of stretching is not recommended because of the potential for causing muscle soreness and possible injury when done over a period of time? A. Ballistic B. PNF C. Static D. Concentric E. None of the above

A) Ballistic stretching is not recommended

Which of the following movements is greatest in the thoracic region? A. Lateral flexion of the spine B. Flexion and extension of the spine C. Rotation and extension of the spine D. Flexion of the spine E. None of the above

A) Because of the angulation of the articulating surfaces of the facets of the thoracic vertebrae, movement is greatest in lateral flexion.

You are aware of the general use of smokeless tobacco among your high school baseball players. You decide to develop a seminar for the coaches and players to discourage its use. Which of the following are effects of the chronic use of chewing tobacco? I. Leukoplakia II. Mouth and throat cancer III. Increased aggression IV. Bad breath V. Mood swings VI. Gynecomastia A. I, II, IV B. III, V, VI C. I, II, III D. II, III, IV E. II, III,IV,V

A) Chronic use of chewing tobacco can cause leukoplakia (ie, the developmental of white patches on the mucous membranes of the mouth and cheek); mouth and throat cancer; bad breath; gum disease; tooth, bone, and enamel loss; cavities; and stained teeth.

Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception of which of the following structures? A. Muscle that stabilize the shoulder girdle B. Ligaments that stabilize the glenohumeral joint C. Tendons that support the joints of the cervical spine, shoulder, and elbow D. The articular surfaces of the glenhumeral and acromioclavicular joints E. The articular surfaces of the acetabulum and femoral head

A) Closed kinetic chain exercises of the upper extremity are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception and neuromuscular control of the muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle.

All of the following are physiological responses to cryotherapy except: A. Increased metabolism B. Decreased muscle spasm C. Analgesia D. Increased joint stiffness E. B and D

A) Cold therapy used in an acute injury will decrease the local metabolic rate.

______ and _____ are two major components of "professionalism." A. Commitment, open-mindedness B. Status, narcissism C. Procrastination, decisivness D. Job titles, upward mobility E. Dedication, upward mobility

A) Commitment to the job, a state of open-mindedness, and professional growth are key elements of professionalism.

Over the past 6 months, you notice one of the athletic trainers on your staff exhibiting some behaviors that are out of character for the individual. You recognize these behaviors as signs of "burnout". Which of the following are signs of job burnout? I. Insomnia II. Angry behavior III. Manic behavior IV. Self-preoccupation V. Attentiveness VI. Daily feelings of exhaustion A. I, II, IV, VI B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, V, VI D. II, III, IV, VI E. All of the above

A) Difficulty sleeping, feelings of anger or guilt, self-preoccupation, and constantly feeling tired are all signs of job burnout.

One of your athletes has just been stung by a bee. He appears to be showing signs of anaphylaxis. Which of the following medications would be appropriate to administer to stop the reaction? A. Epinephrine B. Heparin C. An antitussive D. A histamine-2 blocker E. None of the above

A) Epinephrine is a sympathomimetic drug that may be delivered via an injective device, such as an Epipen, to halt an anaphylactic reaction.

The most common form of hyperthyroidism identified by tremors, weakness, difficulty in swallowing/speaking, and facial/eye tics is known as: A. Graves' disease B. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease C. Paget's disease D. Reye's syndrome E. Saroidosis

A) Graves' disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism.

_________ and ________ are important qualities that an athletic trainer must possess when counseling an athlete during a time of distress. A. Honesty, respect B. Sympathy, pity C. Confidence, logic D. Objectivity, decisiveness E. Logic, detachment

A) Honesty and respect are important qualities that an athletic trainer should possess when counseling an athlete that is in a state of distress.

When acquiring capital equipment for your athletic training room, a decision must be made regarding leasing or purchasing the equipment. What might be a possible advantage in leasing the equipment? A. Less risk that the equipment will become obsolete B. Lower overall cost C. Outright ownership of the equipment D. Purchased equipment has little resale value E. All of the above

A) If the equipment is based on complex technology, the department may be able to replace it Before it becomes obsolete.

An athlete reports to the athletic trainer with the presence of lesions on his upper lip and mouth area that look like blisters with a crusted yellow appearance and a red, weeping base. What is the probable cause of these lesions? A. Impetigo B. HIV C. Shingles D. A fungus infection E. Hives

A) Impetigo is a skin infection caused by staphylococcal bacteria. It is prevalent in wrestlers because of their close contact with other athletes. The bacteria can be carried under the nails and in the nose, infecting open skin wounds or abrasions. The lesion looks similar to herpes simplex lesions - a superficial ulcer with a yellow crust. The skin around the lesion appears normal. Treatment consists of local cleansing with soap and water and oral antibiotics.

Which of the following modalities results in the movement of ions into the body through the use of an electrical current? A. Iontophoresis B. Pulsed diathermy C. Phonophoresis D. Direct coupling E. Ultrasound

A) Iontophoresis results in the movement of ions into the body through the use of an electrical current.

The athletic trainer may use any of the following to treat an injured or ill athlete except: A. Prescription drug B. Hydrotherapy C. Cryotherapy D. Electrotherepy E. Massage

A) It is illegal for an athletic trainer to dispense a prescription drug to an athlete. Only those individuals who are legally licensed to prescribe or dispense prescription drugs may give an athlete a prescribed medication.

When rehabilitating an athlete following a lumbar strain, the athletic trainer should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve the flexibility of all of the following structures except: A. The abdominals B. The iliopsoas C. The paraspinals D. The hamstrings E. The hip extensors

A) It is important to emphasize the importance of good hip flexor, lumbar paraspinal, and hamstring flexibility during the rehabilitation of a lumbar strain to prevent reinjury.

What should the athletic trainer advise his or her athletes to do to minimize the negative effects of jet lag? A. Drink an adequate amount of fluids, especially water, to avoid dehydration B. Keep watches set to their "home" time zone C. Get up and go to bed 2 to 3 hours earlier for each time zone crossed D. Wear warm clothing to avoid getting cold on the plane E. Get at least 8 hours of sleep at night the week before the flight

A) It is important to maintain good hydration on long flights that cross numerous time zones

A cross-country runner comes to you because he would like to begin on a strength-training program for general body development. He informs you that he "has never really lifted weights before." How would you instruct him regarding his breathing pattern during a lift? A. Have the athlete inhale deeply at the beginning of the lift and then forcefully exhale at the end of the lift B. Have the athlete hold his breath during the lift C. Have the athlete inhale during the lift and hold his breath at the end of the lift D. Have the athlete breathe in, blow out, and breath in again at the end of the lift E. Breath normally.

A) It is proper to have the athlete breathe in deeply at the beginning of the lift and forcefully exhale at the end of the lift.

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with a Larsen-Johansson disease. Which of the following is not appropriate when advising the athlete in regard to minimizing his symptoms? A. To increase the strength of the vastus medialis obliqus muscle (VMO) with isotonic quadriceps strengthening exercises B. Use ice packs frequently to minimize pain and swelling C. Avoid stressful activities, such as running, for approximately 6 months D. Avoid deep squatting E. All of the above

A) Larsen-Johanasson disease is an apophysitis at the inferior pole of the patella and is characterized by swelling, pain, and point tenderness at the site. It usually occurs during adolescence. Isotonic exercise is not appropriate for this particular condition , as it may increase the symptoms by causing too much stress on the affected area.

What should be avoided by an athlete who has frequent episodes of constipation? A. Laxatives or enamas B. High fiber diet C. Bland diet D. Calcium supplements E. B and D

A) Laxatives and enamas can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can endanger the athlete's health and impair performance.

Which of the following is a form of state credential, established by statute and intended to protect the public, that regulates the practie by specifying who may practice and what duties they may perform? A. Licenscure B. Exemption C. Certification D. Registration E. None of the above

A) Licensure is a form of state credentialing, established by statute and intended to protect the public, that regulates the practice by specifying who may practice and what duties they may perform.

Which of the of the following is a method that allocates a fixed amount of money for an entire program without specifying how the money will be spent? A. Lump-sum budgeting B. Request for quotation C. Lump-sum bidding D. Line-item budgeting E. Need-based budgeting

A) Lump-sum budgeting is a method that allocates a fixed amount of money for an entire program without specifying how the money will be spent.

When is maximum protection provided by a properly fitted mouthguard? A. When it is made of a flexible, resilient material and is form-fitted to the teeth and upper jaw B. When it is made of a rigid, plastic material that is fitted to both the upper and lower jaw C. When it is certified by the NOCSAE D. When it is certified by the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) E. When it contains titanium fibers

A) Maximum protection is provided by a mouth-piece when it is made of a flexible, resilient material and is form fitted to the teet and upper jaw.

_________ and _______ are two signs of occupational "burnout." A. Exhaustion, anger B. Excitement, creativeness C. Confusion, anxiety D. Paranoia, skepticism E. Anger, forgetfulness

A) Occupational "burnout" is demonstrated by physical and emotional exhaustion and negative attitude toward work. Signs of burnout include anger, guilt, insomnia, and self-preoccupation.

Heat is dissipated in the body by all of the following except: A. Shivering B. Convection C. The lungs D. Sweat evaporation E. Vasodilation

A) Shivering is a method by with the body generates heat.

Which of the following could present a problem for the athletic trainer using a computer to store medical records? A. Maintaining security B. Retrieving specific information C. Loading files D. Using email E. All of the above

A) The athletic trainer should utilize a password to maintain confidentiality and security and to prevent unwanted individuals from gaining access to the database.

Which of the following is not an error when planning the design of a sports medicine facility? A. Concentrating on function rather than style B. The use of wood for the main flooring material C. Having the adaptive access on the other side of the building D. Non-ground-fault interrupter (GFI) receptacles placed within the hydrotherapy area E. Having only one entrance and exit.

A) The athletic trainer who is designing a new sports medicine facility should always be concerned with function/economy of space instead of aesthetics

What is the level of desirable total cholesterol? A. Less than or equal to 200 mg/100dL B. Greater than 250mg/ 100mL C. 55mg/100 mL D. Less than 100mg/100 mL E. None of the above

A) The average level of desirable total cholesterol is less than or equal to 200 mg/ 100 dL

Where should the bell of a stethoscope be placed when taking blood pressure? A. Over the brachial artery B. Over the brachial vein C. Over the popliteal fossa D. Over the radial artery E. Over the ulnar artery

A) The bell of the stethoscope should be placed over the brachial artery during auscultation.

Which of the following is the biggest budgetary obstacle that many high school athletic trainers must face? A. Lack of a room and special facilities/equipment necessary to operate an adequate athletic training program B. Lack of athletic tape and wraps, athletic training kits, and a table C. Location of the athletic training room D. Lack of a student athletic trainers' program, which would provide the certified athletic trainer with free help E. Lack of a budget plan

A) The biggest budgetary obstacle a high school athletic trainer faces is the lack of a room and special facilities to operate his or her program.

When choosing a prophylactic knee brace, the brace should meet all of the following criteria except: A. It should always be custom-molded to avoid a poorly fitting brace B. It should not interfere with normal knee function C. It should not increase injuries to the lower extremity D. It should be cost-effective and durable E. B and D

A) The brace should be adaptable to a variety of anatomic shapes and sizes. Not all prophylactic braces need to be custom-molded to achieve this goal.

What are the two most common sites to apply direct pressure to control severe bleeding of the upper and lower extremities? A. Brachial artery and femoral artery B. Popliteal artery and radial artery C. Brachial artery and suprascapular artery D. Brachial vein and femoral vein E. Carotid artery and femoral artery

A) The brachial and femoral arteries are the two most common sites to apply direct pressure to control severe bleeding of an upper or lower extremity.

To help prevent an athlete from developing hypothermia while playing in very cold weather, what should the athletic trainer advise the athlete to do? A. Wear a hooded sweatshirt B. Only stay out in the cold for brief periods of time C. Wear layers of clothing D. Wear lined pants E. B and D

A) The greatest loss of heat from the body occurs at the head and neck. It is wise to keep these areas well-covered in cold weather.

Which of the steps below are correct when fitting a football helmet? I. Place the helmet over the head, tilt it backward, and rotate it forward into position II. Try to turn the helmet side-to-side with the head in a stationary position III. Check to make sure the helmet sits three finger-breadths above the eyebrows IV. Press straight down on the crown of the helmet to see if the pressure is at the crown of the head V. Check to see if the jaw pads fit snugly against the jaw VI. Check the chin strap adjustment for a tight fit A. I, II, IV, V, VI B. I, II, III, VI C. I, III, IV, V D. I, III, IV, VI E. I, III, IV, V, VI

A) The helmet should not move if tilted, rotated, or turned side to side. The athletic trainer should push down on the crown of the helmet and check to see if the jaw pads and chin strap fit correctly.

When monitoring a carbohydrate-loading program for an endurance athlete, what should the athlete do the day prior to competition? A. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and perform little or no exercise B. Eat a low-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise C. Eat a high-carbohydrate meal and participate in a regular amount of exercise D. Hyperhydrate and rest the day before competition E. Eat low protein diet and participate in a regular amount of exercise

A) The idea behind a carbohydrate-loading program it is to increase the storage of glycogen in the muscles to improve performance in the endurance athlete. The athlete should consume a meal that is high in carbohydrates, such as pasta, and only lightly exercise the day before competition.

Which muscle is usually affected with tennis elbow? A. Extensor carpi radialis brevis B. Flexor carpi radialis C. Extensor carpi ulnaris D. Extensor pollicis brevis E. Coracobrachialis

A) The muscle most prominently involved with lateral epicondylitis is the extensor carpi radialis brevis.

What physiological effects occur under the cathode of an electrical stimulator? I. Vasodilation II. Vasoconstriction III. Tissue softening IV. Irritation A. I, III, IV B. II, III, IV C. I, II, III D. I, II, IV E. None of the above

A) The negative pole or cathode will cause local vasodilation under the pad, tissue softening, irritation, and edema reduction.

During what season would it be beneficial for an athlete to participate in a sport (other than his or her primary sport) to maintain an adequate level of fitness? A. Off-season B. Postseason C. In-season D. Preseason E. Transition phase of in-season

A) The off-season period should be a time when the athlete is not training as frequently or as intensely as the in-season period, but he or she should participate in an activity that maintains a level of flexibility, strength, and endurance. The off season can be broken down into the transition and preparatory periods, while the in-season may also be referred to as the competition period. In turn these periods may be further divided into subphases.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle originates on the ______ and inserts on the ________. A. Clavicle, mastoid process B. Clavicle and sternum, mastoid process C. Manubrium, occipital protuberance D. Manubrium, clavicle E. Third cervical vertebrae, clavicle

A) The origin of the sternocleidomastoid muscle is on the superior/medial portion of the clavicle and the manubruim and inserts into the mastoid process.

Which muscle does not assist in plantar flexion of the ankle? A. Peroneus tertius B. Posterior tibialis C. Plantaris D. Soleus E. Gastrocnemius

A) The peroneus tertius muscle originates on the lower two thirds of the fibula and inserts on the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal bone. It assists to dorsiflex the ankle.

During the foreign body airway obstruction maneuver, the athletic trainer should grasp one fist with the other hand and place the thumb side of the fist where? A. On the abdomen between the xyphoid process and the umbilicus B. On the manubrium C. On the abdomen between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis D. Between the scapula E. None of the above

A) The proper position for the fist that is resting on the athlete's body is on the abdomen between the xyphoid process and the umbilicus.

Which of the following is known as the separation of electrically charged particles causing a transmembrane electrical potential difference? A. Resting membrane potential B. Membrane permeability threshold C. Electrogenic pump D. Depolarization threshold E. Ion interference

A) The separation of electrically charged particles causing a transmembrane electrical potential difference is known as the resting membrane potential.

Which of the following is the least occurring type of shoulder subluxation/dislocation? A. Superior B. Inferior C. Anterior D. Posterior E. C and D

A) The shoulder rarely dislocates in the superior direction and the acrommion process is in the way.

A lever is considered in rotation equilibrium when any muscle acting on that level is neither shortening nor lengthening. This results in what kind of contraction? A. Isometric B. Isotonic C. Passive D. Concentric E. Eccentric

A) This situation results in an isometric contraction.

Which of the following athletes should avoid high volume, high-intensity plyometric exercises? A. Athletes who weight more than 220 lbs B. Pre-menstrual female athletes C. Athletes who weigh less than 75 kg D. Diabetic athletes E. Asthmatic athletes

A) Those athletes who weight more than 220 lbs should avoid high volume, high intensity, plyometric exercises because greater weight increases the compressive forces on joints during plyometric exercises predisposing these joints to injury.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of tissue healing? A. Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling B. Remodeling, regeneration, cellular response C. Rejection, regenreation, resolution D. Regeneration, resoluation, remodeling E. None of the above

A) Tissue healing begins with a cellular response, which is associated with vascular changed, followed by phase II, or regeneration, of both soft tissue and bone. The third phase is known as remodeling, in which there is an increased organization of extracellular matrix and decreased synthetic activity.

Alpine skiing world championships are scheduled in Japan. Jet lag is bound to occur as a result of crossing several time zones. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the team members prior to their flight to combat the jet lag effect? A. Ubon arrival, adust all training, eating, and sleeping schedules to the local time of the country in which they are competing B. Consume caffeine only when traveling east C. Reset watches to the new time zone 3 days in advance to get used to the time change D. When traveling west, it is important to have a large breakfast in the morning to carry the athlete through the day E. Make sure the team trains late in the day prior to the trip

A) To avoid the effects of jet lag, athletes should adjust all training, eating, and sleeping schedules to the local time in which they are competing.

To test the function of the rhomboid major muscle, the athletic trainer should ask the athlete to perform what movement? A. Scapular retraction B. Shoulder internal rotation C. Scapular protraction D. Shoulder shrug E. Shoulder external rotation

A) To test the function of the rhomboid major, the athletic trainer should ask the athlete to retract his or her scapula.

What position is the "recommended" position for manually muscle testing the gluteus medius muscle? A. Sidelying, with the affected limb on top B. Supine C. Prone D. Sitting E. Standing

A) To test the gluteus medius in an antigravity position against resistance, the athlete must be side lying with the affected limb on top.

What is the best position for the athlete to be in to muscle test the piriformis? A. Sitting B. Prone C. Supine D. Sidelying E. Standing

A) To test the strength of the piriformis, the athlete should be sitting, The lower leg is resisted as the athlete attempts to externally rotate the hip.

What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? A. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions B. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions C. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface D. Roll and glide occur in the same direction E. Straight glide in same direction

A) When a convex surface moves on a concave surface during joint mobilization, and roll and glide occur in opposite directions.

Under which of the following conditions is the tension created in a muscle the greatest during exercise? A.When the interaction between the cross-bridges of the actin and myosin myofilaments are at a maximum B. When the muscle position is as it shortest C. When a muscle is at its most lengthened point D. When the muscle insertion is at a 90-degree angle to the shaft of a bone E. None of the above

A) When the muscle is in a position where there is maximum interaction of the cross-bridges between the actin and myosin myofilaments in a sarcomere, the tension within the muscle will be at its greatest point.

What type of force typically causes injury to the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament of the knee? A. A valgus force with the tibia in external rotation B. A varus force with the knee in full extension C. A valgus force with the femur in external rotation D. A valgus force with the knee in recurvatum E. None of the above

A) When the tibia is stabilized in an externally rotated position and a strong valgus force is applied, the medial collateral ligament, medial meniscus, and anterior cruciate ligament are vulnerable to injury.

If necessary, the removal of the helmet and shoulder pads from an athlete with a suspected spinal cord injury should be coordinated to avoid which of the following? A. Cervical hyperextension B. Airway obstruction C. Cervical hyperflexion D. Thoracic rotation E. Thoracic compression

A) When there is a suspected spinal cord injury and the decision is made to remove the helmet and shoulder pads, they should be removed simultaneously to avoid cervical hyperextension.

An athlete is brought into the athletic training room with a 2.5-inch nail embedded in his foot. All of the following actions are appropriate in the treatment of this injury except: A. Immediately remove the nail from the foot B. Keep the athlete calm C. Pack the nail and foot as they are in a large dressing to help control the bleeding and stabilize the object D. Transport the athlete to the hospital with the nail still embedded in this foot E. Verify that the athlete's tetanus shot is current

A) When treating for an impaled object, always leave the object in place and apply a bulky bandage around it to control bleeding and to stabilize the object.

Two major symptoms of a spontaneous pneumothorax include ______ and _____. A. Bradycardia, cyanosis B. Sudden chest pain, dyspnea C. Apnea with rales, rhonchi D. Left shoulder pain, cyanosis E. Diaphoresis, bradycardia

B) A pneumothorax occurs when there is the presence of air within the chest cavity in the pleural space but outside the lung. In an intact chest, a pneumothorax can occur if a fractured rib has lacerated a lung or spontaneously if the athlete has a congenitally weakened area on the surface of the lung, which may rupture without antecedent trauma. SUdden chest pain and difficulty breathing as the lung collapses are major signs of a spontaneous pneumothorax.

How would you define a policy? A. A specific plan for members of an organization to follow B. A broad statement of an intended action C. An organizational plan that provides program direction for 1 to 2 years D. A mission statement of an organization E. A vision statement of an organization

B) A policy is a broad statement of intended action developed by those who are empowered to govern the operation of an organization. A procedure outlines a specific strategy for members of an organization to follow when following a policy.

What does a positive drop-arm sign indicate? A. Posterior should subluxation B. Torn rotator cuff muscle C. Axillary nerve injury D. A labral tear E. Humeral head fracture

B) A positive drop-arm sign is indicative of rotator cuff pathology. The athlete is asked to stand as the athletic trainer passively abducts the athlete's arm to 90 degrees and then instructs the athlete to slowly lower his or her arm to the side. If the athlete has significant pain with the movement or is unable to control the adduction of the arm during testing, the sign is positive.

Allen's test is used to test what? A. The integrity of the vertebral arteries B. The integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand C. For carpal tunnel syndrome D. For tarsal tunnel nerve entrapment E. Integrity of the ulnar nerve

B) Allen's test is used to test the integrity of the radial and ulnar arteries of the hand. It is performed by first having the athlete pump his or her hand by repetitively making a fist. The athlete then maintains the fist while the examiner compresses the radial artery with his or her thumb and the ulnar artery with his or her finger. As the athlete relaxes his or her hand, the radial artery is released, followed by the ulnar artery. If there is a delay in flushing of the radial or ulnar sides of the hand or finger, there may be an occlusion of the radial or ulnar artery, respectively.

Which of the following does not occur when an individual is in shock? A. Skin is pale and cool B. Blood pressure (BP) is high C. Pulse is rapid D. BP is low E. Respiration is shallow

B) An athlete's blood pressure will be low if he or she is in shock.

To prevent the feeling of sedation during the day while taking medications for allergic rhinitis, the athletic trainer should suggest the athlete not take which of the following medications until he or she is ready to go to bed? A. Expectorants B. Antihistamines C. Decongestants D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) E. Anti-pyretic agents

B) Antihistamines have a sedative side effect; therefore, it is advisable that the athlete avoid taking them during the day

Which of the following is not the proper action for an athlete to take if lightning is observed during a game? A. Avoid standing near metal bleachers on the field B. Stand near a telephone pole C. Assume a crouched position in a ditch D. Take cover in an automobile if he or she cannot get indoors E. A and C

B) Athletes should avoid standing near tall objects, such as trees or telephone poles, which may attract a lightning strike.

Athletic trainers are which type of decision maker? A. Primary B. Secondary C. Tertiary D. Supplemental E. Definers

B) Athletic trainers are secondary decision makers, which are professionals responsible for delivering a program within an organization.

What is the average range of motion of elbow flexion? A. 0 to 90 degrees B. 0 to 135 degrees C. 0 to 115 degrees D. 0 to 100 degrees E. 0 to 180 degrees

B) Average range of motion for elbow flexion is 0 to 135 degrees.

A moist heat pack causes all of the following effects except: A. Higher superficial tissue temperature B. Increases in muscle tissue temperature C. Sedation D. Reduction of muscle spasms E. Vasodilation

B) Because a moist heat pack is a form of superficial heat, it does not increase the muscle tissue temperature.

All athletes should be required to participate in a preparticipation physical examination prior to any athletic related activity. During this exam, an athlete should be required to fill out pertinent paperwork. What is one of the most important forms the athlete must complete? A. Previous athletic experience form B. Assumption of risk form C. Statutes of limitations form D. Personal information form E. Health insurance form

B) By signing the assumption of risk form the athlete is made aware of the risk of athletic participation and the activities that he or she engages in freely without being forced to do so. These activities include competition, practice, and conditioning.

What mineral must be present in adequate amount in the muscle fiber for a contraction to occur? A. Na+ B. Ca++ C. Cl- D. PO4 E. All of the above

B) Calcium is a mineral that is necessary for proper muscular contraction to occur. Calcium is a necessary component in the activation of cross-bridging between actin and myosin to shorten the length of the sarcomere in the muscle fiber.

Articular cartilage has limited ability to heal because of which of the following reasons? A. Constant movement of the joint does not allow for healing B. Cartilage has limited or no direct blood supply C. The high incidence of aseptic necrosis D. Poor results with NSAID treatment E. None of the above

B) Cartilage has limited ability to heal because it has limited or no direct blood supply.

Which of the following is covered in a "rider" in an athletic accident insurance policy? A. Acute traumatic injuries B. Chronic overuse injuries C Long-term permanent disabilities D. All of the above E. None of the above

B) Chronic overuse injuries can be included in a rider. This may cause the cost of the premium to go up, but the injury will be covered

A type of training that employs a series of stations that consists of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise is known as which of the following? A. Isokinetic training B. Circuit training C. Plyometrics D. Progressive resistance exercises E. Specificity training

B) Circuit training is a type of training that employs a series of stations consisting of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise.

Which of the measures below are appropriate steps in the management of an athlete who is experiencing a seizure? I. Keep spectators out of the way II. Protect the patient's head and body from injury III. Turn the patient on his side IV. If the athlete is in status epilepticus or it is a first seizure, immediately seek further medical support V. Try to keep the athlete's mouth open by any means to prevent airway obstruction VI. Call the athlete's next of kin to inform him or her of the problem and of the given care A. II, IV, V, VI B. I, II, III, IV C. II, III, IV, VI D. I, II, IV, V E. III, IV, V, VI

B) During a seizure, it is best to keep the area around the athlete clear of objects or spectators and protect the athlete's head and body from further injury. It is important to turn the athlete on his or her side so if he or she vomits, he or she will not aspirate. A prolonged seizure is a serious medical situation, and itis prudent to call for additional medical support.

External muscular force available for useful work is the result of all of the following factors except: A. The velocity of muscular shortening B. Whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch C. The angle of the pull of the muscle D. The length of the muscle E. C and D

B) External force created by a muscle depends on the velocity of the muscle shortening (as the speed of shortening increases, the force decreases), the angle of the pull of the muscle (ie, when the muscle pulls at right ankles to the bone it's moving, the muscular force will be optimal), and the length of the muscle (the tension developed with a contraction is greatest if the muscle is at its maximum resting length to start)

Which of the following standards are performance evaluation standards intended to help foster practicality in the employee appraisal process? A. Accuracy standards B. Feasibility standards C. Utility standards D. Propriety standards E. Quality standards

B) Feasibility standards are performance evaluation standards intended to help foster practicality in the employee appraisal process.

Profuse sweating, dizziness, and nausea are signs and symptoms of which of the following? A. Heat stroke B. Heat exhaustion C. Hypothermia D. Frostbite E. Heat cramps

B) Heat exhaustion causes a person to sweat profusely and become dizzy and nauseated. Also, their blood pressure (BP) drops during heat exhaustion.

What is the first thing you should do if you suspect a spinal injury? A. Place the athlete on a spine board with assistance B. Hold in-line stabilization C. Help the athlete to sit up D. Have the athlete move his or her head E. Have the athlete move his or her legs

B) Hold in-line stabilization decreases any chance of increasing the severity of the injury.

An athlete with a concussion should be held out of play for which of the following reasons regardless of the severity of the concussion? A. Tingling in hands and feet B. Possibility of second impact syndrome C. Possibility of compartment syndrome D. Possibility of brachial plexus problems E. None of the above

B) If sent back to play after suffering a concussion, the athlete could sustain another head injury, causing his or her brain to swell even more and possibly causing death. This is known as second impact syndrome.

All of the following are effects of immobilization on muscle except: A. Increase in muscle contraction time B. Increase in muscle tension produced C. Decrease in muscle fiber size D. Decrease in total muscle weight E. Decrease in neuromuscular efficiency

B) Immobilization of muscles causes a decrease in muscle tension produced

What is the proper position to manually muscle test the anterior deltoid? A. Shoulder in full internal rotation with the palm facing the floor, the force directed downward B. Shoulder in 90 degrees of abduction, full external rotation, and supination with the force directed downward C. Resistance to the first 30 degrees of abduction D. Arm in 90 degrees of flexion, palm facing downward, and the force is in the downward direction E. None of the above

B) In order to expose the anterior deltoid to resistance in an antigravity position, the shoulder must be in 90 degrees abduction and in full external rotation. The forearm must be in full supination.

All of the following are contraindications for using cryotherapy except: A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Inflammation C. Vasculitis D. Cold urticaria E. A and D

B) Inflammation of a body part is an indication for the use of cryotherapy.

Which of the following are contraindications to massage? I. Inflammation II. Pregnancy III. Hemorrhage IV. Infection V. Phlebitis A. I, II, III, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV D. II, III, IV, V E. All the above

B) Inflammation, hemorrhage, infection, and phlebitis are all contraindications for massage.

All of the following are components of outcome assessment methods from the Agreement-Trust Matrix except: A. Patient chart documentation B. Internal chart audits C. Randomized clinical trials D. Patient review E. A and D

B) Internal chart audits are a produce during chart auditing; it is accomplished before the outcome assessment methods.

When rehabilitating the lateral epicondylitis, which muscle group needs to be strenghtened? A. Wrist flexors B. Wrist extensors C. Elbow flexors D. Elbow extensors E. Shoulder abductors

B) Lateral epicondylitis is an overuse syndrome of the wrist extensors. Once the inflammatory process is under control, strengthening the wrist extensors will help prevent a reoccurrence of the problem.

Which of the following is a manual technique in which an injured athlete's muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in a specific position? A. Myofascial release B. Muscle energy techniques C. Joint mobilization D. Strain-counterstrain E. Multi-angle isokinetics

B) Muscle energy techniques are methods used to stretch tight muscles by having the athlete contract a muscle against a counterforce in a specific position.

Which of the following cervical nerve roots represents the sensory dermatomes of the hand? I. C5 II. C6 III. C7 IV. C8 V. T1 A. I, II, III B. II, III, IV C. III, IV, V D. I, III, IV E. I, III, V

B) Nerve roots C6, C7, C8 represent the sensory dermatomes of the hand (from radial to thumb sides, respectively).

A stretch injury to a nerve resulting in transient symptoms of paresthesia and weakness is known as what? A. Neurotmesis B. Neurpraxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Nerve gliding E. Mypraxia

B) Neurapraxia is a stretch injury to a nerve resulting in transient symptoms of paresthesia and weakness.

A tennis player comes to the athletic trainer complaining of medial thigh pain. He is limping and has pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion. There is diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis along the proximal aspect of the medial thigh. What is the probable cause of pain? A. Hip flexor rupture B. Groin strain C. Medial hamstring strain D. Popliteal strain E. None of the above

B) Pain with resisted hip adduction and hip flexion with diffuse tenderness and ecchymosis of the medial thigh is indicative of a strain of the groin area.

What is the primary mode of action of penicillin? A. Increases the number of T-lymphocytes in the bloodstream B. Inhibits the metabolism of the bacteria C. Prevents bacterial reproduction D. Breaks down the cell wall of the bacteria E. Prevents viral reproduction

B) Penicilin inhibits the metabolism of bacteria.

Which type of drink would not be appropriate prior to a long-distance run? A. Water B. Regular soda C. Gatorade D. Water with lemon juice added E. Any drink containing sodium

B) Soda contains caffeine, which is a dehydrating substance. This would not be an appropriate drink when trying to maintain adequate hydration during exercise.

You are part of a planning committee that has been given the responsibility of designing the new athletic training room at your school. You have been through the initial process of conducting a needs assessment and selecting an architect/contractor. You now are meeting with the architect to begin development of the schematic drawings and will be submitted for approval. ________ and ______ are two major elements that must be addressed in these schematic drawings. A. Plumbing, electrical layouts B. Space needs, traffic patterns C. Field access, escape routes D. Aesthetics, large equipment positioning E. Color, furniture location

B) Space requirements and traffic flow patterns must be addressed in the schematic drawings to ensure adequate space to function, grow, and enhance the movement of people from one section of the athletic training room to another.

The adrenal glands secrete which of the following substances? I. Cortisol II. Epinephrine III. Serotonin IV. Aldosterone V. Estrogen VI. Human growth hormone A. I, II, III, VI B. I, II, IV, V C. II, III, V, VI D. III, IV, V, VI E. I, II, III, IV

B) The adrenal glands, which are part of the endocrine system, are responsible for secreting the hormones cortisol, epinephrine, aldosterone, estrogen, norepinephrine, and androgen.

All of the following are ways athletic trainers can help keep insurance premiums to a minimum except: A. Insist that the athletes purchse their own personal insurance B. Adopt and communicate policies that increase the institution's financial obligations to those injuries that are covered by the school's insurance policy C. Spread the risk among all concerned parties D. Pass the cost or some fraction of the cost to the athlete E. Have the team physician see athletes in the athletic training room

B) The athletic trainer should adopt and communicate policies that limit the institution's financial obligation to those injuries that are covered by the school's insurance policy.

The flexor pollicis longus is responsible for which of the following action(s)? A. Great toe flexion B. Thumb flexion C. Thum flexion and adduction D. Thumb flexion and abduction E. None of the above

B) The flexor pollicis longus originates on the radius, adjacent interosseous membrane, and coronoid process of the ulna and inserts on the distal phalanx of the thumb. Its primary action is flexion of the thumb.

If it is determined that a 25-year-old athlete should work at 80% of his maximal heart rate, what would his target heart rate be? A. 170 BPM B. 156 BPM C. 145 BPM D. 140 BPM E. 130 BPM

B) The formula for calculating target heart rate is 220-25 (athlete's age) = 195 xx 80% = 156 BPM.

Hans Selye's phenomenon of the general adaptations syndrome (GAS), which occurs when an individual responds to a stressful situation, includes which three stages of the stress response? A. Fright, flight, exhaustion B. The alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion C. The alarm stage, flight stage, acceptance stage D. Anger stage, bargaining stage, acceptance stage E. The alarm stage, fight, exhaustion

B) The general adaptation syndrome (GAS) consists of three states: the alarm stage, the resistance stage, and the exhaustion stage

Which of the following is the proper protocol for administering Pepcid AC to an adult athlete (assuming the athlete does not have difficulty swallowing or persisting abdominal pain)? A. Initial does two tables, 5 mg each with milk up to twice a day. Do not administer more than four tablets in a 24-hour period B Initial does; one tablet, 10 mg each with water up to twice a day. Do not administer more than two tablets in a 24-hour period C. Initial does; one tablet, 75 mg with water up to twice a day. Do not administer more than two tablets in a 24-hour period D. Initial does; one tablet, 5 mg with water up to four times a day En None of the above

B) The initial dose of Pepcid AC (famotidine) is one 10-mg tablet to be taken with water up to two times a day. Do not administer more than two tablets in a 24-hour period.

Which structures are located in the lateral compartment of the lower leg? A. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis muslces B. Peroneus longus and brevis muscles, the superficial branch of the peroneal nerve, and the peroneal artery C. Posterior tibialis muscle, posterior tibial arter, and the deep peroneal nerve D. Extensor digitorum longus, peroneal brevis, and peroneal tertius muscles E Anterior tibialis, peroneal brevis, and Achilles tendon

B) The peroneal nerve, artery, and muscle groups comprise the lateral compartment of the lower leg.

During vigorous activity, accessory muscles come into play to aid respiration. During inspiration, these muscles include the _______ and _______. A. Upper trapezius, levator scapulae B. Sternocleidomastoid, scalenes C. Intercostals, abdominals D. Intercostals, levator scapulae E. Abdominals, sternocleidomastoid

B) The sternocleidomastoid and scalenes assist during inspiration by lifting the ribs to allow for the intake of greater volumes of air.

What three different lipoproteins make up total cholesterol? A. Triglycerides, high-density lipoproteins (HDLs), and low-density lipoproteins (LDL) B. LDL, HDL, and very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) C. LIL, VLDL, and triglycerides D. Alpha lipoprotein, LDL, and triglycerides E. Triglycerides, omega-3 fatty acids, HDL

B) Total cholesterol is comprised of LDLs, HDLs, and VLDLs.

When treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis, flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles? A. Gluteus maximus B. Tensor fascia latae C. Iliacus D. Piriformis E. Lumbar

B) Trochanteric bursitis can be caused or aggravated by a tight tensor fascia latae muscle.

The dangers of possible hypothermia during exercise in very cold weather are significantly pronounced by _____ and _____. A. Light clothing, low chill factor B. Wind, weather C. Layered clothing, dry weather D. Wind, dry weather E. Heavy clothing, wind

B) Wind and wet weather may increase the possibility of hypothermia while exercising in very gold weather conditions.

You are covering a football game when two players collide. You notice that one player grabs his neck and shakes his arm. When you examine him, he complains of lateral neck discomfort and a feeling of "numbness" or "burning" down his arm. His arm is hanging limp by his side. In a few minutes, the symptoms subside. What do you suspect? A. Carpal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. A "burner" or pinched nerve syndrome D. Dorsal scapular nerve injury E. Thoracic outlet syndrome

C) A "burner" is a nerve injury commonly caused when the head is forced to one side while the opposite shoulder is depressed. It usually affects the upper trunk of the brachial plexus. A pinched nerve syndrome may also be caused by a nerve root entrapment, subluxed cervical facets, a bulging intervertebral disc, or a combination of lesions (nerve root entrapment and traction injury).

When counseling an athlete about the adverse effects of an anabolic steroids on females, all of the following effects should be included except: A. Severe acne B. Increased libido C. Increased body fat D. Development of a deep voice E. Change in menstrual cycle

C) Abuse of anabolic steroids will cause a reduction in body fat in the female

How quickly may the adaptations in skeletal muscle reverse if strength training is discontinued or interrupted during rehabilitation? A. 24 hours B. 36 hours C. 48 hours D. 1 week E. 4 weeks

C) Adaptations in skeletal muscle that occur as a result of resistance training, such as increases in strength and muscle mass, may being to reverse in 48 hours.

A female athlete should choose a sports bra that is supportive enough to prevent stretching of which structure? A. The skin B. The pectoralis major C. Cooper's ligaments D. The nipples E. Pink hue to the skin

C) Cooper's ligaments are the suspensory ligaments of the breast and should be supported during exercise.

________ pupils indicate possible shock, hemorrhage, or cardiac arrest. A. Unequal B. Constricted C. Dilated D. Discolred E. Closed

C) Dilated pupils are a sign of shock, hemorrhage, or cardiac arrest.

During a pre-participation physical examination, what should the team physician and athletic trainer do jointly? A. Perform blood tests B. Perform Sentinel's test C. Review each examination for the final approval to participate D. Perform an orthopedic screening E. Perform psychological fitness assessments

C) During the final checkout following a pre-participation physical examination, the athletic trainer and team physician should review each examination for final approval to participate.

Which type of food should the athletic trainer recommend the athlete avoid if gallbladder pathology is suspected? A. Foods low in carbohydrates B. Foods high in protein C. Fatty foods D. Foods high in vitamin K E. All of the above

C) Fatty foods may exacerbate gallbladder pathology.

Which of the following should be included in a pre-participation physical examination? I. Height and weight II. Orthopedic screening III. Vital signs IV. Ear/nose/throat exam V. Blood work A. I, II, V B. II, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV D. I, III, V E. All of the above

C) Most schools are not prepared to have a blood-work station at a pre-participation examination, nor is it necessary or cost-effective for most schools to do so.

All of the following are guidelines and position statements releeased by the NATA except: A. Exertional heat illness B. Fluid replacement for athletes C. Eye safety in sports D. Lightning safety for athletics and recreation E. Asthma in athletics

C) NATA does not have a guideline or position statement regarding eye safety in sports.

Which of the following is not one of the three phases of the needs assessment as it is related to budget planning? A. Exploration B. Information gathering C. Negotiation D. Decision making E. A and B

C) Negotiation is one of the six steps in the purchasing process and is not a phase of the budget planning.

In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial? A. Rock climbing B. Cross-country C. Volleyball D. Archery E. Swimming

C) Plyometric training involves loading a muscle eccentrically prior to performing a powerful concentric contraction. This places the muscle in a fully stretched position just prior to contraction enhancing explosiveness, which is important in a sport such as volleyball.

What three motions comprise pronation of the foot? A. Inversion, abduction, dorsiflexion B. Inversion, adduction, plantarflexion C. Eversion, abduction, dorsiflexion D. Eversion, adduction, plantarflexion E. Eversion, abduction, plantarflexion

C) Pronation of the foot is a complex movement. It is a combination of eversion, abduction, and dorsiflexion.

What conditioning component is needed to perceive the position of the foot as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait? A. Agility B. Balance C. Proprioception D. Kinesthesia E. Eccentric stretching

C) Proprioception is the awareness of posture, positioning, and movement as the limb is moved through space.

What is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities? A. Neurpraxia B. Analgesia C. Raynaud's phenomenon D. Hypothermia E. Cyanosis

C) Raynaud's phenomenon is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities. The fingers and toes are the first to be affected.

After an athlete has suffered a ruptured spleen, he or she may experience pain that radiates down the left shoulder and approximately one-third of the way down the upper left arm. What is this pain called? A. Visceral pain B. Radicular pain C. Kehr's sign D. Angina E. Radiation

C) Reflex pain experienced in the left shoulder and upper arm after a severe blow to the abdomen, resulting in a ruptured spleen, is known as Kehr's sign.

Which of the following components of a rehabilitation program is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation? A. Endurance B. Flexibility C. Proprioception D. Functional testing prior to returning to the sport E. Strength

C) Restoration of normal proprioception of the affected limb is the most commonly forgotten component of the rehabilitation program.

"Counting the number of seconds from lightning flash until the sound of thunder divided by five" describes the "flash-to-bang" method utilized by athletic trainers to roughly calculate which of the following? A. How far away thunder is occurring B. The amount of time before play is resumed C. How far away lightning is occurring D. The intensity of the thunder E. None of the above

C) The "flash-to-bang" method is a means by which an athletic trainer can estimate how far away lightning is occuring

What is the primary target of the AIDS virus in the body? A. Neutrophils B. Basophils C. T-helper lymphocytes D. Phagocytes E. Red blood cells

C) The AIDS virus attacks the T-helper lymphocytes of the body's immune system, leaving the individual vulnerable to infection.

Which of the following has identified the domains of athletic training as defined by the Role Delineation Study? A. AMA B. American Physical Therapy Association (APTA) C. BOC D. NATA Ethics Committee E. CAATE

C) The BOC identified the domains of athleitc training as defined by the role delineation study.

The collateral ligaments of the knee are taut in which of the following? A. Flexion B. Extension C. Extension and flexion D. Genu varus E. Genu valgus

C) The collateral ligaments are most taut in full knee extension and 30 degrees of knee flexion.

You are beginning to lay the foundation for your new athleitc training room at North High School. In order to expedite the process and cut down on the amount of individuals you must deal with you have decided to use one of the following construction process models. Which of the following uses only one firm to both design and construct the new building? A. Lump-sum bidding B. Construction development model C. Design/build model D. Contractor supply model E. None of the above

C) The design/build concept allows the firm to make adjustments and decisions regarding the building, they are able to work within their own firm rather than having to deal with any other outside groups or entities.

An athlete with an infection or serious disease, such as leukemia, might demonstrate an abnormally raised white blood cell count. What is the normal leukocyte count? A. 200,000 to 400,000/cu mm B. 500 to 1500/cu mm C. 4000 to 10,000 /cu mm D. 1000 to 40,000/ cu mm E. 250 to 500/cu mm

C) The normal leukocyte (white blood cell) count is between 4000 and 10,000/cu mm

Where is the odontoid process located? A. Base of the sacrum B. Proximal end of the ulna C. Off of the second cervical vertebrae D. Base of the skull E. Distal end of the olecrenon process

C) The odontoid process, or dens, is a projection off the second cervical vertebra that acts as a pivot point for rotation of the atlas.

Where is the schaphoid bone of the wrist palpated? A. Proximal to the radial head B. Lateral to the cuboid bone C. Just distal to the styloid of the radius D. Just distal to the styloid process of the ulna E. Just proximal to the styloid process of the ulna

C) The scaphoid bone of the wrist is palpated just distal to the styloid process of the radius.

All of the following are useful in evaluating low back pathology except: A. Valsalva's maneuver B. Bilateral straight leg test C. Scouring test D. Lasegue's test E. Slump test

C) The scouring test is used to test for hip joint pathologies, such as arthritis, osteochondral defects; avascular necrosis, and acetabular defects.

What is the a state law that gives an individual the length of time (in years) to file a claim? A. Foreseeable harm B. Liability negligence C. Statute of limitations D. Tort E. Statute of suitability

C) The statute of limitation set forth by each individual state gives the athletic trainer the time frame in which one can file a claim.

During CPR, the adult sternum must be compressed to what depth for compression to be effective? A. 0.5 to 1 inch B. 1 to 1.5 inches C. 1.5 to 2 inches D. 2 to 2.5 inches E. 2.5 to 3 inches

C) The sternum must be depressed 1.5 to 2 inches for compressions to be effective in an average-sized adult during CPR.

Indications for ultrasound include all of the following except: A. Bursitis B. Fasciitis C. Acute hemorrhage D. Plantar wards E. Tendonitis

C) Ultrasound would increase blood flow to the area and should not be used when an acute hemorrhage is present.

A male athlete sustains a direct blow to the genital area. How can the athletic trainer immediately decrease the pain? A. Use an ice pack to the area with the athlete in supine, knees in extension B. Use direct pressure on the testes C. Have the athlete lie supine with his knees bent to his chest to decrease the strain on the scrotum and apply ice to the affected area D. Have the athlete lie on his side with his knees extended E. Place a moist heat pack over the area

C) When a male athlete sustains a direct blow to the genitalia, the testicular area may go into spasm. It is best to have the athlete lie supine and flex his knees to his chest until the pain subsides and then apply an ice pack to the scrotal area.

A predisposing condition such as spinal stenosis may mean an athlete is more likely to: A. Experience vertigo after an injury to the head B. Demonstrate nystagmus after an injury to the head C. Develop "glove and stocking" symptoms after a neck injury D Develop paralysis after a fracture-dislocation E. Develop lower extremity neuropathies

D) An athlete with congenital or acquired spinal stenosis is more likely to develop paralysis after a fracture dislocation because the spinal canal is already too small for the spinal cord.

All of the following conditions would disqualify an athlete from athletic competition except: A. Renal disease B. Uncontrolled hypertension C. Acute mononucleosis D. The absence of one testicle E. Human Immunodeficiency Virus

D) An athlete with renal disease, uncontrolled hypertension, or an acute infection would be disqualified from athletic competition.

Which of the following pieces of equipment is not considered closed kinetic chain? A. Treadmill B. Leg-press machine C. Upper body ergometer D. Isotonic knee extension machine E. BAPS board

D) An isotonic knee extension machine is not a closed-chain exercise because the feet are not in contact with any surface.

When manually resisting the tibia during knee extension, all of the following statements regarding the torque produced are true except: A. The torque of an external force (ie, the hand against the anterior tibia) can be increased by increasing the magnitude of the applied force B. The torque of an external force can be increased by applying the force perpendicular to the tibial crest C. The torque of an external force can be increased by moving the force distally near the ankle D. The torque of an external force can be increased by applying the force parallel to the tibial shaft E. A and B

D) Applying an external force parallel to the tibia will result only in a distraction force.

What is an upward force experienced by a body in a fluid that acts in the opposite direction of gravity and is responsible for the feeling of weightlessness in water? A. Specific gravity B. Viscosity C. Hydrostatic pressure D. Buoyancy E. None of the above

D) Archimedes discovered the principle of buoyancy, which states that when a body is wholly or partially immersed in a fluid at rest, the body experiences an upward thrust equal to that of the fluid it displaced .

When is it best to have athletes practice outdoors in an urban environment? A. Early in the morning B. In the middle of the afternoon C. Early afternoon D. Very late in the afternoon/early evening E. Never

D) Athletes who live/play in urban or industrial areas should practice in the late afternoon after rush hour when the pollution level is at its lowest point.

Which of the following is not included in a rehabilitation program after an injury? A. Plyometrics B. Proprioceptive neuromuscluar faciliation C. Agility drills D. Immobilization E. Joint mobilizations

D) Immobilization is initiated before rehabilitation begins.

All of the following drugs may be used with phonophoresis during the acute phase of treatment except: A. Dexamethasone B. Hydrocortisone 1% C. Lidocaine D. Naproxen E. Hydrocortisone 10%

D) Naproxen is the generic form of the brand name drug Naprosyn, which is an NSAID. Naproxen does not come in a topical form and is delivered orally.

During your examination of a football player who has sustained a low back injury during a tackle, you find that he is reporting dulled sensation along the dorsum of his right foot, he has difficulty walking on his heels, and his patellar tendon reflex is diminished. You suspect which of the following nerve root (s) is affected? A. L3 B. L4 C. L2 D. S1 to S3 E. L5

E) Decreased sensation over the dorsum of the foot, inability to dorsiflex the great toe/ankle, and a diminished patellar reflex are suspect of L5 nerve root irritation or injury.

An athlete receives a head injury during a soccer game. While performing the on-field evaluation, the athletic trainer notices that the athlete has a hearing defect after testing for air and bone conduction using a tuning fork. Which cranial nerve is injured? A.IX (glossopharyngeal) B. I (Abducens) C. XII (Hypoglossoal) D. IV (trochlear) E. VIII (vestibulocochlear)

E) Deficits such as tinnitus, decreased hearing or deafness may suggest involvement of the vestibulocochlear nerve.

One of your athletes presents with diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping 1 to 6 hours after eating at a local restaurant. What do you suspect is the problem? A. Kidney stone B. Bowel obstruction C. Viral gastroenteritis D. Dysentery E. Food poisoning

E) Diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal cramping that occurs within 6 hours of eating is highly indicative of food poisoning.

During an emergency, all of the following information should be given over the telephone by the athletic trainer to emergency personnel except: A. The type of emergency B. The current status of the athlete C. Where the athlete is currently located D. The type of treatment currently being given to the athlete E. The name of the next of kin

E) During an emergency, important information the athletic trainer should provide to the emergency personnel includes the type of emergency, the type of injury that is suspected, the current status of the athlete, the type of care currently being given to the athlete, and the exact location of the emergency (including landmarks).

When evaluating an unconscious athlete, what should the athletic trainer do first? A. Check for sources of bleeding B. Take vital signs C. Check for normal extremity movement D. Take the athlete's pulse rate E. Check the athlete's airway is open and he or she is breathing normally

E) During emergency care of the unconscious athlete, the athletic trainer should make sure the athlete's airway is clear and he or she is breathing normally.

An athlete has been kicked in the low back area during a soccer game. He is complaining of significant flank pain, is having difficulty voiding, and there is blood in his urine. What should the athletic trainer suspect is injured? A. The spleen B. The large intestine C. The lumbar fascia D. The testicles E. The kidneys

E) Flank pain, difficulty/inability to void, and hematuria are all signs of kidney, bladder, or urethra injury.

During digestion, food passes through the small intestine as it is being broken down into smaller components. Which area of the small intestine does it pass through first? A. Illium B. Esophagus C. Jejunum D. Cecum E. Duodenum

E) Food passes from the stomach through the duodenum and mixes with the secretions from the pancreas and liver before continuing into the jejunum and ileum.

At which of the following structures does gas exchange occur in the lungs? A. Terminal bronchiole B. The parietal pleura C. The pulmonary arteries D. The pulmonary veins E. None of the above

E) Gas exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs at alveoli.

Which of the following is the most effective motivation for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury? A. Coercion B. Bribery C. Fear D. Collaboration E. Goal setting

E) Goal setting is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury.

Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer advise and consult with when developing a reconditioning program for an athlete following a musculoskeletal injury while playing football? A. The team phsyician B. The school nurse C. The head football coach D. The athlete's parents if he is a minor E. The team strength and conditioning coach

E) It is wise for the athletic trainer to advise and consult with the team strength and conditioning coach regarding the development of a reconditioning program postinjury.

What amount of time may it take for complete remodeling of tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury? A. 1 to 3 months B. 6 to 9 months C. 4 to 6 weeks D. 12 to 24 months E. Up to 1 year

E) It may take up to 1 year before soft tissue remodeling is complete.

What internal organ is diseased if the athlete presents with jaundice? A. Spleen B. Pancreas C. Gallbladder D. Kidney E. Liver

E) Jaundice is a symptom of liver disease that causes the skin to appear yellow in color. It occurs when bile cannot be made or excreted normally.

What is the state of being legally responsible for the harm one causes another person? A. Criminal intention B. Foreseeable harm C. Tort D. Negligence E. Liability

E) Liability is the state of being legally responsible for the harm one causesanother person.

Catastrophic insurance usually begins coverage after the first _______ of medical bills have been reached. A. $5000 B $15000 C. $100000 D. $50000 E. $25000

E) Most catastrophic insurance coverage begins covering after the first $25000 is paid. It is up to the institution to alter the amount when the benefits of the policy take effect.

When a football player has a possible cervical injury, which of the following should you do first? A. Remove the shoulder pads (only) B. Remove the helmet (only) C. Remove the shoulder pads and the helmet D. Place the athlete on a spine board E. None of the above

E) Removing the shoulder pads and helmet or moving the athlete before completely assessing the injury can cause a greater spinal injury.

To prevent the possibility of an acute compartment syndrome, the athletic trainer should advise his or her field hockey players to wear which of the following pieces of equipment? A. Thigh pads B. Mouthguards C. Helmets D. Gloves E. Shin guards

E) Shin guards are a necessary piece of protective equipment to dissipate the force from a direct blow to the anterior leg.

During a preparticipation physical, the team physician comes across a basketball player with the following profile: The athlete is tall with an arm span greater than his height, pectus carinatum or excavatum, high-arched palate, and myopia. What is the probable diagnosis? A. Paget's disease B. Milch disease C. Addison's disease D. Gigantism E. Marfan syndrome

E) Significant height, an arm span that is greater than the individual's height, pectus carinatum or excavatum, a high-arched palate, and myopia are all signs of Marfan syndrome.

The NATA position statement on exertional heat illness recommends which of the following? A. Ensure that the appropriate medical care is available and the rescue personnel are familiar with exertional heat illness prevention, recognition, and treatment B. Plan rest breaks to match environmental conditions and the intensity of the activity C. Weigh high-risk athletes (in high-risk conditions, weigh all athletes) before and after practice to estimated the amount of body water lost during practice and to ensure a return to pre-practice weight before next practice D. Allow athletes to practice in shaded areas or use electric or cooling fans to circulate air when feasible E. All of the above

E) The NATA position statement on exertional heat illness includes, but is not limited to recommendations on appropriate medical care and personnel who are familiar with heat illness prevention, recognition and treatment, proper weight-in protocols to estimate body water loss during and after activity and ensure pre-practice weight before the next practice and steps to prevent heat-related illness

In the human body, the point of attachment of the muscle causing the motion is almost always closer to the joint axis than the resisting motions. What type of lever system most commonly exists in the body? A. Fourth B. Second C. Fifth D. First E. Third

E) The most common lever system that exists in the body is the third lever system, where the point of attachment of the muscle causing the motion is closer to the joint axis than the resisting motion (ie, biceps flexing the forearm against gravity).

Which of the following materials can the athletic trainer use to construct a custom protective or supportive device? A. Felt B. Gauze padding C. Cotton D. Foam E. All of the above

E) The most common types of soft materials utilized by athletic trainers to make pads or protective devices include gauze, cotton, felt, adhesive-backed felt, sponge rubber, or foam.

How many servings of fruit should an athlete have as a minimum daily requirement? A. 2 to 6 servings B. 5 to 7 servings C. 2 to 4 servings D. Number of servings are according to the athlete's age E. Number of servings are according to the athlete's height and weight

E) The number of servings should be according to the athlete's height and weight

Strengthening of which muscle is vital in the throwing athlete? A. Lower trapezius B. Pectineus C. Serratus posterior D. Obliques E. Rhomboids

E) The rhomboids retract, rotate, and stabilize the scapula during the throwing motion.

Smooth muscle tissue is found in all of the following structures except: A. Lungs B. Arterial walls C. Colon D. Intestines E. Scalenes

E) The scalene muscles are striated and have an arrangement of contractible proteins in a cross-striated patter.

Which of the following muscles does not adduct the shoulder? A. Pectoralis major B. Teres major C. Subscapularis D. Latissimus dorsi E. Serratus anterior

E) The serratus anterior muscle functions to protract the scapula and stabilize it against the rib cage.

In what abdominal quadrant is the spleen located? A. Central B. Lower right C. Lower left D. Upper right E. Upper left

E) The spleen is located in the upper left abdominal quadrant below the diaphragm.

An injured athlete is led through a therapeutic mental process in which he pictures himself being evaluated by the athletic trainer and assured the injury is not serious. He then pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and, finally, returning to his sport fully healed. What is this therapeutic approach to the recovery process called? A. Regression B. Through stopping C. Biofeedback D. Meditation E. Visualization

E) Visualization, also known as therapeutic imagery, incorporates the mental rehearsal of a positive rehabilitative experience followed by full recovery. It is a psychological tool used to enhance physical healing after an injury.

The athletic trainer should perform which of the following tests for PCL laxity? A. Apley's distraction test B. Jerk test C. Apley's compression test D. Pivot shift test E. Posterior drawer test

E)A positive posterior drawer test is indicative of a posterior cruciate ligament.

When advising an athlete about the proper construction of a running shoe, which of the following criteria will help prevent foot and ankle injuries? I. The midsole should be somewhat soft, but should easily flatten out with pressure II. The shoe should have good forefoot flexibility III. The heel counter should be shallow and firm IV. The heel counter should be strong and fit well around the foot V. The upper should be constructed of quality leather or rubber A. I, II, IV B. I, III, IV, V C. II, III, IV D. II, IV, V E. I, II, II

A) While advising an athlete about the proper construction of a running shoe, the athlete should make sure that the midsole is somewhat soft but does not flatten out easily under pressure, the forefoot area has good flexibility, the shoe is of good quality, and the heel counter is strong and fits well around the foot.

Why are men generally much stronger than women? A. Women have a lower strength:body weight ratio B. Men have a lower strength:body weight ratio C. Men have a greater strength:muscle mass ratio D. Women have a greater strength: fat percentage ratio E. Women have a lower strength: body mass ratio

A) Women have a lower strength: body weight ratio (due to a higher body fat) than men.

Which of the following is the appropriate treatment of a Bennett's fracture? A. RICE and analgesics followed by immobilization of the MTP joint for 3 weeks B. RICE and analgesics followed by immobilization of the CMC joint; if it is structurally unstable and the athlete should be immediately referred to an orthopedic surgeon C. RICE and analgesics followed by immobilization of the wrist in slight flexion for 6 weeks D. RICE and analgesics followed by a protective splint of the PIP joint for 6 to 8 weeks E. None of the above

B) A Bennett's fractures occurs at the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb. It is structurally unstable and the athlete should be referred to an orthopedic surgeon.

A type V Salter-Harris fracture involves what kind of fracture through the physeal plate? A. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate without fragmentation B. A crush injury to the epiphysis C. The epiphysis and metaphysis separate with fragmentation D. The epiphysis, metaphysis, and physis all separate from each other E. None of the above

B) A Type V Salter-Harris epiphyseal fracture is a crush injury of the epiphysis

Which of the following is not a type of budget A. Fixed budgeting B. Variable budgeting C. Laissez-faire budgeting D. Lump-sum budgeting E. Line item budgeting

C) There is no such thing as laissez-faire budgeting

When using iontophoresis, the athletic trainer should be aware of possible _______ and _______ as a result of ion flux during treatment. A. Vertigo, light-headedness B. Sensation changes, increased swelling C. Skin irritation, chemical burns D. Vasodiliation, skin mottling E. Allergic reaction, increased swelling

C) When using iontophoresis, the athletic trainer should be aware of possible skin irritation and chemical burns caused by ion flux during treatment.

you have been given the opportunity to assist in hiring a new team physician. What type of agreement should be drawn up between the school and the physician? A. School emergency systems agreement B. A noncompete agreement C. A medical consent agreement D. A physician's letter of agreement E. Liability contract agreement

D) A physician's letter of agreement is an informal legal contract that outlines the physician's duties and responsibilities. This type of contract should specifically identify the physician as the individual who is ultimately responsible for the athlete's health care.

A positive "clunk" test is indicative of what pathology? A. Unstable ankle B. Olecranaon fracture C. Meniscus tear of the knee D. Glenoid labrum tear E. Anterior cruciate ligament tear

D) A positive clunk test is indicative of a possible glenoid labrum tear. The athlete is asked to lie supine. The athletic trainer places his or her proximal hand on the posterior aspect of the involved shoulder and the other hand distally on the humerus. As the athletic trainer passively abducts and externally rotates the subjuct's arm overhead, an anterior force is applied to the humerus as him or she circumducts the humeral head is in the glenoid fossa. A clunking or grinding sensation is a positive finding.

A drug that is used to increase the effect of another such as aspirin when used to combination with codeine, is known as what? A. Synergistic B. Cumulative C. Paradoxical D. Potentiating E. Tirating

D) A potentiating drug is one that is used to increase the effect of another drug.

What is the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis? A. Kegel exercises B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Postural awareness exercises E. Williams' flexion exercises

E) Williams' flexion exercises encourage a position of lumbar flexion, which opens the verterbral foramina taking the pressure off of the nerve root.

In terms of specificity of training, which type of exercise would be appropriate during the late phases of rehabilitation of a soccer player? A. Stairmaster B. Swimming C. Stationary bicycle D. Leg press E. Treadmill exercise

E) running on a treadmill would most closely relate to the type of activity a soccer player would participate in during his or her sport.

A _____ is a device used to measure joint range of motion. A. Goniometer B. Dynamometer C. Caliper D. Flexometer E. Sphygmomanometer

A) A goniometer is the instrument most commonly used for measuring joint range of motion in the clinical setting. A goniometer may come in a variety of shapes and sizes and may be made of metal or plastic.

A sphygmomanometer is a device that measures which of the following? A. Grip strength B. Body fat percentage C. Intra-abdominal pressure D. Blood pressure E. None of the above

D) A sphygmomanometer is an instrument used to indirectly determine arterial blood pressure

Your athlete comes to the athletic training room after injuring his neck and left arm. You suspect involvement of the C5,C6 nerve root. Which of the following actions would not be involved with an injury to a muscle with the innervation? A. Little finger abduction B. Elbow flexion C. Shoulder abduction D. Forearm supination E. Shoulder flexion

A) Little finger abduction is controlled by the abductor digiti minimi, which is innervated by the C8,T1 nerve root.

What medication is often used for anxiety or panic attacks? A. Zantac B. Xanax C. Thorazine D. Prozac E. None of the above

B) Xanax is a medication used to treat anxiety and panic disorders.

If the calcaneofibular ligament of the ankle is torn, which of the following would be positive? A. Talar tilt test B. Anterior drawer sign C. Distraction test D. Clunk test E. Hawkins-Kennedy Test

A) A positive talar tilt test is indicative of a torn calcaneofibular ligament. The athlete is asked to lie on his or her uninvolved side with the involved foot and ankle over the edge of the table and the knee flexed to 90 degrees. The athletic trainer's proximal hand stabilizes the tibia as the distal hand grasps the talus. As the ankle is initially placed in neutral, the examiner then tilts the talus into adducted position. If the range of motion in the adducted position of the involved ankle is greater than the uninvolved, the findings are considered positive.

There are two types of heal cups that are designed to help prevent heel bruises. Of these two heel cups which has an elevated heel that can compress downward so that the heel never actually makes contact with the interior of the shoe? A. A rubberized padded cup B. A rigid plastic cup C. A jelly-filled cushion cup D. An air-filled cushion cup E. All of the above

A) A rubberized, padded cup has an elevated heel, which can compress downward so that the heel never actually makes contact with the interior of the shoe. The other heel cup is a rigid plastic cup. It fits snugly and does not allow the fat tissue to flatten, thus protecting the heel.

Which test, if positive, is indicative of a torn posterior cruciate ligament? A. Sag sign B. Anterior drawer sign C. McMurry's sign D. Ober's sign E. Lachman's sign

A) A sag sign is positive for a torn posterior cruciate ligament when the tibial plateu sags posteriorly as the athlete is lying supine and the knee is flexed to 45 degrees, causing a sulcus just inferior to the inferior border of the patella of the affected leg.

Which of the following joints is classified as a uniaxial diarthrodial joint? A. The interphalangeal joints of the fingers B. Hip joint C. Carpometacarpal joint of the thumb D. Scapulothoracic joint E. None of the above

A) A uniaxial diarthrodial joint is a synovial joint that is characterized by hyaline cartilage that covers the articulating surfaces and a synovial membrane that lines the interior of the joint. It moves in one plane only around a single axis.

When evaluating the inert structures of a joint. passive range of motion is used to determine all of the following except: A. The athlete's willingness to move B. Limitation of joint motion C. Joint stability D. Muscle elasticity E. Soft tissue elasticity

A) Active range of motion is used to determine the athlete's willingness to move.

Which of the following is considered a medical emergency? A. Acute compartment syndrome B. Navicular fracture C. Bulimia D. Mitral valve prolapse E. Cellulitis

A) Acute compartment syndrome is a condition in which soft tissue pressure is increased and the viability of the muscles and nerves of the anterior lower leg are jeopardized. This condition may progress from an initial hematoma, usually resulting from a blow to the anterolateral side of the leg, to total foot drop as a result of injury to the peroneal nerve.

An athlete is brought to the athletic training room after sustaining a hard kick to the abdominal area. Which of the following symptoms is not a sign of a significant abdmoninal injury? A. Slow, deep respirations B. Increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure C. Ashen colored skin D. Rapid, shallow respirations E. Rebound tenderness

A) Altered vital signs, such as a rapid pulse; decreased blood pressure; ashen skin color, rapid, shallow respirations; and rebound tenderness are all signs of shock, indicating a significant internal injury.

What is the appropriate treatment for an athlete who has sustained a rib fracture? A. Use a rib belt B. There is no specific treatment C. Total bed rest D. Use a pillow to splint the ribs when coughing E. C and D

A) Although total immobilization of the ribs is not possible, a rib belt or tip taping may help minimize movement and make the athlete more comfortable.

Which of the following forms should the athletic trainer fill out to gain the quickest reimbursement from an insurance company? A. HCFA-1500 form B. CPT 1-A form C. UCR form D. An incident report form E. None of the above

A) An HCFA-1500 form is a standard insurance claim form that is accepted by most insurance carriers. It must be filled out thoroughly for quick reimbursement to be obtained

Of the following statements, which is true about anatomic pulleys? A. Anatomic pulleys change the direction of the muscle force but not the magnitude of the force B. Anatomic pulleys always deflect the line of pull of a muscle away from the joint axis C. Anatomic pulleys change the direction and magnitude of the force D. Anatomic pulleys improve leverage and, therefore, increase the magnitude of the force E. None of the above

A) An anatomic pulley (such as the patella) can change the direction of the muscle force but not the magnitude of the force.

It is well-known that many athletes will utilize nutritional supplements in an effort to enhance performance. An athlete asks you to explain the action of an antioxidant. Which of the following best describes the role of an antioxidant? A. A nutrient that protects the cell from the detrimental effects of substances that may cause health problems, such as premature aging. B. A mineral that is known to protect the body from cancer C. A vitamin that is known to protect the body from heart disease D. A substance that is found in vegetable and dairy products and prevents certain types of cancer and osteoporosis E. None of the above

A) An antioxidant is a nutrient that may be found in high amounts in fruits and vegetables and may protect the cells in the body from the detrimental effects of naturally occurring agents, such as oxygen.

Which of the following is not a good reason to refer an athlete to a psychiatrist or psychologist? A. The athlete is showing undue concern over minor injuries, but the concern is brief B. His or her psychological stress is intense or persistent C. There is any suggestion of suicide D. There is a loss of contact with reality E. C and D

A) An athlete that shows undue concern over minor injuries, but the concern is self-limiting, should not be referred for professional psychological counseling.

The athlete with mononucleosis should not play sports until the symptoms subside because of which of the following problems? A. Enlarged spleen B. Stress on the liver C. Possible kidney complications D. Malaise and fatigue E. Possible gallbladder rupture

A) An athlete whit mononucleosis will present with an enlarged spleen, which is susceptible to rupture while playing a sport.

Why is it important that an athlete with an abdominal injury never be given anything to eat or drink? A. It increases the risk of surgery if an operative procedure becomes necessary B. It will increase the athlete's blood glucose C. It will cause blood to be shunted to the viscera, causing hypovolemic shock D. It will cause metabolic acidosis E. None of the above

A) An athlete with an abdominal injury should never be given anything to eat or drink because it increases the risk of surgery if an operative procedure becomes necessary and it may make the athlete's symptoms worse.

You have an African-American athlete with known sickle-cell disease who is training in high altitude for a long distance road race. This athlete might be at risk for which condition? A. Ruptured spleen B. Enlarged gallbladder C. Cystic fibrosis D. Tinea corpis E. Hypertension

A) An athlete with the sickle-cell trait who trains in high altitudes is susceptible to an enlarged or ruptured spleen.

At what point should the athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury begin? A. At the moment the injury is witnessed B. Once the athlete has been stabilized in the athletic training room C. Once the athletic trainer receives a medical referral from a doctor D. After the athlete is seen by the team doctor E. B and D

A) An athletic trainer's initial evaluation of an injury should begin the moment the injury is witnessed or upon initial contact with the athlete or another individual who might have witnessed the injury.

What is the sensation that an athlete might experience just prior to an epileptic seizure called? A. An aura B. A hallucination C. A delusion D. Pre-epileptic vertigo E. A Premonition

A) An aura is a sensation that occurs just prior to a seizure. It may last for a few seconds and appears as a smell, sound, or specific feeling. It acts as a warning to the athlete that generally takes the same form every time it occurs.

An athlete is seen by the athletic trainer 4 weeks postoperatively after shoulder arthroscopy. During the athletic trainer's assessment, it is found the athlete has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? A. Inferior humeral glide B. Anterior humeral glide C. Posterior humeral glide D. Superior humeral glide E. All of the above; combined glides

A) An inferior humeral glide is the proper glide to employ when trying to restore or increase shoulder abduction.

Where would you place direct pressure on a wound that is bleeding? A. Directly on the wound B. On the right side of the wound C. Above the wound D. Below the wound E. On the closest artery

A) Apply direct pressure to the wound.

An athlete reports to the athletic trainer with a deep laceration to his thigh. The cut is approximately 1/8-inch deep, 1-inch long, and bleeding moderately. What would be the proper steps for the athletic trainer to take to treat this wound? A. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean and free of debris, use Steri-Strips for temporary closure, and apply ice and compression to the area B. Use a pressure bandage to control the bleeding, keep the wound clean, suture the laceration, and cover with a sterile dressing C. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, use an antibiotic ointment to minimize infection, suture the wound, and cover it with a sterile dressing D. Wipe the area clean with soap and water, apply a large adhesive bandage, and apply ice to the area E. None of the above

A) Applying pressure will minimize the bleeding. Keeping the area clean with sterile saline or hydrogen peroxide; apply Steri-Strips for temporary closure, and use ice and a compressive dressing to minimize further bleeding. Refer the athlete to a physician for sutures, if necessary.

During ballistic stretching, the Golgi tendon organs are unable to produce a relaxing effect of the muscle because of the constant stimulation of which of the following structures? A. Muscle spindles B. Posterior horn of the spinal cord C. The antagonist muscle D. Cerebral cortex E. None of the above

A) Ballistic stretching causes constant stimulation of the muscle spindles, which causes continuous resistance to further stretching. A muscle must be stretched a long enough time to stimulate the Golgi tendon organs.

An athlete has been diagnosed with bulimia and has a known history of laxative abuse. Complications of chronic laxative use include which of the following? A. Electrolyte imbalance and dehydration B. Hyperactivity C. Hematemesis D. Chronic nasal congestion E. All of the above

A) Because of the constant purging, the athlete is vulnerable to an electrolyte imbalance and dehydration. Hypokalemia (potassium deficiency) may result from chronic vomiting or laxative/diuretic abuse, causing muscle fatigue, weakness, kidney damage, or an arrhythmia.

Unlimited access to fluids is critical during hot weather which means the athlete is likely to experience what imbalance? A. Water loss in excess of salt loss B. Salt loss in excess of water loss C. Water loss is equal to salt loss D. Sugar loss in excess of water loss E. Sugar loss equal to water loss

A) Because sweat contains a lower concentration of salt than blood, there is a muh greater loss of water when the athlete sweats. Therefore, fluids, especially water, should be unlimited.

What does the production of black, tar-like stools indicate? A. Upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding B. Infection C. Lower GI bleeding D. A diet that is too high in iron E. Colon cancer

A) Black, tar-like stools are indicative of upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding.

Why is the repair response so limited in the articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? A. Articular cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete B. Articular cartilage has a poor venous supply C. Articular cartilage has a low water content D. There are fewer mitochondria present in articular cartilage than in hyaline cartilage E. All of above

A) Cell division for new cartilage growth does not occur in the adult.

Which of the following describes the plan and axis for cervical rotation? A. Horizontal, vertical B. Horizontal, sagittal C. Sagittal, anterior-posterior D. Frontal, vertical E. Frontal, horizontal

A) Cervical rotation occurs in the horizontal (transverse) plane around a vertical (longitudinal) axis of motion.

Which of the following is not a component of a primary survey? A. Check for sensations of numbness, tingling, or burning B. Check surroundings and environment C. Check athlete for ABC D. Check for severe bleeding E. B and D

A) Checking for sensations of numbness, tingling, or burning is a component of a secondary survery.

All of the following are tests for glenohumeral instability except: A. Clunk test B. Anterior apprehension C. Anterior glide D. Load and shift test E. Neer's test

E) Neer's test is performed to assess for shoulder impingement.

What happens when an athlete consumes a simple sugar prior to an event? A. May cause a sudden decrease in blood glucose because of a sudden increase in insulin production B. May lead to a sudden increase in blood glucose because of a decrease in insulin production C. May lead to increased blood levels of electrolytes D. May lead to hyperlipidemia E. May cause a sudden increase in bilirubin levels

A) Consuming a simple sugar prior to an event will stimulate the pancreas to produce high levels of insulin, which in turn will cause a sudden reduction in blood glucose.

"Handlebar palsy", which occurs in cyclists, presents with motor weakness of what nerve(s)? A. Ulnar B. Median C. Musculocutaneous D. Ulnar and median E. Radial

A) Continuous pressure on the palm that irritates the deep branch of the ulnar nerve just distal to the canal of Guyon will cause weakness in the muscles of the hand that are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

Holding a vibrating tuning fork next to the athlete's ear to determine air conduction of sound is a test for the ______ cranial nerve. A. VIII B. VI C. V D. X E. III

A) Cranial nerve VIII, the vestibulocochlear or acoustic nerve, is responsible for hearing and equilibrium.

Results of severe fluid restriction during weight loss attempts by a wrestler may include which of the following? A. Higher resting heart rate B. Increased renal flow C. Increased stroke volume D. Higher O2 consumption E. Lower resting heart rate

A) Dehydration causes a decrease in blood volume, which results in lowered cardiac filling pressure and stroke volume. The heart rate increases to compensate for these adverse effects.

________ and ______ are two states that license athletic training. A. Delaware, New Mexico B. Idaho, California C. Arizona, Oregon D. Minnesota, Colorado E. Colorado, Hawaii

A) Delaware and New Mexico are two states that license athletic training.

Which of the following models of supervision for a head athletic trainer could be described as a "mentoring" approach? A. Developmental supervision B. Inspection supervision C. On-field supervsion D. Clinical supervsion E. None of the above

A) Developmental supervision could be considered a "monitoring" approach in which the head athletic trainer facilitates his or her assistant's professional development while overseeing the day to day operations of the athletic training room.

______ and ______ are two signs of diabetic coma. A. Drowsiness, acetone-smelling breath B. Seizures and pale, clammy skin C. Seizures, a bounding pulse D. Flushed skin, giddiness E. Pale skin, weak pulse

A) Diabetic coma, which results from severely elevated blood sugar levels, results in the athlete feeling drowsy and having an acetone-smelling or fruity breath. The skin may be flushed and dry, the respirations deep, and the thirst intense. This is caused by inadequate insulin intake (ie, insulin-dependent athlete). Although diabetic coma rarely occurs in an active athlete, it can result from a mismanaged insulin schedule, severe infection, or poor diet.

What is one of the most important steps an athletic trainer needs to take when starting a new high school athletic training program? A. Make an emergency plan B. Make sure there is enough tape and first-aid kits C. Have uniforms made for the athletic training staff so they may be identified by the coaches D. Meet with the school's booster clubs to being fundraising E. Network with local physical therapists

A) Establishing an emergency plan should be one of the first tasks that an athletic trainer should perform when developing a new high school program.

Changes in blood pressure may occur as a result of many factors. Two of these factors may include ____ and _____. A. Exercise, change in posture B. Change in posture, respiratory rate C. Level of consciousness, body size D. Respiratory rate, pH levels of the blood E. Change in mood, respiratory rate

A) Exercise may cause a temporary increase in blood pressure, while a change in posture may raise or lower the pressure.

What must the athletic trainer establish with the athlete prior to and during rehabilitation in order for the rehabilitation of an injured athlete to be successful? A. A good rapport B. A position of dominance C. A deadline by which the athlete must return to full-time participation in his or her sport D. The understanding that the coach has the final decision in his or her rehabilitation sessions E. B and C

A) For rehabilitation of an injury to be successful, the athletic trainer must establish a good rapport with the athlete so that the athlete is comfortable and there is a mutual environment of trust.

Which of the following exercises should be avoided in the early stages (phase I) of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation? A. Full knee extension exercises B. Resisted hip abduction C. Toe raises D. Hamstring curls E. Isometric contraction of the quadriceps

A) Full knee extension exercises (from 90 degree knee flexion to 0 degree extension) should be avoided in the early stages of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation because of the high shearing forces placed on the tibia by the contracting quadriceps.

A wrestler comes to the athletic training room inquiring about a "drug that will make him lose weight quickly.' He mentions a diuretic. Which of the following drugs has been banned by the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and causes diuresis? A. Furosemide B. Salbutamol C. Caffeine (<12 mcg/mL) D. Salicylates E. None of the above

A) Furosemide (Lasix) is a potent diuretic and is banned by the IOC.

Muscular fiber arrangements may be known as _______ or ______. A. Fusiform, pennate B. Oblique, striated C. Striated, smooth D. Multinuclear, uninuclear E. Transverse, longitudinal

A) Fusiform muscle fibers are arranged in a cord-like shape, while the pennate muscle fibers are arranged in a feather shape.

What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? A. Galvanic burns B. Anaphylactic shock C. Dermatitis D. Histamine reaction E. None of the above

A) Galvanic burns are the most serious adverse reaction to iontophoresis and are caused by the galvanic current itself.

It is important to set specific short- and long-term goals when developing a treatment program. Goals serve all of the following purposes except: A. Insure full reimbursement from a third-party payer B. Identify outcomes C. Measure the effectiveness of the treatment protocol D. Establish timelines of the treatment program E. Allows the athlete to be a part of the treatment

A) Goal setting is important when developing a treatment program because it identifies outcomes, establishes timeliness of the treatment program, and measures the effectiveness of the treatment protocol.

Part of professional development is networking within your profession. This is accomplished by which of the following? A. Going to professional meetings B. Having a professional appearance at all times C. Arriving late to a conference D. Not keeping in contact with colleagues in your profession E. All of the above

A) Going to meetings for athletic training is not only a great way to network, it is also required as part of the continuing education that helps athletic trainers stay up to date.

Which of the following is a way for an athletic trainer to protect him or herself from negligence? A. Good documentation B. Testimony in court C. Soverign immunity D. Having a good malpractice insurance E. All of the above

A) Good documentation is a way for the athletic trainer to protect him- or herself from litigation.

Footstrike anemia can be controlled by having the athlete wear well-cushioned shoes, limiting running to very soft surfaces, and teaching the athlete to land lightly on his or her feet while exercising. What is this condition called? A. Hemolysis B. Hyperkalemia C. Rubefacients D. Hemarthrosis E. Hemoptysis

A) Hemolysis is the destruction of red blood cells caused by the repeated impact of the foot on the ground.

Herpes simplex labialis is caused by which of the following? A. Viral B. Fungal C. Systemic D. Parasitic E. Bacterail

A) Herpes simplex is caused by a viral strain that is associated with skin and mucous membrane infection. Herpes simplex labialis is most commonly known as a cold sore.

All of the following movements occur in the sagittal plane except: A. Hip abduction B. Shoulder flexion C. Knee extension D. Hip flexion E. Elbow flexion

A) Hip abduction occurs in the frontal plane.

Which of the following is a prudent action that the athletic trainer should take prior to an emergency arising? A. The athletic trainer should arrange a meeting between him- or herself, the local rescue squad, team physician, and any other individual involved in handling an injured athlete at least once a year to establish and practice procedures that will be used in the event of an emergency B. Make sure all the golf carts are fully charged and ready to roll C. Make sure the athletic director and school nurse are on campus D. Know all of the emergency routes of the campus and have directions to the nearest hospital E. B and D

A) It is critical that the athletic trainer meet at least once a year with the local rescue squad and any individuals who may be involved in the event of an emergency to establish and practice procedures that will be utilized.

An athletic trainer discovers that he is infected with HIV. All of the following would be prudent steps for the athletic trainer to take except: A. Avoid seeking medical care B. Inform, if or when it becomes appropriate to do so, his patients, coworkers, or supervisors of his status C. Take the necessary steps to avoid the possibility of infecting others D. Make sure he has ongoing medical evalutaions E. B and D

A) It is crucial that any infected individual, including an infected health care worker, not deny his or her condition and seek the proper medical care when it is appropriate.

Which of the following conditions is not indicated for mechanical traction? A. An acute interspinous sprain B. Degenerative joint disease C. Herniated discs or protrusions D. Degenerative disc disease E. Muscle spasm

A) Mechanical traction is not indicated for treatment of acute sprains and strains.

Medical records are defined as which of the following? A. Cumulative documentation of a person's medical history and health care interventions B. Widely accepted principles that are intended to guide the profession activities of the health care practitioner C. The act of recording health care assessments or treatment on cassette tapes or directly into a computer for later transcription D. A method of recording details of an athlete's assessment and treatment using a detailed prose-based format E. All of the above

A) Medical records provide an accurate account of ongoing treatment, history, and background information pertinent to the athlete. They are valuable tools in providing health care to an athlete.

Muscular tension may be increased by increasing the _______ or _______. A. Frequency of motor units firing, the number of motor units that are stimulated B. External force, inert muscle force C. Contractile tension, viscoelastic tension D. Number of repetitions while weight lifting, the poundage of weight E. Angle of applied force, frequency of motor units firing

A) Muscular tension may be increased by increasing the frequency of the motor units firing or by increasing the number of motor units that are stimulated.

What is negligence? A. A situation in which an athletic trainer fails to act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstances B. A legal wrong, other than breech of contract, for which a remedy will be provided, usually in the form of monetary damage C. An unexcused failure to perform the duties of specified in a contract D. Liability generating conduct associated with the adverse outcome of a patient treatment E. None of the above

A) Negligence is defined as a situation in which an athletic trainer fails to act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstances.

An athlete sustains a neck injury during an ice hockey game and is complaining of numbness and tinkling along the ulnar border of his forearm and fourth and fifth fingers. Which of the following roentgenorgams would be most appropriate in detecting nerve root compression? A. Electromyography or nerve root conduction velocity test B. CT scan or MRI C. Myelography D. Sonography E. Plain film radiograph

A) Nerve root compression is most appropriately evaluated by electromyography or by a nerve conduction velocity test.

When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? A. Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception B. Pain relief, agility, range of motion, strength C. Range of motion, pain relief, endurance, proprioception D. Proprioception, range of motion, strength, endurance E. Range of motion, endurance, strength, proprioception

A) Normal range of motion of a joint must be restored before and concurrently with strengthening exercises during rehabilitation. Limb endurance and proprioception follow in the later phases of treatment.

Which of the following actions may help to decrease skin-electorde resistance when performing an electrotherapy treatment? A. Moisten the electrodes with water B. Cool the skin first with an ice pack C. Place electrodes on skin that has excessive hair D. Use a plastic-meshed cloth electrode E. Apply body lotion on the skin

A) One method of decreasing skin electrode resistance when performing an electrotherapy treatment is to moisten the electrodes with water.

_________ and ________ are two conditions that will interfere with fracture healing. A. Poor blood supply, poor immobilization B. Infection, callus formation C. Granulation, callus formation D. Hematoma formation, the influx of endosteal cells E. Increased blood supply, callus formation

A) Poor blood supply and poor immobilization are two conditions that interfere with fracture healing.

A certified athletic trainer refuses to treat an athlete based on the athlete's ethnicity. This is a violation of which principle of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals." B. III: "Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgement." C. IV: "Members shall maintain and promote high standards in the provision of services." D. V: "Members shall not engage in any form of conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest or that adversely reflect on the profession.: E. None of the above

A) Principle 1.1 of the NATA Code of Ethics states, "Members shall not discriminate against any legally protected class."

An athlete and his coach from your wrestling program have been trying to convince you that the athlete, who has been diagnosed with impetigo, can return early to wrestle. Your response should be based upon which NATA Code of Ethics principle? A. I: "Members shall respect the rights, welfare and dignity of all individuals." B. II "Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training." C. III "Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgement." D. V: "Members shall not engage in any form of conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest or that adversely reflects on the profession." E. None of the above

A) Principle I (1.2) states, "Members shall be committed to providing competent care consistent with both the requirements and limitations of their profession."

When rehabilitating a cervical strain, what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of? A. Shoulder girdle B. Lower back C. Upper arm D. Hand E. Kyphosis of the thoracic spine

A) Range of motion and strength of the shoulder girdle is intimately related to the function of the cervical area.

Physiologic adaptation of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include all of the following except: A. Reduced submaximal heart rate B. Enhanced oxygen exchange within the lungs C. Decreased submaximal pulmonary ventilation D. Improved circulation throughout the lungs E. B and D

A) Reduced submaximal heart rate does occur as a result of aerobic endurance training, but it is a cardiovascular adaptation, not a respiratory adaptation.

When symptoms are experienced distal to the pathology, this is knowns as what? A. Referred symptoms B. Physiological symptoms C. Radicular symptoms D. Psychosomatic symptoms E. Contrecoup symptoms

A) Referred symptoms occur distally from the site of injury.

A female gymnast is complaining of symptoms of premenstrual syndrome (PMS), such as irritability, anxiety, depression, and bloating. Which of the following vitamins might be helpful in alleviating these symptoms? A. Vitamin B6 B. Vitamin B12 C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin A E. Vitamin C

A) Research has shown that increasing vitamin B6 intake may increase the synthesis of serotonin, thus decreasing the emotional disturbance related to pre-menstrual syndrome

What does a sunscreen sun protection factor (PNF) of 5 represent? A. An individual can be exposed to ultraviolet light five times longer than he or she could without having the sunscreen on before his or her skin turns red B. An individual will be protected from the sun 105% C. Nothing D. The sunscreen contains 5% of SPF E. The number of applications it takes for 100% protection

A) SPF 5 means an individual can be exposed to ultraviolet light five times longer than without having the sunscreen on before his or her skin turns red.

Which of the following is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? A. Scarring B. Acute hemorrhage C. Anesthesia D. Treating over the endocrine gland E. Open wounds

A) Scar tissue may be reduced with the use of pulsed ultrasound.

Deep pain may originate from three specific areas when a nerve is injured. These areas are known as sclerotomes, myotomes, and dermatomes. Sclerotomic pain is transported by what type of nerve fiber? A. Unmyelinated C fibers B. Unmyelinated D fibers C. Myelinated A-Delta fibers D. Myelinated C fibers E. Myelinated B-Delta fibers

A) Sclerotomic pain is a deep, diffuse, aching pain that arises from deep somatic tissues and is transmitted by unmyelinated C fibers.

Shoulder pads provide protection for which type of injury? A. AC joint separation B. Glenohumeral joint separation C. Rotator cuff tendinitis D. Impingement E. Brachial plexus injuries

A) Shoulder pads protect the superior and lateral aspect of the shoulder. This prevents injury to the AC joint.

Frostbite includes which of the following signs? A. Skin appears blotchy white to yellow-gray B. Skin is purple C. Skin is pale D. Skin is warm E. All of the above

A) Signs of frostbite include blotchy white or yellow-grey skin.

During a pre-participation physical examination, what type of assessment should be utilized to document the maturity of an athlete's secondary sexual characteristics? A. Tanner's five stages of assessment B. HOPS assessment scale C. Glasgow scale D. Erickson's hierarchy E. Maslow's maturity scale

A) Tanner's five stages of assessment is an assessment tool used to document the maturity of an athlete's secondary sexual characteristics.

What organization publishes CPT codes on an annual basis? A. AMA B. NATA C. Commission on Accreditation of Allied Health Education Programs (CAAHEP) D. BOC E. None of the above

A) The American Medical Association (AMA) set forth codes to help standardize the language used by medical professionals when billing. This made is easier for insurance companies to reimburse correctly. Most of the common procedural terminology (CPT) codes that would be used by athletic trainers can be found under the physical medicine codes.

Which of the following is a D2 pattern of an extremity? A. External rotation with flexion and abduction to internal rotation with extension and adduction B. External rotation with flexion and adduction to internal rotation with flexion and abduction C. External rotation with adduction and flexion to internal rotation with abduction and flexion D. External rotation with abduction and extension to internal rotation with adduction and flexion E. None of the above

A) The D2 flexion pattern involves external rotation with flexion abduction. The D2 extension pattern involves internal rotation with extension and adduction across the anterior aspect of the body.

What is the series of codes used by insurance agencies and providers alike to identify a patient's diagnosis for reimbursement purposes called? A. International classification of diseases or ICD-9 codes B. Interclinician codes of diagnoses or ICD-5 codes C. Third-party payer codes D. International procedure and diagnoses code or IPD-9 codes E. None of the above

A) The ICD-9 codes are used to identify a patient's diagnosis and are employed by private insurance companies as a method of standardizing the classification of an injury.

During aerobic metabolism, enzymes reduce large molecules of carbohydrates, fate, and protein into smaller particles so they can be oxidized in a chain of chemical reactions. What is this series of chemical reactions collectively called? A. The Krebs cycle B. Oxidative carboxylic acid cycle C. Thermocaloric cycle D. Phosphocreatine reaction E. Electron transport chain

A) The Krebs cycle is a complex series of chemical reactions in which there is oxidative metabolism of pyruvic acid, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats.

What is a quick method of testing the motor ability of the S1 nerve root? A. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes B. Have the athlete manually resist ankle inversion C. Have the athlete manually resist great toe extension D. Assess the athlete's ability to squat E. Resisted ankle inversion

A) The S1 nerve root innervates the posterior tibialis, plantaris, peroneus longus, and peroneus brevis muscles, which act to plantar flex the ankle and foot.

When rehabilitating an athlete is is important that the area being rehabilitated is stressed with a variety of intensities and durations during conditioning. The body responds to these stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it. What is this principle known as? A. The SAID principle B. The DAPRE principle E. The RICE principle D. The SITS principle E. None of the above

A) The SAID principle stands for Specific Adaptation to Imposed demands

Where would the athlete complain of pain with acute appendicitis? A. Lower right quadrant of the abdomen B. Right lateral hip area C. Inner right thigh D. Anterior right thigh area E. Lower back

A) The athlete will complain of severe lower right abdominal pain with acute appendicitis and will complain of tenderness to the same area with palpation.

Which of the following exercises does not address proprioception? A. Recumbent stationary bicycling B. Mini-trampoline exercises C. Stork-standing exercises with the eyes open D. Treadmill exercises E. All of the above

A) The athlete's body is in a stable, static position while using a recumbent stationary bicycle and does not need to rely on proprioception to perform this activity.

The only individuals who should have access to data-bases containing an athlete's medical records should be the _______ and ______. A. Athletic trainer, team phsycian B. Athletic trainer, school nurse C. Team physician, athletic director D. Parents, school nurse E. Athletic trainer, coach

A) The athletic trainer and team physician should be the only individuals with access to databases containing an athlete's medical records.

When developing preparticipation physical examination forms, it is important to make sure all athletes have all of the following included in their medical folders except: A. Treatment consent forms signed by their parents if the athlete is 18 years of age or older B. History of any previous conditions documented C. Documentation of medications being taken D. Assumption of risk forms E. C and D

A) The athletic trainer is not required to have a treatment consent form signed by the athlete's parent or guardian if the athlete is 18 years of age or older.

An athlete steps out of a whirlpool onto a slipper wet floor and slips and falls, fracturing his wrist. The athletic trainer may be considered _____ in the case. A. Negligent B. Immune C. A plaintiff D. A witness E. Not guilty

A) The athletic trainer may be considered negligent if he or she failed to dry the floor if it was wet or warn the athlete that the floor was wet prior to him stepping out of the whirlpool.

Which of the following qualities is needed in order to be an effective educator in an athletic training program? A. Competence in classroom teaching methods B. Competence in speech writing and communication skills C. A background in sociology D. Competence in computer language and audio visual technology E. All of the above

A) The athletic trainer must be competent in the classroom teaching methods and should incorporate multimedia and visual aids.

If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? A. Increased cardiac output B. Decreased cardiac output C. Supplemental iron pills must be provided D. The activity must be discontinued E. None of the above

A) The cardiovascular and respiratory systems must work together to meet the oxygen demands of the skeletal musculature during exercise. If the demand is not met by increasing the respiratory rate, the cardiac output must increase to increase the delivery of the red blood cells from the lungs to the heart to the muscles.

During CPR, it is most convenient and efficient to monitor the athlete's circulation by palpating the carotid artery. Where is the pulse located? A. In the groove between the larynx and the sternocleidomastoid muscle B. Between the mastoid process and pharynx C. At the base of the neck superior to the manubrium D. 2 inches below the base of the earlobe on the side of the neck E. Antecubital fossa of the elbow

A) The carotid pulse is palpated in the groove between the larynx and sternocleidomastoid muscle.

The coracoclavicular ligaments consist of the ________ and _______ ligaments. A. Trapezoid, conoid B. Coracoacromial, conoid C. Acromioclavicular, trapezoid D. Costoclavicular, conoid E. Trapezoid, glenoid

A) The coracoclavicular ligaments consist of the trapezoid process of the scapula to the inferior surface of the clavicle.

The female athletic triad describes the simultaneous presence of which of the following? A. An eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis B. Depression, premenstural syndrome (PMS), and osteoporosis C. An MCL, ACL sprain with meniscus tear D. Menstrual cramping, overeating, and PMS E. Dysmenorrhea, eating disorder, and osteoporosis

A) The female athletic triad describes the simultaneous presence of an eating disorder, amenorrhea, and osteoporosis

Which structures pass through the femoral triangle? A. Femoral artery, femoral vein, femoral nerve B. Femoral artery, femoral nerve, iliac vein C. Deep circumflex vein, femoral nerve D. Great saphenous vein, femoral vein, iliac vein E. Superficial circumflex vein, femoral artery, femoral nerve

A) The femoral artery, vein, and nerve pass through the femoral trinagle.

Which of the following is the proper protocol for administering Advil to an adult athlete (assuming he or she is not allergic to ibuprofen or aspirin and does not have renal or gastrointestinal pathology)? A. Initial dose; one or two tablets, 200 mg each, repeat every 6 hours, PRN. Do not exceed six tablets in a 24-hour period without consulting with a physician B. Initial does; four tablets, 200 mg each, repeat every 6 hours, PRN C. Initial does one tablet, 400 mg, repeat in 4 to 6 hours with two tablets, 100 mg each, PRN D. Initial does; one tablet, 600 mg, repeat in 4 to 6 hours, PRN. Do not exceed four tablets in a 24-hour period without consulting with a physician E. None of the above

A) The initial dose of Advil (Ibuprofen) Is one to two tables, 200 mg each. The dose may be repeated every 6 hours, PRN. Do not exceed six tablets in a 24-hour period without consulting with a physician. (Note: This medication should not be administered to an athlete who is less than 12 years old regardless of parental consent.)

The Interassociation Task Force recommends that no fewer than ______ persons lift athletes suspected of having a spinal cord injury. A. Four plus B. Two plus C. Three plus D. Ten plus E. Eigth plus

A) The interassociation task force recommends that no fewer than four-plus persons lift an athlete suspected of having a spinal cord injury.

The athlete may have difficulty performing what actions if the medial and lateral pectoral nerves are injured? A. Flexion, adduction, and internal rotation of the upper arm B. Shoulder shrugs C. Abduction and external rotation of the upper arm D. Extension, internal rotation, and adduction of the upper arm E. Flexion, abduction, and external rotation of the upper arm

A) The medial and lateral pectoral nerves innervate the pectoralis major muscle, which flexes, adducts, and internally rotates the upper arm.

What is the most important thing an athletic trainer should do when talking a history from an athlete after an injury has occurred or when a problem arises? A. Be an active listener B. Make sure the athlete "gets to the point" C. Find out when the injury occurred D. Be sure to ask plenty of leading questions E. Ask what type of insurance policy he or she has

A) The most important thing an athletic trainer should do is listen carefully to what the athlete has to say relating to the injury or problem.

How is the strength of the pes anserinus musculature manually muscle tested? A. Resistance to knee flexion and internal rotation of the lower leg B. Resistance to knee extension and hip adduction C. Resistance to knee flexion and external rotation of the lower leg D. Resistance of knee extension and internal rotation E. Resistance of knee flexion and ankle inversion

A) The pes anserinus (sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosis) flexes the knee and will weakly internally rotate the tibia.

The ______ pulse and _______ pulse should be palpated after an acute traumatic injury to the knee area to make sure the peripheral circulation to the involved limb is adequate. A. Posterior tibial, dorsalis pedis B. Anerior tibial, plantar C. Saphenous, dorsalis pedis D. Femoral, posterior tibial E. Femoral, popliteal

A) The posterior tibial and dorsalis pedis pulses should always be palpated after an acute knee injury to ensure the peripheral circulation of the involved limb is intact.

Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate (ATP) production in skeletal muscle? A. Sarcomere B. Sarcoplasm C. Sarcolemma D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Mitochondria

A) The primary location of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) in skeletal muslce is the sarcomere.

Which of the following sequences contain the appropriate steps in rehabilitating a grade II ankle sprain? A. RICE, stretching the Achilles' tendon, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, isotonic exercises B. RiCE, isotonic exercises, hopping exercises, stretching the Achilles' tendon, active range-of-motion exercises C. RICE, isotonic exercises, isokinetic exercises, active range of motion exercises D. RICE, treadmill ambulation, active range of motion exercises, figure-eight exercises, stretching the Achilles' tendon, foot intrinsic exercises. E. None of the above.

A) The proper sequence for rehabilitating a grade II ankle sprain includes RICE (rest, ice, compression, elevation) stretching exercises, isometric exercises, proprioceptive exercises, and isotonic strengthening exercises.

During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? A Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion B. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension C. Shoulder abduction, forearm supination, finger extension D. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger flexion E. None of the above

A) The proper timing sequence for a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity is shoulder extension followed by forearm pronation and finger flexion.

The rectus femoris muscle performs what two actions? A.Hip flexion and knee extension B. Hip extension and knee flexion C. Hip flexion and hip internal rotation D. Knee extension and hip internal rotation E. None of the above

A) The rectus femoris muscle originates on the anterior inferior iliac spine and inserts into the quadriceps tendon, which attaches to the upper border of the patella. The patella is attached to the tibial tuberosity by the patellar tendon. Therefore, the rectus femoris flexes the hip and extends the knee.

The athletic trainer asks an athlete to shrug his shoulders after a neck and shoulder injury. He has difficulty performing this movement, even though it is not painful. What nerve is injured? A. Spinal accessory B. Dorsal scapular C. Long thoracic D. Suprascapular E. None of the above

A) The spinal accessory nerve innervates the upper trapezius muscle. If it is injured, the athlete will not be able to perform a shoulder shrug.

The subscapularis muscle originates on the ______ and inserts into _______. A. Subscapular fossa, the lesser tubercle of the humerus B. Suprasinous fossa, the greater tubercle of the humerus C. Distal two-thirds of the humerus, the coronoid process of the ulna D. Scapula, the middle third of the humerus E. None of the above

A) The subscapularis muscle of the rotator cuff originates on the subscapular fossa and inserts into the lesser tubercle of the humerus.

Which of the following are the three most common sites for avulsion fractures and apophysitis in the pelvic region? I. Ischial tuberosity and hamstring attachment II. Pubic symphysis and the adductor magnus attachment III. Anterior inferior iliac spine and the rectus femoris attachment IV. Iliac crest and quadratus lumborum attachment V. Anterior superior iliac spine where the sartorius attaches A. I, III, V B. III, IV, V C. I, II, IV D. I, III, IV E. I, II, III, IV

A) The three most common sites for avulsion fractures and apophysitis in the pelvic region are the ischial tuberosity and the hamstring attachment, the anterior inferior iliac spine and the rectus femoris attachment, and the anterior superior iliac spine and the attachment of the sartorious.

What occurs at the knee joint during the screw-home mechanism? A. The tibia externally rotates on the femur during knee extension B. The femur externally rotates on the tibia during the knee flexion C. The femur internally rotates on the tibia during knee extension D. The tibia internally rotates on the femur during knee extension E. The tibia externally rotates on the femur during knee flexion

A) The tibia externally rotates on the femur during knee extension. This action is known as the screw-home mechanism.

What can be defined as the training effect on the cardiac system? A. Cardiac output (CO) = increased stroke volume (SV) + decreased heart rate (HR) B. CO = SV/HR C. CO = decreased SV - increased HR D. SV = CO x HR E. None of the above

A) The training effect during exercise is reflected by changes in cardiac output. Cardiac output in the trained athlete is a product of an increased stroke volume and a decreased heart rate.

When sodium ions move into a cell and the transmembrane potential is reduced (approaches zero), and when potassium ions rush out of the cell and the transmembrane potential is gradually re-established, an action potential is created. The two phases described above are known as what? A. Depolarization and repolarization B. Repolarization and depolarization C. Stimulation and propagation D. Propagation and repolarization E. Permability and repolarizaion

A) The two phases of an action potential are known as depolarization and repolarization.

What two structures pass through the tunnel of Guyon? A. The ulnar nerve and ulnar artery B. The radial and ulnar nerves C. The radial nerve and radial artery D. The ulnar nerve and radial artery E. None of the above

A) The ulnar nerve and artery run through the tunnel of Guyon, which is located in the wrist. It is formed by the volar carpal ligament, the pisohamate ligament (which is an extension of the flexor carpi ulnaris), the hook of the hamate, the transverse carpal ligament laterally, and the pisohamate ligament and pisiform bone medially.

To prevent a hazardous electrical problem in the athletic training room, ________ and _______ should never be used. A. Multiple adapters, extension cords B. Ground fault interrupters, three-pronged wall outlets C. Ground fault interrupters, fluorescent lights D. Hanging lights, three-pronged wall outlets E. Equipment with electrical cords, equipment that conforms to National Electrical Code guidelines

A) The use of multiple adapters and extension cords may cause a serious electrical hazard in the athletic training room and should never be used.

An athlete's diet should consist of approximately ____ protein, _____ fat, and _____ carbohydrate. A. 12% to 15%, 40% to 50%, and 55% to 70% B. 10% to 20%, 30% to 40 % and 50% to 70% C. 5% to 10%, 30% to 45%, 60% to 80% D. 25% to 35%, 55% to 65%, 70% to 90% E. 45% to 55%, 10% to 20%, 45% to 55%

A) These percentages are according to USDA guidelines

When reading an exercise prescription, which of the following statements represents the frequency of exercise? A. Three sessions a week B. 45 minutes of continuous exercise C. Running or cycling D. 80% of VO2 max E. None of the above

A) Three sessions a week is how often (frequency) the athlete should exercise. Forty-five minutes is how long (duration) the exercise should continue, and 80% of VO2 max is the intensity of exercise.

One of your cross-country runners has an ongoing problem with tinea pedis. Which of the following actions should you take to assist this athlete in minimizing the problem? A. Use talcum powder daily and keep his feet dry after showering B. Use Kwell shampoo twice a day or as directed by a physician C. Remove the infected toenail to prevent the infection from spreading D. Make sure the athlete uses sunblock with an SPF 15 or higher E. None of the above

A) Tinea pedis (athlete's foot) is caused by a fungus infection. The athletic trainer should advise the athlete to keep his feet clean and dry and wear clean socks on a daily basis.

With ice application during the initial care of an acute injury, all of the following occur except: A. Increased metabolism in the area B. Inhibition of the hypoxic response C. Disruption of the pain/spasm cycle D. Reduction of edema E. Decreased nerve conduction

A) When ice is applied during the initial care of an acute injury, there is a decrease in local metabolism.

Which of the following describes a grade III joint mobilization technique? A. Small amplitude movement at the end range B. Large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint C. Small amplitude movement in the beginning of the range motion D. Thrusting movement done at the anatomical limits of the joint E. None of the above

B) A grade III joint mobilization is a large amplitude movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint.

While covering a football game, a player gets tackled and sustains a spiral fracture of the tibial shaft. Which of the following force(s) comes into play when a bone is fractured in this manner? A. Compression, tension B. Torsion C. Compression D. Impaction E. Shearing, distraction

B) A spiral fraction occurs when the foot is planted on the ground and the body is violently rotated. The bone breaks in an S-shaped line. The mechanism of injury in a torsion force.

An athlete who had been diagnosed with infectious mononucleosis has just been cleared by the team doctor to return to full activity. How long should the athlete remain out of contact participation from the time to onset to the time of full recovery? A. 2 weeks B. At least 3 weeks C. 6 months D. A maximum of 6 weeks E. Minimum of 2 months

B) An athlete who has a known diagnosis of mononucleosis is vulnerable to a possible spleen injury/rupture if the athlete returns to a sport too soon. The athlete may resume light activity after 3 weeks from the onset of the illness if the spleen is not enlarged or painful, the athlete's liver function studies are normal, no fever is present, and any other complications are resolved.

One of your diabetic athletes appears confused and is dizzy, apprehensive, and diaphoretic. How should this athlete be treated? A. This athlete is in diabetic ketoacidosis and should be given an immediate insulin injection B. This athlete should be treated for insulin shock and should be transported to the nearest hospital if he or she does not respond to sugar within 2 to 3 minutes C. This athlete is hyperthermic and needs to be placed in a cool, dark room until the symptoms pass D. The athletic trainer should monitor vital signs every 15 minutes, keep the athlete oriented, and administer insulin by mouth. If there is no change in 5 to 10 minutes, the athlete should be transported to the hospital E. None of the above

B) Confusion, dizziness, apprehension, and diaphoresis are all signs of insulin shock. Any diabetic athlete who does not respond favorably within 2 to 3 minutes of receiving sugar should be transported immediately to the hospital.

One of your athletes is complaining of constipation related to a dietary change. Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for the athletic trainer to make? A. Recommend a diet high in fish oil B. Recommend increased fluid intake and increased intake of fruits, bulk vegetables, and cereal C. Recommend an increased diet of red meat and legumes D. Decrease the intake of green, leafy vegetables, and cereals to decrease bulk E. All of the above

B) Constipation may occur secondary to poor hydration or decreased fiber intake. It is r recommended that the athlete increases his fluid intake and increases his consumption of foods high in fiber.

Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of diathermy? A. Acute inflammation and joint effusion B. Muscular spasm C. Pregnancy D. Open wounds E. C and D

B) Continuous and pulsed diathermy are used to decrease pain and muscle spasm. Diathermy is contraindicated for use with acute inflammation and joint effusion, pregnancy, and open wounds.

What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? A. Conduction B. Convection C. Radiation D. Evaporation E. All of the above

B) Convection is a method of heating by which heat is transferred from the source to the recipient by means of movement of the heating medium (eg, air or water).

"Conventional TENS" uses a frequency in the ______ pulses per second range with a phase duration of _____ useconds. A. 50 to 100, 250 B. 50 to 100, 2 to 50 C. 2 to 4, >150 D. >100, 20 to 30 E. <10, 50

B) Conventional TENS uses a frequency in the 50 to 100 pulses per second (PPS) range with a phase duration of 2 to 50 seconds.

"Like charges repel while unlike charges attract each other". This is known as what law? A. Ohm's B. Coulomb's C. Murphy's D. Wolff's E. Horner's

B) Coulomb's law states that like charges repel each other, but unlike charges attract each other.

Which of the following involves the use of ice or a cold spray before performing a stretch? A. Cryokinetics B. Cryostretch C. Cold therapy stretching D. Dynamic stretching E. Cryogenics

B) Cryostretch involves the use of ice or a cold spray prior to stretching a body part.

Which of the following is a priority when developing a sports medicine center for the local community? A. An area for massage therapy B. A mission statement C. An open house D. An educational seminar for coaches E. All of the above

B) Developing a mission statement is a priority when developing any place of business, such as a sports medicine center. A mission statement is a written expression of an organization's philosophy, purpose, and characteristics.

Which of the following would help an athletic trainer determine space needs when planning to build a sports medicine center? A. Enlisting the help of a doctor who is in private practice B. Developing a traffic pattern chart C. Buying the equipment first and then determining space needs D. Performing site visits at various gyms to get ideas E. None of the above

B) Developing a traffic pattern chart is a vital step in determining space needs when designing a new facility.

________ and _______ are two medications that can be combined when utilizing iontophoresis. A. Acetic acid, lidocaine B. Dexamethasone, lidocaine C. Dexamethasone, epinephrine D. Hydrocortisone, Medrol E. Antibiotic creams, lidocaine

B) Dexamethasone and lidocaine are commonly combined when utilizing iontophoresis.

Which of the following is not a domain of athletic training? A. Immediate care B. Diagnosis of athletic injuries C. Prevention D. Treatment, rehabilitation, and reconditioning E. Organization and administration

B) Diagnosis of athletic injuries is not a domain of athletic training.

Orthostatic syncope is caused by which of the following conditions? A. Increased intracranial pressure B. Sudden peripheral vasodiliation C. Poisoning D. An acute reduction in cardiac output E. All of the above

B) During orthostatic syncope, the rapid perfusion of the limbs decreases the blood supply to the brain, which will cause a loss of consciousness. Orthostatic syncope occurs during a rapid change in postural positioning.

During the acute phase of an ankle injury, the water temperature of a whirlpool should be set at what temperature? A. 37 C to 37.7 C B. 55 C to 65 C C. 30 F to 35 F D. 70 F to 80 F E. 40 C to 50 C

B) During the acute phase of an ankle injury, some form of cryotherapy should be initiated. The water temperature should be set at 55 F to 65 F (cold) to prevent swelling.

Which of the following means "the abnormal development of tissue"? A. Atrophy B. Dysplasia C. Metaplasia D. Hyperplasia E. Hypertorphy

B) Dysplasia is the abnormal development of tissue.

EIA stands for what clinical entity? A. Exercise-induced arrhythmia B. Exercise-induced asthma C. Exercise-induced allergy D. Exercise-induced aneurysm E. None of the above

B) EIA stands for exercise-induced asthma

_______ is a form of record keeping that allows the athletic trainer to list the athlete's injury information, the actions taken by the athletic trainer, and the response of the athlete to the athletic trainer's treatment in column form. A. SOAP notes B. Focus chartin C. Charting by exception D. Computerized documentation E. WOTS UP

B) Focus charting is a method of documentation that lists information about an athlete's injury, the actions taken by the athletic trainer, and the response to the athletic trainer's action in a column form instead of a narrative or SOAP note format.

The rate at which a drug disappears from the body through metabolism, excretion, or both is known as which of the following? A. Biotransformation B. Half-life C. Efficacy D. Bioavailability E. Expiration rate

B) Half-life is the rate at which a drug disappears form the body through metabolism, excretion, or both.

Which of the following exercises improves proprioceptive feedback when rehabilitating a lower extremity injury? A. Stationary bicycling B. Single-leg standing on a mini trampoline C. Using a knee extension machine D. Bilateral calf raises E. All of the above

B) Having the athlete stand on the injured limb on the mini-trampoline enhances proprioception by making the athlete react to a slightly unleveled surface. The gaol is to have the athlete maintain this position without wobbling or losing his or her balance.

Which of the following statements accurately describes isokinetic training? A. Generation of a muscular force with no visible joint movement B. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed with variable external resistance C. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement at a variable speed but with a fixed external resistance D. Generation of a muscle force during muscular lengthening E.None of the move

B) Isokinetic training is generation of a muscular force with observable joint movement that occurs at a constant speed with variable external resistance.

An athlete experiences a catastrophic injury in which she is permanently unable to return to playing the only sport with which she is familiar. What would be the athletic trainer's appropriate response when discussing the injury with the athlete? A. Tell her it is not appropriate to deny her condition and that it is best to accept her limitation B. Tell her it is ok for her to feel a variety of emotions and to openly express her needs and concerns C. Tell her to speak to her coach about her future in athletics D. Tell her to seek psychological counseling until she is no longer angry about her injury E. Tell her it happens all the time and eventually she will get used to her situation

B) It is appropriate for the athletic trainer to encourage the athlete to express her feelings and needs.

One of your basketball players often complains about localized lumbar "backaches". After performing your evaluation on his athlete, it appears his primary problem is postural. All of the following are actions that the athlete can take to prevent low back pain except: A. When standing for long periods of time, rest one foot on a stool if it is available B. Avoid sleeping in sidelying position with the knees slightly bent C. Carry objects at waist level when possible D. Sit on chairs with a firm seat and straight back E. Keep his abdominals strong

B) It is best to sleep in a sidelying position with the knees bent slightly to avoid pressure on the low back area.

One of your athletes has just purchased a bicycle helmet and found a crack in the shell. To which organization should the manufacturer of the helmet report this defect? A. NATA B. Consumer Product Safety Commission C. NOCSAE D. United States Olympic Committee (USOC) E. National Academy of Sports Medicine (NASM)

B) It is the responsibility of the manufacturers or distributors of recreational sports equipment to report any defective or potentially dangerous products to the Consumer Product Safety Commission.

Flexion and extension of the knee occurs in the _______ plan around a ______ axis. A. Sagittal, transverse B. Sagittal, coronal C. Frontal, anterior-posterior D. Transverse, longitudinal E. Sagittal, longitudinal

B) Kee flexion and extension occur in the sagittal plane around a coronal axis.

All of the following are true about certification and licensure with respect to athletic trainers except: A. Certification is a less restrictive form of professional regulation than licensure B. Licensure does not prohibit anyone from performing the tasks of an athletic trainer under state law C. The BOC is recognized as the certifying board D. Licensure is the most restrictive form of state credentialing E. A and C

B) Licensure does prohibit anyone that is not licensed from performing the task of an athletic trainer under state law.

Which of the following is a cardinal sign of inflammation? A. Cyanosis B. Loss of function C. Cold skin D. Numbness E. None of the above

B) Loss of function is a cardinal sign of inflammation

Which of the following types of electrical stimulators is considered "subsensory?" A. Interferential stimulator B. Low intensity stimulaor C. TENS D. Diathermy E. High intensity stimulator

B) Low intensity stimulators deliver current at very low frequencies (1 PPS) and are subsensory intensity.

When rehabilitating an athlete with a recent herniated lumbar disc, which of the following exercises are most appropriate? A. Williams' flexion exersies B. McKenzie extension exercises C. Lumbar stabilization exercises D. Posterior pelvic tilts and knee E. PNF stretching exercises

B) McKenzie extension exercises are appropriate for treating a lumbar herniated disc, as they encourage the mechanical movement of the disc anterior away from the nerve root.

Joint mechanoreceptors are found in all of the following structures except: A. Ligaments B. The brain C. Menisci D. Fat pads E. Musculotendinous junction

B) Mechanoreceptors are found in ligaments, musculotendinous junctions, capsules, menisci, and fat pads. They are not found in the brain.

Momentum is created by the combination of ______ and _____. A. Speed, weight B. Mass, velocity C. Acceleration, weight D. Torque, friction E. Acceleration, inertia

B) Momentum = mass x velocity. Momentum is the force of motion that is acquired by a moving body as a result of continued motion.

To test the hypoglossal nerve, the athletic trainer should request the athlete to perform what action? A. Shrug his or her shoulders B. Stick his or her tongue out C. Open his or her mouth wide D. Smile E. None of the above

B) Movements of the tongue are controlled by the hypoglossal nerve (ie, cranial nerve XII).

Year-round sports conditioning is developed through the concept of periodization. Periodization is an approach that allows the athlete to train in stages so peak performance may be attained at the appropriate time and injuries are avoided. Which of the following describe the different phases of periodization? A. Fall season, winter season, spring season, off-season B. Postseason, off-season, preseason, in-season C. First, second, third, and fourth quarters D. Preparation phase, active phase, maintenance phase E. Active phase, preparoty phase, competition phase

B) Periodization includes the following phases; post-season, off-season, preseason, and in-season conditioning.

All of the following effects are true regarding changes that take place as a result of resistive exercise except: A. Increased ligament and tendon strength B. Improved elasticity of skeletal msucle C. Increased mineral content of bone D. Improved maximal oxygen uptake E. Increased tendon strength

B) Physiological adaptations to resistive exercise include increased ligament and tendon strength, increased mineral content of bone, and improved maximal oxygen intake.

What class lever does the gastrocnemius use during plantarflexion? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth E. Fifth

B) Plantar flexion of the ankle is an example of a second-class lever (ie, the resistance arm is shorter than the force arm).

Primary coverage is defined as which of the following? A. "Self-pay" insurance B. A coverage that begins to pay for covered expenses after the deductible has been met C. Protection for an individual against future loss of earnings because of injury D. The invoiced cost of an insurance policy E. Third party payment

B) Primary coverage is defined as a type of health, medical, or accident insurance that begins to pay for covered expenses immediately after a deductible has been paid.

A certified athletic trainer is observed to be intoxicated while at work at a major university. This is in violation of which principle of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. I: "Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals." B. II: "Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training." C. III: "Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgement." D. IV: "Members shall maintain and promote high standards in the provision of services." E None of the above

B) Principle 2.4 of the NATA Code of Ethics states, "Members shall avoid substance abuse and, when necessary, seek rehabilitation for chemical dependency."

An athlete has a wrist injury that is limiting his ability to supinate his forearm. In what plane of motion does supination and pronation of the forearm take place (in the anatomical position)? A. Frontal B. Horizontal C. Sagittal D. Vertical E. A and C

B) Pronation and supination of the forearm take place in the horizontal plane.

Which of the following structures is responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious parts of the central nervous system? A. Muscle spindle B. Proprioceptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Type III muscle fibers E. Brain stem

B) Proprioceptors are specialized sensory receptors that are sensitive to changes in pressure or tension within a joint, muscle, or tenon. They are responsible for relaying information regarding muscle dynamics to the central nervous system.

An athlete comes to the athletic training room with what appears to be a tick embedded in his lower leg. The athletic trainer should instruct the athlete not to do which of the following? A. Keep the area clean and free of other debris B. Pull the tick off with tweezers C. Cover the tick with mineral oil D. Put fingernail polish remover onto its body E. All of the above

B) Pulling the tick off the skin can leave the tick's head still embedded in the skin. Covering the tick's body with mineral oil or nail polish remover will cause the tick to remove its head from the skin.

While discussing general nutrition principles with a female swimmer who is a strict vegetarian, the athletic trainer should be aware that her diet might lack what mineral? A. Chloine B. Iron C. Niacin D. Folate E. Potassium

B) Red meat and port are the best sources of dietary iron

A swimmer reports to the athletic trainer room complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann's disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during the early stages of the disease? A. Cervical range of motion exercises B. Extension and postural exercises C. Williams' flexion exercises D. Hughston exercises E. Deep breathing exercises

B) Scheuermann's disease is a degeneration of the vertebral epiphyseal endplates, which may cause the intervertebral disc to herniate. An increased kyphotic curve is seen in an athlete with this condition. Extension and postural exercises may help reduce the symptoms of backache in the early phases of the disease.

______, _______, and _____ must be taken into consideration when developing a risk management plan. A. Security, liability, competence B. Security, fire safety, management of emergency injuries C. Insurance procedures, policies/procedures, materials D. Licensing certifications, administrative policy E. Employees, liability, security

B) Security, fire safety, and management of emergency injuries must be taken into consideration when developing a risk management plan.

All of the following are possible side effects of oral contraceptives except: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Shortness of breath C. Fluid retention D. Amenorrhea E. Feeling "sluggish"

B) Side effects of oral contraceptives include nausea and vomiting, fluid retention, amenorrhea, and a feeling of sluggishness.

What would be a functional skill for an athlete in an ankle rehabilitation program? A. Gastrocnemius flexibility B. Single-leg hopping C. Lifting tolerance D. Anterior tibialis strengthening E. All of the above

B) Single-leg hopping would be an appropriate functional skill in assessing the athlete's readiness for play after an ankle injury. Lifting tolerance is not a skill.

"Spearing" in football is a dangerous technique. Football coaches have discontinued this practice when teaching tackling techniques because it may cause severe head and neck injuries. What is the resulting force on the cervical spine when a football player spears an opponent? A. Sudden neck extension B. Sudden neck hyperflexion with rotation C. Sudden neck lateral flexion D. Sudden neck rotation E. Sudden vertebral axial distraction

B) Spearing occurs when a football player uses the top of his head as a ram, making contact with an opponent. The force is transmitted axially through the cervical spine, causing injury. Most cervical spine injuries result from forced hyperflexion, often with a combined rotation movement.

According to the ACSM, when performing flexibility exercises, how long should a stretch be held for optimal results? A. 5 to 10 seconds; after 10 seconds minimal/no results are achieved B. 10 to 30 seconds; only as long as it feels comfortable C. 45 to 60 seconds; no less than 45 seconds D. 60 seconds to 90 seconds; until the athlete feels some mild discomfort E. A minimum of 1 1/2 to 2 minutes

B) The American College of Sports Medicine (ACSM) recommends that when performing flexibility exercises, a stretch should be held 10 to 30 seconds - only as long as it is comfortable - to obtain optimal results.

Which organization must certify face masks that are used in ice hockey helmets? A. Canadian Standard Association (CSA) B. Hockey Equipment Certification Council (HECC) C. NOCSAE D. ASTM E. NCAA

B) The Hockey Equipment Certification Council (HECC) sets standards to certify face masks that are used in ice hockey helmets.

A Q-angle of >25 degrees may predispose an athlete to what postural deviation? A. Excessive genu varus B. Excessive genu valgus C. Genu recuvatum D. Coxa valgus E. Coxa vara

B) The Q-angle is taken by first drawing an imaginary line from the anterior superior iliac spine, down the thigh and through the midpoint of the patella. A second line is drawn down the midline of the anterior thigh to the tibial tubercle. The angle is created by the intersection of the two lines is then recorded. An angle greater than 20 degrees is abnormal, causing excessive genu valgus. Excessive genu valgus may lead to patellar problems in the athlete.

Which of the following muscles abducts the little finger of the hand? A. Interossei B. Abductor digiti minimi C. Lumbricals D. Abductor digitorum brevis E. None of the above

B) The abudctor digiti minimi abducts the fifth finger.

An athlete presents with insidious pain along the posterior aspect of the thigh. Which of the following steps should be performed first by the athletic trainer? A. Palpate the muscle bellies of the posterior thigh B. Ask how and when the pain started C. Manual muscle test the hamstring muscle D. Perform a functional test E. Assess sensation of the hip

B) The athletic trainer should take a thorough history of the injury prior to proceeding with the rest of the evaluation.

The maximal rate at which oxygen is consumed and utilized while exercising is known as the maximal oxygen consumption, or VO2 max. What is the normal range of VO2 max for an average college athlete? A. 80 to 100 mL/kg/min B. 45 to 60 mL/kg/min C. 70 to 80 mL/kg/min D. 45 to 60 dL/g/min E. 25 to 40 mL/kg/min

B) The average range of VO2 max for the average college athlete is 45 to 60 mL/kg/min

What is the proper method to manually muscle test the biceps femoris muscle? A. Sitting, resisting knee extension B. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in external rotation C. Sitting, resisting hip flexion D. Lying prone, resisting knee flexion with the tibia in internal rotation E. Sitting, resisting elbow flexion

B) The biceps femoris is tested with the athlete lying in the prone position. Knee flexion is then resisted with the tibia in full external rotation.

An athlete sustains a blow to the head with a temporary loss of consciousness. He appears to have a lucid period in which he seems to be normal for a period of a couple of hours and then becomes significantly lethargic. What type of medical emergency would the athletic trainer suspect? A. Ruptured intervertebral disc at level C3,4 B. Extradural hemorrhage C. Basilar fracture D. Subdural hemorrhage E. None of the above

B) The cardinal symptoms of an extradural hemorrhage include a lucid interval usually lasting for a few minutes up to a couple of hours, followed by a period of lethargy, which may precede a seizure and coma. This is a true medical emergency, and the athlete must receive treatment immediately in order to survive.

The _____ and ______ should be involved with the athlete and athletic trainer in selecting and maintaining the athlete's protective equipment. A. Coach, team physician B. Coach, equipment manage C. Equipment manager, team manager D. Team physician, coach E. Team physician, school nurse

B) The coach, equipment manager, athlete, and athletic trainer should be involved in the selection and maintenance of the athlete's protective equipment.

What is the compression-to-breath- ratio during one-person adult CPR? A. 5:1 B. 30:2 C. 15:1 D. 5:2 E. 2:15

B) The compression to breath ration during one-person CPR is 30:2.

The contact phase of the running gait is divided into which components? A. Forward swing and foot strike B. Foot strike, midsupport, and take-off C. Follow-through, forward swing, and foot descent D. Midsupport, take-off, and foot descent E. Foot strike, follow-through, foot descent

B) The contact phase of the running gait consists of foot strike, midsupport, and take-off. The swing phase includes the follow-through, forward swing, and foot descent. One foot is in contact with the ground during the contact phase, and the leg and foot freely move through the air during the swing phase.

You were given permission to hire a new staff athletic trainer. What order would these component follow when conducting staff selection activities? I. Retention II. Hiring III. Promotion IV. Performance evaluation V. Demotion A. III, V, IV, II, I B. II, III, I, IV, V C. I, II, III, IV, V D. IV, I, V, III, II E. I, II, IV, V, III

B) The correct order in the staff selection process should be hiring, promotion, retention, performance evaluation, and demotion.

Which of the following bones is not a carpal bone of the wrist? A. Lunate B. Cuneiform C. Hamate D. Pisiform E. Scaphoid

B) The cuneiform is one of the tarsal bones of the foot.

How high should the electrical outlets be placed aboe the floor in the athletic training room? A. 2 to 3 feet B. 4 to 5 feet C. 6 feet D. 1 to 2 feet E. None of the above

B) The electrical outlets should be approximately 4 to 5 feet above the floor of the training room with spring loaded covers to prevent the possibility of electrical shock.

All of the following are true when fitting shoulder pads except: A. Axillary straps should not be very tight but just enough to be snug around the chest to keep the shoulder pads in place B. Shoulder pads should stop at the midsternum C. Acromioclavicular (AC) joint should have a channel of foam padding D. Lateral flaps should cover down to the deltoid tuberosity E. The neck opening must allow the athlete to raise the arm overhead, but not allow the pad to shift.

B) The entire sternum should be covered from the shoulder pads to be legal.

Properly fitting shoulder pads should adequately cover the shoulder complex. Which structure should the epaulets and cups completely cover? A. The scapula B. The deltoids C. The pectoralis major D. The trapezius E. The pectoralis minor

B) The epaulets and cups of properly fitting shoulder pads should cover the deltoids

Which of the following muscles is a strong extensor of the trunk? A. Gluteus maximus B. Erector spinae C. Quadratus lumborum D. Iliacus E. None of the above

B) The erector spinae is a large muscle group, comprised of the iliocostalis, longissimus, and the spinalis, that acts as the primary extensor of the trunk.

Following multiple ankle sprains over the course of the year, the athletic trainer detects some weakness of the invertors and evertors of the athlete's ankle. Which of the following muscles does not invert the ankle? A. Tibialis posterior B. Extensor digitorum longus C. Flexor digitorum longus D. Flexor hallucis longus E. C and D

B) The extensor digitorum longus extends the toes.

