CCNA 200 301 Question Dump (3)

B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102

13. Refer to the exhibit. A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network 192.168.12.64 0.0.0.63 area 0. After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.) A. FastEthernet0 /0 B. FastEthernet0 /1 C. Serial0/0 D. Serial0/1.102 E. Serial0/1.103 F. Serial0/1.104

D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.

14. A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link. The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem? A. The OSPF area is not configured properly. B. The OSPF area is not configured properly. C. The cost on R1 should be set higher. D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly. E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network. F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.

D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas

15. Refer to the graphic. R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.) A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1. B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3. C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established. D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3. E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance. F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.

C. 172.16.5.1

16. Refer to the exhibit. Given the output for this command, if the router ID has not been manually set, what router ID will OSPF use for this router? A. 10.1.1.2 B. 10.154.154.1 C. 172.16.5.1 D. 192.168.5.3

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

17. Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC? A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved.

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which rule does the DHCP server use when there is an IP address conflict? A. The address is removed from the pool until the conflict is resolved. B. The address remains in the pool until the conflict is resolved. C. Only the IP detected by Gratuitous ARP is removed from the pool. D. Only the IP detected by Ping is removed from the pool. E. The IP will be shown, even after the conflict is resolved.

C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme.

19. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is asked to design a small network with redundancy. The exhibit represents this design, with all hosts configured in the same VLAN. What conclusions can be made about this design? A. This design will function as intended. B. Spanning-tree will need to be used. C. The router will not accept the addressing scheme. D. The connection between switches should be a trunk. E. The router interfaces must be encapsulated with the 802.1Q protocol.

A. longest prefix

28. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1? A. longest prefix B. metric C. cost D. administrative distance

B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.

31. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25? A. Traffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces B. Route 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1. C. Traffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmeteical D. Route 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table

D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

32. Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16? A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance. C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost. D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

A. mode active C. mode passive

33. Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two ) A. mode active B. mode desirable C. mode passive D. mode auto E. mode on

A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

35. Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16? A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. C. It load-balances traffic between all three routes D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

C. SW3

43. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements? A. SW1 B. SW2 C. SW3 D. SW4

C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

45. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two ) A. The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1 B. This is a root bridge C. The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+ D. The spanning-tree mode is PVST+ E. The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

46. Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two) A. RIP route 10.0.0.0/30 B. iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30 C. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30 D. EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32 E. OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

47. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task? A. switchport access vlan 67 B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 67 C. switchport private-vlan association host 67 D. switchport trunk native vlan 67

B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.

50. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem? A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched. B. Router2 is using the default hello timer. C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured. D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

53. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue? A. set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24 B. set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2 C. configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network D. configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

54. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses? A. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240 B. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240 C. 10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224 D. 10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

57. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers? A. R2 is using the passive-interface default command B. R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0 C. R2 should have its network command in area 1 D. R1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.

60. Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface? A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5. B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11 C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1 D. The frame is dropped

C. default route

62. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet? A. floating static route B. host route C. default route D. network route

A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which Command do you enter so that R1 advertises the loopback0 interface to the BGP Peers? A. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 255.255.255.224 B. Network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 C. Network 172.16.1.32 255.255.255.224 D. Network 172.16.1.33 mask 255.255.255.224 E. Network 172.16.1.32 mask 0.0.0.31 F. Network 172.16.1.32 0.0.0.31

B. Router3

70. Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165? A. Router2 B. Router3 C. Router4 D. Router5

A. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active C. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

71. Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.) A. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active B. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode desirable C. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive D. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode auto E. int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode on

B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.

81. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch? A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity. B. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1. C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected. D. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

B.R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 C.R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown

82. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two) A.R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 B.R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 C.R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip address dhcpR1(config-if)# no shutdown D.R2(config)# interface gi0/0R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp E.R1(config)# interface fa0/0R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2

B.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

83. Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24? A.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 B.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 C.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 D.R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C. router

86. Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1? A. DHCP client B. access point C. router D. PC

B.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15access-class 100 in

87. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic? A.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip access-group 100 in B.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15access-class 100 in C.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0ip access-group 100 in D.access-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23 access-list 100 permit ip any any line vty 0 15access-class 100 in

A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch

On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs? A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches

D. route with the lowest administrative distance

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed? A. route with the lowest cost B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP C. route with the shortest prefix length D. route with the lowest administrative distance

D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

A corporate office uses four floors in a building * Floor 1 has 24 users* Floor 2 has 29 users* Floor 3 has 28 users* Floor 4 has 22 users Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration? A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor B. 192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor D. 192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

A. Device(Config)#lldp run

A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped? A. Device(Config)#lldp run B. Device(Config)#cdp run C. Device(Config-if)#cdp enable D. Device(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology

C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1

A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet? A. ip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1 B. ip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 C. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1 D. ip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1

C. point-to-point

A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP. By default which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. port-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. non-broadcast

C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.) A. It allows switches to read frame tags. B. It allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically. C. It maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network. D. It allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface. E. It allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.

C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail. D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two) A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections E. The data can pass through the cladding

A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.

What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management? A. It supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs. B. It supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode. C. It enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment. D. It is designed primarily to provide network assurance.

A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol

What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP? A. TCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol B. TCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol C. TCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol D. TCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol

A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated? A. The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted B. The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value C. The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface D. The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.

