CCNA Quiz 1
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone? A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged. B. It drops the traffic. C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN. D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
A
What is the purpose of the show ip ospf interface command? A. displaying OSPF-related interface information B. displaying general information about OSPF routing processes C. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface basis D. displaying OSPF neighbor information on a per-interface-type basis
A
When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails? A. The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. B. The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary C. The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup. D. The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table.
A
Which 802.11 frame type is association response? A. management B. protected frame C. control D. action
A
Which IPv6 address is the equivalent of the IPv4 interface loopback address 127.0.0.1? A. : :1 B. :: C. 2000::/3 D. 0::/10
A
Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address? A. 0000.5E00.010a B. 0005.3711.0975 C. 0000.0C07.AC99 D. 0007.C070/AB01
A
Which command can you enter to allow Telnet to be supported in addition to SSH? A. transport input telnet ssh B. transport input telnet C. no transport input telnet D. privilege level 15
A
Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client? A. ip address dhcp B. ip helper-address C. ip dhcp pool D. ip dhcp client
A
Which command is used to configure an IPv6 static default route? A. ipv6 route ::/0 interface next-hop5 B. ipv6 route default interface next-hop C. ipv6 route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop D. ip route 0.0.0.0/0 interface next-hop
A
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks? A. CPU ACL B. TACACS C. Flex ACL D. RADIUS
A
Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol? A. on B. auto C. active D. desirable
A
Which of the following is the JSON encoding of a dictionary or hash? A. {"key":"value"} B. ["key","value"] C. {"key","value"} D. ("key":"value")
A
Which option best describes an API? A. A contract that describes how various components communicate and exchange data with each other. B. an architectural style (versus a protocol) for designing applications C. a stateless client-server model D. request a certain type of data by specifying the URL path that models the data
A
Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch? A. Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms. B. VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically. C. Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down. D. After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUS.
A
Which statement about the nature of NAT overload is true? A. applies a one-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses B. applies a one-to-one relationship to internal IP addresses C. applies a many-to-many relationship to internal IP addresses D. can be configured only on Gigabit interface
A
Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two) A. The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image. B. The ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch. C. IP routing must be enabled on the switch. D. A console password must be configured on the switch. E. Telnet must be disabled on the switch.
A B
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN. B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router. C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load balanced between them. D. The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding. E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them.
A B
Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface.
A D
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) A. Enable NTP authentication. B. Verify the time zone. C. Disable NTP broadcasts. D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server. E. Set the NTP server private key.
A D
When configuring a WLAN with WPA2 PSK in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI, which two formats are available to select? (Choose two) A. ASCII B. base64 C. binary D. decimal E. hexadecimal
A E
Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two) A. It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets. B. It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity. C. It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets. D. It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up. E. It supports protocol discovery.
A, D
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two ) A. OpenFlow B. NETCONF C. Thrift D. CORBA E. DSC
A,B
What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) A. reduced operational costs B. reduced hardware footprint C. faster changes with more reliable results D. fewer network failures E. increased network security
A,C
Which two statements about the purpose of the OSI model are accurate? (Choose two.) A. Defines the network functions that occur at each layer B. Facilitates an understanding of how information travels throughout a network C. Changes in one layer do not impact other layer D. Ensures reliable data delivery through its layered approach
AB
Which two are features of IPv6? (Choose two.) A. anycast B. broadcast C. multicast D. podcast E. allcast
AC
Which two options are the best reasons to use an IPV4 private IP space?(choose two) A. to enable intra-enterprise communication B. to implement NAT C. to connect applications D. to conserve global address space E. to manage routing overhead
AD
Which three statements about MAC addresses are correct? (Choose three.) A. To communicate with other devices on a network, a network device must have a unique MAC address. B. The MAC address is also referred to as the IP address. C. The MAC address of a device must be configured in the Cisco IOS CLI by a user with administrative privileges. D. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the manufacturer of the hardware and the second of which uniquely identifies the hardware. E. An example of a MAC address is 0A:26:B8:D6:65:90. F. A MAC address contains two main components, the first of which identifies the network on which the host resides and the second of which uniquely identifies the host on the network.
ADE
Which three statements about network characteristics are true? (Choose three.) A. Speed is a measure of the data rate in bits per second of a given link in the network. B. Scalability indicates how many nodes are currently on the network. C. The logical topology is the arrangement of cables, network devices, and end systems. D. Availability is a measure of the probability that the network will be available for use when it is required. E. Reliability indicates the dependability of the components that make up the network.
ADE
In which two formats can the IPv6 address fd15:0db8:0000:0000:0700:0003:400F:572B be written? (Choose two.) A. fd15:0db8:0000:0000:700:3:400F:527B B. fd15::db8::700:3:400F:527B C. fd15:db8:0::700:3:4F:527B D. fd15:0db8::7:3:4F:527B E. fd15:db8::700:3:400F:572B
AE
Which two statements about EtherChannel technology are true? (Choose two.) A. EtherChannel provides increased bandwidth by bundling existing FastEthernet or Gigabit Ethernet interfaces into a single EtherChannel. B. STP does not block EtherChannel links. C. You can configure multiple EtherChannel links between two switches, using up to a limit of sixteen physical ports. D. EtherChannel does not allow load sharing of traffic among the physical links within the EtherChannel. E. EtherChannel allows redundancy in case one or more links in the EtherChannel fail.
AE
A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB? A. CDP B. SNMP C. SMTP D. ARP
B
AAA stands for authentication, authorization, and accounting A. False B. True
B
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table? A. 20 B. 90 C. 110 D. 115
B
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received? A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame. B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN. C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning. D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
B
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command? A. It enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state
B
Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and cannot route on the Internet? A. global unicast B. unique local C. link-local D. multicast
B
Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment? A. Bronze B. Platinum C. Silver D. Gold
B
Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plaintext on a router or switch? A. enable secret B. service password-encryption C. username Cisco password encrypt D. enable password
B
Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers? A. autonomous B. lightweight C. bridge D. mobility express
B
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet? A. 172.9.0.0/16 B. 172.28.0.0/16 C. 192.0.0.0/8 D. 209.165.201.0/24
B
Which option about JSON is true? A. uses predefined tags or angle brackets (<>) to delimit markup text B. used to describe structured data that includes arrays C. used for storing information D. similar to HTML, it is more verbose than XML
B
Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link. B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device. C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen. D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.
B
Which statement about static and dynamic routes is true? A. Dynamic routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while static routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. B. Static routes are manually configured by a network administrator, while dynamic routes are automatically learned and adjusted by a routing protocol. C. Static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected. D. Dynamic routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are not directly connected, while static routes tell the router how to forward packets to networks that are directly connected.
B
Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines? A. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor. B. The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU, memory, and storage. C. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch. D. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.
B
Which technique can you use to route IPv6 traffic over an IPv4 infrastructure? A. NAT B. 6to4 tunneling C. L2TPv3 D. dual-stack
B
An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch. Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two) A. Configure the ports in an EtherChannel. B. Administratively shut down the ports. C. Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99. D. Configure the ports as trunk ports. E. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.
B C
What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again B. when the cable length limits are exceeded C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex D. when Carriner Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted
B C
Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256. B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor. C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route. D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link. E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route.
B C
Which three are characteristics of an IPv6 anycast address? (Choose three.) A. one-to-many communication model B. one-to-nearest communication model C. any-to-many communication model D. a unique IPv6 address for each device in the group E. the same address for multiple devices in the group F. delivery of packets to the group interface that is closest to the sending device
B E F
What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI. B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers. C. It moves the control plane to a central point. D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions. E. It uses Telnet to report system issues.
B, C
Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible? (Choose two) A. adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software B. SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment C. customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises D. REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center E. modular design that is upgradable as needed
B, D
35. Which two encoding methods are supported by REST APIs? (Choose two) A. YAML B. JSON C. EBCDIC D. SGML E. XML
B, E
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFV2? (Choose two.) A. It requires the use of ARP. B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link. C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link. D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
B. D
Which two VLAN IDs indicate a default VLAN? (Choose two.) A. 0 B. 1 C. 1005 D. 1006 E. 4096
BC
You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network - one that has a feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? A. Change the maximum paths to 2 B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible distance C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of 3072 to 2 D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source IP address
BC
Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance Vector routing protocols? A. IS-IS B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP E. RIP
BE
A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths. Which parameter does the router use to select the best path? A. cost B. adminstrative distance C. metric D. as-path
C
A user configured OSPF in a single area between two routers A serial interface connecting R1 and R2 is running encapsulation PPP, by default, which OSPF network type is seen on this interface when the user types show ip ospf interface on R1 or R2? A. port-to-multipoint B. broadcast C. point-to-point D. nonbroadcast
C
An engineer configured an OSPF neighbor as a designated router. Which state verifies the designated router is in the proper mode? A. Exchange B. 2-way C. Full D. Init
C
An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2-PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement? A. WEP B. RC4 C. AES D. TKIP
C
If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred? A. A network device has restarted. B. An ARP inspection has failed. C. A routing instance has flapped. D. A debug operation is running.
C
R1 has learned route 192.168.12.0/24 via IS-IS. OSPF, RIP. and Internal EIGRP Under normal operating conditions, which routing protocol is installed in the routing table? A. IS-IS B. RIP C. Internal EIGRP D. OSPF
C
What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization? A. Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database. B. Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password. C. Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform. D. Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates.
C
What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? A. It only supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment. B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specific needs of an organization. C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration. D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in cluster mode.