Before returning an athlete to full activity, all of the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except: A. Strength of each muscle group B. Girth measurements at 6 inches above and below the joint line C. Proprioception of both extremities D. Flexibility of the involved muscle groups E. C and D

B) The girth measurements of the involved leg do not have to be exactly equal before returning the athlete to full activity, as slight differences are normal.

Which of the following muscles is not involved in internal rotation of the hip? A. Adductor magnus B. Gluteus maximus C. Gracilis D. Tensor fascia latae E. Glutues minimus

B) The gluteus maximus externally rotates the hip.

If there is inflammation at the site of the medial epicondyle of the elbow, which of the following would be positive? A. Tennis elbow test B. Golfer's elbow test C. Tinel's sign D. Finkelstein's test E. Allen's test

B) The golfer's elbow test is used to identify inflammation in the area of the medial epicondyle. The athlete is asked to flex both the elbow and wrist with the forearm fully supinated. The athlete is then asked to fully extend the elbow. If the athlete complains of pain over the medial epicondyle during testing, the findings are considered positive.

Under which of the following conditions should an athletic helmet be removed after an injury? A. If the athlete requests it be removed B. If, after a reasonable period of time, the face mask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway C. The chief EMT requests that it be removed D. If the helmet causes immobilization of the head or jaw E. The helmet should never be removed

B) The helmet should be left in place unless the face mask cannot be removed to gain access to the airway or if with the face mask is removed, ventilation still cannot be provided or if the helmet and chin straps do not hold the head secure, OR if the helmet prevents immobilization for transport in an appropriate position.

An athlete with a disability should not be discriminated against, but he or she must have documentation that supports his or her condition. How can he or she justify the disability? A. He or she tells you about the condition B. He or she has a record of such impairment with medical documentation C. He or she has trouble performing in class or in the sport D. All of the above E. None of the above

B) The individual must provide you with some type of medical documentation from a physician or state agency. The record should state the disability and any accommodations that may be necessary.

Which of the following is not necessary when obtaining insurance information for an athlete's medical records? A. The insured's name B. The insured's mother's maiden name C. The insurance company's phone number D. Policy numbers E. The insurance company's address

B) The insured's mother's maiden name is not necessary when obtaining insurance information for an athlete's medical records.

During a pre-participation physical examination that utilizes stations, which of the following personnel is able to perform an examination for adenopathy, abnormalities of the genitalia, and hernias in an athlete? A. Athletic training student B. Physician or physicians' assistant C. Physical therapist D. Certified athletic trainer E. School nurse

B) The physician and physician's assistant are the only personnel qualified to examine the athlete for adenopathy, abnormalities of the genitalia, and hernias.

When taking a blood pressure with a sphygmomanometer, at that point is the systolic pressure noted? A. The point at which the pulse disappears B. The point at which the pulse is first heard C. At a point between 150 and 200 mmHg D. When the brachial pulse is first palpated as the cuff is deflated E. When the radial pulse is first heard as the cuff deflates

B) The point at which the first sounds of the pulse are heard through the stethoscope is the systolic pressure.

A male athlete gets kicked in the groin area and sustains an injury to the testicles. The major function of the testes is to produce _______ and ______. A. Semen, urine B. Spermatozoa, testosterone C. Testosterone, estrogen D. Semen, spermatozoa E. Testosterone, progesterone

B) The primary function of the testes is to produce spermatozoa and testosterone.

What is the primary reason an athletic trainer would perform pulmonary auscultation? A. To check for a systolic bruit B. To identify potential abnormal breath sounds C. To diagnose cardiothoracic pathology D. To diagnose pulmonary pathology E. All of the above

B) The primary reason an athletic trainer would perform pulmonary auscultation is to identify potential abnormal breath sounds that would indicate a pathological condition.

Which of the following is a simple movement to check the integrity of the radial nerve? A. Elbow flexion B. Wrist extension C. Forearm supination D. Thumb-to-little finger opposition E. Shoulder flexion

B) The radial nerve innervates extensor carpi radialis longus, extensor carpi radialis brevis, extensor carpi ulnaris, and extensor digitorum of the wrist, which when acting together, extend the wrist.

Which of the following stages of disease prevention focuses on early detection and appropriate referral? A. Primary stage B. Secondary stage C. Initial stage? D. Tertiary stage E. None of the above

B) The secondary stage of disease prevention focuses on early detection of an illness or disease and preventing or reversing progression of the disease

Which of the joints below comprise the shoulder girdle? I Sternoclavicular II. Acromioclavicular III. Glenohumeral IV. Scapulothoracic V. Costoclavicular VI. Scapulohumeral A. I, II, VI B. I, II, III, IV C. III, IV, V, VI D. III, V, VI E. I, II, V

B) The shoulder girdle is comprised of the sternoclavicular, acromioclavicular, glenohumeral, and scapulothoracic joints.

What is the structure that carries deoxygenated blood from the head and upper body to the heart? A. Descending aorta B. Superior vena cava C. Ascending aorta D. Jugular vein E. None of the above

B) The superior vena cava carries deoxygenated blood from the dead and upper body back to the heart.

Who is responsible for compiling medical histories and conducting physical examinations for each athlete on a team? A. The athletic trainer B. The team physician C. The athletic director D. All of the above E. None of the above

B) The team physician is responsible for compiling medical histories and conducting physical examinations for each athlete on the team.

Foot pronation results in ______ of the tibia during midsupport in the running gait. A. External rotation B. Internal rotation C. Abduction D. Adduction E. None of the above

B) The tibia internally rotates during midsupport, following pronation of the subtalar joint.

A wrestler comes into the athletic training room after sustaining a major elbow injury. There is intense pain, and the area is grossly swollen. The athlete is unable to straighten his elbow, and the forearm appears shortened. The athletic trainer suspects an acute dislocation. Which two areas would the athletic trainer check for possible vascular impairment? A. Ulnar and radial pulses B. Radial pulse and color of the nailbeds after compression C. Brachial and radial pulses D. Arterial and venous cicrulation E. Axilla and anticubital fossa

B) To check the vascular integrity of the band after an acute elbow dislocation, it is important to assess the presence and quality of the radial pulse and check for good capillary refill of the nailbeds of the fingers.

An athlete collides with a teammate during an ice hockey game and sustains a blow to the jaw with a hockey stick. He is holding his lower face with his hands and is in intense pain. All of the following procedures will assist the athletic trainer in determining if there is a fracture of the jaw except: A. Have the athlete bit and observe for a malocclusion B. Palpate for a hematoma C. As the athlete to open and close his mouth, noting asymmetry with movement D. Palpate for jaw deformity when it is at rest, open, and closed E. See if the athlete can retract his jaw and observe for difficulty with movement

B) To determine if there is a fracture of the jaw, it is appropriate for the athletic trainer to have the athlete bite down and observe for any malocclusion, ask the athlete to open and close his mouth and observe for movement asymmetry and palpate the jaw for any deformities.

Type I diabetes is characterized by an impaired capacity to secrete insulin due to a beta cell defect. This type of diabetes is commonly seen in what type of individual? A. Obese, geriatric B. Lean, insulin dependent C. Noninsulin dependent, obese D. Noninsulin dependent, juvenile E. None of the above

B) Type 1 diabetes is also known as juvenile-onset diabetes or insulin-dependent diabetes, and it usually has its onset prior to age 25. It is not usually associated with obesity.

How may urinary tract infection (UTI) be avoided in a female athlete? A. Drinking fluids that are acidic, such as orange juice B. Practicing sanitary bowel and bladder habits C. Avoiding food high in magnesium D. Avoid wearing colored underwear E. None of the above

B) UTIs may be avoided with adequate hydration, practicing sanitary bowel and bladder habits, washing the genital area before intercourse, emptying the bladder after intercourse, and removing contraceptive devices after intercourse.

The therapeutic conversion of electrical energy into high-frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of what modality? A. Diathermy B. Ultrasound C. Electrical stimulation D. TENS E. Interferential current

B) Ultrasound converts high frequency sound energy into heat energy as it penetrates the tissue.

All of the following are intrinsic factors of injury except: A. Flexibility B. Weather C. Age D. Weight E. C and D

B) Weather is not an intrinsic factor of injury

When a minor is injured and it is a life-threatening situation, the athletic trainer must try to contact the parents of the child. If the parents of the child cannot be contacted and they did not give consent in writing before the child began participation, the athletic trainer has the right to give the child emergency care. Which type of consent is this? A. Informed B. Implied C. Complied D. Restrictive E. None of the above

B) When a minor is injured and it is a life-threatening situation, the athletic trainer may provide emergency care even if the parents have not given written consent. This is known as implied consent.

What is an example of an activity taking place with the upper extremity in a closed-chain position? A. Swinging a bat B. Performing a push-up C. Throwing a ball D. Running with closed fists E. All of the above

B) When performing a push-up the distal end of the upper extremity is in a fixed position.

When performing two-person CPR, what is the correct compression-to-breath ratio? A. 5:2 B. 30:2 C. 15:1 D. 5:1 E. 2:5

B) When performing two-person CPR, the correct compression-to-breath ratio is 30 compressions to 2 breaths (30:2).

Pediculosis is most effectively treated with which of the following? A. Mouthwash B. An antibiotic C. Time D. An antifungal E. A parasiticide

E) Pediculosis (ie, lice) is an infestation by the louse and is most effectively treated with a parasiticide.

One of your athletes is having significant pain as a result of a hallux valgus deformity? Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer consult with in the care of his athlete? A. A hand surgeion B. A physical therapist C. A podiatrist D. A dentist E. A neurologist

C) A hallux valgus deformity is also known as a bunion. A podiatrist would be the most appropriate individual for the athletic trainer to consult with in the care of this athlete.

For which of the following injuries would the use of a hard-shell pad be appropriate? A. Cover a large skin infection B. toe injury C. A painful contusion D. Plantar fasciitis E. None of the above

C) A hard-shell pad would be appropriate choice when the goal is to completely cover an injured area (such as a contusion) and prevent further harm.

What does a motor unit consist of? A. A cell body, axon, and dendrites B. The axon and single muscle fiber it innervates C. A motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers it innervates D. The motor neuron, muscle fiber, and muscle group E. The dendrite, and the group of muscle fibers it innervates

C) A motor unit is made up of a motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates.

With the athlete sitting, the scapula stabilized, and the shoulder maximally flexed, the athlete complains of pain and appears apprehensive. This is a positive ____ test. A. Yergason's B. Speed's C. Neer's D. Compression E. Hawkins-Kennedy

C) A positive Neer's test is indicative of shoulder impingement of the supraspinatus tendon or the tendon of the long head of the biceps.

Speed's test is an evaluative test for which of the following problems? A. Thoracic outlet syndrome B. Supraspinatus tendinitis C. Bicipital tendinitis D. Ruptured biceps tendon E. Rupture of the brachialis muscle

C) A positive Speed's test may suggest bicipital tendinitis. The athlete is asked to stand or sit with the involved shoulder flexed to 90 degrees and the elbow fully extended with the forearm supinated. The athletic trainer should have his or her distal hand on the volar aspect of the forearm and the proximal hand palpating the bicipital groove. As the athletic trainer resists shoulder flexion, it should be noted if there is tenderness or pain over the biceps tendon.

Which of the following symptoms represents a second-degree concussion? I. Blurring or loss of consciousness lasting for 20 seconds to 5 minutes II. Headache and amnesia are often present III. Athlete is often confused and disoriented IV. There are no positive signs on neurologic testing and examination V. There is no complaint of a headache VI. Altered level of consciousness lasts less than 10 to 20 seconds A. II, IV, VI B. I, IV, V C. I, II, III D. IV, V, VI E. All of the above

C) A second-degree concussion presents with blurring of vision or unconsciousness lasting from 20 seconds to 5 minutes, complaints of headache with associated amnesia, and the athlete appears confused and often disoriented. (Note: This is according to the Cantu scale.)

To be a successful athletic trainer, an indvidual must possess all of the following personal qualities except: A. The ability to adapt to a changing environment B. A good sense of humor C. An interest in making money D. Empathy E. B and D

C) A successful athletic trainer must be an individual who has a low for athletic and competition. He or she must be able to adapt to a variety of environments and deal with diverse personalities of those he or she comes into contact with on a daily basis. The athletic trainer must have sense of humor and be able to empathize with an athlete who has been injure or is ill. Most importantly, the athletic trainer must be of the highest morals and integrity.

"Torts" are legal wrongs committed against a person or his or her property. Such wrongs may be a direct result of _______ or ______. A. Negligence, commission B. Negligence , liability C. Omision, commission D. Omission, negligence E. Commission, liability

C) A tort may be direct result of an act of omission or commission.

Spinal immobilization is best achieved with the full-body splint. All of the following are examples of full-body immobilization equipment except: A. The standard rigid spine board B. Vacuum mattress C. A stryker frame D. Scoop stretcher E. Miller full body splint

C) An athlete may be immobilized on a standard spine board, vacuum mattress, a scoop stretcher (otherwise known as a split litter), or the Miller full body splint.

An athlete who is hyperflexible (mobile beyond the joint's normal range) is subject to what types of injuries? A. Tendinitis and bursitis B. Fractures and ligament tears C. Sprains and strains D. Fractures and dislocations E. Tendinitis and adhesive capsulitis

C) An athlete who is hypermobile/hyperflexible may be more susceptible to joint injuries, such as sprains and strains.

Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabilitating an athlete who has posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint? A. Abduction with external rotation B. Full forward flexion C. Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion D. Internal rotation with shoulder extension E. A and B

C) An athlete who presents with posterior instability of the glenohumeral joint should avoid a combined position of internal rotation, horizontal adduction, and flexion.

A basketball player who has sprained her ankle for the second time in 3 months reports to the athletic training room for his third treatment session. The athletic trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer "did not fi her ankle the right way the first time". She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully helped this time. What would be the best response to an attention-seeking athlete? A. Give up and let her seek help elsewhere B. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention C. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete per treatment session to the athletic trainer is not overtaxed D. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury E. None of the above

C) An attention-seeking athlete generally will not accept responsibility for him- or herself and enjoys being dependent upon other individuals. As a result, the athlete is demanding and is not satisfied with the amount of time other athletes receive, always wanting more time and attention by the athletic trainer taking care of him or her. This type of athlete is very draining to the health care staff and requires specific boundaries so the staff is not burned out by the athlete.

The athletic trainer notices one of the baseball players routinely cleans his cleats after every game and practice so no dirt is visible and checks his equipment bag multiple times to assure himself his "lucky towel" is with him. This is an example of what type of behavior? A. Schizophrenic B. Anxiety C. Obsessive-compulsive D. Passive-aggressive E. A and B

C) An obsessive-compulsive athlete may perform ritualistic behaviors, such as cleaning his equipment after each game, and repeat specific behaviors obsessively, such as hand washing numerous times after touching a dirty uniform or money.

A basketball player comes limping off the court complaining of a hamstring spasm. Which of the following procedures would be the most effective in reducing the spasm? A. Massage the hamstring B. Moist heat back followed by ultrasound C. Static stretch of the involved muscle D. State stretch of the antagonistic muscle E. Ice massage followed by ballistic stretch

C) Applying a static stretch to the muscle inhibits the muscle spindle and stimulates the inverse myotatic reflex, which originates the Golgi tendon organs and causes relaxation of the muscle.

When working on a bleeding athlete, what should the athletic trainer always do? A. Avoid touching the blood areas B. Wash hands before treatment C. Wear gloves D. Wear eye protection E. Elevate the body part

C) As per universal precautions, the athletic trainer should always wear gloves when treating a bleeding athlete.

Which of the following is a legal defense that attempts to claim that an injured plaintiff understood the risk of an activity and freely close to undertake the activity regardless of the hazards associated with it? A. Sovereign immunity B. Comparative negligence C. Assumption of risk D. Statutes of limitation E. None of the above

C) Assumption of risk is a legal defense that attempts to claim that an injured plaintiff understood the risk of an activity and freely chose to undertake the activity regardless of the hazards associated with it.

All of the following are basic functions of athletic taping and bandaging except: A. To support and injured body part B. To protect wounds from infection C. To enhance the athlete's skill D. To hold protective equipment in place E. B and D

C) Athletic taping and bandaging serves many functions, including supporting or immobilizing an injured body part, protecting wounds from further injury or infection, holding protective equipment in place, and controlling hemorrhage.

Athletic training scope of practice parameters set by legislation fall into all of the following areas except: A. Restrictions regarding site of practice B. Modality use restrictions C. Restrictions regarding classroom teaching D. The definitions of athletic training or athletic trainer E. Supervision of athletic trainers

C) Athletic training scope of practice parameters set by legislation fall into the following areas: definition of athletic training or athletic trainer, site of practice restrictions, modality use restrictions, definition of athlete restrictions/physically active individual, and the supervision of athletic trainers.

Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except: A. 5-year-olds B. 10-year-olds C. 18-year-olds D. 14-year-olds E. Bracing is not effective at any age

C) Bracing for structural scoliosis may be effective up to approximately age 18. After this age, the epiphyseal plates close and external devices for correction do not work well.

How long can the brain be deprived of oxygen until brain cells begin to die? A. 10 to 15 minutes B. 1 to 3 minutes C. 4 to 6 minutes D. 17 to 20 minutes E. 12 to 16 minutes

C) Brain cells begin to die after the brain has been deprived of oxygen between 4 to 6 minutes.

It is critical that CPR be administered as soon as possible during a life-threatening situation. In what amount of time is brain damage likely to occur if the brain is deprived of oxygen? A. 2 to 4 minutes B. 10 to 12 minutes C. 4 to 6 minutes D. 10 minutes E. After 15 minutes

C) Brain damage is most likely to occur if the brain is deprived of oxygen for approximately 4 to 6 minutes

A basketball player reports to the athletic training room complaining of a "burning" pain along the lateral aspect of his right knee during and after running. No edema or ecchymosis is found during the exam, but he is tender to palpation of the affected area. Which of the following special tests might be positive? A. Lachman's test B. Patellar apprehension test C. Ober's test D. Sag sign E. Faber's test

C) Burning pain with tenderness to palpation over the lateral epicondyle of the femur is associated with iliotibial band syndrome. If the iliotibial band is too tight, it will rub over the area during running, causing localized inflammation. Ober's test is appropriate for a tight iliotibial band.

One of your athletes begins to complain of intense itching of the skin under the cold pack that you applied to his shoulder 5 minutes ago. When you remove the pack you notice that hives have developed on the area that has been cooled. What is the athlete experiencing? A. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria B. Hypothermia C. Cold urticaria D. Raynaud's disease E. Frostbite

C) Cold urticaria is an allergic reaction to cold exposure. If left unrecognized, it may lead to systematic anaphylactic response.

Concussions are usually graded on the _____ and _____ of neurologic impairment. A. Frequency, severity B. Frequency, duration C. Length, severity D. Duration, frequency E. Type, length

C) Concussions are classified according to the length of time of unconsciousness and the severity of the signs and symptoms of head trauma.

All of the following are methods of enhancing a budget plan except: A. Keep an accurate inventory on all disposable and nondisposable supplies B. Figure out how much of your disposable supplies have been used and estimate how much more will be needed to finish out the fiscal year C. Consult with a certified public accountant (CPA) or professional financial advisor and follow his or her direction regarding the development of a budget plan D. Consult with several vendors to get an estimate of how much prices will rise in the upcoming year E. Determine how many athletes will be received care

C) Consulting a certified public accountant (CPA) or professional financial advisor would not be appropriate in this situation.

Taping continuously around a limb may cause what problem? A. Ineffective support B. Difficulty in tape removal C. Compromised circulation D. There is no problem with this method E. Blisters

C) Continuous taping around a limb may result in compromised circulation.

An athlete you have just evaluated for a possible head injury has a noticeable facial drop on the left side of his face. Which cranial nerve(s) is involved? A. I B. IV, V C. VII D. III, IX E. II, VI

C) Cranial nerve VII is the facial nerve. It supplies both sensation and motor control to the facial muscles.

In athletic training, database software has been primarily used to perform what function? A. Write letters and produce forms B. Perform simple calculations and integrate text with graphics C. Store and retrieve information regarding athletic injury and treatment D. Merge lists and develop spread sheets E. All of the above

C) Database software allows the athletic trainer to input, store, manipulate, and retrieve information with regard to athletic injury and treatment.

Which of the following is not a classification of regulation utilized when allowing an athletic trainer the right to practice within a specific state? A. Certification B. Licensing C. Delegation D. Exemption E. Registration

C) Delegation is not a form of state regulation.

What effect does aerobic exercise have on an athlete's diastolic blood pressure? A. Diastolic blood pressure will increase at the same pace as systolic B. Diastolic blood pressure will significantly decrease at higher workloads C. It will remain closely the same level as at rest D. Diastolic blood pressure will significantly increase with increasing workloads E. None of the above

C) Diastolic blood pressure should remain close to resting levels during endurance exercise.

During a 400-meter sprint, which of the following energy systems is predominant? A. Lactic acid system B. ATP-CP system C. Anaerobic glycolysis system D. Aerobic metabolic system E. Anaerobic metabolic system

C) During a 400-meter spring, which lasts approximately 45 seconds to 1 minute, the anaerobic glycolysis system is the predominant source of energy.

All of the following are signs/symptoms of anaphylactic shock except: A. Development of rash or hives B. Wheezing sounds coming from the chest C. An increase in blood pressure D. Rapid, weak pulse E. A and D

C) During anaphylactic shock, blood pressure drops very quickly as the blood pools in the expanded capillaries.

In addition to the release of energy, the breakdown of ATP during a muscle contraction produces which of the following byproducts? A. H20 + CO2 B. Cr + PO4 C. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) + PO4 D. ADP + (ATPase) E. Bilirubin

C) During glycolysis, ATP is broken down to release energy. In addition to the release of energy, the byproducts ADP and PO2 are released.

When a muscle is stretched to a point where a mild discomfort is felt and the limb is held in one position, it is known as what type of stretch? A. Ballistic B. PNF C. Static D. Dynamic E. None of the above

C) During static stretching, the muscle is placed in a position of maximum stretch and held without bouncing or movement.

What are heat-producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied in short-wave diathermy called? A. Induction currents B. Magnetic currents C. Eddy currents D. Alternating currents E. Interferential currents

C) Eddy currents are heating-producing currents that are administered by means of an induction coil or condenser plate of a short-wave diathermy unit. It uses a magnetic field to create these currents within the tissues.

All of the following are contraindications for electrical stimulation electrode placement except: A. Stimulation across the heart B. Stimulation over an acute thrombophletitis C. Control of labor pain by stimulation of the lower back D. Stimulation over the temples E. Directly over the spine

C) Electrical stimulation (TENS) is used to control labor pains.

After an acute musculoskeletal injury, such as a shoulder dislocation, the body releases a natural opiate-like substance that provides temporary pain relief. What is this substance called? A. Prostaglandins B. Substance P C. Endorphins D. Insulin E. None of the above

C) Endorphins are polypeptides that are produced in the brain and produce analgesia by binding to the opiate receptor sites of pain perception in the body.

Which of the following methods for funding public sector sports medicine facilities utilizes an institution's assets in cash and investments not normally used for operation purposes? A. Capital campaign B. Tax exempt bonds C. An endowment D. Commercial loans E. Unrestricted loans

C) Endowments are usually used for scholarly endeavors in the educational field. These endowments are to ensure the continuation of the program. Endowments can be used to create or support a professorship or provide scholarships for students.

The NATA Code of Ethics is defined as which of the following? A. Moral legal privileges inherent in being a member of a community B. Violation of commitment to privacy and protection of information of communications C. A set of rules by which an athletic trainer should conduct him- or herself D. The basis of explanation for an action taken by an athletic trainer E. None of above

C) Ethics are defined as the rules, standards, and principles that dictate right conduct among members of a society or profession. Ethics are based on moral values.

Which of the following is not one of the five principles of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals B. Members shall not engage in any form of conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest or that adversely reflects on the profession C. Members shall not release confidential information under any circumstance D. Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgement E. A and B

C) Exceptions to the rule of confidentiality are when there is clear and imminent danger to the client, clear and imminent danger to other persons, and when legal requirements demand that information be released.

All of the following free-weight exercises require one or more spotters except: A. Free-weight exercise in which the bar passes over the face B. Free-weight exercise in which the bar moves over the head C. Free-weight exercise in which a bar curls up in front of the chest D. Free-weight exercise in which the bar is positioned on the back E. Free-weight exercise in which the bar moves over the chest

C) Free-weight exercises requiring the bar to pass over the face, move over the head, be positioned on the back or racked in front of the shoulders require one or more spotters.

A football helmet should be removed only under which of the following circumstances? A. The injured athlete is not moving B. The injured athlete is no longer comfortable and says the helmet is hurting his neck C. You cannot gain adequate access to the airway D. If the EMT's think it is a great idea E. Never remove the helmet

C) Gaining access to the airway is the only reason a football helmet should be removed before a spinal injury has been ruled out.

Which of the following is defined as an uninterrupted direct current? A. Interferential current B. Microcurrent C. Galvanic current D. Pulsed current E. None of the above.

C) Galvanic current is uninterrupted direct current.

Sensory receptors located in the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by the muscle during contraction, are called: A. Pacinian corpuscles B. Ruffinian receptors C. Golgi tendon organs D. Muscle spindles E. Contractile sensory receptors

C) Golgi tendon organs (GTOs) are senosry receptors found in the muscle tensons that monitor the tenson generated in a muscle during contraction.

Which of the following is a condition of rapidly rising internal body temperature that occurs when the body's mechanisms for the release of heat are overwhelmed? A. Hyperthermia B. Heat exhaustion C. Heat stroke D. Hypothermia E. Raynaud's phenomenon

C) Heat stroke is a condition of rapidly rising internal body temperature that occurs when the body's mechanisms for the release of heat are overwhelmed.

In order to prevent medial epicondylitis, all of the following actions should be avoided via technique modification except: A. Too much wrist flexion at follow-through during a golf swing B. Excessive elbow valgus when throwing a javelin C. Hyperextension of the wrist when performing a backhand shot in tennis D. Excessive wrist flexion during a racquetball forehand shot E. A and B

C) Hyperextension of the wrist when hitting a backhand shot in tennis is a primary cause of lateral epicondylitis

What may proteinuria indicate? A. Pancreatitis B. Possible gallstones C. Renal or urinary tract pathology D. DIabetes E. Crohn's disease

C) If an athlete has increased protein in the urine (most commonly diagnosed by urinalysis during a preparticipation medical exam), it may indicate renal or urinary tract pathology.

During your evaluation of an athlete's shoulder, you notice his left scapula is "winging". What does this indicate? A. Rhomboid weakness B. Deltoid weakness C. Serratus anterior weakness D. Upper trapezius weakness E. Long thoracic nerve entrapment

C) If there is an injury to the long thoracic nerve, which innervates the serratus anterior muscle, the scapula cannot be protracted, and it will result in winging, which is a prominence of the vertebral border of the scapula.

Which of the following should be done for an unconscious athlete suffering from insulin shock? A. Immediately give the athlete an injection of epinephrine so his or her airway will open B. Immediately give the athlete a glass of orange juice or other high sugar drink C. Immediately transport the athlete to an emergency care facility D. Immediately give the athlete some sugar-free candy in order to counteract the high levels of sugar in his or her body E. All of the above

C) Immediately transport the athlete to an emergency care facility for intravenous glucose administration. This is necessary to avoid possible brain damage or death.

Which of the following is not a neural effect of resistance training? A. Increased motor unit activation and recruitment B. Increased discharge frequency of motoneurons C. Increased muscle capillary density D. Decreased neural inhibitions E. Increased neuromuscular efficiency

C) Increased muscle capillary density is a morphological change that occurs during resistance training. It is not a neural change.

Injury or disease of the pancreas creates pain in which quadrant of the abdomen? A. Lower right quadrant B. Upper right quadrant C. Upper left quadrant D. Lower left quadrant E. Central quadrant

C) Injury or disease of the pancreas creates pain in the upper left quadrant of the abdomen.

All of the following are advantages of inspection-production supervision except: A. Helps ensure goal achievements B. Sets well-defined limits on job behavior C. Documents input and output of a sports medicine clinic D. Enhances common understanding of athletic roles E. A and D

C) Input and output are not easily quantified in sports medicine clinics.

What type of exercises may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? A. Closed-chain eccentric exercises B. Isotonic exercises C. Isometric exercises D. Functional exercises E. None of the above

C) Isometric strengthening exercises are the safest exercises to initiated immediately postoperatively, as there is no joint movement initiated during muscular contraction.

How many glasses of water should an athlete consume on a daily basis? A. No more than 8 B. 2 to 3 C. 8 or more D. 5 to 7 E. 4 to 6

C) It is crucial that an athlete stay properly hydrated to maintain homeostasis and proper cardiac function. Average water needs for an adult are approximately 1 mL/Kcal burned. This equals approximately 2.4 liters for a 2400 Kcal energy output. Since the body does not conserve water well, it must be frequently replenished, especially while competing.

During the rehabilitation of a knee injury, the athletic trainer decides the use of neuromuscular stimulation is indicated. As the athletic trainer is applying the electrodes to the athlete's thigh, the athlete says he has never had electric stimulation and is scared of electricity. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the athletic trainer? A. Tell him he is being childish B. Demonstrate how it works C. Teach him about the general principles of electric stimulation D. Tell a joke about electricity to relax him E. Do not use an electrotherapeutic modality on the athlete

C) It is important that the athletic trainer educate the athlete about the treatment process, as it will decrease his anxiety.

You suspect one of your soccer players is experiencing "training staleness". Which of the following should you assess when developing a counseling approach with the athlete? A. The level of the athlete's ability to play the sport B. The relationship between the athlete and his family C. The athlete's training schedule and diet D. The athlete's competition schedule E. The relationship between the athlete and coach

C) It is important to assess the athlete's training schedule and diet to make sure he or she is not overtraining and eating a poor diet. Both may affect an athlete's performance level.

Maintaining up-to-date records is extremely important. How often should the athletic trainer document? A. Monthly B. Weekly C. Daily D. Every 6 months E. Every 2 weeks

C) It is prudent for the athletic trainer to maintain some form of documentation on a daily basis.

When using an ice pack at home to decrease pain and swelling fo an injured limb, what should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent a cryotherapy injury? A. Add acetone to the ice at a 3:1 ratio B. Keep the injured limb elevated while icing C. Place a damp towel between the athlete's skin and the ice pack D. Leave the ice pack on the body part between 20 to 40 minutes at a time E. All of the above

C) It is prudent to advise the athlete to place a damp towel between his or her skin and the ice pack to prevent a cryotherapy injury.

Keratoderma can be prevented by all of the following except: A. Wearing two pairs of socks B. Applying a lubricant to the skin to prevent friction C. Using an antifungal ointment D. Using a glove or moleskin E. Wearing properly fitted shoes

C) Keratoderma is the hypertrophy of the stratum corneum of the epidermis, which occurs most frequently on the palms of the hands and soles of the fee. Keratoderma is also known as a callus and can be prevented by wearing two pairs of socks and properly fitting shoes; applying a lubricant to the skin to prevent friction; and protecting the palms of the hands with special gloves, tape, or moleskin.

All of the following questions are significant when screening a young athlete for an underlying cardiac abnormality except: A. Does the athlete have chest pain with activity? B. Does the athlete have a family history of sudden cardiac death in a family member under age 50? C. Does the athlete have numbness or tingling in either or both hands in cold weather? D. Does the athlete have a history of a "racing heart?" E. Does the athlete have a previous history of heart problems?

C) Numbness or tingling in either or both hands in cold weather is symptomatic of Raynaud's syndrome, which is bilateral episodic spasms of the digital blood vessels. The cause is usually idiopathic.

What is the best way to prevent otitis externa? A. Avoid contact activities for 7 to 10 days B. Use ear-plugs during activity C. Dry the external auditory canal after swimming D. Wear adequate protective devices for the ear E. All of the above

C) Otitis externa is a bacterial or fungal infection of the outer ear canal that is characterized by severe ear pain, hearing difficulty, drainage from the ear canal, swelling of the canal, and occasional dizziness. Prevention includes avoiding prolonged exposure to water (eg, swimming/showering) and keeping the ear dry after water activities with acetic acid or a similar drying agent.

Two exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low back rehabilitation include ______ and ______. A. Single knee-to-chest, double knee to chest B. Hamstring stretching, bridging exercises C. Partial sit-ups, active trunk extension in prone D. Resisted hip abduction exercise, iliotibial band stretching E. Hamstring stretching, piriformis strengthening

C) Partial sit ups assist in strengthening the abdominals, and trunk extension exercises (with or without resistance) strengthen the erector spinae muscculature.

How is pediculosis spread between individuals? A. Coughing and sneezing B. Poor hand washing/hygiene C. Close sexual contact D. Contact with open sores E. Sharing eating utensils

C) Pediculosis is an infestation of body lice and is usually spread by close sexual contact.

What is a type of organizational culture characterized by autonomy in decision making and problem solving? A. Organizational culture B. Collegial culture C. Personalistic culture D. Informal culture E. Independent culture

C) Personalistic culture is a type of organizational culture characterized by autonomy in decision making and problem solving, allowing an individual to make decisions with little consultation of others.

When rehabilitating a shoulder, in what area should strengthening exercises be initiate first? A. Rotator cuff musculature B. Cervical musculature C. Scapular musculature D. Shoulder abductors, flexors, and internal rotators E. A and D

C) Scapular musculature should be strengthened first to promote stability before the distal musculature is strengthened to provide mobility.

When explaining to a parent the difference between an athletic trainer and a physical therapist, the expertise of a physical therapist might best be described by which of the following? A. Expertise in the rehabilitation of the handicapped individual B. Those health care professionals trained in the rehabilitation of orthopedic injuries C. Those individuals trained in the rehabilitation of a diverse population D. Expertise in the rehabilitation of athletic, geriatric, and neurologically impaired populations E. None of the above

C) Physical therapists are trained in the rehabilitation of a diverse patient population. The athletic trainer has expertise in the prevention, treatment, and rehabilitation of the athletic and physically active population.

According to program management theory, which of the following is defined as a decision-making process in which a course of action is determined in order to bring about a future state of affairs? A. Vision statement B. Misson statement C. Planning D. Program evaluation E. Implantation evaluation

C) Planning is defined as a decision-making process in which a course of action is determined in order to bring about a future state of affairs.

An athlete has just been diagnosed with plantar fasciitis. All of the following would be appropriate measures to provide support/relief to the affected area except: A. An orthotic for arch support B. Low dye taping C. Metatarsal pad D. A heel cup E. Stretching program

C) Plantar fasciitis is an inflammation of the plantar fascia of the foot. It has a variety of possible causes but is commonly due to one or all of the following: pronated feet; poor footwear, leading to decreased shock absorption; and/or tight plantar fascia, Achilles', and hamstrings. A metatarsal pad would only be indicated if the athlete also had a diagnosis of metatarsalgia (ie. inflammation of the area of the metatarsal heads)

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS) can occur with high-intensity exercise. Which of the following types of exercise is most likely to cause DOMS? A. Endurance B. Isometric C. Plyometric D. PNF E. Isotonic

C) Plyometric exercises include eccentric exercises, which is the most common cause of DOMS.

What is the definition of power? A. Power = work x force B. Power = speed x distance C. Power = force x distance D. Power = work x velocity E. Power = work x distance

C) Power = force x distance. It is the intensity at which a muscle is able to perform work.

General maintenance and cleaning tasks of the athletic training room and activities area of an athletic facility should include all of the following except: A. Wood flooring should be kept free of splinters, holes, protruding nails, uneven boards, and screws B. All areas should be swept, vacuumed, and mopped according to designated cleaning schedules C. Check to make sure that athletic uniforms/equipment are properly stored and inventoried on a regular basis D. Lighting apparatuses should be checked and changed on a regular basis E. Check to see that found fault interrupters are working and appropriately located

C) Storage and the inventory of athletic uniforms/equipment are not a facilities maintenance task.

What is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load called? A. Mechanical failure B. Strain C. Stress D. Yield point E. Threshold

C) Stress is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load.

While assisting an athlete in stretching exercises the athletic trainer should follow some guidelines. Which one of the following is not true? A. The athletes should be relaxed B. The stretch should be stopped when the athlete reports mild discomfort C. The stretch should be unilaterally administered D. The body part should be stretched for up to 30 seconds E. All of the above

C) Stretching should be performed bilaterally.

An athlete reports to you that another member of the women's gymnastics team has a recognizable problem with eating. She reports that the athlete binge-eats, followed by self-induced vomiting. What is this athlete suffering from? A. Anorexia nervosa B. Amenorrhea C. Bulimia nervosa D. B and C E. None of the above

C) Symptoms of bulimia include binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting

All of the following are true about infectious mononucleosis except: A. The attack rate is highest between 15 to 25 years old B. The virus is excreted in saliva C. The primary symptom is low back pain D. It is caused by transmission of the Epstein-Barr virus E. It causes plenomagaly in over half of all cases

C) Symptoms of mononucleosis include tender lymph nodes, fever, sore throat, and a stiff neck. Low back pain is not a characteristic symptom of this illness.

An athlete informs the athletic trainer that he is taking tetracycline for a respiratory infection. Tetracycline will bind with which of the following two minerals to form a nonabsorbable complex (and therefore should not be taken before meals)? A. Potassium and zinc B. Sodium and magnesium C. Iron and calcium D. Iron and phosphorus E. Folic acid and niacin

C) Tetracycline should be taken 2 to 3 hours after meals to avoid the possibility of drug binding to either iron or calcium.

What problem might the athletic trainer see if the L4 nerve root was compressed? A. Hip flexor weakness B. Plantar flexion weakness C. Knee extension weakness D. Dorsiflexion weakness E. Drop foot

C) The L4 nerve root innervates the rectus femoris muscle and the vastus medialis, intermedius, and lateralis muscles, all of which extend the knee.

What quick test can be performed to check if nerve root L5 is intact? A. Have the athlete flex his or her hip while standing B. Have the athlete walk on his or her toes C. Have the athlete extend his or her great toe D. Have the athletes extend his or her hip E. Have the athlete flex his or her knee

C) The L5 nerve root innervates the extensor hallucis longus muscle.

What type of analysis would be considered a useful tool in the strategic planning of an existing athletic training program? A. The HICFA analysis B. The strengths/weaknesses analysis C. The WOTS-UP analysis D. The Samson analysis E. Flow chart analysis

C) The WOTS-UP analysis (weaknesses, opportunities, threats, and strengths) is a technique that loos at the strengths and weaknesses of an athletic training program.

Which of the muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press? I. Anterior deltoid II. Rhomboids III. Triceps IV. Pectoralis major V. Latissiums dorsi VI. Upper trapezius A. I, II, III, IV B. III, IV, V, Vi C. I, III, IV, V D. II, III, IV, VI E. I, II, III, V

C) The anterior deltoid, triceps, pectoralis major, and latissimus dorsi are all active while performing a bench press.

If the athlete complains of a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment, all of the following may be the source of the problem except: A. The intensity is too high B. Not enough ultrasound medium is being used C. Too much ultrasound gel is being used D. The movement of the transducer head is too slow E. B and D

C) The athlete may feel a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment if the intensity is set too high, not enough coupling medium is bing used, or if the transducer head is moving too slow.

One of your basketball players come into the athletic training room insisting that his ankles need to be taped even though he has no known injury. The athlete should be advised of which of the following? A. To let the athletic trainer know if he starts developing any knee problems B. An elastic or neoprene ankle brace is more effective than taking in preventing an injury C. For the ankle taping to be effective, the athlete should rely on ankle-strengthening exercises rather than prophylactic taping if there is no injury present D. Advise the athlete to contact his family physician to evaluate his ankles E. None of the above

C) The athlete should be advised to concentrate on strengthening his ankles rather than relying on prophylactic taping.

What type of gait deviation might the athletic trainer see with an athlete who has sustained an ankle injury and has decreased range of motion in dorsiflexion? A. Lateral trunk bending B. Trendelenburg gait C. Hip hiking D. Wide walking base E. Extension lag

C) The athlete will hike the hip to allow his or her foot to clear the floor during the swing phase of gait.

A high school athlete is pitching during a baseball game and is hit in the head with a line drive. He is seriously injured. The assistant coach is also the athlete's father. In this situation, who is legally responsible for the athlete's immediate care? A. The head coach B. The assistant coach/parent C. The athletic trainer D. The high school at which the event is taking place E. All of the above

C) The athletic trainer is legally responsible for the athlete's health care. The athletic trainer is acting in place of the team physician in making decisions for the athlete's physical health unless there is a situation that is out of the boundaries of the athletic training practice act.

When recommending a running sneaker the athletic trainer should recommend a sole that has what major qualities? A. Shock absorbing with a wide last B. Durable and non-compressive C. Shock absorbing and durable D. Durable with a rigid mid-sole E. None of the above

C) The athletic trainer should recommend an athletic shoe with a sole that has good shock absorption and is durable.

What is the average respiratory rate for an adult (18 years of age or older)? A. 30 to 80 breaths/min B. 20 to 30 breaths/min C. 12 to 15 breaths/min D. 5 to 10 breaths/min E. 40 to 50 breaths/min

C) The average respiratory rate for an adult is 12 to 15 breaths/min.

Which artery is closely involved with the brachial plexus and becomes the brachial artery at the lower border of the tendon of the teres major muscle? A. Subclavian B. Radial C. Axillary D. Subscapular E. None of the above

C) The axillary artery is a continuation of the subclavian artery beyond the first rib in the axilla.

Which muscle supinates the forearm and flexes the shoulder? A. Brachialis B. Coracobrachialis C. Biceps brachii D. Flexor pollicis longus E. Pronator quadrauts

C) The biceps brachii muscle originates on the supraglenoid tubercle of the scapula (long head) and the ape of the coracoid process (short head). It inserts into the tuberosity of the radius. It functions to supinate the forearm, flex the elbow, and flex the shoulder.

What is the typical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Shoulder abduction with internal rotation B. Maximal shoulder extension C. Shoulder abduction with external rotation D. Shoulder adduction with internal rotation E. Shoulder flection with internal rotation

C) The classical mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation is forceful shoulder abduction with external rotation.

Which of the following is not characteristic of a managed care organization? A. They require provider accountability B. They promote the use of a physician as a "gatekeeper" C. They are based on a fee-for-service model D. They utilize various strategies E. They utilize specific providers

C) The fee-for-service model is a traditional reimbursement model by which the provider is paid on the amount of service provided to a patient, often leading to a higher total reimbursement for the provider.

All of the following are indications for the use of a warm whirlpool except: A. Cleaning large, open wounds B. Relieving pain C. Initial edema reduction D. Increasing range of motion E. Reflaxation

C) The heat of the water causes vasodilation and creates an outward filtration of fluid into the tissues. When combined with the dependent position of the body part, a warm whirlpool will cause an increase in edema.

If an athlete is not well-hydrated, is in poor physical condition in the beginning of a sport season, and is exercising in a very hot, humid environment, he may be susceptible to heat injuries. What is the area of the body that is responsible for thermoregulation? A. Barioceptors B. Thymus C. Hypothyalamus D. Pituitary gland E. Adrenal gland

C) The hypothalamus is responsible for thermoregulation of the body.

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act, who should make the final decision regarding a disabled athlete's participation in a sport? A. Athletic trainer B. Team physician and school nurse C. Individual athlete D. Parents E. Team physician

C) The individual athlete is the only person who can decide whether or not to participate in the sport according to the Americans with Disabilities Act.

An athlete is poked in the eye with a finder and comes to the athletic trainer for evaluation. He is having significant difficulty opening his eye. Which of the following muscles might have sustained an injury? A. Levator capitis inferioris B. Splenius capitis C. Levator palpebrae superioris D. Levator palpebrae orbitis E. Scalenes

C) The levator palpebrae superioris muscle elevates the eye lid.

When palpating the knee joint after an injury the athletic trainer should be sure to palpate which of the following structures? A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. The navicular C. Medial condyle of the femur D. The tibial crest E. Dorsalis pedis

C) The medial condyle of the femur is one structure of the knee that should be palpated during the evaluation of a knee injury.

What nerve passes through the carpal tunnel? A. Musculocutaneous B. Radial C. Median D. Ulnar E. Cubital

C) The median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel of the wrist.

Although an athleitc trainer has successfully passed the BOC, he or she must be educated on the rules and regulations of the state(s) in which he or she intends to practice. The individual must be knowledgable of the state's: A. Certification guidelines B. Code of ethics C. Medical practice act D. Board of directors directives E. OSHA guidelines

C) The medical practice act of each state is what governs the athletic trainer and makes him or her aware of what is permissible practice of a certified/licensed athletic trainer within the particular state.

The rotator cuff consists of all of the following muscles except: A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus C. Teres major D. Subscapularis E. Teres minor

C) The muscles of the rotator cuff include the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis.

An asthmatic athlete who lives and trains in an urban area is susceptible to the effects of air pollution. To avoid an asthma attack while training, the athletic trainer should recommend that the athlete train at which of the following times of day? A. Predawn hours B. Mid-day C. Late afternoon D. On weekends and the evening E. None of the above

C) The ozone levels are most diminished in the late afternoon because of the lower temperatures and decreased amount of traffic on the roads.

If an athlete, who is covered by an HMO insurance policy, needs to see a specialist, who must make the referral in most cases? A. Athletic trainer B. The specialist C. Primary care physician D. Athlete E. None of the above

C) The primary care physician makes the decision that a referral to a specialist is needed. The primary care physician acts as the gatekeeper.

Which of the following principles must the adhered to when designing a training program for an athlete in order to obtain optimal training? I. Overload II. Specificity III. Progression IV. Consistency V. Environmental factors VI. Psychological well-being A. I, III, IV, V B. II, IV, V, VI C. I, II, III, IV D. II, III, V, VI E. I, II, IV, VI

C) The principles of overload, specificity of training, proper progression, and consistency must be adhered to in order to obtain optimal training effects.

What are the primary actions of the psoas major? A. Abduction of the hip B. Extension and internal rotation of the hip C. Hip flexion and internal rotation D. Trunk flexion E. Lateral flexion of the trunk

C) The psoas major originates on the transverse processes of the lumbar vertebrae and inserts on the lesser trochanter of the femur. It acts to flex and internally rotate the hip.

Which of the following muscles does not extend the truck? A. Semispinalis (thoracic) B. Erector spinae C. Quadrtus lumborum D. Multifidi E. Gluteus maximus

C) The quadratus lumborum originates on the iliac crest, the lumbar vertebrae, and lumbodorsal fascia and inserts onto the 12th rib and the transverse processes of upper lumbar vertebrae. It functions to laterally flex the trunk.

Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights? I. Quadriceps II. Hamstrings III. Erector spinae IV. Middle deltoid V. Gluteus maximus VI. Serratus anterior A. I, II, IV, V B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, III, V D. II, III, V, VI E. All of the above

C) The quadriceps, hamstrings, the erector spinae, and the gluteus maximus are all active when performing a full squat with weights.

Which of the following electrode placement techniques is most commonly used when treating an individual with "brief-intense" TENS? A. Direct placement B. Dermatome placement C. Stimulation point placement D. Continuous placement E. Bracket method

C) The stimulation point placement of electrodes is most commonly used with brief-intense TENS.

The supinator muscle is innervated by which of the following nerves? A. Musculocutaneus nerve B. Axillary nerve C. Radial nerve D. Median nerve E. A and D

C) The supinator muscle of the arm is innervated by the radial nerve.

What are the two phases of menstruation? A. Anovulation, luteal B. Prolactin, menarche C. Follicular, luteal D. Menarche, follicular E. First phase, second phase

C) The two main phases of menstruation are the follicular or preovulatory phase and the luteal or postovulaotory phase.

Which of the following is the most common order for steps in recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel? A. Request for position, application collection, position request approval B. Application collection, position vacancy notice, offer of contract C. Request for position, telephone interviews, hiring D. Hiring, offer of contract, request for position E. Application collection, interview, request for position

C) There are 10 steps for recruiting and hiring sports medicine personnel. The following is the most common order: 1. Request for position 2. Position request approval 3. Position vacancy notice 4 Application collection 5 Telephone interviews 6. Reference checks 7. On-site interview 8. Recommendations and approval for hiring 9. Offer of contract 10. Hiring

Thermomoldable plastics, such as Orthoplast, or Aquaplast, may be indicated for many different situations. Which of the following conditions might benefit from the use of this type of material? A. Genu recurvatum B. Thoracic outlet syndrome C. Quadriceps contusions D. Anterior cruciate sprain E. Genu varum

C) Thermomoldable plastics, such as orthoplast, my be used as a hard protective covering for an injured area of the body, such as a dome covering for a quadriceps contusion.

One of your athletes presents with rhinorrhea, rhinitis, a sore throat, nonproductive cough, low grade fever, headache, chills, and malaise. What action(s) should the athletic trainer take? A. Do not allow the athlete to work out for 10 to 14 days and refer him or her to a physician B. Transport the athlete to the nearest emergency room C. Limit the athlete's activities until the fever resolves the resume full activity as the symptoms resolve D. Begin the athlete on a course of antipyretics and analgesics E. Call the team physician for advice

C) These symptoms of rhinovirus infection, which causes the common cold. Supporting the immune system with fluids, rest, and good nutrition will help limit the duration of the infection. It is best to limit the athlete's activities until the fever subsides and slowly increases exercise as tolerated.

What is the process in which health care practitioners are reimbrused by a policyholder's insurance? A. Primary-party reimbursement B. Secondary-party reimbrusement C. Third-party reimbursement D. Tertiary-party reimbursement E. Direct reimbursement

C) Third-party reimbursement is the process by which health care practitioners are reimbursed by a policyholder's insurance company.

According to NATA guidelines, an athletic trainer who is suspected of being infected with HIV should do all of the following except: A. Seek medical care and ongoing evaluation B. Take procedures to ensure health of patients and self C. Wait until it is convenient to be tested because it is not immediately life-threatening D. Inform appropriate medical personnel E. Disclose condition to school administration

C) This is irrelevant because as soon as a person suspect infection, he or she should cease work and be tested.

Which of the following is not one of the five principles of the NATA Code of Ethics? A. Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training B. Members shall maintain and promote high standards in the provision of services C. Members may engage in conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest if the BOC board of supervisors grants prior written approval D. Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals E. A and C

C) This principle should read, "Members shall not engage in any form of conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest or that adversely reflects on the profession."

All of the following are contraindications for the use of aquatic therapy except: A. An excessive fear of the water B. An open wound C. An athlete who is unable to tread water D. Urinary tract infection E. A skin infection

C) Treading water is not necessary skill for participating in an aquatic therapy program. Many types of buoyant devices may be used to keep the athlete afloat.

When rehabilitating and athlete with patellofemoral pain syndrome, which muscle groups should be strengthened? A. Quadriceps, hamstrings B. Hip abductors, hamstrings C. Hip adductors, quadriceps D. Hip flexors, hip external rotators E. Illiotibial band, external rotators

C) With a diagnosis of patellofemoral pain syndrome, chondromalacia patellae, or subluxing patella, it is important to strengthen the quadriceps with an emphasis on the vastus medialis obliques muscle (VMO) and the hip adductors in order to improve the tracking of the patella.

A lacrosse player comes limping into the athletic training room with assistance from a coach. He is holding his leg in slight hip and knee flexion. There is a large bulge in the proximal thigh. During the exam, the athletic trainer requests the athlete to extend his knee as he sits on the edge of the taping table. He is able to partially straighten his leg, although there is pain down the anterior thigh area with the attempt to move it. What does the athletic trainer suspect is wrong? A. Biceps femoris rupture B. Femoral nerve injury C. Ruptured rectus femoris muscle D. Obturator nerve injury E. Iliopsoas rupture

C) With a rupture of the rectus femoris muscle, a large bulge is seen in the upper thigh, and there is pain along the entire muscle belly. Extension is limited because of the inability to contract the rest of the quadriceps musculature.

Deep frostbite is a medical emergency. What should the proper course of treatment be for this problem? A. Very slow, careful rewarming of the body part with warm water B. Firm, sustained pressure of the hand on the affect body part C. Rapid rewarming of the affected body part with warm water D. Quick friction in order to increase local circulation E. None of the above

C) With deep frostbite, there should be rapid rewarming of the body part in warm water between 100 F to 110 F. Rewarming of the body part should continue until it is deep red/bluish in color.

Which type of budgeting model requires justification for every budget line item without reference to previous spending patterns? A. Fixed B. Variable C. Zero-based D. Perfomance E. Need-based budgeting

C) Zero-based budgeting is a model that requires justification for every budget line item without reference to previous spending patterns.

When performing a urinalysis with a dipstick (such as Clinix Stix or a similar product) for abnormal glucose and protein levels, which of the following are considered abnormal findings in the adolescent? A. +2 B. +3 C. +4 D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) A protein level of "trace" or +1 by urinalysis is not considered an abnormal fining in an adolescent.

When developing an emergency plan, all of the following should be established except: A. The athletic trainer and coaches should have the appropriate keys to important gates and locks B. There should be a phone accessible for immediate use C. The athletic trainer should be familiar with the community emergency medical system D. Who will accompany the injured athlete to the hospital if necessary E. A and C

D) A qualified individual, such as another certified athletic trainer or coach, should accompany an injured athlete to the hospital if it becomes necessary. It would be inappropriate to give a student athlete this responsibility.

Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotement? A. Cupping B. Hacking C. Pinching D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) Cupping, hacking and pinching are all methods of tapotement.

A sports medicine program should include which of the following in order to be successful? A. Provide the best possible health care B. Good communication among members of the sports medicine team C. Good communication between the athletic trainer and parents D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) A sports medicine program should provide the best possible health care, have good communication among members of its team, and good communication between and athletic trainer and parents to be successful.

A tight Achilles' tendon can cause _____ or ______ in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running. A. Late heel-off, early heel strike B. Early heel-off, excessive supination C. Late heel-off, late toe-off D. Early heel off, excessive pronation E. Early heel-off, early head strike

D) A tight Achilles' tendon can cause early heel-off or excessive pronation in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running.

The effects of treating a subactue musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all of the following except: A. Analgeisa B. Stimulation of local circulation C. Decreased muscle spasm D. Increased deep tissue temperature E. Decreased joint stiffness

D) A warm whirlpool is a superficial heater. It will only heat the superficial tissues.

All of the following are components of a well-written SOAP note except: A. It is legible, clear, and concise B. It contains many objective measurements C. Progress is expressed in functional terms D. It is written with the intent to mislead as insurance company E. It describes a clear plan of treatment

D) A well-written SOAP note should be legible and concise, include many objective measurements, express progress in terms of functional achievements and it should describe a clear plan of treatment.

You have been asked to initiate an athletic training education program in the high school in which you work. One of the areas you are covering is sexually transmitted disease. The following topics relating to AIDS should include all of the following except: A. Blood-borne pathogens B. HIV testing C. Universal percautions D. Bacterial infections E. OSHA guidelines

D) AIDS is not a bacterial infection.

Redness and swelling during the inflammation process are cuased by all of the following except: A. Histamine B. Prostaglandins C. Serotonin D. Acetylcholine E. Bradykinin

D) Acetylcholine is a chemical found at the endplate of a motor neuron, which plays a significant role in the transmission of nerve impulses at synapses and myoneural junctions.

An athletic trainer can release an athlete's medical records to which of the following? A. Professional athletic team organizations B. Insurance companies C. The media D. No organization or individual without the consent of the athlete or legal gaurdian E. B and C

D) An athlete's medical records may not be released to any individual or organization without written permission from the athlete or his or her guardian or parent.

When an athlete reports to the athletic trainer complaining of lateral hip pain, all of the following conditions might be the source of pain except: A. Trochanteric bursitis B. Strain of the gluteus medius C. Lumbar discogenic disease D. Avulsion of the ischial tuberosity E. Strain of the tensor fascia latae

D) An avulsion of the ischial tuberosity will cause local acute pain deep in the proximal thigh/distal buttock area.

An athlete presents with an acute injury of the foot and has an antalgic gait pattern. Which of the following should you do first? A. Have the athlete run half speed on a treadmill for cardiorespiratory health B. Give the athlete crutches C. Instruct the athlete in a heel-to-toe gait pattern D. Observe/palpate the injured area for gross deformity and point tenderness E. Have the athlete wear an open toe shoe

D) An evaluation of the injured area should be performed before proceeding with any treated.

What does "extension lag" mean? A. Ability to only flex the knee B. Inability to fully backward bend (lumbar movement) C. One leg drags behind the other during gait D. Inability to fully extend the leg E. Inability to fully extend the hip

D) An extension lag exists when the athlete cannot fully extend his or her knee.

What is the temperature range of an ice bath? A. 35 F to 50 F B. 70 F to 75 F C. 65 F to 70 F D. 50 F to 60 F E. 60 F to 80 F

D) An ice bath (or ice immersion) is a mixture of ice and water with a temperature range of 50 F to 60 F in which a body part, most typically the fingers or toes, is immersed. It is used to decrease pain and edema.

Which of the following devices is more effective in decreasing skin temperature during a cryotherapy treatment? A. A microwaveable pack B. A chemical spray C. A cold towel D. An ice pack E. A fan

D) An ice pack can decrease the mean skin temperature 3.4 C during a 15 minute application.

An athlete is recovering from a partial meniscectomy performed 5 days ago. All of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except: A. Achilles' stretching B. Four quadrant straight leg raises C. Stationary bicycling with minimal/no resistance D. Eccentric quadriceps strengthening E. Hip flexor strenghtening

D) Because eccentric muscle strengthening requires high muscle tension to be generated, exercising the quadriceps eccentrically is initiated in the later stages of the rehabilitation.

Large purchases for an educational institution are usually done though a process known as what? A. Direct purchase B. Indirect purchase C. Soliciting D. Bid process E. None of the above

D) Bidding is a process in which competing vendors quote prices on specific pieces of equipment, and orders by the purchasing institution are usually placed with the lowest bidder.

A football player sustained a large laceration to his lower leg 4 weeks ago. Which type of repair has taken place by this time? A. Callus formation B. Primary healing C. Margination D. Secondary healing E. Erythrocyte migration

D) By 4 weeks, a large laceration will heal by secondary healing. Areas of tissue loss are filled with scar tissue.

A properly organizaed athletic training room should have seperate, designated areas for all of the following except: A. Modality area B. Hydrotherapy area C. Storage facilities D. Changing room for the athletes E. Physician treatment

D) Changing/locker rooms for the athletes should not be included as a section of the athletic training room.

An involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession is known as which of the following? A. Tonic contraction B. Alternating contraction C. Eccentric contraction D. Clonic contraction E. Phasic contraction

D) Clonic cramps/spasms are involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation in rapid succession.

Cognitive function may be affected by all of the following conditions except: A.Dehydration B. Malnutrition C. Abnormal body temperature D. Depression E. Medication

D) Cognitive function may be affected by dehydration, malnutrition, abnormal body temperature, or medication.

The athletic trainer should look for all of the following features when purchasing a stationary bicycle except: A. A comfortable seat B. An easily modified workload C. Good construction D. An on-board computer for easy programming E. Adjustable to fit all athletes

D) Computerized parts will significantly drive up the cost of the bide and do not ensure superior results.

All of the following are controlled by the cranial nerves except: A. Vision B. Smell C. Tongue movement D. Cervical flexion E. Hearing

D) Cranial nerve II is the optic nerve (vision), cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve (smell), and cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal) is the nerve responsible for movement of the tongue.

Which of the following medications is not a medication that could predispose an athlete to heat illness? A. Decongestants B. Antihistamines C. Diuretics D. NSAIDs E. Beta-adrenegic blockers

D) Decongestants are vasoconstrictors increasing the possibility of heat stroke. Antihistamines decrease the peripheral sweating and diuretics limit cutaneous vasodilation.

Which of the following is not an indication for diathermy? A. To increase local circulation B. Reduction of spasms C. Pain relief D. Cardiac abnormalities E. Osteoarthritis

D) Diathermy is used to increase local circulation, reduce spasms, and decrease pain after a muucslotendionous injury.

The NATA requires medical documentation of all physician referrals, initial evaluation, assessment, treatments, and dates of follow-up care for all athletes. This is a good idea for all of the following reasons except: A. Professional standards of practice B. Legal protection if sued C. Improved communication between the team or family phsycian D. Protection against a possible malpractice suit E. B and C

D) Documentation cannot protect an athletic trainer from an individual attempting to sue.

How much calcium should a female athlete who shows signs of low bone mass consume a day? A. 500 to 700 mg B. 750 mg C. 1000 mg D. 1500 mg E. 1200 mg

D) Female athletes who do not menstruate on a regular basis o those who vigorously exercise may eventually sustain severe bone loss, and osteoporosis may result. A calcium supplement of 1500 mg/day may effectively reduce the bone loss in the total skeleton and reduce the need for estrogen therapy.

________ and _______ determine the amount of blood that is pumped through the heart in a given period of time. A. Cardiac output, heart rate B. Respiratory rate, ventricular filling rate C. Stroke volume, cardiac output D. Heart rate, stroke volume E. Respiratory rate, cardiac output

D) Heart rate and stroke volume determine the volume of blood that is pumped through the heart during a given period of time.

If an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week? A. 250 to 500 calories/day B. 1000 to 2000 calories/week C. 1000 to 200 calories/day D. 500 to 1000 calories/day E. None of the above

D) In order to lose 1 to 2 pounds a week, an athlete must reduce his or her daily caloric intake by 500 to 1000 calories a day.

All of the following treatments would be inappropriate for an acute quadriceps contusion except: A. Light massage B. Pulsed ultrasound C. Ice massage followed by a gentle stretch D. Ice pack with compression wrap with the knee in flexion E. Heat back and massage

D) It is appropriate during the acute stages of a quadriceps contusion to apply ice to the injured area and put the knee into a slight amount of passive flexion to maintain the flexibility of the quadriceps muscle.

All of the following are steps an athletic trainer can take to avoid litigation except: A. Develop a comprehensive emergency plan B. Establish a detailed, written job desription C. Establish a yearly plan for modality maintenance D. Keep accurate records of all prescription medications dispensed E. A and B

D) It is illegal for an athletic trainer to prescribe and dispense prescription medications.

All of the following are violations of the BOC standards of practice except: A. Practicing as an athletic trainer without a license in a state that has an athletic trainer regulation B. Representing oneself as a BOC-certified athletic trainer using another individual's certification number C. Divulging the contents of a section of the certification exam to another certified athletic trainer or to a prospective student D. Functioning as a clinical athletic trainer in a sports medicine clinic within the confines of the individual state's practice act E. Prescribing medication

D) It is not a violation for a certified athletic trainer to function as a clinical athletic trainer in a sports medicine clinic as long as he or she practices within the confines of the individual state's practice acts.

A baseball player complains of recurrent ingrown toenails. What might the athletic trainer suggest to prevent this problem? A. Have the athlete put a small amount of cotton under his nails B. Have the athlete wear shoes with a large toe box C. Have the athlete trip his toenails in a rounded shape parallel to the border of the cuticle D. Have the athlete trim his toenails weekly and cut them straight across E. Have the athlete purchase larger shoes

D) It is wise to suggest to this athlete that he trim his toenails by cutting them straight across. He should do this on a weekly basis.

How long (generally) should a "warm-up" be to adequately prepare the body for athletic performance? A. 5 to 10 minutes B. 35 to 45 minutes C. 60 minutes D. 10 to 15 minutes E. 45 to 60 minutes

D) It takes between 10 to 15 minutes of a warm-up period to prepare the body for athletic competition. This warm-up period varies with each athlete and may have to be extended with an older athlete.

All of the following are reasons why good documentation skills are an absolute necessity for the athletic trainer except: A. To protect the legal rights of the athlete and athletic trainer B. To improve the communication between the athletic trainer and other health care providers C. To enhance the care given by the athletic trainer and to determine when release from the athletic trainer's immediate care is appropriate D. To improve the athletic trainer's position for financial gain through reimbursement by the insurance company E. To keep an accurate log of treatment as a means of evaluating successful outcomes

D) It would be unethical for the athletic trainer to manipulate his or her documentation for any form of personal financial gain.

Which of the following is the most restrictive form of regulation for the profession of athletic training? A. Exemption B. Certification C. Registration D. Liscensure E. Reciprocity

D) Licensure is the most restrictive form of regulation for athletic training. Licensure limits the practice of athletic training to those individuals who have successfully met the minimal requirements set by a state licensing board.

