CCNA 200-301 Dumps Full Questions - Exam Study Guide & Free
A. The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor
An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the applic secured in the case of a user's smartphone being lost or stolen?
B. cloud services
Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?
C. A routing instance has flapped.
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?
C. The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.
If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces
If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.)
C. It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site. E. It encourages users to create stronger passwords.
In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
D. route with the lowest administrative distance
R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
C. Internal EIGRP
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table?
A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5
Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)
C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain?
A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3
Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.
Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?
C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
B. It is unreachable and discards the traffic.
Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13.128/25.
Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
C. 0.0.0.0/0
Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
D. 192.168.16.0/27
Refer to the exhibit. Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?
D. route learned through EIGRP
Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
C. default route
Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.
Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict?
C. One secure MAC address is manually configured on the interface.
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the interface that generated the output is true?
B. S2
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?
B. Switch 2 VLAN 110-24586 001a.e3ff.a680
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110? Switch1 VLAN110 -32778 0018.184e.3c00 Switch 2 VLAN 110-24586 001a.e3ff.a680 Switch 3 VLAN 110-28682 0022.55cf.cc00 Switch 4 VLAN 110-64000 0e38.7363.657f
C. SW3
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration becomes the root bridge?
C. SW3
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge? SW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75 SW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97 SW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D SW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19
A. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active C. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
B. 90
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet. E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources
What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)
A. It can be hidden or broadcast in a WLAN D. It is at most 32 characters long.
What are two characteristics of an SSID? (Choose Two)
A. serves as the network aggregation point B. provides a boundary between Layer 2 and Layer 3 communications
What are two characteristics of the distribution layer in a three-tier network architecture? (Choose two.)
C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
C. core
What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?
A. ASCII E. hexadecimal
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two)
A. Passive
When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected?
D. 6
When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?
B. database agent C. address pool
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured? (Choose two)
C. standby
When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
B. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
C. spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
C. in the binding database
Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
B. on the router closest to the client
Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured to support DHCP?
D. Layer 2
Where does wireless authentication happen?
A. control layer and the infrastructure layer
Where is the interface between the control plane and data plane within the software defined architecture?
A. management
Which 802.11 frame type is association response?
B. management
Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
A. Reassociation Request
Which 802.11 management frame type is sent when a client roams between access points on the same SSID?
D. southbound
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?
A. read
Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
D. update
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP?
A. 200
Which HTTP status code is returned after a successful REST API request?
D. FF00::/12
Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
D. FF00::/8
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?
A. : :1
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1?
D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
Which IPv6 address is valid?
B. unique local
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet?
C. object
Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?
A. 0000.5E00.010a
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?
A. NAT pool
Which NAT term is defined as a group of addresses available for NAT use?
B. Platinum
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?
C. PQ
Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?
A. broadband cable access
Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
C. point-to-point
Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?
C. distribution system
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?
D. SAE encryption
Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
C. 802.1x
Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?
C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination
Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?
D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?
B. enable SLAAC on an interface
Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
B. service password-encryption
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch?
D. lldp reinit 5
Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds?
D. show standby
Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group?
D. show ipv6 eigrp events
Which command should you enter to view the error log in an EIGRP for IPv6 environment?
B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route.
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)
B. SNMP
network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?
B. It sends the traffic to VLAN 100.
Refer to the exhibit. How will switch SW2 handle traffic from VLAN 10 on SW1?
C. a dynamic NAT address pool
Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is enabled by this configuration?
C. testing1234
Refer to the exhibit. Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?
D. CRC E. input errors
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)
A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration
. Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
B. Router
. Refer to the exhibit. When PC-A sends traffic to PC-B, which network component is in charge of receiving the packet from PC-A verifying the IP addresses, and forwarding the packet to PC-B?
B. static
. Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1.0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24?
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
162. What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?
D. EIGRP
166. Refer to the exhibit. On R1 which routing protocol is in use on the route to 192.168.10.1?
D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications
258. Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
260. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
264. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
D. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware
427. What describes the operation of virtual machines?
A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?
D. Ethernet WAN
A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?
D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users * Floor 2 has 29 users * Floor 3 has 28 users * Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?
D. late collision
A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
D. software-as-a-service
A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
C. enable sticky MAC addressing
A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
B. configure ports in a black hole VLAN
A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. a DHCP Relay Agent
A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
B. Option B R1#enable R1#configure terminal R1(config)#ip domain-name cisco.com R1(config)#crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client. Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?
