CCNA Set 9
DRAG DROP- Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left pnto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
10.10.13.126 10.10.13.129 10.10.13.209 1.1.1.1 10.10.13.150 209.165.200.30
DRAG DROP- Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks from the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks are used.
255.255.255.128 255.255.255.240 255.255.255.248 255.255.255.252
Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute? A. 1 Hz signal B. 1 GHz signal C. 60 Hz signal D. 60 GHz signal
A. 1 Hz signal
A network engineer starts to implement a new wireless LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration? A. Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it. B. Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points. C. Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the managoment interface. D. Install the management interface and add the management IP.
A. Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.
Refer to the exhibit. The P2P Blocking Action option is disabled on the WLC. The security team has a new requirement for each client to retain their assigned IP addressing as the clients move between locations in the campus network. Which action completes this configuration? A. Enable the Static IP Tunneling option. B. Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option. C. Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream. D. Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.
A. Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.) A. Enable the Status option. B. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11g Only. C. Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only. D. Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest. E. Enable the Broadcast SSID option.
A. Enable the Status option E. Enable the Broadcast SSID option.
Refer to the exhibit. Host A switch interface is configured in VLAN 2. Host D sends a unicast packet destined for the IP address of host A. What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host D? A. It floods the frame out of every ports except the source port. B. It creates a broadcast storm. C. It shuts down the source port and places it in err-disable mode. D. It drops the frame from the MAC table of the switch.
A. It floods the frame out of every ports except the source port.
What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.) A. It leverages a dedicated connection. B. It provides direct connections betwaen each router in the topology. C. It delivers redundancy between the central office and branch offices. D. It uses a single router to route traffic between sites. E. It connects remote networks through a single line.
A. It leverages a dedicated connection. E. It connects remote networks through a single line.
What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.) A. It requires complex configuration. B. It needs a high MTU between sites. C. It works only with BGP between sites. D. It has a high implementation cost. E. It must have point-to-point communication.
A. It requires complex configuration. D. It has a high implementation cost.
Which switching feature removes unused MAC addresses from the MAC address table, which allows new MAC addresses to be added? A. MAC address aging B. MAC move C. MAC address auto purge D. dynamic MAC address learning
A. MAC address aging
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure? A. R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2 B. R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2 C. R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 D. R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10
A. R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2
When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC, which additional task must be performed when changes are complete? A. Reboot the WLC. B. Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC. C. Re-enable the WLC interfaces. D. Re-associate the WLC with the access point.
A. Reboot the WLC.
Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why? A. SW4, because its priority is highest and its MAC address is lower B. SW1, because its priority is the lowest and its MAC address is higher C. SW2, because its MAC address is the highest D. SW3, because its priority is the highest
A. SW4, because its priority is highest and its MAC address is lower
What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented? A. Users experience poor wireless network performance. B. Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs. C. The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access. D. Network communications are open to eavesdropping.