Maintaining accurate medical records is the responsibility of which of the following individuals in the high school setting? I. Athletic trainer II. Athletic director III. Principal IV. School nurse V. Team physician A. I, II, III B. II, IV, V C. III, IV, V D. I, IV, V E All of the above

D) Maintaining accurate records for a high school athlete is the responsibility of the athletic trainer, school nurse, and team physician.

Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? A. Steady rise and fall of the chest B. The sound of air passing through the athlete's nose or mouth C. The sensation of the athlete breathing on the side of your face D. Noisy respiration, such as wheezing or gurgling E. None of the above

D) Noisy respiration, such as wheezing or gurgling, is a sign of inadequate ventilation.

You evaluate a basketball player who has sustained a finger injury while attempting to catch a ball. During your examination, you observe that the athlete is unable to extend the distal phalanx and the tip of his finger is positioned in approximately 30 degrees of flexion. You determine the athlete has a mallet finger. This injury is caused by which of the following? A. Tenosynovitis of the abductor pollicis longus B. A subungual hematoma C. A sprain of the extensor pollicis brevis D. An avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion E. Dupuytren's contracture

D) Mallet finger is caused by a blow to the tip of the finger by a thrown ball, which jams the finger and results in an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion.

All of the following parameters should be assessed when checking the neurovascular status of an injured limb except: A. Sensation B. The pulse distal to the injury C. Motor function D. Joint range of motion E. Atrophic changes

D) Measuring the amount of motion available at a joint will provide the athletic trainer with no significant information regarding the neurovascular status of the injured limb.

Which of the following as a contract between a policy-holder and an insurance company to reimburse a percentage of the cost of the policyholder's medical bills? A. An insurance claim B. Point-of-service insurance C. A promissory note D. Medical insurance E. Treatment agreement

D) Medical insurance is a contract between a policyholder and an insurance company to reimburse a percentage of the cost of the of the policyholder's medical bills.

Which of the following is not a way for a throwing athlete to prevent injuries while training? A. Minimizing the effects of microtrauma during training B. Maintaining cardiovascular and lower extremity conditioning C. Good communication between the athlete, athletic trainer, coach, and physician during training D. All of the above E. B and C

D) Minimizing the effects of microtrauma; maintaining cardiovascular and lower extremity conditioning; and facilitating good communication among the athlete, athletic trainer, coach and physician will help a throwing athlete prevent injuries while training.

A second-degree medial collateral ligament sprain is characterized by all of the following except: A. Pain along the medial joint line B. No gross knee instability, but mild ligamentous laxity is noted in full knee extension during valgus stress testing C. Difficulty in actively flexing and extending the knee D. Immediate, severe pain following the feeling of a "pop" in the knee; the pain quickly subsides and the athlete is left feeling a dull ache in the knee joint E. A and B

D) Most often a "pop" is associated with an anterior cruciate ligament injury and less frequently with a subluxed patella.

What is a type of tort in which an athletic trainer fails t o act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstances? A. Breach of contract B. Omission C. Abandonment D. Negligence E. Forseeable harm

D) Negligence is a type of torn in which an athletic trainer fails to act as a reasonably prudent athletic trainer would act under the same circumstance.

All of the following are considered support personnel that work along with the athletic trainer to ensure the health and safety of the athlete except: A. Nurse B. Sport psychologist C. Social worker D. All of the above E. B and C

D) Nurses, sports psychologists, and social workers all work with the athletic trainer to ensure the health and safety of the athletes.

Which of the following is not among the best means by which an athletic trainer may educate the general public and other health care workers regarding the profession of athletic training? A. Organizing professional seminars and conferences B. Providing high quality care to the physically active individual C. Publishing articles in professional journals and participating in research D. Developing television advertisements E. A and C

D) Organizing professional seminars and conferences, providing high quality care to the athlete, and publishing articles in professional journals are among the best means of educating the general public and other health care workers regarding the role of the athletic trainer.

All of the following are risk factors for osteoporosis except: A. Early menopause B. High consumption of alcohol, cigarettes, and caffeine C. Sedentary lifestyle D. Obesity E. Lack of acid in the diet

D) Osteoporosis rarely occurs in an obese individual. Obesity is not considered a risk factor for the disease.

Of the following pieces of equipment, which is not an NCAA-mandated piece of equipment? A. Wrestling - ear guards B. Men's Lacrosse - protective gloves C. Baseball - double earflap helmet for batting D. Gymnastics - palm protectors for the uneven parallel bars E. Women's lacrosse - protective eyewear

D) Palm protectors for gymnastics are not considered an NCAA-mandated piece of equipment

Body fat percentage should not go below ____ in females because the internal organs lose a protective layer of fat. A. 20% B. 25% C. 17% D. 12% E. None of the above

D) Percent body fat in females should not go below 12% because internal organs lose a protective layer of adipose tissue.

What should a postseason conditioning program specifically focus on? A. Endurance activities B. Strengthening and flexibility exercises C. Sport-specific activities D. Identifying and improving the areas of conditioning in which the athlete is deficient E. All of the above.

D) Postseason conditioning should focus on identifying and emphasizing specific areas of the conditioning components the athlete needs to improve upon.

A sprinter who is in the "ready" position at the start of a race has a lot of potential energy. What is his potential energy converted into as he takes off when the gun is heard? A. Lactic acid B. Thermal energy C. Work energy D. Kinetic energy E. Aerobic energy

D) Potential energy is energy that is stored in a body when it is at rest. The amount of potential energy a body has depends on its position in space. Kinetic energy is the energy of a body in motion.

Submaximal exercise tests, which of the physical working capacity (PWC) by measruing heart rate increases with exercise, include all of the following except: A. Progressive pulse rate test B. Harvard step test C. Cooper 12 minute run-walk test D. The Saltin-Astrand VO2 debt test E. None of the above

D) Progressive pulse rate test, the Harvard step test, and the Cooper 12 minute run-walk test are all classified as submaximal stress tests.

Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is knowns as ______. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is _______. A. Proprioception, brainstem B. Muscle preception, medulla C. Kinesthesia, cortex D. Proprioception, cerebellum E. Kinesthesia, cerebellum

D) Proprioception is the awareness of movement, changes of equilibrium, and posture of the body and segments, The "control center" for proprioceptive awareness in the brain is located in the cerebellum.

As a head athletic trainer at a Division I university, you are charged with designing a drug testing procedure. It is up to you how to design and implement the procedure, and select the individuals being tested. The best way to select subjects is to use which of the following methods? A. Random timing B. Announced testing C. Preseason testing D. Random selection E. Scheduled weekly testing

D) Random selection provides for an equal probability that any subject within a given group or population will be chosen for testing.

A rugby player sustains a confirmed head injury during a game and had been removed from the game. All of the following are symptoms/signs of increasing intracerebral pressure that the athletic trainer should monitor except: A. Nausea and vomiting B. Pupil irregularity C. Increase in systolic blood pressure with decrease in diastolic blood pressure D. Romberg's sign E. Changes in cognition

D) Romberg's sign is the inability to balance the body when the eyes are shut and feet are together. It is a sign of sensory ataxia.

All of the following are factors in lower extremity overuse syndrome in runners except: A. Poor footwear B. Poor posture C. Change in surface D. Short strides E. A and B

D) Shortening the stride during running may actually decrease the incidence of an overuse syndrome. Overstriding may result in a hamstring pull or knee pain.

Which of the following signs and symptoms are characteristic of a tension pneumothorax? I. Tracheal deviation II. Distended neck veins III. Unilateral absence of breath sounds IV. Dizziness V. Cyanosis A. II, III, IV B. I, IV, V C. I, III, IV, V D. I, II, III, V E. I III, IV

D) Signs of an acute tension pneumothorax include tracheal deviation, distended neck veins, unilateral absence of breath sounds, and cyanosis.

While training in high-altitude climate (eg, 9000 to 10000 feet), a rock climber experiences acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. What is the probable cause of these symptoms? A. Asthma B. Pleurisy C. Bronchitis D. Pulmonary edema E. None of the above

D) Signs of pulmonary edema include acute dyspnea, cough, headache, and weakness. These symptoms can occur in athletes who train in high altitudes.

One method of estimating body fat has been through the use of skin-fold measurements at four sites. These four sites include all of the following except: A. Biceps B. Triceps C. Suprailiac D. Suprascapular E. None of the above

D) Skin-fold measurements for estimating body fat are routinely taken from the biceps, triceps, suprailiac, and subscapular areas.

Which of the following is not a sign of hypovolemic shock? A. Low blood pressure B. Rapid and weak pulse C. Shallow and extremely rapid respiration D. Slow and weak pulse E. Agitation

D) Slow and weak pulse is not a sign of hypovolemic shock.

Which of the following is not a sign of a diabetic coma? A. Fast and weak pulse B. Deep and sighing respiration C. Livid, later pale, skin D. Slow and weak pulse E. Fruity-smelling breath

D) Slow weak pulse is not a sign of a diabetic coma.

A gymnast reports to the athletic trainer with a complaint of low back pain, which has been present for approximately 1 week. After being sent to the doctor for evaluation, a "Scottie dog" defect is seen on x-ray. This finding confirms which condition? A. Fractured transverse process of a vertebrae B. Fractured demifacet of a vertebrae C. Spondyloloisthesis D. Spondylolysis E. A and B

D) Spondylolysis occurs when there is a defect in the pars interarticularis. A "Scottie dog" sign is a radiographic finding of sponylolysis. On an oblique view of the lumbosacral spine, there is an outline that looks like a Scottish terrier. The defect in the pars interaricularis appears as the collar on the neck of the Scottie dog.

The progression for strengthening exercises is usually in what order? A. Isometric, isokinetic, isotonic, plyometric B. Isokinetic, isometric, plyometric, isotonic C. Isotonic, plyometric, isokinetic, isometric D. Isometric, isotonic, isokinetic, plyometric E. Plyometric, isometric, isotonic, isokinetic

D) Strengthening exercise generally follow a progression from isometric, to isotonic, to isokinetic, to plyometric.

Which of the following exercises are appropriate in attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome? A. Cervical range of motion exercises, anterior shoulder strengthening B. Cervical range of motion exercises, cervical isometics C. Anterior chest wall strengthening, cervical isometrics D. Stretching the anterior chest wall, strengthening the posterior midthoracic area E. None of the above.

D) Stretching the anterior chest wall (especially the pectoralis muscles) and strengthening the midthoracic musculature (especially the rhomboids and middle trapezius) improve posture and decrease pressure on the structures of the thoracic outlet.

One of your male athletes notices a tingling sensation in his urethra followed by a discharge of greenish yellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexually transmitted disease and recommend which of the following actions? A. Syphilis; have the athlete take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days B. Trichomoniasis; have the athlete drink acidic fluids, call his family physician, and have the athlete refrain from all sexual contact C. Genital candidiasis; have that athlete apply a fungicide to his penis D. Gonorrhea; refer the athlete to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual contact E. Genital herpes, have the athlete take Diflucan

D) Symptoms of gonorrhea in a male include a tingling sensation in the urethra followed by a greenish yellow discharge of pus with painful urination. The athlete should be instructed to refrain from all sexual activity until he is treated.

All of the following are symptoms of an overtrained athlete except: A. Emotional liability B. Loss of appetite C. Reduced concentration D. Excessive motivation E. Fatigue

D) Symptoms of overtraining include emotional liability, loss of appetite, decreased concentration, decreased motivation to participate in practices and competitions, chronic fatigue, indigestion, and changes in bowel and sleeping patterns. An athlete who experiences staleness should be temporarily removed from activity and allowed time to rest and relax to stimulate renewed interest and motivation to play.

What is the primary purpose of the Achilles' tendon tape job? A. To give support and help prevent inversion ankle sprains B. Used with acute ankle sprains to help prevent swelling if an elastic wrap is not available C. To prevent the medial foot from flattening D. To restrict the amount of dorsiflexion at the ankle E. A and C

D) The Achille' tendon tape job is used to restrict the amount of dorsiflexion at the ankle.

Which of the following organizations was established in 1950 and created a code of ethics and standards for the profession of athletic training? A. American Orthopedic Society of Sports Medicine B. American College of Sports Medicine C. American Physical Therapy Association D. American Athletic Trainers' Association D. National Academy of Sports Medicine

D) The NATA was developed in 1950 to establish practice guidelines and a code of ethics for the athletic training profession.

Which of the following muscle tendons form the borders of the anatomical snuff-box? I. Extensor hallucis longus II. Extensor pollicis brevis III. Flexor pollicis longus IV. Abductor pollicis longus V. Extensor pollicis longus

D) The anatomical snuff-box is located along the dorsoradial aspect of the thumb and is bordered by the extensor pollicis brevis, abductor pollicis longus, and extensor pollicis longus tendons.

What are the four sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? A. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness B. Pain, aching, stinging, cold C. Aching, burning, pain, numbness D. Cold, burning, aching, numbness E. Cold, burning, stinging, aching

D) The athlete will experience the feelings of cold, followed by burning, then aching, and finally numbness.

The athletic administrator's role includes which of the following? A. Establishes the chain of command for the sports medicine team B. Makes certain that each member has appropriate credentials C. Is responsible for having appropriate personnel for the appropriate positions D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) The athletic administrator's role should include the following: establish a positive chain of common for the sports medicine team, ensure that each member's credentials are proper, and that the appropriate personnel are hired for specific positions.

One of your high school baseball players is having elbow surgery at the end of the season. He is a major league prospect, and a scout has asked you to detail the surgery and outline the anticipated rehabilitation. When answering the scout's questions, the athletic trainer should do which of the following? A. Refer the scout to the athletic director B. Refer the scout to the team physician C. Refer the scout to the athlete D. None of the above E. All of the above

D) The athletic trainer is not allowed to provide anyone, aside from the parent, with any information regarding the athlete. Keeping in mind that the athlete is still a minor, the parents/guardians must be consulted first regarding any information that is given out about the athlete's status.

What guidelines does the athletic trainer have to follow regarding maintaining proper hygiene and sanitation in the athletic training room? A. Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (JCAHO) B. American Medical Association (AMA) C. Rehabilitation Accreditation Commission (CARF) D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) E. Commission of the Accreditation of Athletic Training Education (CAATE)

D) The athletic trainer should follow OSHA guidelines in maintaining proper hygiene and sanitation in the athletic training room.

Which of the following pieces of information are important for the athletic trainer to keep on record in the athletic training room? A. Injury reports B. Injury evaluations and progress notes C. Daily treatment logs D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) The athletic trainer should keep accurate and up-to-date records in the athletic training room. This information should include items such as injury reports, injury evaluation and progress notes, daily treatment logs, and medical records.

When treating an athlete who presents with undifferentiated somatoform disorder, the athletic trainer should do all of the following except: A. Provide care for a bona fide injury B. Develop a sound relationship with the athlete to gain his or her trust C. Avoid doing more harm by dismissing the athlete as a "symptom magnifier" D. Provide the athlete with psychological counseling focused on having the athlete recognize and acknowledge the source of his or her anger E. All of the above

D) The athletic trainer should not provide psychological counseling unless he or she is qualified to do so.

Which piece of information is not part of the athletic trainer's daily documentation? A. Treatment technique B. Playing status C. Daily injury log D. Athlete's insurance information E. Objective information

D) The athletic trainer's daily documentation should include any treatments administered and how they were implemented, rehabilitation progression, the athlete's current playing status, and a daily injury log.

One the average, a college athlete expends between ____ to ___ calories per day. A. 4000 to 5000 B. 2000 to 3000 C. 2500 to 3000 D. 2200 to 4400 E. 1000 to 18000

D) The average amount of calories a college athlete expends in a day is between 2200 and 4400 calories.

Which muscle does not need to be strengthened after a rotator cuff repair? A. Supraspinatus B. Biceps C. Teres minor D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Triceps

D) The biceps and triceps stabilize the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, teres minor, and subscapularis muscles, which all must be strengthened during rehabilitation.

Where is the C3,C4 dermatome located? A. The top of the head B. Over the posterior upper arm area C. Over the lateral upper arm area D. The superior aspect of the shoulders and posterior neck area E. Anterior chest area

D) The dermatome of the C3,4 nerve roots is over the superior aspect of the shoulder and posterior neck area

What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? A. Ultrasound frequency B. Cavitation C. Attenuation D. Duty cycle E. Intensity

D) The duty cycle is that time in which sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period.

The equal employment operating chief works with employees who have filed what type(s) of complaint? A. Discrimination B. Sexual harassment C. Raism D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) The equal employment operating chief (EEOC) deals with all employees regarding any concerns that they may have. Any issue or problems related to employment or employees should be dealt with by the EEOC.

All of the following muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve except: A. Flexor carpi ulnaris B. Adductor pollicis C. All the hypothenar muscles D. Extensor carpi ulnaris E. None of the above

D) The extensor carpi ulnaris is innervated by the radial nerve.

The gluteus maximus is responsible for what following motion(s)? A. Flexion and internal rotation of the thigh B. Extension of the hip C. External rotation of the hip D. Extension and external rotation of the hip E. Abduction of the hip

D) The gluteus maximus muscle originates on the upper portion of the ilium, sacrum, and coccyx and inserts on the gluteal tuberosity of the femur and the fascia latae. Its primary actions are to extend and externally rotate the hip.

All of the following are reasons why an insurance claim might be denied except: A. Lack of patient progress B. The duration of care is considered excessive C. Improper coding D. The goals are based on functional outcomes E. Treating beyond the approved number of visits.

D) The goals must be written in functional terms to ensure proper reimbursement.

What type of joint is the hip joint? A. Fibrous B. Amphiarthrotic C. Synarthrotic D. Diarthrotic E. Semiarthrotic

D) The hip joint is a diarthrotic or ball and socket joint.

All of the following injuries might be associated with a "popping" sensation of the knee joint except: A. Anterior cruciate ligament injury B. Torn menisucs C. Subluxed patella D. Iliotibial band friction syndrome E. B and C

D) The iliotibial band moves back and forth over the lateral epicondyle of the femur as the knee is flexed and extended If the iliotibial band is too tight or it overrides and rubs on the lateral epicondyle during downhill running, the bursa between the iliotibial band and epicondyle becomes inflamed. Pain is elicited as the knee is brought into about 30 degrees of flexion. A popping sensation is not a consistent finding with this syndrome.

Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated row exercise? I. Latissimus dorsi II. Teres minor III. Teres major IV. Middle trapezius V. Rhomboids VI. Pectoralis major

D) The latissimus dorsi, teres major, middle trapezius, and rhomboids are all involved when performing a seated row exercise.

All of the following are functions of the liver except: A. Carbohydrate metabolism B. Detoxification of blood C. Protein synthesis D. Detoxification of urine E. Bile production

D) The liver participates in the metabolism of carbohydrates; detoxifies the blood of metabolic by-products; and produces albumin, clotting factors, and plasma transport protein.

What is the most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation? A. Adduction and external rotation B. Abduction and internal rotation C. Adduction and internal rotation D. Abduction and external rotation E. Abduction and extension

D) The most common mechanism of injury for an anterior shoulder dislocation is shoulder abduction and external rotation.

Which of the following is not a good source of vitamin C? A. Broccoli B. Strawberries C. Oranges D. Nuts E. Spinach

D) Vitamin C is found in high concentrations in green vegetables, fruits, and citrus.

What is one of the most common symptoms of a lumbar discogenic injury? A. Dull, localized backache B. Localized swelling with muscle guarding C. Instability to backward bend D. Sharp, radiating pain down the back of the leg E. All of the above

D) The most common symptom of lumbar discogenic injury is a sharp, radiating pain down one or both legs. This is caused by a bulging or herniated disc impinging on a nerve root in the lumbar spine.

A grade 1 ankle inversion sprain involves which structure? A. Tibiofibular ligament B. Posterior talofibiular ligament C. Calcaneofibular ligament D. Anterior talofibular ligament E. Spring ligament

D) The most common type of ankle sprain is an inversion sprain. The primary mechanism of injury is plantar flexion/inversion movement, which usually affects the anterior talofibular ligament first. As the sprain increases in severity, other ligaments around the ankle become involved, such as the calcaneofibular or tibiofibular.

In what position will the movement arm of a force be the greatest? A. When the movement arm is at a 45 degree angle to the applied force B. When the force of gravity is 90 degrees to the applied force C. When the lever being moved is parallel to the applied force D. When the angle of application of the force is at 90 degrees to the lever being moved E. None of the above

D) The movement arm of a force is always greatest when the angle of application is at 90 degrees to the lever being moved.

All of the following muscles are intrinsic muscles of the hand except: A. The lumbricals B. The muscles of the thenar eminence C. The interossei D. The multifidi muscles E. All of the above are intrinsic muscles of the hand

D) The multifidi are small muscles located in the back, which extend and rotate the vertebral column.

Which end feel is abrupt, firm, springy resistance to motion? A. Tissue stretch B. Bony block C. Capsular restriction D. Muscle spasm E. Scar tissue adhesions

D) The muscle spasm has an end feel that is an abrupt, firm, springy resistance motion. This is caused by the protective muscle spasm.

During exercise, the body's oxygen stores are greatly diminished. The recovery O2 is used for all the following except: A. Replacing O2 dissolved in tissue fluids B. Returning muscle myoglobin to resting values C. Increasing venous oxyhemoblobin to pre-exercise levels D. Returning the catecholamine level in the blood to normal E. A and B

D) The oxygen consumed by the athlete during the recovery phase of exercise replenishes the oxygen levels in the tissue fluids, increases the myoglobin in the muscles to preactivity levels, and restores the venous oxyhemoglovin to pre-exercise levels.

The pes anserinus is made up of the tendons of what three muscles? A. Biceps femoris, gracilis, semitendinosus B. Iliotibial band, sartorius, semimembranosus C. Sartorius, gracilis, semimembranosus D. Sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus E. Tensor fascia latae, gracilis, and semitendinosus

D) The pes anserinus is described as a goose foot shaped expansion of the tendons of the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus.

The plantar fascia or plantar aponeurosis is located where in the body? A. Base of the neck B. Lumbar region C. Lateral side of the thigh D. Sole of the foot E. Cervical spine

D) The plantar fascia is located on the sole of the foot.

In addition to the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveolar gas of the lungs, what other factors influence the rate of diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream? A. The respiratory rate and pleural surface area B. The amount of CO2 present in the alveoli and the pulmonary veins C. The respiratory rate and CO2 partial pressure D. The thickness of the alveolar capillary membrane and the amount of surface area available of diffusion E. All of the above

D) The rate of passive diffusion of oxygen from the alveoli depends on the partial pressure of oxygen, the thickness of the alveolar capillaries, and the amount of surface area available for diffusion to take place.

The rectus femoris muscle ______ and ________ when it contracts. A. Flexes the hip, externally rotates the hip B. Extends the hip, flexes the knee C. Flexes the knee, plantar flexes the ankle D. Flexes the hip, extends the knee E. Extends the hip, extends the knee

D) The rectus femoris muscle flexes the hip and extends the knee when it contracts.

Which of the following best describes the function of the school nurse in the sports medicine program of a high school? A. As a liason between the athletic director and the athletic trainer B. The direct supervior of the "health" services C. As the "first assistant" to the team phsycisan D. As a liason between the athletic trainer and the school heatlh E. All of the above

D) The school nurse's function in a high school sports medicine program is to act as a liaison between the athletic trainer and the school's health services program.

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with impetigo. What should the athletic trainer recommend to the athlete to prevent spread of the infection to other individuals? A. Clean his clothing daily with bleach B. Wear gloves C. Practice safe sex D. Prevent others from borrowing his clothing or using his towel E. Cover his mouth when coughing and avoid socializing in large crowds

D) The spread of impetigo can be decreased by having the athlete avoid sharing towels and clothing with other indiviuals.

Which of the following muscles does not extend and laterally flex the neck? A. Splenius capitis B. Splenius cervicis C. Levator scapulae D. Sternocleidomastoid E. Multifidus

D) The sternocleidomastoid flexes and rotates the head.

Which is not a thermal effect of ultrasound? A. Increased blood flow B. Secretion of chemotactics C. Reduction of muscle spasm D. Edema reduction E. Muscle heading

D) The thermal effects of ultrasound may increase edema.

Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated military press? I. Trapezius II. Latissimus dorsii III. Pectoralis major IV. Serratus anterior V. Posterior deltoid VI. Triceps A. II, III, VI B. I, III, IV, V, C. I, IV, V, VI D. I, III, IV, VI E. All of the above

D) The trapezius, pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and triceps musculature are all active when performing a seated military press.

When bench-pressing a barbell, the triceps and pectoralis major musculature contract in what manner during the "lift" phase? A. Isokinetically B. Isometrically C. Eccentrically D. Concentrically E. None of the above

D) The triceps and pectorlais major muscle must contract concentrically during the "lift" phase of a bench press.

What evaluative test is used to examine the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee? A. Pivot shift test B. Valgus stress test C. Lachman's test D. Varus stress test E. None of the above

D) The varus stress test is used to test the integrity of the lateral collateral ligament of the knee. The athlete is asked to lie supine with the knee in full extension. The athletic trainer places his or her hand distally on the lateral ankle and the other hand proximally on the knee medially. WIth the ankle stabilized, a varus force is applied with the proximal hand. Lateral joint pain and/or increased varus movement with an absent or poor endpoint when compared to the uninvolved side are positive findings for a torn lateral collateral ligament.

Where is the origin of the vastus lateralis located? A. Gerdy's tubercle B. The anterior inferior iliac spine C. The greater trochanter of the femur D. The lateral aspect of the femur E. Lister's tubercle

D) The vastus lateralis originates on the lateral aspect of the femur and inserts into the common tendon of the quadriceps muscle.

What special test identifies ulnar nerve compression or transmission interference at the elbow? A. Finkelstein's test B. Tarsal tunnel test C. Elbow flexion test D. Tinel's sign E. Yergason's test

D) Tinel's sign identifies ulnar nerve compression or transmission interference at the elbow.

When exercising in cold temperatures, what should be done by the athlete to prevent hypothermia? A. Keep his or her clothes dry B. Warm up exercises and remain active C. Wear warm clothing D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) To prevent hypothermia, the athlete should replace wet clothing with dry clothing, perform warm-up exercises, and wear warm clothing.

All of the following are measures for preventing infectious diseases except: A. Appropriate diet, recovery time between workouts, and sleep B. Use individual water bottles, towels, uniforms, and personal equipment C. Frequent laundering of uniforms D. Use water to clean contaminated surfaces or equipment E. B and C

D) Water alone cannot kill an infectious mirco-organism. Water can be mixed with bleach and this will disinfect soiled surfaces. There are also a number of commercial products that will disinfect soiled surfaces.

What is the prudent method of transporting an athlete with a suspected spinal injury? A. Do not move the athlete until a doctor is present B. Use of a stretcher C. Fireman's carry D. Use a spine board with medical assistance E. Usse a wheelchair

D) When transporting an athlete with suspected spinal cord injury, a spine board should be sued to stabilize the athlete during transport and additional medical support should be employed.

A positive Phalen's sign is suspect of what problem? A. Tarsal tunnel syndrome B. Long thoracic nerve injury C. Thoracic outlet syndrome D. Suprascapular entrapment syndrome E. Carpal tunnel syndrome

E) A positive Phalen's test is indicative of carpal tunnel syndrome. The athlete is asked to stand with the dorsal aspect of both hands in full contact so both wrists are maximally flexed for 1 minute. A complaint of numbness and tingling in the medial nerve distribution of the fingers is a positive test.

Which of the following health care providers would be known as a primary care provider? A. A physical therapist B. An orthopedic technician C. A nurse D. An athletic trainer E. A physician

E) A primary care provider is an individual who is the direct provider of care. He or she is usually a physician specializing in internal medicine, pediatrics, or general practice. A physical therapist, orthopedic technician, and nurse are all secondary providers (ie, those who render services, equipment, or testing procedures that enable the physician to care for his or her patient.)

Which of the following minerals decreases the risk of osteoporosis and increases the density of bone? A. Zinc B. Folate C. Molybdenum D. Iron E. Calcium

E ) Calcium increases the density of bone, which decreases the risk of osteoporosis

When instructing an athlete in the proper technique of applying an elastic wrap to control pain and edema of an extremity, the athletic trainer should instruct the athlete to remove the wrap of all except the following occurs at the distal end of the extremity: A. Numbness B. Coolness C. Tingling D. Cyanosis E. Pink hue of the skin

E) A fleshy, pink hue of the distal extremity is a normal finding.

Which muscle grade denotes active muscle movement in a gravity-eliminated position? A. -3/5 B. +3/5 C. 5/5 D. 1/5 E. 2/5

E) A manual muscle grade of 2/5 is also known as a poor muscle grade and is defined as completing full range of motion in a gravity-eliminated position. A grade of 3/5, or fair, is defined as completion of full range of motion against gravity and a grade of 1/5 is a trace grade, in which the examiner observes or palpates contractile activity in the muscle, but no movement is present.

Which of the following joints is a "mortise" joint? A. First metatarsophalangeal B. Elbow C. Sacroiliac D. Knee E. Ankle

E) A mortise joint is a joint in which there is a groove or slot into or through which another bone fits or passes (eg, the talus sits between the distal ends of the tibia and fibula).

All of the following are signs of anorexia nervosa except: A. Dramatic weight loss B. Obsession with weight gain C. Social isolation D. Reaching competitive weight and continuing to lose weight in off-season E. Significant weight gain during off-season

E) An anorexic athlete will not gain weight during the off-season because of abnormal eating habits

How long does it take for an athlete's heart rate to plateau at a given level during a cardiorespiratory training session? A. 10 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 45 seconds D. 5 minutes E. 2 to 3 minutes

E) An athlete's heart rate will gradually rise as the intensity of the exercise rises and will plateau at a given level in approximately 2 to 3 minutes

Which of the following best describes an athletic trainer in a nontraditional athletic training setting? A. Controller B. Organizer C. Director D. Planner E. Manager

E) An athletic trainer in the nontraditional setting can be considered a manager. A manager functions as an organizer, director, and controller.

Which of the following is a possible employment setting for an athletic trainer? A .Industrial setting B. High school setting C. Hospital setting D. College or university setting E. All of the above

E) An athletic trainer may be employed in an industrial, high school, college/university, or hospital setting.

An avulsion fracture of a bone is caused by which type of tissue stress? A. Compression B. Bending C. Shearing D. All of the above E None of the above

E) An avulsion fracture of a bone is caused when tissue and bone are stretched and torsion is produced beyond its yield point. This is known as a stretching injury.

Foot drop may be indicative of what pathology? A. Plantar nerve injury B. Shin splints C. Osteochondritis dissecans D. Achilles' tendonitis E. Peroneal nerve injury

E) An injury to the peroneal nerve of the lower leg will result in foot drop. The common peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus muscle, the superficial pernoneal nerve innervates the peroneus brevis muscle, and the deep peroneal nerve innervates the perouneus tertius muscle of the lateral aspect of the lower leg and foot.

An "operational plan" is a plan that defines oranizational activities in the short-term and should be no longer than which of the following? A. 10 years B. 15 years C. 25 years D. 7 years E. 2 years

E) An organization plan is ideally used in short periods of time. This allows the organizational plan to change as needed.

Which of the following instruments is used to visually examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane? A. Ophthalmoscope B. Laryngoscope C. Arthroscope D. Endoscope E. Otoscope

E) An otoscope is an instrument used to visually examine the ear canal and tympanic membrane.

A basketball player has been stung by a bee. This player has a history of a severe allergy to bee stings. A couple of minutes after being stung, the area becomes red and raised and begins to itch. The athlete begins to complain that his tongue feels thick, and he starts to have difficulty breathing, What type of shock is he beginning to develop? A. Neurogenic B. Metabolic C. Hypovolemic D. Respiratory E. Anaphylactic

E) Anaphylactic shock is caused by a severe allergic reaction to a foreign protein or drug. There is a contraction of smooth muscle fibers and increased capillary permeability, causing dyspnea cyanosis, convulsions, unconsciousness, and if untreated, death.

You notice one of your gymnasts has lost a significant amount of weight over the last month. She is always concerned about her image when she discusses her performance with you. What might you suspect as the problem? A. Drug dependence B. Depression C. Narcissim D. Bipolar disease E. Anorexia nervoas

E) Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that is most commonly seen in adolescent females. The athlete consumes a progressively diminishing amount of food until she is malnourished, and there is a weight loss of 25% of the original weight. Because of an intense fear of becoming obese, the athlete will not maintain normal body weight for her height and age, even when emaciated. It is a sign of a significant underlying psychological problem.

