BOC (wrong questions)

You have just been hired as the head athletic trainer at a junior college. You have numerous administrative tasks to complete in the 2 months between now and when student athletes report for preseason training. Your budget for the upcoming year has been approved. What steps should you take to purchase your equipment and supplies? Place the following actions in the order in which you would perform them. A. Requisition items based on your institution's purchasing guidelines. B. Communicate with vendors regarding cost-saving and price-matching options. C. Match the packing slip to the original requisition as items are received. D. Negotiate with vendors regarding shipping costs. E. Submit invoices for payment once all supplies are received. F. Request quotes from various venders.

1. F 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. E

A baseball coach who is 6 weeks status post rotator cuff repair is rehabilitating in your athletic training room. You have chosen to assess the range of motion of the coach's glenohumeral joint using a goniometer. What is the normal range of motion for shoulder abduction without scapular elevation? A. 0 to 120° B. 0 to 180° C. 0 to 90° D. 0 to 135° E. 0 to 150°

A

A master's level swimmer is exhibiting pain in all directions of shoulder joint movement and restrictions of both active and passive range of motion. Because of the pain associated with movement, the athlete is apprehensive about moving the joint at all. In addition to flexibility and pain control modalities, which of the following might you incorporate into this patient's rehabilitation program? A. Joint mobilization techniques B. Upper extremity proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) diagonal patterns C. Upper extremity isokinetic exercises D. Closed kinetic chain exercises for the shoulder joint

A

A standard procedure for helmet and shoulder pad removal of an athlete with a cervical spine injury can be part of a venue-specific emergency action plan (EAP). Based on current guidelines, there are two recommended techniques for stabilizing the cervical spine. Which of the following is one of those techniques? A. Trap-squeeze method B. Inverted-hands method C. Diagonal-squeeze method D. Chin-forehead method

A

A swimmer recently underwent an ulnar nerve Transposition procedure. The physician's rehabilitation protocol calls for isometric shoulder exercises after the first week. How would you instruct your patient in what you want her to do? A. While in your sling, place your uninvolved hand on your arm halfway between your shoulder and your elbow on the front, back, inside, and outside. Without moving your shoulder or elbow. press against your resisting hand and hold for 10 seconds. Repeat five times in each direction. B. Take your sling off and stand close to a wall. Face the wall and push your arm against it for 10 seconds. Keep turning your body 90° until you have pushed in each direction. Repeat each direction five times. C. Take the small foam ball and squeeze it and think about tightening up all the muscles in your arm and then gently move your shoulder forward, backward, and out to the side approximately 6 inches, then return to the start position. Repeat 10 times in each position. D. While in your sling, place your uninvolved arm against the outside of your involved wrist. Rotate your shoulder out approximately 6 inches while resisting the motion. Move your resisting hand to the inside of your wrist and resist as you move back to the starting position. Repeat five times.

A

A venue-specific emergency action plan (EAP) should include information for the following subjects: emergency personnel, emergency communication, emergency equipment, medical emergency transportation, venue directions with map. To aid in providing effective emergency communication, where in the athletic training facility should a copy of the EAP be posted? A. Near the landline telephone B. Near the facility entrance C. Near the treatment tables D. Near the entrance to the storage facility

A

After reviewing an adolescent athlete's medical history, you suspect that the athlete may have used anabolic steroids in an effort to increase muscle mass. What skeletal impact may result from anabolic steroid use? A. Premature epiphyseal plate closure B. Decreased bone density C. Exostosis development at apophyseal sites D. Increased incidence of stress fractures

A

An athlete reports anterior knee pain. On inspection you note the athlete has squinting patellae. Which of the following is most likely the potential cause of this patellar malalignment? A. Hip anteversion B. External femoral rotation C. External tibial rotation D. Abnormally short patellar tendon E. Abnormally long patellar tendon

A

An athlete reports on her preparticipation medical history form having taken Toradol (ketorolac), for which she has a prescription, intermittently over the past 3 months. In which drug category is this medication? A. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug B. Steroidal anti-inflammatory drug C. Narcotic analgesic D. Antibiotic

A

An athlete who recently completed a course of antibiotics and oral steroids complains of white, cheesy, curdlike patches on the tongue and buccal mucosa. What condition is most commonly associated with this presentation, and how is it best treated? A. Oral candidiasis; oral rinse of nystatin and oral antifungal medication B. Oral candidiasis; oral peroxide rinse and oral antibiotic medication C. Leukoplakia; oral rinse of nystatin and manual scraping D. Leukoplakia; oral peroxide rinse and oral antifungal medication E. Gingivitis; oral antibiotic rinse and fluoride supplements

A

An athlete whose daily energy expenditure is 2,350 kcal is consuming approximately 2,100 kcal daily. If this intake and expenditure continues for 8 weeks, what change in body weight will occur? A. Body weight will decrease by 4Lb. B. Body weight will increase by 4Lb. C. Body weight will decrease by 8Lb. D. Body weight will increase by 8Lb.

A

An athlete with repeated herpes simplex eruptions should be counseled to avoid which of the following potential outbreak triggers? A. Fatigue, psychological stress, and sunlight exposure B. Overexposure to the sun, decreased body fat percentage, and sharing water bottles C. Sexual activity, contact with others, and dehydration D. Contact with others, fatigue, and a high- carbohydrate diet E. Poor nutrition, overexposure to the sun, and sexual activity

A

Based on current research investigating the best method of removing football helmet facemasks to access the airway, the combined tool technique has been recommended. What emergency equipment should be accessible for applying this technique? A. Cordless power screwdriver and Trainer's Angel B. Trainer's Angel and FM Extractor C. Cordless power screwdriver and manual screwdriver D. EMT scissors and FM Extractor

A

Before applying joint mobilization for the talocrural joint, the joint must be placed in the resting position. What best defines the resting position for this joint? A. Full dorsiflexion with neutral ankle inversion and eversion B. 10° of ankle dorsiflexion with neutral ankle inversion and eversion C. 10° of ankle plantar flexion with neutral ankle inversion and eversion D. Full plantar flexion with neutral ankle inversion and eversion

A

Development of a vision statement is the first step in planning and developing a new sports medicine program. Which of the following is an element of a vision statement? A. Services to be offered by program B. Short-term and long-term goals of the program C. Philosophy of the program D. Technology to be used in providing services

A

Exposure to which of the following body fluids does not require the use of universal precautions? A. Vomitus B. Cerebrospinal fluid C. Vaginal secretions D. Synovial fluid

A

In which population is the use of maximal isometric contractions for strength gains contraindicated? A. A 28-year-old male basketball player with hypertension B. A 14-year-old baseball player with open epiphyseal plates C. A 65-year-old female golfer with history of low back pain D. A 35-year-old male tennis player with type 1 diabetes E. A 20-year-old female basketball player with sickle cell trait

A

What is the largest structural feature of a muscle? A. Myofilament B. Myofibril C. Sarcomere D. Cross-bridge E. Z line

A

What is the purpose of placing a layer of toweling between the treatment area and the shortwave diathermy unit? A. Dry toweling absorbs sweat to prevent the collection of moisture that might result in a burn. B. Wet toweling increases the depth of penetration of the diathermy waves. C. Toweling provides a cushion between the treatment area and the diathermy unit. D. Toweling provides a transmission mechanism as the diathermy waves bounce off and refract into the treatment area.

A

When creating an emergency action plan, it is helpful to know the average emergency medical services (EMS) response time for the location of your venue. When determining an EMS response time, both horizontal and vertical response times should be considered. What is horizontal response time? A. The time from when the EMS call goes out until a driven dispatched unit arrives on the scene B. The time from when the EMS call goes out until a medical helicopter arrives on the scene C. The time from when the dispatched unit arrives on the scene until patient treatment begins D. The time from when the dispatched unit arrives on the scene until the patient is completely loaded into the emergency transportation vehicle.

A

When properly fitted, how far posteriorly should a mouthguard project to allow unobstructed breathing and clear speaking? A. As far as the last molar B. So that the incisors are completely covered C. Past the canines D. Up to the premolars

A

Which of the following best describes the feeling of palpating a ballotable patella? A. The patella bounces back to its original position following downward pressure. B. The patella remains at its downward compressed location. C. The patella feels thick and boggy with compression. D. The patella produces crepitus with downward pressure. E. The patella feels solid and immovable with downward pressure.

A

Which of the following conditions associated with training at high altitudes is self-limiting and will resolve with supplemental oxygen use as needed and acclimatization? A. Acute mountain sickness B. High-altitude pulmonary edema C. High-altitude cerebral edema D. Splenomegaly associated with sickle cell trait E. High-altitude asthma exacerbation

A

Which of the following correctly defines professional enculturation? A. Transitional process by which a professional identity emerges through advanced learning and internalization of foundational behaviors B. Development of moral and ethical standards within a well-defined group C. Internalization of essential principles of a given profession D. Application of personal and moral values to a work setting

A

Which of the following descriptions best defines an emergency action plan (EAP)? A. Written document that defines the standard of care required in every conceivable event during an emergency situation B. Step-by-step procedures that are specific to the needs of each institution and athletic facility during an emergency situation C. A statement that will drive the institution's functional goals, which in turn formulate all medical operating procedures D. Detailed plan that describes the roles of involved personnel during an emergency situation E. Written, site-specific plan for transporting injured athletes in an emergency situation

A

Which of the following is a common mistake made during injury documentation? A. Using terms such as "moderate," "tolerated well," Or "significant" B. Using abbreviations rather than writing everything out C. Using direct patient quotes D. Including information from a previous note in a current note

A

Which of the following methods would allow a sports medicine staff to evaluate the effectiveness of their anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rehabilitation protocol over the past 5 years? A. Internal chart audit B. Statistical injury summary C. Client survey D. Critical incident report

A

Which of the following statements best describes how normal running gait differs from normal walking gait? A. Running gait has a greater stride length and less stride width. B. Running gait requires less range of motion and strength, C. The running gait cycle contains the dual phases of double limb support. D. Preswing is absent from the running gait cycle. E. The running gait cycle has less total upward and downward motion of the body.

A

Which of the following types of shoulder impingement is characterized by an irregularly shaped acromion or formation of a bony spur on the acromion? A. Primary subacromial impingement B. Secondary subacromial impingement C. Internal impingement D. Multidirectional impingement

A

Which type of audit is used by an accrediting body to ensure that a sports medicine program is utilizing appropriate standards of practice and is also used to evaluate Medicare claims? A. External chart audit B. Internal chart audit C. Outcome assessment D. Self-study evaluation

A

While gathering a medical history, your patient reports a previous diagnosis of kyphosis. Which of the following best defines kyphosis? A. A convex curve of the upper thorax B. A concave curve of the lumbar area C. A lateral curve often combined with rotation D. A concave curve of the cervical area E. A lateral curve of the cervical area

A

You are assisting in the medical treatment tent at a local youth lacrosse tournament. After the morning games, you assessed and treated a 12-year-old athlete who was experiencing a mild asthma attack. The athlete's breathing has returned to normal rate and rhythm. The coach returns to the tent and asks about the athlete's status for the afternoon game scheduled to start in 3 hours. Which return-to-play recommendation should you communicate to the coach? A. The athlete should not play for the remainder of the day and needs to be cleared by his pediatrician. B. The athlete needs to sit out for the first half of play, but he can return in the second half. C. The athlete is permitted to participate, but he should be removed if breathing difficulty returns. D. You have no return-to-play recommendation for this athlete. The coach should make the return-to- play decision because he knows the athlete best.

A

You are organizing a station-based preparticipation examination for your 350 athletes before the start of the academic year. Your team physician, a physician assistant, a nurse from student health services, and the members of your athletic training staff will be conducting the examinations. The athletic training students and team managers have also agreed to assist as needed. Based on the limited number of personnel, whom should you assign to conduct the urinalysis station? A. Athletic training student B. Nurse C. Physician assistant D. Certified athletic trainer E. Physician

A

You are performing an isokinetic test for knee extension at 60° per second. You note flattening of the middle of the curve. What should you conclude? A. Decreased torque production in the middle of the range secondary to pain B. Normal-shaped curve for testing this muscle group at this velocity C. Muscular fatigue noted in the middle to end of the range D. Altered biomechanics at the beginning and end of the range resulting in excessively high torque production E. Failure of the hamstrings to engage in reciprocal inhibition

A

You are performing lateral glides of the patella to address your patient's lateral glide deficit and assist in improving his knee flexion range of motion. How should you position the patient to administer this treatment? A. Supine with the knee extended B. Supine with the knee flexed 25° C. Supine with the knee flexed between 25° and 45° D. Seated with the knee flexed between 0° and 70°

A

You are reviewing dictation from a physician's clinic and hear the following information: HEENT: EOMI, PERRLA. Which of the following best illustrates how you would transcribe this information into a SOAP note? A. In the objective section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat-extraocular muscles intact; pupils equal, regular, react to light, accommodation B. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat-extraocular muscles intact; pupils equal, regular, react to light, accommodation C. In the objective section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat- equal occlusion of mandible intact; patient excited, reactive, resistant to Likert assessment D. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat--equal occlusion of mandible intact; patient excited, reactive, resistant to Likert assessment E. In the assessment section: Head, ears, eyes, nose, and throat-early onset myopic insufficiency; patient educated regarding referral for lens assessment

A

You are treating an athlete for an acute low back injury with pulsed ultrasound. The athlete's mother wants to know why you are not using pulsed shortwave diathermy, as she received that treatment when undergoing physical therapy for a back injury and had great results. How might you respond? A. "My research of current academic resources and scholarly literature does not support the efficacy of nonthermal shortwave diathermy." B. "If you can get me the parameters your therapists used, we can try it." C. "I am not as familiar with that treatment protocol so we will stick with a treatment I am comfortable using." D. "Diathermy has many more contraindications and precautions that need to be taken into consideration compared with ultrasound, so I think it is safer to use ultrasound."

A

You are working with a pediatric patient who has been diagnosed with lateral tibial torsion. You are educating the child and the mother about common sitting postures that may contribute to the condition. Which posture would you recommend to the parent that the child should be coached to avoid? A. Sitting with knees fully flexed and toes pointing away from the body B. Sitting with knees fully flexed and great toes touching, like child's pose in yoga C. Cross-legged in Indian style position with ankles crossed D. Cross-legged with ankles resting against the opposite knee

A

You have just implemented your budget for the upcoming year. What is the next step in the budgeting process? A. Evaluate the effectiveness of the budget by determining what is and is not working in the budget process. B. Plan the budget based on the goals and objectives of your program. C. Gather data and analyze feedback from staff and other participants. D. Present the budget in a clear and concise manner to appropriate administrators. E. Build consensus on the proposed budget and provide possible alternatives to budget decisions.

A

You receive a call from your team physician alerting you that the female equestrian athlete you had referred to him has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. You decide it is important to counsel the athlete on the impact of the injury on her disease. Which statement is an accurate representation of the effect that injury may have on glycemic control? A. Athletes with type 1 diabetes appear to have an exaggerated glycemic response to trauma. B. Injury does not affect an athlete with type 1 diabetes any differently than an athlete without type 1 diabetes. C. Athletes with type 1 diabetes are at an increased risk for infection. D. Athletes with type 1 diabetes, even those with poorly controlled blood glucose, will demonstrate fracture healing at a similar rate to athletes without diabetes.

A

You are completing pre-participation physical examinations. You are interpreting body mass. One method of interpreting body mass is to use the actuarially based height-weight tables developed by life insurance companies. What are the limitations of these tables? Select all that apply. A. Do not take into consideration quality of life B. Use body frame estimates that have not been validated C. Are developed from single ethnicity data D. Do not take into consideration body composition E. Categories not based solely on obesity-related deaths F. Data can be applied only to a limited age range G. Do not take into consideration gender

A, B, C, D, E, F

The boys' cross country team is competing at a course in a large state park. While warming up, a runner is stung by a bee and almost immediately begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms indicative of anaphylaxis. The runner does not have a history of bee allergies or other allergies and so does not have an epinephrine autoinjector. What actions should be taken to manage this patient? Select all that apply. A. Remove bee stinger as soon as possible. B. Activate emergency medical services (EMS). C. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs). D. Apply a compression wrap over the area of the sting, starting distally and wrapping proximally. E. Administer supplemental oxygen if patient is experiencing respiratory difficulty. F. Provide patient with two doses of standard dosage over-the-counter anti-inflammatory medication such as ibuprofen. G. Position patient supine with feet elevated at first indication of cardiovascular symptoms such as hypotension. H. Ensure an automated external defibrillator (AED) is readily available. I. Encourage patient to move the limb or body part where the bee stinger entered the skin. J. Place patient in a comfortable position.

A, B, C, E, G, H, J

Splenic injuries are the most common intra- abdominal organ injury in sports. Which of the following are signs and/or symptoms of splenic injury? Select all that apply. A. Abdominal rebound along with guarding B. Syncope C. Dyspnea D. Hypotension E. Abdominal pain with or without referral pain to the left shoulder F. Nausea and vomiting G. Abdominal distention H. Sciatica I. Presyncope J. Abdominal tenderness

A, B, D, E, G, I, J

What may be included in a comprehensive treatment plan for an athlete diagnosed with herpes zoster? Select all that apply. A. Over-the-counter antipruritics B. Prescription for valacyclovir C. Prescription for terbinafine D. Over-the-counter analgesics E. Over-the-counter antitussives F. Prescription for famciclovir

A, B, D, F

Acute bacterial meningitis is a rapidly progressing and potentially life-threatening illness. Patients presenting with signs and symptoms of acute bacterial meningitis should be immediately referred to a health-care provider. What are the "red flags" for this serious condition? Select all that apply. A. Headache with increasing severity B. Cervical rigidity C. Low-grade fever (typically <102°F) D. Positive Kehr sign E. Positive Brudzinski's sign F. Malaise, muscle aches, photophobia, and irritability G. Rapid progression of small petechiae under the skin

A, B, E, F, G

A female ice hockey player comes to the athletic training clinic complaining of an unquenchable thirst and frequent urination. Before referring her to the school health center you obtain a urine specimen for urinalysis. What are the action steps for conducting a dip-stick urinalysis? Select all that apply. A. Provide the athlete with a specimen container. B. Dip the reagent strip in the specimen for 1 second, ensuring urine impregnates all test pads. C. Dip the reagent strip in the specimen for 10 seconds, ensuring urine impregnates all test pads. D. Dip the reagent strip in the specimen and stir for 5 to 10 seconds. E. Tap the reagent strip on the side of the container, ensuring that urine does not flow from one pad to another. F. Instruct the athlete on how to provide a midstream urine specimen. G. Place the reagent strip on a flat surface with the pads facing up. H. Put on gloves. I. If leukocytes are abnormal, wait 1 additional minute and recheck results. J. Provide the athlete with the reagent strip and give instructions on providing a specimen on the strip. K. Wait 1 minute, then compare results to the label. L. Wait 5 minutes, then compare results to the label. M. Wait 1 minute, wrap the reagent strip in a paper towel or absorbent gauze, and compare results to the label. N. Check the expiration date on the reagent strips.

A, B, E, F, G, H, I, K, N

A ballet dancer presents to your sports medicine clinic complaining of pain in the anterior transverse arch radiating to the toes and the plantar aspect of her right foot. She also reports experiencing intermittent numbness and paresthesia in the digits. After gathering a complete medical history, your initial differential diagnosis includes intermetatarsal neuromas. What physical examination finding can lead to a clinical diagnosis of intermetatarsal neuromas? Select all that apply. A. A positive Mulder sign B. Compression of metatarsal heads by squeezing the transverse arch replicates the symptoms C. Relief of symptoms by applying linear compression to metatarsal heads D. A positive Cotton test E. Palpable nodule between the involved metatarsal heads F. Observable redness and palpable increase in tissue temperature between the involved metatarsal heads G. Palpable tenderness of webspace between involved metatarsal heads H. A positive plantar percussion test I. Injection of lidocaine produces temporary relief of symptoms

A, B, E, G, H, I

You have just been hired as the head athletic trainer at a junior college. You have numerous administrative tasks to complete in the 2 months between now and when student athletes report for preseason training. Your athletic director has suggested you consider leasing rather than purchasing a piece of capital equipment you have requested. What are the suggested advantages of leasing? Select all that apply. A. Lower initial cost B. Decreased risk of obsolescence C. Lower overall costs D. No required calibration or inspection E. Lower interest rates on loan F. Possible tax advantages G. No cost associated with repair H. Increased user safety

A, B, F, G

A venue-specific emergency action plan (EAP) should identify the person responsible for documenting the events of the emergency situation. What are the reasons for documenting these events? Select all that apply. A. Continuity of care B. Identification of educational deficiencies C. EP modifications and improvements D. Research and statistical review E. Necessary component of the medicolegal record F. Equipment purchase justification

A, C, D, E

The Sport Concussion Assessment Tool 5th Edition (SCAT5) is a standardized tool for evaluating concussions designed for use by physicians and licensed health-care professionals. This document includes a detachable page with concussion injury advice for the person monitoring the concussed athlete. What does this document recommend the concussed athlete avoid? Select all that apply. A. Driving a car B. Consuming caffeine-containing beverages C. Consuming alcohol D. Exercising E. Screen time, if it worsens symptoms F. Sleeping more than 6 hours G. Taking aspirin and anti-inflammatory medications

A, C, D, E, G

An athlete who develops cellulitis due to an infection spreading through the dermis and subcutaneous tissue should immediately be referred to a health-care professional who can evaluate the infection and prescribe the appropriate antibiotic therapy. What signs and symptoms indicate cellulitis? Select all that apply. A. Smooth and ill-defined border B. Tissue necrosis C. Fever D. Wound dehiscence E. Diminished sensation F. Pallor G. Pain H. Tight, glossy, swollen appearance of the skin I. Edema J. Increased tissue temperature

A, C, D, G, H, I, J

After conducting an assessment of your patient, you have elected to use electromyography (EMG) biofeedback for muscular reeducation. When you share this decision with your clinic supervisor, he asks about the efficacy of this therapeutic modality. Which of the following statements regarding the efficacy of EMG biofeedback is correct? Select all that apply. A. The use of EMG biofeedback for neuromuscular reeducation is clinically well accepted. B. When used for neuromuscular reeducation, EMG biofeedback is most beneficial when incorporated during the later stages of the patient's program when functional activities are introduced. C. The surface electrodes used with EMG biofeedback are most sensitive to superficial muscles and may affect the unit's accuracy in detecting the muscle's raw signal. D. The clinical benefits of EMG biofeedback are supported through multiple high-quality published research studies. E. When using EMG biofeedback the signal produced can vary between subjects and within the same subject based on electrode placement, electromagnetic noise, and tissue variability.

A, C, E

When designing a new sports medicine facility or renovating a preexisting one the overall space requirement needs to be calculated. Which of the following factors influence the space requirements of a sports medicine facility? Select all that apply. A. Amount and kinds of equipment needed B. Proximity to parking C. Number and qualifications of staff D. Number of clients to be served E. Building floor housing facility F. Type of services to be offered G. Projected growth of program H. Potential for revenue generation

A, C, E, F, G

Which of the following statements demonstrate correct use and removal of gloves as personal protective equipment? Select all that apply. A. Grasp one glove with the other gloved hand and remove the glove turning it inside out. B. When wearing gloves, it is safe to touch any surfaces. C. After removing one glove, place the contaminated glove in the palm of the currently gloved hand. D. When removing the second glove, grasp the palmar side of the glove with the free hand and take it off. turning it inside out. E. Discard any gloves that have holes, were previously used, or are old and discolored. F. Dispose of contaminated gloves in a biohazard container. G. Wash hands immediately after removal of gloves.

A, C, E, F, G

During the spring season, you are counseling your football players regarding nutrition. A football player asks about the advantages of taking vitamin and mineral supplements. What actions should you take to counsel this athlete on vitamin and mineral supplements? Select all that apply. A. Taking supplemental vitamins and minerals will not give him additional energy for playing football. B. If he is seeking to increase muscle mass and improve his recovery time between workouts, he should take a vitamin B complex supplement. C. If he desires to take a vitamin and mineral supplement, it should be in the form of a multipurpose vitamin and mineral supplement instead of individual vitamins or minerals. D. If he is feeling tired during or after workouts, he should take an iron supplement. E. Herbal supplements are natural and are not considered drugs, so they are safer than other nutritional supplements. F. Even though playing football increases his energy needs and his vitamin and mineral needs, he should be meeting all these needs by consuming a balanced diet.

A, C, F

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommendations, teens should receive which of the following immunizations, provided that they do not have any health problems whereby administration is contraindicated, by the time they are 19? Select all that apply. A. Tetanus and diphtheria/tetanus, diphtheria and pertussis (Td/Tdap) B. Shingles C. Pneumococcal D. Meningococcal E. Measles, mump, and rubella (MMR) F. Human papillomavirus (HPV) G. Hepatitis B (HB) H. Varicella Hepatitis A J. Flu

A, D, E, F, H, K

As part of your equipment fitting and issuing procedures, you require each player to sign a statement confirming he or she understands the National Collegiate Athletic Association Guidelines regarding the Mandatory Protective Equipment required for playing football. According to the NCAA, all players must wear which of the following mandatory equipment? Select all that apply. A. Soft knee pads covered by pants with knee pad and pants covering the knee B. Neck rolls C. Gloves D. Jersey E. Helmets with face masks secured by 4- or 6-point chin strap F. Shoulder pads with double cantilevered caps G. Quarterbacks must wear rib protectors H. Hip pads with tailbone protectors I. Thigh guards J. Intraoral mouthpiece of a readily visible color with Food and Drug Administration-approved base material that covers all upper teeth K. Cleats with no more than a ¾-in. spike L. Pants

A, D, E, H, J, L

For most activities, both the aerobic system and the anaerobic system are required to function simultaneously. Place the letter corresponding to the exercise characteristic beside the appropriate metabolic system in the table. A. Training should occur at least three, but no more than six, times per week B. Used primarily in speed and power sports C. Duration of activity is 10 seconds to 2 minutes D. Requires carbohydrate and fat metabolism to generate adenosine triphosphate (ATP) E. Stored ATP followed by glycogen breakdown in the muscle cells provides energy F. Lower risk of injury for sedentary individuals, older adults, and pediatric athletes G. Intensity occurs at 60% to 90% of maximum heart rate H. A by-product of energy metabolism is lactate

Aerobic: A, D, F, G Anaerobic: B, C, E, H

A collegiate freshman cross country athlete you are treating for Achilles tendinosis complains of loss of appetite, difficulty sleeping, fatigue, and a significant decrease in her performance compared with the previous season. What condition might you suspect? A. Homesickness and depression B. Staleness and overtraining C. Burnout D. Malingering

B

A football referee collapses while running up the sideline during a game. He is not breathing and does not have a pulse. The automated external defibrillator (AED) does not detect a shockable rhythm, and two-person cardiopulmonary resuscitation is initiated with the use of a bag-valve mask. What is the recommended technique for hand placement to secure the best possible seal? A. Jaw thrust B. E-C C. Two hand assisted D. Mandibular lift

B

According to the American Academy of Pediatrics Guidelines for Sports Participation, which of the following athletes should be recommended for clearance to participate? A. An athlete recently diagnosed with carditis wishing to participate in lacrosse B. An athlete with atlantoaxial instability wishing to participate in cross country C. An offensive lineman with one kidney D. An athlete with an enlarged spleen wishing to participate in swimming E. An athlete with an enlarged liver wishing to participate in basketball

B

An Amateur Athletic Union basketball player is completing a rehabilitation program to address his bilateral Osgood-Schlatter disease. What exercises should this athlete avoid because they will exacerbate his symptoms? A. Resisted terminal knee extension B. Closed kinetic chain knee flexion beyond 90° of flexion C. Prone full-range hamstring curls D. Ouadriceps setting E. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching

B

An athlete presents at preparticipation examinations with an enlarged spleen. For which sport would this athlete be eligible to participate? A. Football B. Golf C. Soccer D. Lacrosse

B

An employee is complaining of having to work back- to-back weekends and several long days and becomes angry on being scheduled to work an upcoming holiday. Which component of role strain is this employee demonstrating? A. Role conflict B. Role incongruity C. Role ambiguity D. Role overload E. Role incompetence

B

During an ankle evaluation the athletic trainer notes the athlete is able to invert and dorsiflex the ankle through a partial range of motion against gravity. How will the athletic trainer grade this test on a 0-10 manual muscle test scale? A. The athletic trainer grades this test as a 4. B. The athletic trainer must position the athlete in an antigravity position and retest to confirm grade. C. The athletic trainer must position the athlete in the horizontal plane and retest to confirm grade. D. The athletic trainer grades this test as a 2. E. The athletic trainer grades this test as a 5.