A. Users experience poor wireless network performance.
What is a link-local all-nodes IPv6 multicast address? A. ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1 B. 2004:33c:94d9:431e:255:: C. fffe:034:0dd:45d6:789e:: D. fe80:4433:034:0dd::2
A. ff02:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
Which component controls and distributes physical resources for each virtual machine? A. hypervisor B. OS C. CPU D. physical enclosure
A. hypervisor
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer started to configure two directly-connected routers as shown. Which command sequence must the engineer configure on R2 so that the two routers become OSPF neighbors? A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip ospf 1 area 1 B. router ospf 1network 192.168.12.1 0.0.0.0 area 1 C. interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip ospf 1 area 0 D. router ospf 1network 192.168.12.0 0.0.0.127 area 0
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/1ip ospf 1 area 1 Most Voted
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement? A. interface gi0/1no cdp enable B. interface gi0/0no cdp run C. interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2 D. interface gi0/1clear cdp table
A. interface gi0/1no cdp enable
Refer to the exhibit. The New York router must be configured so that traffic to 2000::1 is sent primarily via the Atlanta site, with a secondary path via Washington that has an administrative distance of 2. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router? (Choose two.) A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 B. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 5 C. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::2 5 E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 2
A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2023::3 2
Which two functions does a WLC perform in the lightweight access-point architecture that an AP performs independently in an autonomous architecture? (Choose two.) A. managing RF channels, including transmission power B. handling the association, authentication, and roaming of wireless clients C. sending and processing beacon frames D. encrypting and decrypting traffic that uses the WAP protocol family E. preventing collisions between wireless clients on the same RF channel
A. managing RF channels, including transmission power B. handling the association, authentication, and roaming of wireless clients
What is a function of spine-and-leaf architecture? A. offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices B. mitigates oversubscription by adding a layer of leaf switches C. exclusively sends multicast traffic between servers that are directly connected to the spineD.limits payload size of traffic within the leaf layer
A. offers predictable latency of the traffic path between end devices
Which EtherChannel mode must be configured when using LAG on a WLC? A. on B. passive C. active D. auto
A. on
What must be considered before deploying virtual machines? A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory B. support for physical peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, and mice C. whether to leverage VSM to map multiple virtual processors to two or more virtual machines D. location of the virtual machines within the data center environment
A. resource limitations, such as the number of CPU cores and the amount of memory
What are two port types used by a Cisco WLC for out-of-band management? (Choose two.) A. service B. console C. management D. distribution system E. redundant
A. service B. console
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures an interface on a new switch so that it connects to interface Gi1/0/1 on switch Cat9300-1. Which configuration must be applied to the new interface? A. switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk native vlan 321switchport trunk allowed vlan 100,200,300 B. switchport mode dynamic desirableswitchport trunk native vlan 321switchport trunk allowed vian 100,200,300 C. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1qswitchport trunk native vlan 321switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-300 D. switchport nonegotiateswitchport access vlan 321switchport trunk allowed vlan except 2-1001
A. switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk native vlan 321switchport trunk allowed vlan 100,200,300
Why would an administrator choose to implement an automated network management solution? A. to reduce operational costs B. to support simpler password policies C. to enable "box by box" configuration and deployment D. to limit recurrent management costs Reveal Solution Discussion
A. to reduce operational costs
Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such as DHCP or DNS? A. FF00:1/12 B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128 C. FE80::1/10 D. 2002:db84:3f30:ca84:be76:2/64
B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128
What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port? A. Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management. B. Allow multiple VLANs to be used in the data path. C. Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management. D. Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path.
B. Allow multiple VLANs to be used in the data path.
Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs? A. The tunnel uses the IPses protocol for encapsulation. B. Control and data traffic encryption are enabled. C. The tunnel uses the EoIP protocol to transmit data traffic. D. TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.
B. Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.
Refer to the exhibit. An architect is managing a wireless network with APs from several branch offices connecting to the WLC in the data center. There is a new requirement for a single WLAN to process the client data traffic without sending it to the WLC. Which action must be taken to complete the request? A. Enable local HTTP profiling. B. Enable FlexConnect Local Switching. C. Enable local DHCP Profiling. D. Enable Disassociation Imminent.
B. Enable FlexConnect Local Switching.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must reauthenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to 10. Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.) A. Enable the Wi-Fi Direct Clients Policy option B. Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600. C. Enable the Client Exclusion option and set the value to 3600. D. Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10. E. Set the Maximum Allowed Clients Per AP Radio value to 10.
B. Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600. D. Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10.
A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters. Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage. Which access point mode must be selected? A. Lightweight with local switching disabled B. FlexConnect with local switching enabled C. OfficeExtend with high availability disabled D. Local with AP fallback enabled
B. FlexConnect with local switching enabled
How do UTP and STP cables compare? A. UTP cables provide faster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable. B. STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference. C. STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install. D. UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.
B. STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.
What are two features of PortFast? (Choose two.) A. Convergence is fast after a link failure. B. STP loops are mitigated for uplinks to other switches. C. Ports transition directly from the blocking state to the forwarding state. D. Ports operate normally without receiving BPDUs. E. Ports that connect to the backbone automatically detect indirect link failures.
B. STP loops are mitigated for uplinks to other switches. C. Ports transition directly from the blocking state to the forwarding state.
Refer to the exhibit. A multivendor network exists and the company is implementing VoIP over the network for the first time. Which configuration is needed to implement the neighbor discovery protocol on the interface and allow it to remain off for the remaining interfaces? A. SW1(config)#lldp run -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#lldp enable B. SW1(config)#no cdp run -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#lldp transmit -SW1(config-if)#lldp receive C. SW1(contig)#lldp enable -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#lldp run D. SW1(config)#no cdp enable -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#cdp run
B. SW1(config)#no cdp run -SW1(config)#interface gigabitethernet1/0/1SW1(config-if)#lldp transmit -SW1(config-if)#lldp receive
What is an advantage of using auto mode versus static mode for power allocation when an access point is connected to a PoE switch port? A. Power policing is enabled at the same time. B. The default level is used for the access point. C. All four pairs of the cable are used. D. It detects the device is a powered device.
B. The default level is used for the access point.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator received a call from a branch office regarding poor application performance hosted at the headquarters. Ethernet 1 is connected between Router1 and the LAN switch. What identifies the issue? A. The MTU is not set to the default value. B. There is a duplex mismatch. C. The QoS policy is dropping traffic. D. The link is over utilized.
B. There is a duplex mismatch.
Refer to the exhibit. Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration? A. Check the Guest User Role check box. B. Uncheck the Guest User check box. C. Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0. D. Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value.
B. Uncheck the Guest User check box.
Refer to the exhibit. What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table? A. all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet B. a single destination address C. the source 10.0.1.100 D. the 10.0.0.0 network
B. a single destination address
Which port type does a lightweight AP use to connect to the wired network when it is configured in local mode? A. EtherChannel B. access C. LAG D. trunk
B. access
Refer to the exhibit. Router R14 is in the process of being configured. Which configuration must be used to establish a host route to a PC 10? A. ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.254 10.80.65.1 B. ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66 C. ip route 10.73.65.66 0.0.0.255 10.80.65.10 D. ip route 10.73.65.66 255.0.0.0 10.80.65.10
B. ip route 10.80.65.10 255.255.255.255 10.73.65.66
Which port state processes BPDUs, but does not forward packets or update the address database in Rapid PVST+? A. blocking B. learning C. listening D. disabled
B. learning
Refer to the exhibit. Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1? A. 10.10.10.4 B. 10.10.10.5 C. 10.10.10.3 D. 10.10.10.2
C. 10.10.10.3
A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups? A. Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch. B. Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN. C. Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit. D. Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.
C. Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.
What is a similarity between OM3 and OM4 fiber optic cable? A. Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter. B. Both have a 100 micron core diameter. C. Both have a 50 micron core diameter. D. Both have a 9 micron core diameter.
C. Both have a 50 micron core diameter.
Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1, R2, and R3 use a protocol to identify the neighbors' IP addresses, hardware platforms, and software versions. A network engineer must configure R2 to avoid sharing any neighbor information with R3, and maintain its relationship with R1. What action meets this requirement? A. Configure the no lldp receive command on g0/1. B. Configure the no cdp run command globally. C. Configure the no cdp enable command on g0/2. D. Configure the no lldp run command globally
C. Configure the no cdp enable command on g0/2.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer ts building a new Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2, and they executed the given show commands to verify the work. Which additional task must be performed so that the switches successfully bundle the second member in the LACP port-channel? A. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1. B. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW2. C. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1. D. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan 300 command on interface Fa0/2 on SW1.