You are in the position to hire an assistant athletic trainer. You have a specific person in mind, but your athletic director implies he is not comfortable with this person's gender. Which level of the law mandates the hire and firing of employees? A. State B. Local C. City D. District E. Federal

E) Any athletic trainer who is in the position to hire a new staff member is governed by federal laws that require all applicants receive equal consideration regardless of race, gender, nationality, or religion.

One of your athletes has been diagnosed with psoriasis. All of the following medications are appropriate for treatment of this condition except: A. Aristocort B. Kenalog C. Topicort D. Betadine E. A and B

E) Aristocort, Kenalog, and Topicort are all corticosteroids that are used to treat the inflammation and pruritic manifestations of psoriasis. Betadine is a topical microbicide agent used for skin and wound infections.

The pre-event meal should be planned by whom? A. The coach B. The athlete C. The athletic trainer D. A & B E. All of the above

E) Because specific types of food and timing of the pre-event meal are significant to performance, it is important that the coach, athlete, and athletic trainer are all involved in its proper planning

Which of the following is not a medication that is delivered via a metered-dose inhaler for exercise-induced asthma (EIA)? A. Proventil B. Alupent C. Atrovent D. Ventolin E. Butisol

E) Butisol is a barbiturate used as a sedative in the treatment of insomnia.

The codes that were established by the AMA for health care providers to receive third-party reimbursement are CPT codes. What does CPT mean? A. Current procedural treatments B. Current provider terminology C. Consensus procedural treatments D. Current provider treatments E. Current procedural terminology

E) CPT stands for current procedural terminology.

Which of the following is not a type of insurance policy that is offered to organizations seeking to purchase insurance for athlete teams? A. Accident insurance B. Indemnity policy C. Basic medical coverage D. Group insuance E. Capitation

E) Capitation is not a type of insurance. Capitation refers to a form of reimbursement used by managed care organizations to determine the amount of money that is going to be paid to a provider for services for a member in a predetermined period of time.

Which of the following is a type of organizational culture characterized by consensus, teamwork, and participatory decision making? A. Transformational B. Personalistic C. Formulistic D. Organizational E. Collegial

E) Collegial culture is a type of organizational culture characterized by consensus, teamwork, and participatory decision making.

A soccer player has fractured his right lower leg, been placed in a cast, and given crutches. The addition of crutches does what to his center of gravity? A. Moves it to the left B. Moves it to the midabdominal area C. Moves it to the right D. There is no effect on the center of gravity E. Enlarges the base of support

E) Crutches widen the base of support. This allows for the line of gravity to fall within the base of support, increasing stability

Diaphoresis is also known as which of the following? A. Rapid heart beat B. Body odor C. Bad breath D. Slow heart beat E. Sweating

E) Diaphoresis means sweating.

During what phase of the menstrual cycle does a graafian follicle mature? A. Second phase B. Ovulatory C. Luteal D. Mensural E. Follicular

E) During the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, which lasts from day 5 to 6 to day 13, the primary follicles grow. Toward the end of this phase, just prior to ovulation, one follicle reaches maturity and becomes a graafian follicle.

One of your female athletes presents with dysuria, a sense of urgency to urinate, decreased urine volume, nocturia, low back pain, and pyuria. What do you suspect this athlete has? A. Pyoperitonitis B. Dermatitis C. Prostatitis D. Vaginitis E. Cystitis

E) Dysuria, an urgency to urinate, decreased urine volume, nocturia, back pain, pyuria, or hematuria all indicate the athlete has cystitis, which is a bladder infection.

When massage is utilized to induce a sedative effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? A. Tapotement B. Vibration C. Petrissage D. Danish E. Effleurage

E) Effleurage is a superficial or deep stroking technique used to produce relaxation.

Which of the following is a condition that is associated with the enlargement of the spleen? A. Graves' disease B. Constipation C. Appendicitis D. Hepatitis E. Mononucleosis

E) Enlargement of the spleen is usually a complication caused by mononucleosis.

The rules, standards and principles that dictate proper conduct among members of a society or profession are known as which of the following? A. Rights of conduct B. Code of conduct C. Morality D. Professional demeanor E. Ethics

E) Ethics dictate the rules, principle of right, conduct, and standards to which members of a specific organization or society must adhere.

______ supplies include such items as adhesive tape, gauze pads, and bandages. A. Permanent B. Capital C. Nonexpendable D. Nonfixed E. Expendable

E) Expendable supplies include items such as adhesive tape, gauze pads, Band-aids, and items that cannot be used again.

Which of the following are factors that influence space requirements when designing a sports medicine facility? A. Number of clients to be served B. Types of clients to be served C. Amount and type of equipment needed D. Projected growth of the program E. All of the above

E) Factors which influence space requirements when designing a sports medicine facility include number or clients to be served, types of clients to be served, amount and kinds of equipment needed and the projected growth of the program.

Deep stroking during massage is known as what? A. Tapotement B. Vibration C. Petrissage D. Effluerage E. Friction massage

E) Friction massage is a type of deep massage.

What is inflammation of the common flexor origin of the forearm musculature called? A. Lateral epicondylitis B. Cycler's wrist C. Tennis elbow D. Pronation overuse syndrome E. Medial epicondylitis

E) Golfer's elbow and Little League elbow are overuse syndromes of the medial forearm flexor musculature, resulting in medial epicondylitis. This group of muscles originates on the medial epicondyle and crosses the volar aspect of the wrist. Injury occurs with repetitive valgus stresses at the elbow.

When rehabilitating an athlete who has undergone an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction, which of the following muscle groups must be strengthened to support the graft? A. Triceps surae B. Hip adductors C. Quadriceps D. Gluteals E. Hamstrings

E) Hamstring strengthening should be initiated early in anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation because the hamstrings are the main secondary stabilizer for the anterior cruciate ligament.

Hemophilia occurs when which of the following blood factors is missing? A. Granulocytes B. Hemoglobin C. Factor IV D. Rh factor E. Factor VIII

E) Hemophilia is a disorder in which the plasma coagulation factor VIII is lacking, resulting in abnormal bleeding.

Who should be involved in making the decisions about transporting an injured athlete? A. Athletic trainer B. Team physician C. Paramedics D. Emergency medical technicians E. All of the above

E) Ideally, the athletic trainer, physician, local EMTs and/or paramedics should be involved in the developmental and implementation of the emergency action plan including decision regarding the transport of an injured athlete.

In what year were certified athletic trainers recognized by the AMA as "Allied Health Care Professionals?" A. 1988 B. 1997 C. 1994 D. 2000 E. 1990

E) In June of 1990, the AMA recognized certified athletic trainers as "Allied Health Care Professionals."

The stature of limitations involving a negligence suit has a limit of how many years? A. Up to 2 years B. 4 to 5 years C. 7 to 10 years D. 10 to 15 years E. 1 to 3 years

E) In general, a plaintiff has between 1 to 3 years to file a negligence suit. This can vary from state to state.

Interval training would be appropriate for all the following sports except: A. Football B. Volleyball C. Soccer D. Basketball E. Archery

E) Interval training involves alternating intense, continuous periods of work with periods of active recovery. This type of training is very effective when conditioning athletes who participate in sports that involve short bursts of activity and are followed by a period of recovery.

Which type of budget allocates a fixed amount of money for specific program functions and activities? A. Lump-sum budgeting B. Fixed budgeting C. Need-based budgeting D. Variable budgeting E. Line-item budget

E) Line-item budgeting is a method in which the athletic trainer must anticipate the expenditures for specific program functions, such as team physician service, supplies, and equipment repair.

Loading of a joint that is unstable due to a ligament ruputre produces which of the following stresses on the joint cartilage? A. No change at all B. Rolling/pivoting stress C. Tension forces D. Abnormally low stress E. Abnormally high stress

E) Loading of a joint that is unstable as a result of ligament rupture produces abnormally high stresses on the joint cartilage.

All of the following types of infection are transmitted through the air except: A. Meningitis B. Pneumonia C. Tuberculosis D. Scarlet fever E. Malaria

E) Malaria is transmitted through blood/body fluids.

Which of the following is a growing concept in the insurance industry stressing cost control through coordination of medical services? A. A primary care provider B. Health maintenance organization (HMO) C. Exclusive provider organization (EPO) D. Preferred provider organization (PPO) E. Managed care

E) Managed care is a system that has set forth coordinated efforts to help reduce the costs of medical coverage. The goal of managed care is to provide appropriate service with cost control in mind.

Which of the following cells release histamine and serotonin during the cellular response phase of tissue healing? A. Macrophages B. Erythrocytes C. Granulocytes D. Leukocytes E. Mast cells and platelets

E) Mast cells and platelets release histamine and serotonin during the reaction phase of an acute injury.

Which of the following tests is used to detect a possible meniscal tear in the knee? A. Faber's test B. Allen's test C. Jerk test D. Lachman's test E. McMurray's test

E) McMurry's test is used to test the knee for a tear in the medial or lateral meniscus with the athlete lying in supine. The knee is fully flexed, and the tibia is externally rotated with a valgus force and extended, or internally rotated with a varus force and extended. A palpable "click" is indicative of a positive test.

Which of the following is an indirect method of monitoring oxygen consumption? A. Measuring respiratory rate B. Measuring vital capacity C. Drawing blood gases during testing D. Measuring tidal volume E. Measuring heart rate

E) Measuring the heart rate during submaximal stress testing is used to indirectly determine the VO2 max. It is known that heart rate rises linearly with increasing workloads.

If a joint capsule is stretched beyond its physiological limitations causing a reflexive muscle contraction, which of the following laws is being demonstrated? A. Ohm's B. Harrod's C. Wolff's D. Newton's E. Milton's

E) Milton's law states that the joint capsule, the muscles that move that joint, and the skin that covers that joint are supplied by the same nerve source.

What is the potential to influence the behavior of a superior called? A. Superior power B. Position power C. Counter power D. Subordination power E. Personal power

E) Personal power is the potential to influence others by virtue of personal characteristics and personality attributes

Which type of exercise utilizes a rapid stretch of the muscle eccentrically followed by a rapid concentric contraction and is used to develop explosive movements? A. Ballistic B. Isokinetic C. Isotonic D. Internal E. Plyometric

E) Plyometric exercises emphasize a quick eccentric stretch prior to a forceful concentric contraction and are useful in building power.

What type of shock is commonly referred to as fainting? A. Respiratory shock B. Cardiogenic shock C. Metabolic shock D. Anaphylactic shock E. Psychogenic shock

E) Psychogenic shock is commonly referred to as fainting and is caused by a temporary dilation of blood vessels that reduces the normal amount of blood in the brain.

All of the following are basic steps in the purchasing process except: A. Request a quotation B. Negotiation C. Purchase order D. Bid requests E. Quality control

E) Quality control is a negotiable point in sports medicine purchasing that should be done prior to the purchasing process to ensure you will be receiving the appropriate items.

When testing the physical conditioning of an athlete, the coach asks the athlete to sprint 50 yards. What does this test? A. Aerobic endurance B. Vital capacity C. Lower extremity power D. Power E. Anaerobic capacity

E) Running short distances stimulates the breakdown of phosphocreatine into phosphorus and creatinine in the muscle and glycogen and glucose to break-down into lactic acid, allowing the muscles to work for short durations of time.

A soccer player sustains a strain to the quadriceps muscle group. You are trying to prevent atrophy during rehabilitation. What method of treatment would you use? A. Ultrasound and transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENNS) B. Interferential current (IFC) C. Stretching D. High voltage galvanic stimulation E. Russian stimulation

E) Russian stimulation prevents atrophy by contracting the muscles.

All of the following are signs and symptoms of dehydration except: A. Sunken, soft eyes B. High specific gravity of urine C. Weight loss D. Thirst E. Seizures

E) Seizures are not a primary sign of dehydration

Athlete's foot (tinea pedis) may be prevented by all of the following except: A. Dusting the feet daily with powder B. Completely drying feet after getting them wet, including between the toes C. Wearing sandals when showering in a public facility D. Washing the feet on a regular basis E. Sharing shoes with teammates

E) Shoe sharing between athletes may spread tinea pedis

Which of the following individuals is susceptible to heat stroke and, therefore, must be carefully educated regarding the importance of adequate fluid intake during activity in hot, humid weather? A. Basketball guard B. A wrestler C. Female gymnast D. Swimmer E. A defensive lineman in football

E) Significantly overweight individuals who have large muscle mass are much more susceptible to heat stroke than small-framed, lightweight individuals.

Which of the following signs/symptoms are present in a depressed athlete? A. Decreased appetite B. Insomnia C. Fatigue D. Feeling of hopelessness E. All of the above

E) Signs of depression include loss of appetite, insomnia, fatigue, and a feeling of hopelessness.

The inflammatory process includes all of the following signs and symptoms except: A. Redness B. Pain C. Warmth D. Swelling E. Numbness

E) Signs of inflammation include redness (rubor). pain (dolor), warmth (calor), and swelling (tumor).

Sports medicine encompasses all of the following fields of study related to sport except: A. Biomechanics B. Massage therapy C. Sports nutrition D. Sport psychology E. Coaching

E) Sports medicine encompasses the fields of biomechanics, massage therapy, and sports psychology.

Your team physician sends a prescription to you for your athlete that reads "whirlpool treatments TID." What does TID mean? A. Twice a day B. Every 3 hours C. Four times a day D. Three times a week E. Three times a day

E) TID means three times a day.

If a 20-year-old athlete is exercising at 80% of his maximal heart rate, his target heart rate could be calculated to equal what? A. 150 BPM B. 140 BPM C. 170 BPM D. 200 BPM E. 160 BPM

E) Target heart rate can be calculated with the following formula: 0.8 x (220 - age) or 0.8 x (220-20) = 160.

When testing for paresthesia of the C5 nerve root, where should the athletic trainer perform pinprick testing? A. Base of the neck B. At the nipple line C. The medial aspect of the arm D. The lateral aspect of the forearm E. The lateral aspect of the upper arm over the middle deltoid

E) The C5 dermatome is located over the area of the middle deltoid.

When was the NATA officially formed? A. 1948 B. 1953 C. 1955 D. 1962 E. 1950

E) The NATA was formed in 1950.

The _____ is a charge that represents the maximum amount that an insurance company will pay a provider. A. HCFA B. NCR C. ADA D. CPT E. UCR

E) The UCR (usual, customary, and reasonable) is a charge that represents the maximum amount of money that an insurance company will pay for a serve.

In hot, wet environments, the athlete's ability to adjust to a significantly increased cardiovascular workload is limited by which factor? A. Hypoxia B. Hypervolemia C. Dehydration D. Hypernatremia E. Inability to dissipate heat by evaporation

E) The ability to dissipate heat by evaporation is severely limited in a hot, humid environment because evaporation cannot occur unless volumes of dry air are available to absorb the water vapor given off.

Developing significant muscle bulk is dependent on the levels present in the body of which of the following hormones? A. Epinephrine B. Cortisol C. Norepinephrine D. Estrogen E. Testosterone

E) The amount of testosterone present in the body has a significant impact on the amount of hypertrophy that will occur with weight training.

An athlete presents to the athletic training room complaining of a "sore spot" on the back of his neck. It appears as a dark red, hard area, which later develops as a lesion discharging yellowish-red pus from numerous areas. The athletic trainer suspects the athlete has what type of infection? A. Viral B. Fungal C. Systemic D. Parasitic E. Bacterial

E) The athlete presenting with a carbuncle, which is a bacterial (staphylococci) infection often resulting as a complication of folliculitis.

An athletic trainer is working a clinical setting. Which of the following populations is the athletic trainer best suited to treat? A. Neurologically impared B. Mentally impared C. Burn patients D. Geriatric patients E. Physically active

E) The athletic trainer working in a clinical setting is best suited to treat the physically active patient.

What type of joint is the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb? A. Pivot B. Ball and socket C. Hinge D. Plane E. Saddle

E) The carpometacarpal joint is a saddle joint. A saddle joint has one articulating surface that is concave and one articulating surface that is convex.

Which pulse should always be assessed with any injury to the lower extremity? A. Carotid pulse B. Brachial pulse C. Axillary pulse D. Radial pulse E. Dorsal pedal pulse

E) The dorsal pedal pulse should always be assessed when dealing with injuries to the lower extremity.

Which of the following joints is an example of a hinge joint? A. Acromioclaviular D. Atlantoaxial C. Talocrural D. Shoulder E. Elbow

E) The elbow is a hinge, or ginglymus, joint and has 1 degree of freedom.

When fitting an athlete for crutches, the elbow should be bent to approximately what ankle? A. 90 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 0 degrees E. 30 degrees

E) The elbow should be slightly flexed to approximately 30 degrees, which places the hand at hip level.

During an upper quarter screen, checking the strength of thumb extension correlates to what nerve root? A. T1 B. T3 C. C5 D. C4 E. C8

E) The extensor pollicis longus of the thumb is innervated by the C8 nerve root.

A megadose of which of the following vitamin is potentially very dangerous? A. Thiamin B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin B12 E. Vitamin A

E) Vitamin A in large doses consumed over a prolonged period of time may lead to toxic symptoms and death in extreme cases.

What general topics should be addressed in an athletic training education program policies and procedures manual? A. Who the athletic training program will serve B. Facility use and maintenance C. Risk management plans D. Chains of command and supervision E. All of the above

E) The following topics should be addressed in an athletic training program policies and procedures manual: who the athletic training program will serve, facility use and maintenance, risk management plans and chains of command and supervision.

The optimum time an ice pack should be applied to a body part is 10 minutes. This is to avoid the ______ response. A. Vasomotor B. Blocking C. Moro D. Belle E. Hunting

E) The hunting response is a reactive vasodilation of local blood vessels after initial vasoconstriction. This occurs with the application of cryotherapy to a body part

In very cold environments, the athlete's body will attempt to produce heat through many different mechanisms. One of these methods is by hypothalamic stimulation of what? A. Posterior hypothalamus B. Sweat glands C. Pituitary glands D. Adrenal glands E. Thyroid glands

E) The hypothalamus stimulates the thyroid gland in very cold environments to generate internal heat

How many degrees of freedom does the knee have? A. 0 B. 1 C. 3 D. 4 E. 2

E) The knee has 2 degrees of freedom, allowing for flexion and extension in the sagittal plane and rotation in the horizontal plane.

A soccer player has been kicked in the upper right quadrant of his abdomen. Which of the following internal organs could have sustained a significant injury? A. Kidney B. Ureters C. Spleen D. Appendix and sigmoid colon E. Liver and gallbladder

E) The liver and gallbladder are located in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen.

What is the maximum number of degrees of freedom a joint can possess? A. 2 B. 5 C. 4 D. 6 E. 3

E) The maximum degrees of freedom (number of axes of movement) a joint can have is 3.

All of the following structures should be evaluated before and after a dislocated elbow is reduced except: A. The median nerve B. The radial nerve C. The neurovascular status at the brachial artery D. The ulnar nerve E. The axillary nerve

E) The median, radial, and ulnar nerves and the neurovascular status of the brachial artery should be evaluated pre- and post-reduction of the dislocated shoulder.

Which of the following can cause an indirect sports fatality? A. Contact sports B. A blow to the head C. Blunt chest trauma D. Rodeo riding E. Heat stroke

E) The most common cause of an indirect sports death is heat stroke (ie, no direct trauma is sustained by the athlete).

_______ states that muscle, power, endurance, and hypertrophy increase only when muscles perform workloads greater than those loads previously encountered A. P.R.E. principle B. The DAPRE principle C. The strength duration curve D. The power training principle E. The overload principle

E) The overload principle states that muscle strength, power, endurance, an hypertrophy increase only when muscles perform workloads greater than those loads previously encountered.

All of the following structures pass through the popliteal fossa except: A. Tibial nerve B. Popliteal artery C. Popliteal veing D. Common peroneal nerve E. Peroneal artery

E) The peroneal artery originates off the posterior tibial artery below the popliteal fossa in the proximal posterior lower leg.

One of your soccer players is requesting to play in the conference championship in 2 days. This athlete is 2 days post a grade one concussion. Who makes the final decision of an athlete's eligibility for participation in organized athletic activity in this situation? A. Coach B. Athlete C. Athletic trainer D. School nurse E. Physician

E) The physician has the final say regarding the athlete's ability to play.

What is a major side effect of the NSAID group? A. Vertigo B. Tinnitus C. Drowsiness D. Blurred vision E. Gastrointestinal upset

E) The primary adverse side effect of the NSAID group is gastrointestinal discomfort.

The athletic trainer of a collegiate women's swimming and diving team suspects one of his athletes might have a severe eating disorder. After lengthy discussions with both the coach and athlete, the athletic trainer decides it would be best for the athlete if she is referred for professional help. To which of the following professionals should the athlete be initially referred? A. An endocrinologist B. A chiropractor C. A registerred dietitian D. A registered nurse E. A psychologist

E) The proper referral for an athlete with an eating disorder would be to a psychologist or psychiatrist because of the complex nature of the condition. It should be recognized by the athletic trainer that anorexia nervosa or bulimia is not just a simple nutritional problem but an underlying psychological problem.

An athlete presents with loss of strength at the L3 and L4 nerve root levels. What muscle should the athletic trainer test to confirm an injury at this level? A. Gluteus minimus B. Flexor hallucis longus C. Gluteus maximus D. Adductor Magnus E. Quadriceps

E) The quadriceps musculature is innervated by the femoral nerve, which originates at the L2, L3, L4 nerve levels.

Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to decelerate the body? A. Positive B. Concentric C. Isokinetic D. Isometric E. Eccentric

E) The quadriceps must contract eccentrically to allow for deceleration of the body in downhill running.

The bottom number of the blood pressure reading is the _______ pressure. A. intrinsic B. Systolic C. Ejection fraction D. Venous E. Diastolic

E) The top number of a blood pressure reading is the systolic number, and the bottom number is the diastolic number. The systolic pressure is representative of the blood pressure during ventricular contraction. The diastolic pressure represents the blood pressure during ventricular filling between cardiac contractions.

An athlete who sustains a severe or career-ending injury may go through a progression of emotional reactions, which are frequently seen with an individual who has experienced a significant loss. All of the following are included in this series of reactions except: A. Bargaining B. Anger C. Acceptance D. Denial E. Guilt

E) There are five emotional phases an athlete may experience after a significant injury or loss. These phases include denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. These reactions are normal when faced with a serious injury or illness, and the athletic trainer should allow the athlete a chance to work through each stage without interference.

You find out that a certified athletic trainer in your conference is selling an herbal substance to his athletes on a regular basis for a personal profit. Which of the following codes is this individual violating? A. APTA Code of Honor B. NASM Code of Ethics C. NCAA Code of Honor D. ACSM Code of Medicine E. NATA Code of Ethics

E) This behavior violates the NATA Code of Ethics, which, in part, states that "members shall not engage in conduct that constitutes a conflict of interest or that adversely reflects on the profession."

A positive Thompson's sign is indicative of what problem? A. Tight hip flexor B. Tight iliotibial band C. Ruptured anterior tibialis tendon D. Ruptured posterior tibialis tendon E. Ruptured achilles' tendon

E) Thompson's sign involves squeezing the gastrocnemius-soleus complex while the athlete lies prone on a table. The foot should plantar flex when the common muscle bell of these muscles is squeezed. An absence of plantar flexion upon squeezing is a positive test, indicative of a possible Achilles' tendon rupture.

When rehabilitating an athlete following a ligamentous wrist injury, once the ligament has healed enough where active motion can be initiated, it is important to educate the athlete to exercise only: A. Isometrically B. In water C. While using a prophylactic brace D. First thing in the morning E. In the pain-free range

E) To prevent reinjury during the rehabilitation of a soft tissue injury, it is important that the athlete not experience pain during active movement.

Ultrasound is based on the ______ effect. A. Resonance B. Sounding C. Cavitation D. Phoresor E. Reverse piezoelectric

E) Ultrasound is based on the reverse piezoelectric effect.

An athlete's pulmonary function is tested via spirometry. Several measurements are taken during this test. What is the maximum amount of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration? A. Maximum expiratory flow rate B. Forced expiratory volume C. Residual volume D. Tidal volume E. Vital capacity

E) Vital capacity is the maximal amount of the air that can be expired after maximal inspiration.

The athletic trainer notices an athlete is prone to abnormal bruising. After discussing the problem with the team doctor, he recommends which of the following vitamins? A. E B. D C. C D. Niacin E. K

E) Vitamin K contributes to blood clotting because it imparts a calcium binding ability to certain blood proteins, such as prothrombin.

A loss of water equaling what percent of body weight will begin to threaten athletic performance? A. 10% to 15% B. 0.5% to 1% C. 1% to 2% D. 1% to 1.5% E. 2% to 3%

E) Water loss of 2% to 3% of total body weight will begin to adversely affect athletic performance. Losses of 4% to 5% total body weight or greater are life-threatening percentages.

When forming a diagnosis the athletic trainer must have the knowledge and the ability to perform which of the following according to the Performance Domain II of the Role Delineation Study? A. Obtain a history B. Palpate the involved area(s) C. Perform specific tests in accordance with accepted procedures D. Formulate a clinical impression E. All of the above

E) When forming a diagnosis, the athletic trainer must have the knowledge and ability to obtain a history from the client, palpate the involved area(s), perform specific tests in accordance with accepted procedures and formulate a clinical impression.

When selecting and fitting protective gear and sports equipment, the athletic trainer should do which of the following to minimize liability? A. Buy protective gear or equipment from a reputable manufacturer B. Ensure that the individual who assembles the equipment is competent to do so C. If the athlete is wearing a cast, brace, or other type of immobilization device, ensure that it does not violate the rules of the sport D. Ensure the equipment is not defective E. All of the above

E) When selecting and fitting an athlete for protective gear or sports equipment, the athletic trainer should make sure he/she buys the protective gear or equipment from a reputable manufacturer, ensure that the individual who assembles the equipment is competent to do so, that the cast, brace or immobilizer does not violate the rules of the sport and make sure that the equipment is not defective.

Which two structures are injured with a Bankart lesion? A. Anterior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum B. The inferior capsule of the shoulder and the glenoid labrum C. The articular surface of the humeral head and the glenoid labrum D. The surgical neck of the humerus and the coracoacromial ligament E. The acromioclavicular joint and the glenoid fossa

A) A Bankart lesion is an injury to the anterior capsule of the shoulder with an associated tear of the glenoid labram.

An athlete with a skill fracture will have which of the following? A. Battle's sign B. Raccoon eyes C. Tenderness in the hard palate D. All of the following E. None of the above

D) An athlete with a skull fracture may have bony deformity, Battle's sign, "racoon" eyes, and tenderness of the hard palate.

Which of the following types of exercise can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure that can result in a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident? A. Isometric B. Plyometirc C. Isotonic D. Eccentric E. Isokinetic

A) A major disadvantage of isometric exercises is that it can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure, which can lead to a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident.

A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? A. Superficial B. Deep C. Cutaneous D. Surface E. None of the above

A) A moist heat pack is considered a superficial heater.

Where would a Baker's cyst be located? A. In the popliteal fossa B. In the groin area C. On the breast D. On the hip E. The wrist

A) A Baker's cyst is a localized accumulation of fluid in the popliteal fossa of the knee. It may represent a true bursitis or synovial herniation through the posterior capsule.

Which physical law is applied with the use of an infrared lamp? A. Joule's law B. Inverse square law C. Wolff's law D. Ohm's law E. Newton's law

B) The inverse square law states that the intensity of radiation from a light source varies inversely to the square of the distance from the source.

What position should the athlete's be in to manually muscle test the deltoids? A. Abducted to 0 degrees and externally rotated to 45 degrees B. Abducted to 90 degrees C. Flexed with the palm down D. Extended with the palm up E. Extended with palm down

B) To tests the deltoids, the athlete's shoulder should be positioned to 90 degrees.

You are aware of a diabetic athlete who has just self administered his morning does of insulin and has basketball practice within the following hour. Which of the following would be a prudent action to suggest to his athlete before he begins exercising? A. Hyperhydrate prior to practice B. Eat a candy par before practice C. Suggest the athlete eat a slice of bread with peanut putter or cheese prior to practice D. Drink a soft drink before exercising E. None of the above

C) To avoid hypoglycemia and insulin shock from taking too much insulin and metabolizing significant amounts of glycogen during exersie, the athlete should consume a snack of a complex carbohydrate and protein prior to exercise.

In what position should an athlete be in to manually muscle test the hip flexors, and where should the athletic trainer's force be directed during testing? A. Prone, with the force directed down onto the posterior thigh B. Side lying, with the force directed down onto the side of the thigh C. Sitting with the force directed down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh D. Sitting, with the force directed own onto the medial aspect of the thigh E. None of the above

C) To test hip flexor musculature, the athlete should be sitting. The athletic trainer that applies a force down onto the anterior aspect of the thigh as the athlete resists the movement.

Trendelenburg's test is a method used to evaluate the competence of which structures? A. Hip flexors B. Peroneal muscles C. Hip abductors D. Erector spinae E. Abdominals

C) Trendelenburg's test is used to test for gluteus medius weakness of the hip. The athlete is asked to stand on one leg for approximately 10 seconds and then switch to the other leg. If the pelvis on the unsupported side drops noticeably lower than the pelvis on the supported side, it is a positive finding.

An athlete has just been injured on the basketball court, and the athletic trainer begins administering first aid. During the initial contact, the athletic trainer notices the athlete is hyperactive, argumentative, and sarcastic in his responses to questions. All of the following actions by the athletic trainer are inappropriate except: A. Telling the athlete he or she is a wimp and that it is "not that bad" B. Being abrupt and telling the athlete to snap out of it C. Allowing the athlete to express his emotions as they occur D. Calling the referee over to calm the athlete E. Walking away to prevent an argument

C) When an athlete is injured, he or she may react strongly to pain and become very fearful of the possibility of being disabled. During this time, the athlete may display signs of overreacting by becoming argumentative or sarcastic. It is important that the athletic trainer provides emotional support and allows the athlete to express his or her emotions. It is best to be reassuring and divert the athlete's attention away from the injury.

The athletic trainer should do which of the following when dealing with an athlete with heat exhaustion? A. Administer cool fluids B. Remove unnecessary clothing C. Move to a cool place D. All of the above E. None of the above

D) An athlete suspected of having heat exhaustion should be administered cool fluids, unnecessary clothing should be removed, and he or she should be moved to a cool place.

Which of the following muscles are the primary muscles involved when performing a resisted wrist curl (palms up)? I. Flexor digitorum longus II. Flexor digiti minimi III. Adductor pollicis IV. Flexor carpi radialis V. Flexor carpi ulnaris VI. Brachialis A. I, II,IV B. I, IV, V ,VI C. II, III, IV, VI D. IV, V E. III, IV, V

D) The flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris are the primary muscles involved in performing a wrist curl.

The frontal plane divides the body into ________ and ______ parts. A. Top, anterior B. Right, left C. Top, bottom D. Anterior, posterior E. Superior, lateral

D) The frontal plane divides the body into anterior and posterior parts.

How many degrees of movement does the scapula contribute to shoulder abduction? A. 30 B. 80 C. 100 D. 180 E. 60

E) During shoulder abduction, the humerus and scapula move simultaneously. This is known as scapulohumeral rhythm. For every 30 degrees of shoulder abduction, 20 degrees of motion occurs at the glenohumeral joint and 10 degrees occurs ad the scapula rotating the thorax. During shoulder abduction, the scapula contributes to 60 degrees of movement, while the remaining 120 degrees occurs at the glenohumeral joint.

Which word defines a person that is highly cooperative in a support plan? A. Bedfellow B. Opponent C. Plantiff D. Adersary E. Ally

E) An ally is a person who is highly cooperative in a support plan.

Which of the following describes a person or organization that supports a program but has a history of untrusting behavior (these people tend to be manipulative in their dealings)? A. Opponents B. Challengers C. Allies D. Adversaries E. Bedfellows

E) Bedfellows support a plan but are not trustworthy and bay be manipulative in their dealings.

Which of the following drugs must the athletic trainer determine the athlete is not allergic to prior to administering a NSAID? A. Famotidine B. Acetaminophen C. Sulfa D. Sudafed E. Aspirin

E) Before administering an NSAID, the athletic trainer must determine if the athlete is allergic to aspirin because a cross reaction may occur in the athletes allergic to aspirin.