D. LACP
A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
D. Clock set
A network analyst is tasked with configured the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to 12:00am. Which command should be used?
B. ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B
A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?
A. Device(Config)#lldp run
A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
C. Full
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode?
C. switchport port-security violation restrict
A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?
C. metric
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?
C. broadcast
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF by default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?
C. point-to-point
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
C. point-to-point
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2?
D. enable Band Select
A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
B. True
AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting
A. Enable the allow AAA Override
After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?
A. deploy load balancers E. configure additional security policies
After you deploy a new WLAN controller on your network, which two additional tasks should you consider? (Choose two)
D. Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10
An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?
D. user awareness
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?
A. Enable LLDP globally
An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled. Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?
B. Administratively shut down the ports. C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99.
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)
C. enable configure terminal ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30 access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool interface g1/1 ip nat inside interface g1/2 ip nat outside
An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 . Which configuration should be used?
A)interface fastethernet0/1switchport priority extend cos 7
An engineer is configuring data and voice services to pass through the same port. The designated switch interface fastethernet0/1 must transmit packets using the same priority for data when they are received from the access port of the IP phone. Which configuration must be used?
B. configure IEEE 802.1q
An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
C. AES
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?
D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
A. configure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides E. configure both interfaces with the same area ID
An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. ipv6 address 2001:db8::700:3:400F:572B
An engineer must configure the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B on the serial0/0 interface of the HQ router and wants to compress it for easier configuration. Which command must be issued on the router interface?
B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto
An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
A. Add the switch in the VTP domain with a lower revision number
An engineer needs to add an old switch back into a network. To prevent the switch from corrupting the VLAN database which action must be taken?
B. switch(config)#lldp port-description
An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
D. Client Band Select
An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?
B. switchport mode dynamic desirable
An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
C. logging trap 4
An engineering team asks an implementer to configure syslog for warning conditions and error conditions. Which command does the implementer configure to achieve the desired result?
A. hypervisor
An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor .What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
D. infrastructure-as-a-service
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?
C. forwarding D. learning
Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric
By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses?
B. manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP
How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?
C. Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.
How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?
A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports B. to determine the hardware platform of the device C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices D. all of the above
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used?
B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
A. TCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
D. a software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network
How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management
How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller
How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?
C. by differentiating voice and video traffic
How does QoS optimize voice traffic?
D. Port blocking
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?
A. It uses SAE for authentication.
How does WPA3 improve security?
A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points
How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
C. It floods the frame to all interfaces except Fa0/1.
How does a switch process a frame received on Fa0/1 with the destination MAC address of 0e38.7363.657b when the table is missing the address?
A. The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port
How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain
How is the native VLAN secured in a network?
D. low-latency queuing
In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?
D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?
C. CDP operates normally,but it cannot provide IP address information for that neighbor
In a CDP environment, what happens when the CDP interface on an adjacent device is configured without an IP address?
D. data plane
In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
C. Data
In software-defined architecture, which place handles switching for traffic through a Cisco router?
A. There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
C. The router will forward the packet via Serial2.
Refer to the exhibit. How will the router handle a packet destined for 192.0.2.156?
A. DHCP
On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?
D. Option D Router1(config)#access-list 99 permit 192.168.100.32 0.0.0.31 Router1(config)#ip nat inside source list 99 interface gi1/0/0 overload Router1(config)#interface gi2/0/1.200 Router1(config)#ip nat inside Router1(config)#interface gi1/0/0 Router1(config)#ip nat outside
Refer to Exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?
B. 90
Refer to exhibit. What Administrative distance has route to 192.168.10.1 ?
A. It is a broadcast IP address.
Refer to exhibit. Which statement explains the configuration error message that is received?
B. It discards the packets.
Refer to me exhibit. Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?
A. There is a native VLAN mismatch.
Refer to the Exhibit. After the switch configuration the ping test fails between PC A and PC B Based on the output for switch 1. Which error must be corrected?
D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
Refer to the exhibit Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that the other users are experiencing connection failure?
B. The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same
Refer to the exhibit Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
A. Option A int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode active C. Option C int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode passive
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two )
C. native VLAN mismatches
Refer to the exhibit. A frame on VLAN 1 on switch S1 is sent to switch S2 where the frame is received on VLAN 2. What causes this behavior?
B. Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13 What is the next step in the configuration?
A. access-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
C. interface FastEthernet 0/1 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk interface FastEthernet 0/2 channel-group 1 mode desirable switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport mode trunk
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct configuration for SW2?