B

In which anatomic position are the rotator cuff muscles in their optimal length-tension relationship? A. With the humeral head in 90° of abduction and maximal external rotation B. With the glenoid fossa angled 30° from the frontal plane C. With the humeral head in 90° of abduction D. With the glenoid fossa perpendicular to the sagittal plane E. With the glenoid fossa angled 10° from the frontal plane and the humeral head abducted 10°

B

The Sports Medicine Program where you work recently developed a new protocol for triaging patients. After their appointment, each patient is asked to complete a five-question pencil-and-paper questionnaire to determine his or her level of satisfaction with the new triaging protocol. What process can you use to determine reliability of the questionnaire you are using to assess your new triage protocol? A. Determine the interrater reliability by asking patients to complete the questionnaire twice, both times administered by the same office worker. B. Determine intrasession reliability by asking patients to complete the questionnaire immediately after their appointment and then again 30 minutes later. C. Determine intrarater reliability by having patients complete the questionnaire twice before leaving the office, once when the questionnaire is administered by a female office worker and another time when the questionnaire is administered by a male office worker. D. Determine internal consistency by asking patients to complete the questionnaire immediately after their appointment and then again 3 months later.

B

To determine the diagnostic accuracy of a newly designed physical examination test, researchers calculate the test's sensitivity. Which statement regarding test sensitivity is correct? A. Sensitivity is also known as the "true negative" rate. B. Sensitivity is calculated as true positives/(true positives + false negatives). C. Sensitivity describes the test's ability to detect patients who do not have the disorder. D. Sensitivity is calculated as true negatives/(true negatives + false positives). E. Sensitivity is also known as the "diagnostic gold standard."

B

To gather research evidence to aid in answering your clinical question about the effectiveness of microcurrent in the treatment of chronic plantar fasciitis, you use the Physiotherapy Evidence Database (PEDro). What information does this database provide? A. Abstracts of systematic reviews that have been assessed for quality B. Systematic reviews and clinical trials in the field of physical therapy that are focused on rehabilitation C. Articles that are cited most frequently D. Only Cochrane Reviews related to physical therapy that are focused on rehabilitation

B

What is the simplest way for a clinician to determine if the treatment he or she is providing a patient is meeting its intended goals? A. Use a functional assessment tool before the first treatment session and after the last treatment session. B. Identify the status of the injury before and after the treatment. C. Ask the patient to complete a questionnaire to review all signs and symptoms at each treatment session. D. Compare the treatment to a scholarly research study using the same treatment intervention.

B

What screening should occur before administering any treatment to the cervical spine? A. Spinal segment hypermobility B. Vertebral artery insufficiency C. Blood pressure D. Upper quarter screen

B

When creating your emergency action plan (EAP), what information should be included for each specific venue? A. Emergency vehicle transportation, emergency equipment, location of lightning safe shelters B. Accessibility to emergency personnel, communication systems, emergency equipment C. Name and location of nearest emergency care facility, number of stairs between floors, availability of emergency transportation D. Location of lightning safe shelters, policy for activating emergency transportation, communication systems

B

When discussing a home exercise program with an athlete for whom English is a second language, what strategies can you use to determine if the athlete understands your instructions? A. Speak slowly and loudly to make it easier for the athlete to understand the instructions. B. Provide pictures of the exercises and ask the athlete to demonstrate them before leaving the clinic. C. Explain the exercises to the athlete's roommate and let the roommate monitor the athlete. D. Translate the exercise instructions into the athlete's primary language.

B

Which is the most potent agent regulating respiration? A. Oxygen concentration of the blood B. Carbon dioxide levels at the breathing center in the brain C. Lactic acid levels in the blood D. Glucose levels in the blood E. Oxygen levels in the hypothalamus

B

Which observation would lead you to believe an athlete has functional as opposed to structural scoliosis? A. Scoliosis is observed during erect posture and during forward trunk flexion. B. Scoliosis is observed during forward trunk flexion and disappears during erect posture. C. Scoliosis is observed during erect posture and disappears during forward trunk flexion. D. Scoliosis is observed during erect posture and disappears during trunk extension. E. Scoliosis is observed during trunk extension and disappears during erect posture.

B

Which of the following assessment tools can best assist in determining if the therapeutic interventions in your treatment plan have been effective in decreasing your patient's ankle joint effusion? A. Handheld dynamometer B. Volumetric measurement C. Lower extremity functional scale D. Goniometer

B

Which of the following demonstrates the order of bony palpation from proximal to distal? A. Peroneal tubercle, cuboid, third cuneiform, styloid process at base of the fifth metatarsal B. Calcaneus, sustentaculum tali, talar head, navicular tuberosity, first cuneiform C. Sinus tarsi, dome of the talus, second cuneiform, navicular, third metatarsal D. Medial calcaneal tubercle, first cuneiform, navicular tubercle, first metatarsal, medial sesamoid of the great toe E. Calcaneus, talar head, navicular, sustentaculum tali, sinus tarsi, first cuneiform

B

Which of the following joints and associated ligaments are involved in the injury commonly referred to as a shoulder separation? A. Sternoclavicular joint; anterior and posterior sternoclavicular ligaments, costoclavicular ligament, and interclavicular ligament B. Acromioclavicular joint; acromioclavicular ligament, and conoid and trapezoid ligaments C. Glenohumeral joint; superior, middle, and inferior glenohumeral ligaments and coracohumeral ligaments D. Acromioclavicular joint; costoclavicular, acromioclavicular, and coracoclavicular ligaments E. Glenohumeral joint; coracohumeral and superior and posterior glenohumeral ligaments

B

Which of the following would be considered a long- term rehabilitation goal? A. Four weeks from today's treatment session, the athlete will have full elbow flexion. B. The athlete will have full strength in all elbow joint muscles at discharge. C. At the next treatment session, the athlete's pain will decrease from a 7 to a 6 on the numeric pain scale. D. In 6 months, the athlete will have a biceps brachi manual muscle testing grade of 4 out of 5. E. In 3 months, the athlete will begin functional exercises.

B

While performing Allen's test the athletic trainer notes that the radial pulse has disappeared. What do these findings imply? A The test is indicative of thoracic outlet syndrome whereby the sternocleidomastoid is compressing the subclavian artery. B. The test is indicative of thoracic outlet syndrome whereby the pectorals minor is compressing the neurovascular bundle. C. The test is indicative of brachial plexus pathology whereby the anterior and middle scalene muscles are compressing the subclavian artery. D. The test is indicative of brachial plexus pathology whereby the sternocleidomastoid is compressing the neurovascular bundle. E. The test is indicative of shoulder impingement whereby the costoclavicular structures of the shoulder are compressing the brachial artery.

B

While reviewing an athlete's injury report, you note his diagnosis is an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint. How should the mechanism for this injury be documented in the injury report? A. In the objective section, document that the athlete stated that his arm was cocked to throw the football when he was hit. B. In the subjective section, document that the athlete reports a mechanism of shoulder abduction and external rotation. C. In the subjective section, document that the athlete states he fell on an outstretched arm. D. In the objective section, document that you determined that he has pain when the arm is forced into horizontal adduction and external rotation. E. In the subjective section, document that you determine he has limited internal rotation and abduction.

B

You are developing a hand rehabilitation program for a professional billiards player. Which of the following therapeutic exercises would most effectively strengthen the palmar and dorsal interosseous muscles? A. Abduction/flexion of the digits using a resistance web B. Abduction/adduction of the digits using resistance provided by rubber bands C. Wrist flexion exercises holding a dumbbell weight D. Wrist extension exercises using resistance provided by an exercise band E. Extension of the digits using resistance provided by surgical tubing

B

You are working a road race when an older man is brought into the medical tent with a large lower leg abrasion that is bleeding profusely and is difficult to control. The patient shares a list of the medications he is currently taking. Which of the following medications is likely contributing to the extensive bleeding? A. Ibuprofen B. Coumadin C. Lopressor D. Claritin

B

You are working with a patient with acute back pain and researching the efficacy of various interventions. You review a study on the use of acute lumbopelvic manipulation to relieve acute low back pain. The reference article has a Level Il validation. What does this imply about this treatment intervention? A. The study is prospective in nature using a variety of patients and clinicians to evaluate impact on clinical practice. Clinicians can use the results in a variety of settings with confidence that it will improve patient outcomes. B. The study is prospective in nature with a variety of patients and clinicians, and the intervention can be used with confidence in a variety of settings. C. The study is prospective in nature and uses similar patients and clinicians. The results are best used in settings similar to those in the research. D. The study is retrospective in nature or is a new original research project. The results should not be used exclusively until further validation can be conducted.

B

You elect to utilize the SCATS (Sport Concussion Assessment Tool) to establish baseline data. Which portion of the SCATS assesses cognitive function? A. Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) B. Standardized Assessment of Concussion (SAC) C. Maddocks score D. Balance Error Scoring System (BESS)

B

You are the athletic trainer assigned to your high school's soccer team. During a game, you see your goalie attempt to make a diving save and misjudge The distance to the goalpost. His head slams into the goalpost as the rest of his body hits the ground, where he lies motionless. When you arrive at the athlete's side, you see he is lying prone on the field with his head turned to the right. He is not moving and appears to be unconscious. What actions should you take to efficiently assess the athlete's ABCs? Select all that apply. A. While you provide motion restriction to the head and neck, instruct your assistant and two coaches in rolling the athlete onto his back. B. Tap the athlete on his shoulder and, in a loud and confident voice, ask the athlete if he can hear you. C. Place your hand on the athlete's upper back and look and feel for chest movement associated with breathing. D. Remove the athlete's gloves and pinch his fingers noting the speed in which his skin color returns to red. E. Count the number of breaths this athlete takes in 20 seconds and multiply this number by 3. F. Using your first two fingers, place pressure over the carotid artery and count the number of pulses in 20 seconds. G. Apply an ice pack to the athlete's posterior neck to manage potential cervical spine swelling.

B, C, D

A basketball player receives a hard blow to the abdominothoracic area while driving to the hoop. After completing your initial and off-site assessment, you determine the athlete's condition does not warrant immediate referral, but you want to monitor his symptoms. Therefore, the athlete returns with you to the court to watch the last 30 minutes of practice. At the end of practice, you decide to conduct a follow-up assessment. What questions are now appropriate to ask the athlete to gather follow-up information? Select all that apply. A. What's wrong? B. How are you feeling? C. You look like you are sweating. Are you hot? D. Have you had any change in the abdominal pain you've been feeling? E. Do you have pain anywhere else? F. Are you having any difficulty breathing? G. Can you get into a comfortable position? H. Do you feel you'll be able to get enough sleep tonight for tomorrow's game? I. Do you feel faint, light-headed, or nauseous? J. Do you feel any pain in your chest? K. Did you hear or feel a pop or crack in your chest? L. Have you emptied your bladder today?

B, C, D, E, F, G, I, J

As the glenohumeral joint flexes, what scapulothoracie motion occurs? Select all that apply. A. Depression B. Upward rotation C. Elevation D. Retraction E. Protraction F. Downward rotation

B, C, E

To address the adhesions and trigger points your patient is feeling in her patella tendon, you are including in her treatment plan the manual therapy technique illustrated in the photo (lateral massage over the patellar tendon). Which of the following statements is accurate regarding this treatment? Select all that apply. A. This massage technique is referred to as petrissage. B. There are two basic types of this massage, the one shown in the photo and circular friction massage. C. The technique may produce a temporary analgesic effect after treatment. D. The technique takes advantage of the tissue stretching phenomenon known as creep. E. The technique is indicated for the treatment of trigger points, postsurgical scars, and tissue adhesions. F. This massage technique is referred to as friction massage. G. The technique is similar to petrissage except it addresses fascia instead of muscle. H. The technique is used to facilitate local blood perfusion. I. The technique uses slow, deep pressure to stretch the tissues. J. The deep pressure applied to the tissue during this treatment evokes mechanical changes in the tissue, leading to the development of functional scar tissue.

B, C, E, F, H, J

A coach contacts you to inform you one of his players is returning from a visit to her pediatrician with a diagnosis of nonbullous impetigo. What are the typical signs and symptoms of this condition that you might note on examination of this athlete? Select all that apply. A. Patient is usually febrile B. The face is one of the most common lesion sites C. Pruritic red papules around hair follicles D. Localized lymphadenopathy E. Honey-colored or yellow crusted lesions F. Deep, firm, and painful erythematous papules G. Erythematous areas H. Small, pea-shaped blister-like lesions I. Closed comedones J. Smooth, dome-shaped papules with a central punctum K. Purulent discharge from erupted lesions L. Pruritic lesions M. Most lesions cluster on hands and feet

B, D, E, G, H, K, L

Which of the following therapeutic treatments provide pain relief through both primary and secondary pain control techniques? Select all that apply. A. Thermal ultrasound B. Intermittent compression C. Sensory-level electrical stimulation D. Cervical traction E. Cryokinetics F. Moist heat G. Lumbar traction H. Noxious-level electrical stimulation I. Continuous passive motion

B, D, E, G, I

In communications with medical and allied health professionals, it is important to use standard medical terminology and nomenclature. Common spatial ad temporal gait terminology is used in describing and documenting a patient's walking and running gait. Which of the following gait terminologies are correctly, used? Select all that apply. A. Step length is measured from the point of contact of one foot until that same foot contacts the surface. B. Step width is the mediolateral distance between successive points of contact of contralateral feet. C. Cadence is the distance walked per unit of time, such as meters per minute. D. Swing time is the total amount of time both limbs are in the swing phase during a gait cycle: E. Foot angle is the line of the foot relative to the line of progress. F. Stride length is the linear distance from surface contact of one limb to surface contact of the contralateral limb. G. Stance time is the amount of time a single limb is in contact with the surface.

B, D, G

A baseball coach who is 6 weeks status post rotator cuff repair is rehabilitating in your athletic training facility. To begin today's treatment, you are assessing the coach's glenohumeral joint active range of motion. What muscles contribute to glenohumeral joint internal rotation? Select all that apply. A. Infraspinatus B. Teres major C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis E. Supraspinatus F. Biceps brachii G. Pectoralis major H. Latissimus dorsi I. Posterior deltoid J. Anterior deltoid

B, D, G, H, J

There are differences between managers and leaders. Which of the following characteristics, traits, or actions are commonly demonstrated by leaders? Select all that apply. A. Persistence B. Imagination C. Analytical ability D. Decision-making ability E. Readiness to take risks F. Creativity G. Intuitive H. Role oriented I. Inspiring

B, E, F, G, I

What are the National Collegiate Athletic Association participation return to play criteria for a wrestler diagnosed with primary herpes simplex virus? Select all that apply. A. Completion of at least 48 hours (2 days) of an appropriate antibiotic therapy B. Absence of systemic signs and symptoms such as fever and malaise Absence of lesions with a firm, adherent crust D. Active lesions must be covered to allow for participation E. No new lesions or blisters within the past 72 hours F. No moist or exudative lesions G. No dry lesions H. Completion of at least 120 hours (5 days) of an appropriate systemic antiviral therapy

B, E, F, H

A 14-year-old skateboarder falls while performing a trick and externally rotates his foot. The anterior tibiofibular ligament is intact, but you suspect he may have sustained a fracture. Which fracture is most likely based on this information? A. Salter-Harris V fracture of the distal tibia B. Talar dome fracture C. Tillaux's fracture D. Fibular avulsion fracture E. Jones' fracture

C

A swimmer with excessive kyphosis secondary to weak scapular musculature presents with bilateral impingement syndrome. She has been progressing through a comprehensive rehabilitation program focused on scapular stabilizers for 60 minutes each day. How can you encourage correct posture throughout the day as she performs her activities of daily living? A. Fit the athlete with a figure-eight clavicle brace. B. Encourage the athlete to wear her backpack on both shoulders and to tighten the straps. C. Apply a tape pattern to the upper back to provide constant proprioceptive feedback. D. Encourage the athlete to keep both feet flat on the floor when seated. E. Instruct the athlete to place her mattress on the floor for sleeping.

C

After her second year, the head athletic trainer for your school's football program recognizes the need to reduce the incidence of skin conditions among players and develops an educational and personal hygiene program that drastically minimizes the number of skin conditions over the next three seasons. What type of leadership has this athletic trainer exhibited? A. Transactional B. Experimental C. Transformational D. Informational

C

At a high school sporting event, which health-care provider is responsible for the care of spectators who require emergency care during an event? A. The athletic trainer covering the event B. The school nurse C. Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) covering the event D. The health-care professional designated by the emergency action plan (EAP)

C

Before beginning your patient's treatment program, you ask him to sign an "Informed Consent for Treatment" form. How should you explain the purpose of this form to the patient? A. The form serves as a waiver of the patient's right to pursue claims of negligence against you as the clinician. B. The form serves as a waiver of the patient's right to pursue claims of liability against the facility where you are providing care. C. The form protects you, the treating clinician, from the patient pursuing claims of criminal battery against you. D. This form protects the facility where you are providing care by prohibiting patients from refusing any form of treatment, therapeutic modality, or rehabilitation.

C

During the rehabilitation process, an athlete is exhibiting the outward signs of excessive talking, argumentativeness, inappropriate joke telling, and hyperactivity. What is the most appropriate reaction by the athletic trainer? A. Pity the athlete and excuse the behaviors. B. Tell the athlete that the behavior is abnormal. C. Allow the athlete to vent emotions. D. Reprimand the athlete for inappropriate behavior. E. Speak with teammates and encourage them to counsel the athlete.

C

In most states, how long must paper medical records be maintained before they can be destroyed? A. 3 years B. 5 years C. 7 years D. 10 years

C

To perform an anterior drawer test to assess the integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament, the patient should be sitting at the end of the examination table with the knee flexed. The examiner uses one hand to stabilize the lower leg and the other hand cups the calcaneus. In how many degrees of plantar flexion should the examiner place the ankle betore drawing the calcaneus and talus anteriorly? A. 90° B. 450 C. 15° D. 0°

C

What does AOASM stand for? A. American Orthopedic Academy of Sports Medicine B. Association of Organization and Administration in Sports Medicine C. American Osteopathic Academy of Sports Medicine D. Academy for Orthopedic Assistance in Sports Medicine E. Alliance for Outreach and Advancement of Sports Medicine

C

What is indicated when a first responder carries an AMT classification? A. Trained to provide only basic emergency care B. Trained to provide care to patients at scene of accident and transport patients by ambulance to the hospital under medical direction C. Trained to provide care to patients that includes the administration of intravenous fluids, use of manual defibrillators, and application of advanced airway techniques D. Trained to provide the most advanced prehospital care by administering drugs orally and intravenously, interpreting electrocardiograms, performing endotracheal intubations, and using monitors and other complex equipment

C

What is the most professionally productive relationship between a coach and your school's team physician? A. There should be mutual respect and awe between the two. B. There should be mutual admiration along with a healthy degree of suspicion between the two. C. There should be mutual confidence and trust between the two. D. There should be mutual professional courtesy along with some skepticism between the two.

C

What is the recommended intensity for cardiovascular training during a continuous workout? A. 30%-45% of maximum heart rate B. 45%-60% of maximum heart rate C. 70%-85% of maximum heart rate D. 90%-100% of maximum heart rate

C

What should be the primary focus of the initial phase of a rehabilitation program? A. Restoring passive range of motion B. Restoring active range of motion C. Protecting injured tissues D. Facilitating muscular strength E. Restoring proprioceptive function

C

What should you calculate if you want to determine the incidence of injuries for last season's men's soccer team, per the number of individual athlete exposures? A. Incidence of injury B. Injury prevalence C. Injury exposure rate D. Injury likelihood ratio

C

When completing a manual muscle test for the middle, deltoid muscle, in what position should the athlete he placed if he is unable to hold the test position agains gravity? A. Semirecumbent, with examiner standing anterior 1 the athlete B. Seated, with the examiner standing at the side of the athlete C. Supine, with the examiner standing caudally D. Seated, with the examiner standing behind the athlete E. Semirecumbent, with the examiner standing behind the athlete

C

When working with preadolescent and adolescent athletes, what system can assist you in determining developmental levels of adolescence with characteristics of each level for both boys and girls? A. Salter-Harris classifications B. Stages of life table C. Tanner stages D. Skeletal maturity measurements

C

Where is the common peroneal nerve palpable? A. At the peroneal tubercle B. At the neck of the fibula C. In the popliteal fossa D. At the base of the fifth metatarsal E. At the lateral malleolus

C

Which four palpable bony prominences define the carpal tunnel? A. Radial styloid, navicular, ulnar styloid, and hook of the hamate B. Radial styloid, base of the first metacarpal, base of the fifth metacarpal, and ulnar styloid C. Pisiform, tubercle of the navicular, hook of the hamate, and tubercle of the trapezium D. Tubercle of the navicular, lunate, pisiform, and ulnar styloid E. Lister's tubercle, tubercle of the trapezium, capitate, and base of the fifth metacarpal

C

Which of the following are components of an emergency action plan (EAP)? A. Roles of first responders, venue directions, and emergency contact information for each athlete B. Names and contact information for staff and administration personnel, date of most recent EAP practice session, list of available emergency equipment C. Emergency personnel, modes of communication, and venue directions or site map D. Location of personal protective equipment, roles of first responders, method of activating emergency medical services (EMS).

C

Which of the following calcaneal alignments is most commonly observed in patients with pes planus? A. Calcaneal varus B. Calcaneal inversion C. Calcaneal valgus D. Calcaneal pronation E. Calcaneal supination

C

Which of the following is an example of an athletic trainer assuming an interpersonal management role? A. Sharing information with staff about new departmental drug testing policies B. Resolving conflict between an athletic trainer and a coach C. Establishing relationships with administrators, team physicians, and other referral sources D. Negotiating with a supplier for discounts on goods and services

C

Which of the following might result in the best compliance of patients with a home exercise program? A. Give patients a list of exercises and let them choose five they like the best. B. Require patients to bring someone with them and ask patients to e-mail you each time they complete their assigned exercises. C. Give patients a handout in addition to verbal instructions and limit exercises to approximately three. D. Provide a calendar with the exercises to be completed each day and a chart that someone else in the house must sign off on indicating completion.

C

Which of the following physiological processes results in diabetic coma? A. Depressed fat metabolism that cannot supply energy when glucose is scarce B. The accumulation of insulin in the bloodstream without carbohydrate on which it can act C. The increased concentration of hydrogen cations in the blood arising from ketone bodies D. Poor circulation to the brain because of the buildup of fatty deposits (arteriosclerosis) in the arterial tree E. Oversecretion of insulin

C

Which type of documentation scheme organizes information around each specific complaint? A. Focus charting B. Charting by exception C. Problem oriented medical record D. Narrative charting

C

Which type of material is often used in sport protective devices because of its ability to absorb force and then rebound to its original shape quickly? A. Felt B. Open-cell foam C. Closed-cell foam D. Thermo-moldable plastic

C

Which type of pain is sharp and well localized? A. Myotomic B. Sclerotomic C. Dermatomic D. Neurogenic

C

You are approached by an athlete who recently learned she has a family history of Wolff-Parkinson- White syndrome. She is asymptomatic but is confused and has questions regarding this cardiac arrhythmia condition. You decide to begin your explanation of this condition by explaining normal cardiac activity. Which of the following paths constitutes the normal route for conduction of electrical activity through the heart? A. Sinoatrial node to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to Purkinie's fibers to ventricular musculature B. Sinoatrial node to atrial musculature to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to bundle branches to ventricular musculature C. Sinoatrial node to atrial musculature to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to bundle branches to Purkinie's fibers to ventricular musculature D. Sinoatrial node to atrioventricular node to atrioventricular bundle to bundle branches to Purkinje's fibers E. Sinoatrial node to atrioventricular bundle to atrial musculature to atrioventricular node to bundle branches to ventricular musculature to Purkinje's fibers

C

You are initiating a comprehensive core stabilization program for an athlete with chronic low back pain attributed to muscle imbalances and overall kinetic chain dysfunction. A comprehensive evaluation has been conducted on this athlete. Which of the following best describes the suggested guidelines for this core stabilization program? A. The program should emphasize dynamic stabilization, while minimizing force production and force reduction. B. Program exercises should progress from high forces to low forces and from specific to general. C. The program should begin in the most challenging environment the athlete can control. D. Program variables of range of motion and body position should be altered. while the amount of control and speed of execution should remain constant. E. The quantity of exercises the athlete can accomplish should be considered over the quality of the exercises when progressing the athlete.

C

You are providing an education session for parents and coaches of the local Little League organization. During the question and answer period, a parent asks if it is safe for her 13-year-old son to be throwing breaking pitches if he is not having any discomfort and only throwing a few of those pitches each inning. How would you respond? A. Breaking pitches should not be introduced until a minimum of 16 years of age. B. Adolescent pitchers should not throw breaking balls until they reach puberty or 16 years of age, whichever comes first. C. If the athlete is using correct form and not experiencing any pain, it should be safe for him to continue to throw limited breaking pitches. D. By 13 years of age, it is safe to introduce all types of pitches and continue to increase the frequency and volume of those pitches every 2 to 3 weeks.

C

You are using a 10-point patient-based outcome measure to determine improvements in your patient's condition following a therapeutic intervention. For this assessment tool you apply a minimally clinically important change (MCID) of 2 points. What information is provided by applying an MCID? A. Provides the smallest detectable difference in scores, accounting for measurement error B. Provides the smallest relevant postintervention assessment score C. Provides the smallest amount of change, in points, that is important or beneficial to the patient D. Provides the smallest amount of change, in points, that indicates resolution of pathology

C

You are working with a patient who has been experiencing pain symptoms for more than 6 months. The pain does not seem to be associated with an ongoing disease, but the patient now reports difficulty sleeping due to the pain and symptoms consistent with depression. How would you categorize this patient's condition? A. Nociceptive chronic pain B. Chronic fatigue syndrome C. Neuropathic chronic pain D. Psychosocial pain syndrome

C

You receive a call from your team physician alerting you that the female equestrian athlete you had referred to him has been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. The athlete reports to the athletic training facility and tells you she ate lunch approximately 2 hours ago. She just checked her blood glucose level, and the glucometer reading was 203 mg/dL. How would you interpret these results? A. The blood glucose level indicates impaired glucose tolerance. B. The blood glucose level indicates normal physiological glucose management. C. The blood glucose level indicates uncontrolled diabetes. D. The blood glucose level indicates the athlete is hypoglycemic.

C

After gathering a medical history and conducting a physical examination of your patient's painful knee joint, you determine one of his problems is decreased passive knee flexion attributed to decreased joint mobility/joint play of his tibiofemoral joint. Based on this examination finding, which of the following therapeutic procedures could be included in this patient's treatment plan? Select all that apply. A. Intermittent compression B. Biofeedback C. Thermal ultrasound D. Active and passive range of motion exercises E. Joint mobilization F. Proprioception exercises G. Biofeedback H. Capsule stretch exercises

C, D, E, H

Your patient presents with a history of unilateral ankle pain and weakness. After assessing ankle joint active, passive, and resisted range of motion, you note a significant deficit in ankle joint dorsiflexion force production of his involved ankle. Exercises focused on what primary and secondary movers should be included in your patient's treatment plan to address this deficit? Select all that apply. A. Peroneus longus B. Peroneus brevis C. Peroneus tertius D. Tibialis anterior E. Tibialis posterior F. Gastrocnemius G. Soleus H. Extensor digitorum longus I. Flexor digitorum longus J. Extensor hallucis longus K. Flexor hallucis longus

C, D, H, J

This weekend you are a member of a team of healthcare professionals providing medical care for participants in a large-scale half-marathon road race. The event's emergency action plan (EAP) and established treatment protocols state that runners diagnosed with exertional heatstroke will be cooled, monitored, and then transported to a local emergency care facility. To comply with this protocol using best practices, what equipment and supplies must be available? Select all that apply. A. Tympanic thermometer B. Portable outdoor shower C. Tub for cold water immersion treatment D. High number of premade ice packs E. Oral thermometer F. Tub containing wet ice towels G.High number of disposable temporal thermometer strips H. High number of cold-spray canisters I. Retal thermometer J. High number of towels

C, I, J

A clinic administrator is attempting to improve the revenue stream and has implemented a clinic-wide policy that all treatment and rehabilitation protocols used in the clinic must be based on scholarly evidence. When questioned about this decision, what rationale might the administrator provide? A. Use of evidence-based medicine will improve patient care being provided in the clinic B. Use of evidence-based medicine will enhance the reputation of the clinicians C. Use of evidence-based medicine will allow continuous evaluation of treatment protocols D. Use of evidence-based medicine will improve third-party reimbursement potential

D

A competitive weightlifter has begun taking a statin drug to address his elevated blood cholesterol level. Which of the following foods should you recommend this athlete not consume so as to avoid a drug-food interaction with certain statin drugs? A. Saltwater fish B. Dairy products C Blueberries D. Grapefruit juice

D

A field hockey player reports experiencing diarrhea during games if she eats within 6 hours of game time. Which of the following nutritional strategies might minimize this condition? A. Not consuming dairy products for 48 hours before the game B. Increasing carbohydrate intake for 24 to 48 hours before the game C. Increasing coffee and tea intake beginning when she wakes up on game day D. Limiting fiber intake in the 24 hours before the game

D

A member of your football team recently signed to play with a Division I university. You receive a request for a summary of the athlete's past medical history from the athletic trainer at the university. How should you best manage this request? A. Provide the requested information as the university athletic trainer will also be providing healthcare to this athlete. B. Call the athlete's mother and ask her permission to share the information. C. Notify the athletics director that the information has been requested and ask for guidance on what information you should release. D. Call the athlete and obtain written permission to release the records.