What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding? A. Frames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs. B. Frames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table. C. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port. D. Frames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.

A. Passive

When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables LACP only if a LACP device is detected? A. Passive B. Desirable C. On D. Auto E. Active

D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture? A. communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware B. reports device errors to a controller C. generates statistics for network hardware and traffic D. facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol.

Which statement about Cisco Discovery Protocol is true? A. It is a Cisco-proprietary protocol. B. It runs on the network layer. C. It can discover information from routers, firewalls, and switches. D. It runs on the physical layer and the data link layer.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.) A. A new switch has no VLANs configured. B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device. C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains. D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space. E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN. F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

A. OSPF area D. OSPF process ID

Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two) A. OSPF area B. OSPF MD5 authentication key C. iPv6 address D. OSPf process ID E. OSPf stub flag

A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. E. It uses the default administrative distance

Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network. B. It establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network. C. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network. D. It configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4. E. It uses the default administrative distance. F. It is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.

D. private

Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices? A. partner B. open C. public D. private

D. global unicast

Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses? A. multicast B. unique local C. link-local D. global unicast

B. The port priority

Which value can you modify to configure a specific interface as the preferred forwarding interface? A. The interface number B. The port priority C. The VLAN priority D. The hello time

B. Router IP address

Which value is used to determine the active router in an HSRP default configuration? A. Router loopback address B. Router IP address C. Router priority D. Router tracking number

B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two) A. The packets fail to match any permit statement B. A matching permit statement is too high in the access test C. A matching permit statement is too broadly defined D. The ACL is empty E. A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which address and mask combination represents a summary of the routes learned by EIGRP? A. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.240 B. 192.168.25.0 255.255.255.252 C. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.240 D. 192.168.25.16 255.255.255.252 E. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.240 F. 192.168.25.28 255.255.255.252

A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller

How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network? A. Network devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller B. Devices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller C. Devices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller. D. The Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controlle

C. An interface line has changed status

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server? A. A TCP connection has been torn down B. An ICMP connection has been built C. An interface line has changed status D. A certificate has expired.

A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops B. It provides variable latency C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports. D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

D. most widely used API for web services

What is a characteristic of the REST API? A. evolved into what became SOAP B. used for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP C. considered slow, complex, and rigid D. most widely used API for web services

C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode? A. Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC B. FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC C. FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured D. Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

D. No further routing configuration is required.

10. Refer to the exhibit. C-router is to be used as a "router-on-a-stick" to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway. What is true about this configuration? A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router eigrp 123C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ospf 1C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:C-router(config)# router ripC-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 D. No further routing configuration is required.

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network

For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2 B. to allow communication with devices on a different network C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown

A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table? A. it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric B. it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router C. it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric D. it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control? A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets? A. TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery. B. TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost. C. TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing D. TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment? A. Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management B. Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management C. Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options D. Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces

If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface? A. the IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface B. the IP address of the console management interface C. the highest IP address among its active interfaces D. the lowest IP address among its active interfaces E. the priority value until a loopback interface is configured

C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1 B. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 C. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 D. R1# config t R1(config)# ip routing R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1

C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.) A. 5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels. B. 5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point. C. Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels. D. Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point. E. For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.

C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. F. It maintains neighbor relationships

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.) A. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. B. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSP C. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. D. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. F. It maintains neighbor relationships

A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. C. It maintains neighbor relationships.

The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.) A. It provides dynamic neighbor discovery. B. It detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals. C. It maintains neighbor relationships. D. It negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces. E. It uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router. F. It broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.

A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration? A. restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration B. prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords C. protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch D. encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two) A. The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic B. It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network C. It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server. D. It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network E. It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device

What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.) A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers

A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two) A. to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down B. to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet C. to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails D. to support load balancing via static routing E. to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routers

What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.) A. exactly one active router B. one or more standby routers C. one or more backup virtual routers D. exactly one standby active router E. exactly one backup virtual router

A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.

What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two) A. The DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses B. The DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses C. The DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them D. The DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically. E. The DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.

C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized point D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

D. FF00::/12

Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/12

D. SAE encryption

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network? A. TKiP encryption B. AES encryption C. scrambled encryption key D. SAE encryption

B. enable SLAAC on an interface

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface? A. configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network B. enable SLAAC on an interface C. disable the EUI-64 bit process D. explicitly assign a link-local address

C. Show ip DHCP binding.

Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server? A. Show ip DHCP database. B. Show ip DHCP pool. C. Show ip DHCP binding. D. Show ip DHCP server statistic.

D. show ip ospf database

Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? A. show ip ospf link-state B. show ip ospf lsa database C. show ip ospf neighbors D. show ip ospf database

D. lldp reinit 5

Which command should you enter to configure an LLDP delay time of 5 seconds? A. lldp timer 5000 B. lldp holdtime 5 C. lldp reinit 5000 D. lldp reinit 5

D. show standby

Which command should you enter to verify the priority of a router in an HSRP group? A. show hsrp B. show sessions C. show interfaces D. show standby

A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS

Which function does an SNMP agent perform? A. it sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS B. it coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server C. it requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events. D. it manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts

Which function dose the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? A. allow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network C. ensues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing D. enable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts