CCNA 2 v5.0 Final Exam 2013
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Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
ICMP message type destination UDP port number
55. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
IPsec
51. Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What is the problem preventing PC0 and PC1 from communicating with PC2 and PC3?
The serial interfaces of the routers are in different subnets.
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
There is no end-to-end addressing.
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device
What is a function of the distribution layer?
interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets
50. Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
ip address dhcp
54. Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
show access-lists / show running-config
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
the cost of that link the type of network link the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
the source MAC address and the incoming port
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
They are used for point-to-multipoint links. They are not associated with a particular VLAN
47. What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
56. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which keyword is displayed on the web browser?
Welldone!
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
speed of convergence scalability
3. Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
store-and-forward switching
49. What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
2. Fill in the blank.
In IPv6, all routes are level " 1 " ultimate routes.
What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
192.168.0.0/22
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
0.0.1.255
match in order which link state routing process occurs on a router
1- Each router learns about its own directly connected networks. 2- Each router is responsible for "saying hello" to its neighbors on directly connected networks. 3- Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link 4- Each router floods the LSP to all neighbors, who then store all LSPs received in a database 5- Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
A cable has not been attached to the port.
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate
A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
48. What benefit does NAT64 provide?
It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame
What caused the following error message to appear? 01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
R1(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1 RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
1.What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Routers send triggered updates in response to a change. Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Switch(config)# no vlan 100
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
The link interface subnet masks must match. The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
The path a static route uses to send data is known. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
access list number between 100 and 199source address and wildcard mask destination address and wildcard mask
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
create a public and private key pair
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?
dynamic NAT
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
Static routes are configured by the use of the "______" global configuration command
ip route
52. A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
4. Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
PkVDixF8sFqTTdayn02uBsb4LMa-g6lDbI7IQ93uRQllP353X4JpQera1VUIVjxSkSOHSygu2yloR6XKuapZ98xqZ0rKssfhsxGMp7XXMnWGD0jLKMMmk3rWk7t6YStoww Refer to the exhibit. What type of route is 172.16.0.0./16?
level 1 parent route
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
native VLAN ID
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
outbound R1 Gi0/1.12
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
permit icmp any any nd-na