C
What will happen if you configure the logging trap debug command on a router? A. It causes the router to send messages with lower severity levels to the syslog server. B. It causes the router to send all messages with the severity levels Warning, Error, Critical, and Emergency to the syslog server. C. It causes the router to send all messages to the syslog server D. It causes the router to stop sending all messages to the syslog server.
C
When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric. B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination to calculate the route with the lowest bandwidth. C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existing interface to calculate the router with the lowest cost. D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determine the router with the lowest metric.
C
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data? A. IKEv2 B. IKEv1 C. IPsec D. MD5
C
Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols? A. dual algorithm B. metric C. administrative distance D. hop count
C
Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface? A. ipv6 address dhcp B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64 C. ipv6 address autoconfig D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local
C
Which command enables IPv6 forwarding on a Cisco router? A. ipv6 local B. ipv6 host C. ipv6 unicast-routing D. ipv6 neighbor
C
Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface? A. lldp timer B. lldp holdtimt C. lldp reinit D. lldp tlv-select
C
Which command verifies whether any IPv6 ACLs are configured on a router? A. show ipv6 interface B. show access-list C. show ipv6 access-list D. show ipv6 route
C
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure? A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
C
Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device? A. outside global B. outsdwde local C. inside global D. insride local E. outside public F. inside public
C
Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. sniffer B. mesh C. flexconnect D. local
C
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.Which type of security program is in place? A. Physical access control B. Social engineering attack C. brute force attack D. user awareness
D
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria? A. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 10.2.1.3 255.255.255.252 B. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.248 C. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 172.16.1.4 255.255.255.248 D. interface e0/0description to HQ-A370:98968ip address 209.165.201.2 255.255.255.252
D
An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine? A. platform-as-a-service B. software-as-a-service C. network-as-a-service D. infrastructure-as-a-service
D
How can the Cisco Discovery Protocol be used? A. to allow a switch to discover the devices that are connected to its ports B. to determine the hardware platform of the device C. to determine the IP addresses of connected Cisco devices D. all of the above
D
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints? A. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgment packets. B. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK and ACK bits. C. UDP provides reliable message transfer and TCP is a connectionless protocol. D. TCP uses the three-way handshake and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.
D
How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy? A. It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table. B. It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN. C. It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path. D. It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN.
D
How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2? A. TTL B. MAC address forwarding C. Collision avoidance D. Port blocking
D
In Which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required? A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them. B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks. C. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch. D. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.
D
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration? A. The link is in a down state. B. The link is in an error disables state C. The link is becomes an access port. D. The link becomes a trunk port.
D
What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller? A. Central AP management requires more complex configurations. B. Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method. C. It supports autonomous and lightweight APs. D. It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually.
D
What is the alternative notation for the IPv6 address B514:82C3:0000:0000:0029:EC7A:0000:EC72? A. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 : EC7A : EC72 B. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : EC72 C. B514 : 82C3 : 0029 :: EC7A : 0000 : EC72 D. B514 : 82C3 :: 0029 : EC7A : 0 : EC72
D
Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? A. overlay B. northbound C. underlay D. southbound
D
Which Cisco IOS command will indicate that interface Gigabit Ethernet 0/0 is configured via DHCP? A. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 dhcp B. show interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 C. show ip interface dhcp D. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 E. show ip interface GigabitEthernet 0/0 brief
D
Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? A. 2000::/3 B. FC00::/7 C. FE80::/10 D. FF00::/8
D
Which IPv6 address is valid? A. 2001:0db8:0000:130F:0000:0000:08GC:140B B. 2001:0db8:0:130H::87C:140B C. 2031::130F::9C0:876A:130B D. 2031:0:130F::9C0:876A:130B
D
Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override? A. When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated. B. As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused. C. If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects. D. If a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err disabled.
D
Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? A. Configure the version of SSH. B. Configure VTY access. C. Create a user with a password. D. Assign a DNS domain name.
D
Which option is a valid IPv6 address? A. 2001:0000:130F::099a::12a B. 2002:7654:A1AD:61:81AF:CCC1 C. FEC0:ABCD:WXYZ:0067::2A4 D. 2004:1:25A4:886F::1
D
Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true? A. To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured. B. The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active". C. When enabled, the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps. D. One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic.
D
Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane. B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management. C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations. D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane.
D
Which type of wireless encryption is used for WPA2 in pre-shared key mode? A. TKIP with RC4 B. RC4 C. AES-128 D. AES-256
D
Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two) A. management interface settings B. QoS settings C. Ip address of one or more access points D. SSID E. Profile name
D E
A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two) A. runts B. giants C. frame D. CRC E. input errors
D, E
When configuring IPv6 on an interface, which two IPv6 multicast groups are joined? (Choose two) A. 2000::/3 B. 2002::5 C. FC00::/7 D. FF02::1 E. FF02::2
D,E