D

A patient's medical record indicated he has been provided a written prescription for Percocet, an oxycodone combination drug, to assist in pain management. In which Drug Enforcement Administration category or schedule of controlled substances is this drug? A. Schedule V B. Schedule IV C. Schedule III D. Schedule II E. Schedule I

D

A skeletally immature, Tanner stage 2, 12 year old male lacrosse player has sustained an anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) rupture. The physician recommends a treatment plan that includes delaying reconstructive surgery, starting a rehabilitation program, and using a functional brace for sports participation. The player's mother inquires why the physician decided to not reconstruct her son's ACL. How will you explain the physician's treatment plan to the athlete's mother? A. "According to your son's reported chronological age and physiological age, he is very near skeletal maturity, so it is best to wait until he is skeletally mature when conventional adult ACL reconstruction can be performed." B. "According to your son's physiological age, determined using the Tanner stages, he is not emotionally mature enough to handle ACL reconstruction." C. "According to your son's reported chronological age, he is a child and therefore not eligible for AC rehabilitation until he reaches adolescence." D. "According to your son's stage of skeletal maturity, he is classified as prepubescent, so one appropriate treatment plan option is to delay ACL reconstruction until his physiological age is classified as more mature."

D

A skier reports to your athletic training facility following a hard fall during a giant slalom race. He is complaining of pain around the area of the hypothenar eminence, so after observing this area you begin palpating the soft tissue. What muscles comprise the hypothenar eminence? A. Flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor digitorum profundus, and lumbricals B. Abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis C. Abductor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis brevis, and tendon of the flexor pollicis longus D. Abductor digiti minimi, opponens digiti minimi, and flexor digiti minimi brevis E. Extensor digiti minimi, adductor digiti minimi, and dorsal interossei

D

A soccer player has sustained a traumatic blow to the lower leg in the absence of a shin guard. He is unable to dorsiflex and invert the ankle. Which of the following conclusions would you make? A. The player has sustained an injury to the lateral compartment; integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed. B. The player has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment; integrity of the peroneal artery should be assessed. C. The player has sustained an injury to the superficial posterior compartment; integrity of the posterior tibial artery should be assessed. D. The player has sustained an injury to the anterior compartment; integrity of the anterior tibial artery should be assessed. E. The player has sustained an injury to the superficial posterior compartment; integrity of the dorsalis pedis artery should be assessed.

D

A tennis player is in the late stages of rehabilitation for impingement syndrome and has returned to practice drills. The player reports feeling weakness at ball contact during the serve. Which of the following rehabilitation exercises would be most appropriate to address this weakness? A. Closed kinetic chain weight shifting on a Swiss ball B. Closed kinetic chain multiplanar slide board exercises C. D1 proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern emphasizing the flexion portion of the pattern D. D2 proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern emphasizing the extension portion of the pattern E. Internal and external rotation with an exercise band at 90° of shoulder abduction

D

An athlete with a functionally unstable ankle is completing a neuromuscular control rehabilitation program. Today the athlete has completed the bilateral balancing exercises on an unstable surface with visual input. Which of the following is most appropriate to follow this exercise in the progression? A. One-foot balance on a rocker board with eyes open B. One-foot balance on hard floor with eyes closed C. One-foot balance on hard floor with eyes open and therapist providing perturbation D. Two-foot balance on a foam pad with eyes closed E. Two-foot balance on a foam pad with eyes closed and therapist providing perturbation

D

Blood pressure is assessed using a stethoscope and correctly sized sphygmomanometer. With the sphygmomanometer snugly secured around the patient's arm and the diaphragm of the stethoscope placed over the brachial artery, the cuff is inflated to greater than 200 mm Hg and then gradually deflated. During deflation the examiner listens for the Korotkoff sounds while watching the aneroid dial. Which of the following Korotkoff phase descriptions is accurate? A. The first two consecutive beats heard as the cuff deflates are phase I and indicate diastolic pressure. B. The knocking, crisp, high-pitched sounds are phase I and indicate systolic pressure. C. The swooshing sound is phase IV and results from the turbulent blood flow through the partially occluded artery. D. The disappearance of the last audible sound is phase V, also known as the fifth Korotkoff sound, and defines diastolic pressure.

D

Following an injury, an athlete is exhibiting the characteristics of the bargaining stage of the Kübler- Ross classic model of reaction to death and dying. Which stage is this athlete most likely to enter next? A. Acceptance B. Denial C. Anger D. Depression E. Recovery

D

In normal alignment, which spinous process aligns with the vertebral border of the spine of the scapula? A. C8 B. T1 C. T2 D. T3 E. T4

D

In order to maintain the safety of the patient and others, which of the following conditions would need to be resolved before a patient should be allowed to participate in aquatic rehabilitation? A. Fear of the water B. Ear infection C. Surgical scar that is 14 days old D. Urinary tract infection

D

Utility standards are used during an employee's performance evaluation to ensure that the evaluation is useful to workers, employers, and others who need to use the information. Which of the following is a utility standard? A. Interaction with those being evaluated B. Access to personnel evaluation reports C. Formal evaluation guidelines D. Defined uses E. Service orientation

D

What is the most common chronic bloodborne pathogen infection in the United States? A. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) B. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) C. Hepatitis B virus (HBV) D. Hepatitis C virus (HCV)

D

When completing a shoulder evaluation, which muscle of the rotator cuff is unable to be palpated? A. Supraspinous B. Infraspinous C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis E. Biceps

D

When evaluating a patient with low back pain, which of the following conditions should be screened for, as it may exacerbate the condition and result in poor outcomes? A. Incontinence B. Celiac disease C. Gastritis D. Depression

D

When practicing evidence-based medicine, a clinician's expertise and experiences are important. The other important factor is the information provided in published research. Several databases are available to assist clinicians in identifying research related to their clinical questions. What search engine uses a strength of evidence sorting process to organize results so that stronger, more relevant, and more recent sources are presented nearer the top of the search results? A. Database of Abstracts of Reviews of Effects (DARE) B. PubMed C. Cochrane Library D. Turning Research Into Practice (TRIP)

D

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the Moll and Wright method for assessing spinal range of motion with a tape measure? A. It is more difficult for a clinician than using a goniometer. B. It is ineffective as an outcome measure because it is difficult to replicate. C. It requires the patient to be able to maintain an end range position for an extended period of time. D. It is relative to the individual, and normative values have not been determined.

D

Which of the following people should be included in a worksite ergonomic risk assessment? A. Worker's direct supervisor, stockholders in the company, and risk management coordinator B. Worker, director of human resources, and athletic trainer C. Facility nurse, director of human resources, and athletic trainer D. Worker, athletic trainer, and occupational therapist E. Safety engineer, risk management coordinator, and director of facility security

D

Which of the following physiological responses is most associated with the inflammatory phase of the healing process? A. Histamines are released from the leukocytes causing vasodilation and decreased cell permeability. B. Cytokines are responsible for margination of the leukocytes along the cell walls. C. Fibroblasts synthesize an intercellular matrix. D. Leukocytes phagocytize most of the foreign debris in the area subsequent to clot formation. E. Granulation tissue occurs with the breakdown of the fibrin clot.

D

Which of the following tests assesses cranial nerve Il? A. Lateral and vertical gaze B. Double simultaneous stimulation of the trigeminal nerve C. Symmetric smile D. Visual acuity E. Pupil reaction to light

D

Which structure returns deoxygenated blood to the heart? A. Aortic arch B. Pulmonary artery C. Pulmonary vein D. Superior and inferior vena cava E. Left ascending coronary artery

D

You are observing a swimmer complete forward shoulder flexion during a physical examination. How should the scapula be moving after the furst 60° of forward flexion of the glenohumeral joint? A. The scapula should be upwardly rotating, moving 2° for every 1° of glenohumeral motion. B. The scapula should be elevating, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion. C. The scapula should be elevating, moving 2° for every 1° of glenohumeral motion. D. The scapula should be upwardly rotating, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion. E. The scapula should be abducting, moving 1° for every 2° of glenohumeral motion.

D

You are providing directions for use of ice and compression for an acute ankle injury to an athlete and his parents until you can follow-up with the athlete the next day. Which of the following guidelines would best meet your treatment goals of decreasing tissue temperature and providing compression to minimize edema accumulation? A. Place an ice bag on the ankle, wrap it on with the elastic wrap provided, and elevate above the heart. B. Place a dry washcloth on the ankle, place an ice bag on top of the cloth, and wrap it on with the elastic wrap. C. Wrap the ankle with the elastic wrap, put the ice bag on top of the wrap, and elevate above the heart. D. Wrap the ankle with a wet elastic wrap, put the ice bag on top of the wrap, and elevate above the heart.

D

You elect to have a patient complete a McGill Pain Questionnaire before his or her rehabilitation appointment. Which type of patient-reported outcome (PRO) scale is being used? A. Generic instrument B. Disease-specific instrument C. Site-specific instrument D. Dimension-specific instrument

D

A swimmer at a high school for which you are the athletic trainer has been diagnosed with Wolff- Parkinson-White syndrome. Which statement best characterizes this condition? A. Currently the leading cause of sudden death in athletes B. Characterized by a prolonged P-R interval and a shortened QRS complex C. Results in atrial pre-excitation and bradycardia due to accessory pathway electrical activity D. Results in delayed atrial excitation and tachycardia due to an electrical accessory pathway E. Characterized by ventricular pre-excitation and tachycardia due to electrical conduction over accessory pathways

E

An athlete has been prescribed tetracycline to treat acne. Which of the following foods should this athlete avoid because they will decrease the body's ability to absorb tetracycline? A. Alcoholic beverages B. Coffee and caffeinated sodas C. Grapefruit D. Root vegetables E. Dairy products high in calcium

E

In performing Renne's test, an athlete squats, flexing the knee to 30°. As the athlete returns to the start position of the knees in full extension, how does the function of the iliotibial band change? A. The iliotibial band is now able to assist in hip abduction. B. The iliotibial band acts to internally rotate the tibia. C. The iliotibial band creates posterior tibial translation. D. The iliotibial band assists in superior patellar glide. E. The iliotibial band goes from being a knee flexor to being a knee extensor.

E

Preparticipation skin checks for wrestlers determine participation eligibility. With which of the following dermatological conditions may a wrestler compete, provided that the active lesions are adequately covered? A. Community-acquired methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (CA-MRSA) B. Herpes simplex virus C. Impetigo D. Furuncles E. Tinea corporis

E

Which ligaments comprise the lateral ligaments of the elbow? A. Radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament, anterior oblique band, posterior oblique band B. Transverse oblique band, annular ligament, accessory collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament C. Radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament, accessory collateral ligament, anterior oblique band D. Anterior oblique band, posterior oblique band, transverse oblique band, annular ligament E. Annular ligament, accessory collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, lateral ulnar collateral ligament

E

Which therapeutic technique would best be used in the treatment of a patient's joint malalignments and complex kinetic chain dysfunction? A. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation B. Joint mobilization techniques C. Core stabilization training D. Continuous passive motion E. Muscle energy techniques

E

You are the athletic trainer assigned to your high school's football game. While covering a kickoff return, one of your players attempts to tackle the ball carrier. You see him lower his head, drive the top of his helmet into the ball carrier's numbers, and then fall to the ground, where he lies motionless. Inability of the athlete to perform which of the following actions would indicate that the T1 myotome is involved and necessitate immediate referral? A. Resisted elbow flexion B. Resisted elbow extension C. Resisted wrist flexion D. Resisted shoulder abduction E. Resisted finger abduction

E

You are treating a swimmer for impingement syndrome. When initiating the rehabilitation program, the flexibility of which muscle groups should be assessed and emphasized because they are prone to develop tightness? A. Rhomboids and levator scapula B. Serratus anterior and supraspinatus C. Sternocleidomastoid and teres minor D. Upper trapezius and triceps E. Pectoralis minor and scalenes

E

Match the following signs and symptoms to the appropriate cold-related illness by placing the letter corresponding to the sign/symptom in the appropriate row in the table. A. Red or cyanotic lesions B. Dry, waxy skin C. Decreased core body temperature D. Cold, hard, pale tissue E. Skin fissures or maceration F. Bradycardia G. Impaired fine motor skills H. Progressive tissue necrosis I. Increased temperature

Hypothermia: C, F, G Frostbite: B, D, H Chilblain: A, I Immersion Foot: E

During the spring season, you are counseling your football players regarding nutrition. The starting tailback has asked your advice on carbohydrate intake before exercise and information on replenishing glycogen reserves so he can refuel for the following day's intense training. Using the table, assign each of the foods listed as a food to be consumed immediately after exercise (within 15 minutes) or food that should be consumed in the hours following his exercise session. Not all foods will be used. A. Chicken breast with mashed potatoes B. Fruit snack C. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich D. Chocolate candy-coated peanuts E. Hamburger and french fries F. Veggie pizza G. Chocolate milk H. Kid-friendly cereal with skim milk I. Pasta and vegetables J. Turkey submarine on wheat bread K. Banana L. Brownies

Immediate: B, D, G, H, K Delayed: A, C, F, I, J

Even though athletic trainers do not prescribe antibiotics, they should be able to explain to their patients the general process by which an antibiotic works in the body. Using the table, assign each of the following classes of antibiotics to its mechanism of action. A. Sulfonamides B. Macrolides C. Cephalosporins D. Tetracyclines E. Fluoroquinolones F. Aminoglycosides G. Penicillin H. Clindamycin

Inhibition of Bacterial Cell-Wall Synthesis: C, G Inhibition of Bacterial Protein Synthesis: B, D, F, H Inhibition of Bacterial DNA Synthesis: E Inhibition of Folic Acid Synthesis: A

A soccer goalie comes out of the box to retrieve a rebounded shot. The attacking forward seizes the opportunity to shoot and his foot makes direct contact with the goalie's face resulting in a contusion and laceration just inferior to the goalie's right zygomatic arch. Application of direct pressure and elevation fails to slow the bleeding. Indirect pressure, the use of pressure points, is now indicated. For this athlete, which of the following pressure points would best assist in controlling bleeding? Select all that apply. A. Dorsalis pedis B. Popliteal C. Femoral (anterior thigh) D. Femoral (femoral triangle) E. Radial F. Ulnar G. Brachial H. Axillary I. Subclavian J. Carotid K. Facial L. Temporal

J, K

Braces for preventing and treating ankle sprains offer several advantages over taping. There are a variety of commercially available braces, which can be classified into four categories based on design and function: lace-up, semirigid, air/gel bladder, and wrap. Using the table, assign each of the brace characteristics to one of the four brace categories. A. The brace consists of a medial and lateral stirrup attached through a hinge to either a heel plate or a foot plate. B. The anterior aspect of the brace contains eyelets in a longitudinal pattern. C. The brace provides moderate support by limiting inversion, eversion, and rotation while allowing for normal plantar flexion and dorsiflexion. D. The brace is used most often during the acute phase of treatment to provide compression and moderate support by limiting only inversion and eversion. E. The brace is an off-the-shelf brace that provides mild support in treatment of inversion and eversion ankle sprains. F. Medial and lateral thermoplastic stirrups are lined with various adjustable materials and connected with an adjustable nylon strap that is worn across the plantar surface of the heel. G. The brace provides moderate support and limits inversion, version, plantar flexion, and dorsiflexion.

Lace-Up: B, G Semirigid: A, C Air/Gel: D, F Wrap: E

Outcomes assessment is an evaluation process designed to provide objective, measurable evidence that the care provided by the athletic trainer was effective in improving the patient's functional ability. Outcomes assessment is important for athletic trainers working in professional, collegiate, and high school settings. The three most common outcomes assessment models are patient chart documentation, randomized clinical trials, and patient surveys. What are the strengths of each method? Determine the strengths of the three most common assessment models from the list and assign them to the assessment model in the table. Answers will be used only once and not all answers will be used. A. Easy to administer B. Self-reported data can be unreliable C. Required for Medicare reimbursement D. Provides outcomes for specific patients E. Useful for assessing patient satisfaction F. Controls variables G. Useful for examining a broad range of issues H. Time intensive I. Useful for examining very specific problems

Patient Chart Documentation: C, D Randomized Clinical Trials: F, I Patient Surveys: A, E, G

What is the C8 dermatome?

Ring finger, pinky, medial forearm

Today you notice that the patient you have been treating since his knee surgery is developing a limp, which you attribute to his recent transition from partial to full weight-bearing. To slow down his walking gait and provide some unweighting of the healing knee joint, you decide to provide this patient with a cane. Which of the following steps should you take to fit him for a cane and instruct him in using it when ambulating? Select only the steps that are appropriate. Place your selections in the order in which you would perform them. Some of the steps listed may not be used. A. With the patient standing, measure the distance between the floor and the crease of the patient's wrist. B. Instruct the patient to hold the cane on the uninjured side and use a three-point gait to advance the cane 4 to 6 inches ahead of the uninjured foot while simultaneously bearing weight on the injured limb and cane. C. Adjust the cane length by measuring the distance between the floor and the crease of the patient's elbow on the uninjured side of the body. D. Ask the patient to remove his shoes and stand with his feet close together and knees flexed to approximately 20°. E. Inspect the cane ferrule/tip, shaft, and handle to make sure they are clean, functioning, and neither worn out nor defective. F. Instruct the patient to hold the cane on the injured side and use a three-point gait to advance the cane 4 to 6 inches ahead of the injured foot while simultaneously bearing weight on the uninjured limb and cane. G. Ask the patient to wear low shoes similar to the ones he will be wearing when walking and to stand straight with his feet close together. H. Check cane length by ensuring the top of the cane is at the crease in the wrist of the patient's hand on the uninjured side of the body.

Step 1: E Step 2: G Step 3: A Step 4: H Step 5: B