D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102
Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)
C. Option C R1 iproute 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 GigabitEThernet0/1 R2 ip route 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?
B. Option B Config t ip access-list extended wwwblock deny tcp any host 10.30.0.100 eq 80 permit IP any any int vlan 20 ip address-group wwblock in
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP. All other computers must be able to access the web server. Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
C. Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design?
C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32
Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
D. Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.
Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?
C. Switch 3 0C:0E:15:1D:3C:9A
Refer to the exhibit. After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
A. The area numbers on R1 and R2 are mismatched
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the give configurations to R1 and R2 you notice that OSPFv3 fails to start. Which reason for the problem is most likely true ?
D. configure the default gateway
Refer to the exhibit. After you apply the given configuration to arouter, the DHCP clients behind the device connot communicate with hosts outside of their subnet. Which action is most likely to correct the problem?
A. Option A ip access-list standard 99 permit 10.100.100.0 0.0.0.256 deny 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Refer to the exhibit. An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?
C. SW3
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
A. inbound on router A Fa0/0
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5: access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5 access-list 100 permit ip any any Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?
B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?
C. Option C interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 ! interface gigabitethernet1/3 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 8 switchport voice vlan 9
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?
A. interface gi0/1 no cdp enable
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?
D. R1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234 R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4 R1(config-line)#login local
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?
D. 172.23.104.4
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?
C. ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
B.R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 C.R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the Gi0/0 interface remains in the routing table
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
A. Option A Interface gigabitethernet1/1 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 300 switchport voice vlan 400
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?
B. Add a "permit ip any any" statement at the end of ACL 101 for allowed traffic. C. The source and destination IPs must be swapped in ACL 101.
Refer to the exhibit. An extended ACL has been configured and applied to router R2 The configuration started to work as intended.Which two changes stop outbound traffic on TCP ports 25 and 80 to 10.0.20.0/26 from the 10.0.10.0/26 subnet while still allowing all other traffic? (Choose two)
D. active
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?
C. between zones 3 and 4
Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration?
C. 172.16.5.1
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router?
D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
A. Option A Router A (config)#cdp run Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0 Router A (config)#no cdp enable
Refer to the exhibit. How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol Information to router C?
A. 192.168.14.4
Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.16.1.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?
A. 192.168.2.0 C. 10.0.0.0 D. 172.16.0.0
Refer to the exhibit. If RTR01 is configured as shown, which three addresses will be received by other routers that are running EIGRP on the network? (Choose three)
A. It ignores the new static route until the existing OSPF default route is removed.
Refer to the exhibit. If configuring a static default route on the router with the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.13.0.1 120 command, how does the router respond?
C. router
Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
A. Router R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
C. Branch-3
Refer to the exhibit. Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process. Branch-1 priority 614440 Branch-2: priority 39082416 Branch-3: priority 0 Branch-4: root primary Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?
B. It is flooded out every port except G0/0.
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?
D. Option R3(config)#interface g0/0 R3(config)#ip ospf priority 255 R2(config)#interface g0/0 R2(config)#ip ospf priority 240
Refer to the exhibit. R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?
B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
A. The router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address.
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?
A. longest prefix
Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
C. the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20
Refer to the exhibit. Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?
A. Interface errors are incrementing
Refer to the exhibit. Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?
D. The frame will be forwarded out of all the active switch ports except for port fa0/0.
Refer to the exhibit. The MAC address table is shown in its entirety. The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives at the switch. What two operations will the switch perform when it receives this frame? (Choose two.)
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router. E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.
Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another? (Choose two.)
C. Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1.
Refer to the exhibit. The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration. After testing, workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet.Which action corrects the configuration issue?
A. It inserts the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forwards the frame to Br-2.
Refer to the exhibit. The entire MAC address table for SW1 is shown here: What does SW1 do when Br-4 sends a frame to Br-2?
D. switchport trunk native vlan 67
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
C. Router2(config)#ntp master 4
Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use.
Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1. How is OSPF configured?
B. Router3
Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
C. modify hello interval
Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
B. R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20 R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20 R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
C. 172.16.15.10
Refer to the exhibit. What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
D. The switch discard all ingress ARP traffic with invalid MAC-to-IP address bindings.
Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of this configuration?
E. 193
Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?
C. 10.0.1.50
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
D. The port goes into error-disable state
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1
Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
C. source 192.168.10.10 and destination 192.168.20.10
Refer to the exhibit. When PC 1 sends a packet to PC2,the packet has. Which source and destination IP address when it arrives at interface Gi0/0 on router R2?
A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers
Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?
A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224
Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers?
B) R17# ! no ip domain lookup ip cef ipv6 unicast-routing ! interface FastEthernet0/0 no ip address duplex auto speed auto ipv6 address 2001:DB*:3::201/64 ! no cdp log mismatch duplex ipv6 route 2001:DB8:4::/64 2001:DB8:3::301
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 configuration is required for R17 to successfully ping the WAN interface on R18?
A. VLAN 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?
A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.
Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240
Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP?
B. Change the LACP mode to active
Refer to the exhibit. Which change to the configuration on Switch allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?
D. ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
C. switchport mode dynamic auto
Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?
D. show cdp neighbor
Refer to the exhibit. Which command provides this output?
B. router1(config)#ip route 192.168.202.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.201.2 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which command would you use to configure a static route on Router1 to network 192.168.202.0/24 with a nondefault administrative distance?
D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
B. access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15 access-class 100 in
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
B. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3 D. Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::/64 fd00:12::2
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out D.R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)
A. The security violation counter dose not increment E. The interface drops traffic from unknown MAC address
Refer to the exhibit. Which two events occur on the interface, if packets from an unknown Source address arrive after the interface learns the maximum number of secure MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. 192.168.1.17 B. 192.168.1.61
Refer to the exhibit. Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.) R2#show ip route C 192.168.1.0/26 is directly connected, fastEthernet0/1
A. learned MAC addresses are deleted after five minutes of inactivity C. it has dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
C. The interface is error-disabled. D. The interface dynamically learned two secure MAC addresses.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)
A. there are 20 different network masks within the 10.0.0.0/8 network C. Ten routes are equally load-balanced between Te0/1/0.100 and Te0/2/0.100
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the network environment of router R1 must be true? (Choose two.)
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB. C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)
D. Puppet
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
D. network route
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?
C. 38443
Refer to the exhibit. With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?
B. Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.
Refer to the exhibit.The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. C. It maintains neighbor relationships.
The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)
C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. F. It maintains neighbor relationships
The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)
B. There is a speed mismatch E. The interface is error-disabled
The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
D. The link becomes a trunk port.
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?
A. 1,6,11
Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
D. set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message
What Is a syslog facility?
D. access -distribution - core - distribution - access
What Is the path for traffic sent from one user workstation to another workstation on a separate switch In a Ihree-lter architecture model?
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised
What are network endpoints?
D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway. E. They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network
What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)
C. Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors D. Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function
What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
A. reduced operational costs C. faster changes with more reliable results
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)
C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.
What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
B. Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately C. Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.
What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two)
B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point.
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)
C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point
What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.)
C. moves packets within a VLAN E. makes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
B. runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests C. handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
B. coordinating VTNs D. managing the topology
What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.
What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)
B. Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures. E. Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.
What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)
C. to gather information about the network and devices D. to scan for accessibility
What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)
A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)
C. implement port-based authentication E. shut down unused ports
What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two)
A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routers
What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
D. enables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address E. allows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.
What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
C. Both support runs of up to 100 meters. D. Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.
What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)
A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
B. port security violation
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
B. lowest path cost to the root bridge
What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
D. sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL
What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
D. ingress traffic
What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
A. OpenFlow
What does an SDN controller use as a communication protocol to relay forwarding changes to a southbound API?
D. access to networking equipment and facilities
What does physical access control regulate?
C. An interface line has changed status
What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
B. DNS lookup
What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
B. a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
What is a DHCP client?
D. responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server
What is a DNS lookup operation?
B. It provides the default gateway redundancy on a LAN using two or more routers.
What is a benefit of VRRP?
D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
C. uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client
What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?
B. enables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
C. services are provided by a public, private, or hybrid deployment
What is a characteristic of cloud-based network topology?
D. used without tracking or registration
What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?
A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
D. most widely used API for web services
What is a characteristic of the REST API?
B. It provides shared applications to end users.
What is the function of a server?
A. 1.544 Mbps
What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC
What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades
What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
C. send LWAPP packets to access points.
What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
D. allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel
What is a function of a remote access VPN?
A. It provides a summary of the top 10 global issues.
What is a function of the Cisco DNA Center Overall Health Dashboard?
C. firewall
What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?
C. Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
A. different nonoverlapping channels
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
A. connect wireless devices to a wired network
What is a role of access points in an enterprise network?
A. centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network
What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
A. Both have a 50 micron core diameter
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable?
A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats
What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?
A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
D. on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
B. configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11
What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72?
A. After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type B. After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data C. The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch. D. Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster
What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?
C. higher degree of availability
What is the benefit of using FHRP?
B. 11111100
What is the binary pattern of unique ipv6 unique local address?
B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
D. TCP requires the connection to be established before transmitting data. UDP transmits data at a higher rate without ensuring packet delivery.
What is the difference in data transmission delivery and reliability between TCP and UDP?
A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.
What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
A. It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.
What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?
B. provides direct connections between subscribers
What is the function of a hub-and-spoke WAN topology?
C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?
B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
C. to pass traffic between different networks
What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
D. It reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.
What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
B. Facilities communication between the controller and the networking hardware
What is the purpose of a southbound API in a control based networking architecture?
D. It identifies a WLAN
What is the purpose of an SSID?
A. displaying OSPF-related interface information
What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command?
B. to provide fair queuing for buffered flows
What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers
What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?
C. determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks
What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?
B. They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration.
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks?
B. GRE over iPsec
What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
B. It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required
What must be considered when using 802.11a?
C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other.
Which option best describes an API?
C. Users experience poor wireless network performance.
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?
B. STP
What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?
B. SNMP
What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
C. control and distribution of physical resources
What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
B. control plane
What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
D. REST
What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?
C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server
What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router?
A. default-router
When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route?
D. ASCII
When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?
B. 8
When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII formar?
A. DHCP relay agent
When a client and server are not on the same physical network, which device is used to forward requests and replies between client and server for DHCP?
A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup.
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?
C. IPsec tunnel mode with ESP
When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?
C. IPsec
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A. sent to the port identified for the known MAC address
When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?
D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two)
C. administrative distance
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols?
C. ipv6 address autoconfig
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?
A. transport input telnet ssh
Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH?
C. Show ip DHCP binding.
Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?
C. ipv6 unicast-routing D
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router?
A. ip address dhcp
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?
A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route?
D. show ip ospf database
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. lldp run
Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS ISR?
C. lldp reinit
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?
A. ip helper-address
Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?
D. ntp master
Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server?
A. standby 10 preempt
Which command must you enter to guarantee that an HSRP router with higher priority becomes the HSRP primary router after it is reloaded?
C. switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk
Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?
C. show ipv6 access-list
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router?
B. between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network
Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?
C. preamble
Which component of an Ethernet frame is used to notify a host that traffic is coming?
A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.
Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?
A. no additional config is required
Which configuration command can u apply to a HSRP router so that its local interface becomes active if all other routers in the group fail?
D. Switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
D. Assign a DNS domain name
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
D. Assign a DNS domain name.
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
A. Ansible
Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
D. wireless LAN controller
Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
A. firewall
Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
B. firewall
Which device permits or denies network traffic based on a set of rules?
B. firewall
Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
A. It enables AAA services on the device
Which effete does the aaa new-model configuration command have?
A. CPU ACL
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?
C. IP SLA
Which feature or protocol determines whether the QOS on the network is sufficient to support IP services?
D. NTP
Which feature or protocol is required for an IP SLA to measure UDP jitter?
A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS
Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts
Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
D. rate-limits certain traffic
Which function is performed by DHCP snooping?
A. enforcing routing policies
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
D. service password-encryption
Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?
D. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure
Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
A. WPA2 + AES
Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
D. overload
Which keyword in a NAT configuration enables the use of one outside IP address for multiple inside hosts?
D. debug
Which level of severity must be set to get informational syslogs?
B. lightweight
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?
D. lightweight
Which mode must be set for APs to communicate to a Wireless LAN Controller using the Control and Provisioning of Wireless Access Points (CAPWAP) protocol?
A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?
A. compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.
Which network action occurs within the data plane?
B. 172.28.0.0/16
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
C. control plane
Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
A. forwarding remote client/server traffic
Which networking function occurs on the data plane?
B. EIGRP E. RIP
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols?
A. {"key":"value"}
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash?
B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays
Which option about JSON is true?
D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
Which option is a valid IPv6 address?
C. Option C { "response":{ "taskld":{}, "url": "strring" }, "version": "string" }
Which output displays a JSON data representation?
B. control-plane
Which plane is centralized by an SON controller?
A. access ports
Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?
B. DHCP
Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol
Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?
A. HTTPS
Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
B. FTP
Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server?
A. disk
Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms.
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?
A. to speed up convergence B. to reduce routing overhead E. to confine network instability to single areas of the network.
Which three describe the reasons large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose Three)
D. physical access control
Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication?
B. PortFast
Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?
A. forwarding
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
B. forwarding
Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.
Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true?
D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?
A. The switch must be in VTP server or transparent mode before you can configure a VLAN
Which statement about VLAN configuration is true?
B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol.
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true?
A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses
Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true?
D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?
A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance.
Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?
A. It supports VLSM. . C. It confines network instability to one area of the network. E. It allows extensive control of routing updates. .
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
B. establishing neighbor adjacencies
Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?
C. UplinkFast
Which switch technology establishes a network connection immediately when it is plugged in?
B. 6to4 tunneling
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure?
D. Server Virtualization
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?
A. 802.1x
Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
B. REST API
Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?
A. WSA
Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
D. SNMPv3
Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
A B. one-to-nearest communication model E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.)
A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90.
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.
Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.)
B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
B. CBWFQ C. PQ
Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? (Choose two)
B. 1 C. 1005
Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. asychronous routing C. dual-homed branches
Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)
A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up.
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)
A. anycast C. multicast
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.)
B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two)
D. mismatched hello timers and dead timers E. use of the same router ID on both devices
Which two circumstances can prevent two routers from establishing an OSPF neighbor adjacency? (Choose two.)
B. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active E. interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0
Which two command sequences must you configure on a switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two.)
D. channel-group 10 mode desirable E. channel-group 10 mode active
Which two commands can you use to configure an actively negotiate EtherChannel? (Choose two)
B. task C. playbook
Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)
B. JSON E. XML
Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two)
A. The device Is assigned to the Global site. D. The device Is placed into the Managed state.
Which two events occur automatically when a device Is added to Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)
A. Provide uninterrupted forwarding service. D. Ensure timely data transfer between layers.
Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
A. OSPF area D. OSPf process ID
Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch.
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)
A. to enable intra-enterprise communication D. to conserve global address space
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two)
A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router.
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two)
A. the native VLAN C. the VTP domain
Which two pieces of information about a Cisco device can Cisco Discovery Protocol communicate? (Choose two.)
B. the IP address of the peer to which the clock is synchronized D. whether the clock is synchronized
Which two pieces of information can you determine from the output of the show ntp status command? (Choose two)
C. whether the administrative distance was manually or dynamically configured E. the length of time that a route has been known
Which two pieces of information can you learn by viewing the routing table? (Choose two)
C. Policy-derived provisioning of resources D. Providing a ship entry point for resource provisioning
Which two primary drivers support the need for network automation? (Choose two.)
D. Telnet E. SSH
Which two protocols are supported on service-port interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. Telnet C. HTTP
Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two)
A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.)
A. NTP uses UDP over IP. B. Cisco routers can act as both NTP authoritative servers and NTP clients.
Which two statements about NTP operations are true? (Choose two.)
A. All switches must be configured with the same VTP domain name E. All switches must use the same VTP version.
Which two statements about VTP are true? (Choose two.)
A. The two devices must reside in different autonomous systems B. Neighbors must be specifically declared in the configuration of each device
Which two statements about eBGP neighbor relationships are true? (Choose two)
B. They determine the optimal path between autonomous systems. C. BGP is the current standard exterior routing protocol.
Which two statements about exterior routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.)
A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1.
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.)
A. Enable NTP authentication. D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)
D. SSID E. Profile name
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)
D. The root port
Which type does a port become when it receives the best BPDU on a bridge?
D. private
Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?
B. dynamic multipoint VPN
Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?
C. inside global
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?
D. man-in-the-middle
Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
A. a list of the available IP addresses in a pool
Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
D. global unicast
Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?
C. small and needs to reduce networking costs currently
Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?
C. physical access control
Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
D. unicast messages from a host at a remote site lo a server at headquarters
Which type of traffic Is sent with pure iPsec?
D. AES-256
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode?
C. flexconnect
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?
B. The port priority
Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface?
B. Router IP address
Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration?
C. 0000.5E00.0101
Which virtual MAC address is used by VRRP group 1?
B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined
While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
D. The destination MAC address of the frame is unknown.
Why does a switch flood a frame to all ports?
A. conserve public IPv4 addressing
Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined?
D. Accept: application/json
With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
D. ip address dhcp
You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP address for Internet connectivity.The router needs to obtain the IP address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?
A. Reload the OSPF process.
You have configured a router with an OSPF router ID, but its IP address still reflects the physical interface. Which action can you take to correct the problem in the least disruptive way?
B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2
You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes?