C. Configure the switchport trunk allowed vlan add 300 command on SW1 port-channel 1.
SIP-based Call Admission Control must be configured in the Cisco WLC GUI. SIP call-snooping ports are configured. Which two actions must be completed next? (Choose two.) A. Set the QoS level to silver or greater for voice traffic. B. Configure two different QoS roles for data and voice traffic. C. Enable Media Session Snooping on the WLAN. D. Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic. E. Enable traffic shaping for the LAN interface of the WLC.
C. Enable Media Session Snooping on the WLAN. D. Set the QoS level to platinum for voice traffic.
What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC? A. Allow for stateful failover between WLCs. B. Increase security by encrypting management frames. C. Increase the available throughput on the link. D. Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations.
C. Increase the available throughput on the link.
When a switch receives a frame from an unknown source MAC address, which action does the switch take with the frame? A. It sends the frame to ports within the CAM table identified with an unknown source MAC address. B. It floods the frame out all interfaces, including the interface it was received on. C. It associates the source MAC address with the LAN port on which it was received and saves it to the MAC address table. D. It attempts to send the frame back to the source to ensure that the source MAC address is still available for transmissions.
C. It associates the source MAC address with the LAN port on which it was received and saves it to the MAC address table.
What is a function of MAC address learning? A. It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks. B. It increases security on the management VLAN. C. It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces. D. It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.
C. It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces.
What are two facts that differentiate optical-fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.) A. It is less expensive when purchasing patch cables. B. It carries electrical current further distances for PoE devices. C. It provides greater throughput options. D. It has a greater sensitivity to changes in temperature and moisture. E. It carries signals for longer distances. Reveal Solution Discussion 4
C. It provides greater throughput options. E. It carries signals for longer distances.
Which is a fact related to FTP? A. It always operates without user authentication. B. It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors. C. It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic. D. It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.
C. It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic.
Refer to the exhibit. The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configured to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configured to complete this task? A. R1 -ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.248 172.16.0.5 110R2 -ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.6 110 B. R1 -ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.240 172.16.0.2 113R2 -ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.1 114 C. R1 -ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.0.6 111R2 -ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.5 112 D. R1 -ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.240 172.16.0.5 89R2 -ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.6 89 Reveal Solution Discussion 3
C. R1 -ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.224 172.16.0.6 111R2 -ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.0.5 112
Which is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing? A. Comply with PCI regulations. B. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers. C. Reduce the risk of a network security breach. D. Comply with local law.
C. Reduce the risk of a network security breach.
Refer to the exhibit. The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.Which configuration set meets these requirements? A. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessswitchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108 B. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode accessswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessno switchport access vlan 1switchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5 C. SW#1 -interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108SW2#interf
C. SW#1 -interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessswitchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables an EtherChannel to form dynamically between SW1 and SW2 by using an industry-standard protocol, and to support full IP connectivity between all PCs? A. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode accesschannel-group 1 mode active!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode accesschannel-group 1 mode activeSW2#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode accesschannel-group 1 mode desirable!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode accesschannel-group 1 mode desirable B. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode on!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode autoSW2#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode auto!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode oninterface port-channel 1switchportswitchport mode trunk C. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode active!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode activeSW2#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode passive!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode passive D. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportsw
C. SW1#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode active!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode activeSW2#interface Gi0/1switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode passive!interface Gi0/2switchportswitchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode passive
What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture? A. The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network. B. The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover. C. The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair. D. The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3. Reveal Solution Discussion 8
C. The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair.
What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different? A. The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode. B. The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP. C. The switch port mode must be set to trunk. D. IEEE 802.1Q trunking must be disabled on the switch port.
C. The switch port mode must be set to trunk.
What is a specification for SSIDs? A. They must include one number and one letter. B. They are a Cisco proprietary security feature. C. They are case sensitive. D. They define the VLAN on a switch.
C. They are case sensitive.
Refer to the exhibit. A Cisco WLC administrator is creating a new wireless network with enhanced SSID security. The new network must operate at 2.4 Ghz with 54 Mbps of throughput. Which set of tasks must the administrator perform to complete the configuration? A. Uncheck the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11a/g only. B. Check the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11g only. C. Uncheck the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11g only. D. Check the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11a only.
C. Uncheck the Broadcast SSID check box and set the Radio Policy to 802.11g only.
Which switch concept is used to create separate broadcast domains? A. STP B. VTP C. VLAN D. CSMA/CD
C. VLAN
Which command configures the Cisco WLC to prevent a serial session with the WLC CLI from being automatically logged out? A. config sessions maxsessions 0 B. config serial timeout 9600 C. config serial timeout 0 D. config sessions timeout 0
C. config serial timeout 0
What is the primary purpose of private address space? A. limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet B. simplify the addressing in the network C. conserve globally unique address space D. reduce network complexity
C. conserve globally unique address space
A switch is forwarding a frame out of all interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process? A. ARP B. CDP C. flooding D. multicast
C. flooding
Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 is being implemented within the enterprise. The command ipv6 unicast-routing is configured. Interface Gig0/0 on R1 must be configured to provide a dynamic assignment using the assigned IPv6 block. Which command accomplishes this task? A. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::64 link-local B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::1/64 C. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::64 eui-64 D. ipv6 address autoconfig 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF2::/64
C. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:FFFF:FCF3::64 eui-64
Refer to the exhibit. A public IPv6 address must be configured for internet access. Which command must be configured on the R2 WAN interface to the service provider? A. ipv6 address fe80::/10 B. ipv6 address 2001:db8:433:37:7710:ffff:ffff:ffff/64 anycast C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:123:45::4/64 D. ipv6 address fe80::260:3EFF:FE11:6770 link-local
C. ipv6 address 2001:db8:123:45::4/64
A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:• "zero-touch" deployed and managed by a WLC• process only real-time MAC functionality• used in a split-MAC architectureWhich access point type must be used? A. mesh B. autonomous C. lightweight D. cloud-based
C. lightweight
Refer to the exhibit. Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1.0.0.0/8? (Choose two.) A. lowest cost to reach the next hop B. highest administrative distance C. lowest metric D. highest metric E. longest prefix match
C. lowest metric E. longest prefix match
Which functionality is provided by the console connection on a Cisco WLC? A. HTTP-based GUI connectivity B. secure in-band connectivity for device administration C. out-of-band management D. unencrypted in-band connectivity for file transfers
C. out-of-band management
What is the primary purpose of a console port on a Cisco WLC? A. in-band management via an asynchronous transport B. in-band management via an IP transport C. out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport D. out-of-band management via an IP transport
C. out-of-band management via an asynchronous transport
A technician receives a report of network slowness and the issue has been isolated to the interface FastEthemet0/13. What is the root cause of the issue?FastEthernet0/13 is up, line protocol is upHardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0001.4d27.66cd (bia 0001.4d27.66cd)MTU 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY 100 usec,reliability 250/255, txload 1/255, rxload 1/255Encapsulation ARPA, loopback not setKeepalive not set -Auto-duplex (Full) Auto Speed (100), 100BaseTX/FXARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00Last input 18:52:43, output 00:00:01, output hang neverLast clearing of "show interface" counters neverQueueing strategy: fifo -Output queue 0/40, 0 drops; input queue 0/75, 0 drops5 minute input rate 12000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec5 minute output rate 24000 bits/sec, 6 packets/sec14488019 packets input, 2434163609 bytesReceived 345348 broadcasts, 0 runts, 0 giants, 0 throttles261028 input errors, 259429 CRC, 1599 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored0 watchdog, 84207 multicast0 input packets with dribble condition detected19658279 packets output, 3529106068 bytes, 0 underruns0 output errors, 0 collisions, 1 interface resets0 babbles, 0 late collision, 0 deferred0 lost carrier, 0 no carrier0 output buffer fa
C. physical errors
Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12? A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001 B. switchport trunk allowed vlan 23 C. switchport trunk allowed vian add 23 D. switchport trunk allowed vian 22-23
C. switchport trunk allowed vian add 23
Refer to the exhibit. How must router A be configured so that it only sends Cisco Discovery Protocol information to router C? A. #config tRouter A (config)#no cdp run -Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1Router A (config-if)#cdp enable - B. #config tRouter A (config)#cdp run -Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0Router A (config-if)#no cdp enableC.#config t -Router A (config)#cdp run -Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1Router A (config-if)#cdp enable - D. #config tRouter A (config)#cdp run -Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/0Router A (config-if)#cdp enable
C.#config t -Router A (config)#cdp run -Router A (config)#interface gi0/0/1Router A (config-if)#cdp enable
Which step immediately follows receipt of the EAP success message when session resumption is disabled for an EAP-TLS connection? A. PMKID caching B. four-way handshake C. 802.1X authentication D. EAPOL-key frame
D. EAPOL-key frame
What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology? A. It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access. B. It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel. C. It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission. D. It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.
D. It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.
What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of traditional network architecture? (Choose two.) A. It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines. B. It increases security against denial-of-service attacks. C. It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes. D. It enables configuration task automation. E. It provides increased scalability and management options.
D. It enables configuration task automation. E. It provides increased scalability and management options.
Refer to the exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? A. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its trunk ports. B. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports. C. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs out all trunk ports. D. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports. Reveal Solution Discussion 4
D. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology? A. It uses multiple active paths between end stations. B. It requires multiple links between core switches. C. It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance. D. It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN. Reveal Solution Discussion 2
D. It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN.
What is the purpose of the service-set identifier? A. It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect. B. It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected. C. It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected. D. It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.
D. It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.
What is the root port in STP? A. It is the port with the highest priority toward the root bridge. B. It is the port on the root switch that leads to the designated port on another switch. C. It is the port that is elected only when the root bridge has precisely one port on a single LAN segment. D. It is the port on a switch with the lowest cost to reach the root bridge.
D. It is the port on a switch with the lowest cost to reach the root bridge.
What is a function of an endpoint? A. It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network. B. It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN. C. It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network. D. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services.
D. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services.
Refer to the exhibit. All interfaces are in the same VLAN. All switches are configured with the default STP priorities. During the STP elections, which switch becomes the root bridge? A. MDF-DC-1: 08:E0:43:42:70:13 B. MDF-DC-2: 08:0E:18:22:05:97 C. MDF-DC-4: 08:E0:19:A1:B3:19 D. MDF-DC-3: 08:0E:18:1A:3C:9D
D. MDF-DC-3: 08:0E:18:1A:3C:9D
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration? A. Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X. B. Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption. C. Enable the WPA Policy. D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.
D. Set the Layer 2 Security to None.
Refer to the exhibit. After a recent internal security audit, the network administrator decided to block all P2P-capable devices from the selected SSID. Which configuration setting must the administrator apply? A. Set the Wi-Fi Direct Client Policy to Not-Allow. B. Select a correctly configured Layer 2 ACL. C. Set the MFP Client Protection to Required. D. Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.
D. Set the P2P Block Action to Drop.
Why is TCP desired over UDP for applications that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS? A. UDP uses sequencing data for packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers the capability to receive packets in random order. B. UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery. C. UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load. D. UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.
D. UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.
Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC? A. config network telnet enable B. config network secureweb enable C. config certificate generate webadmin D. config network webmode enable
D. config network webmode enable
Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic? A. redundancy B. service C. console D. distribution system
D. distribution system
Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies? A. IPS B. switch C. access point D. firewall
D. firewall
A network administrator plans an update to the WI-FI networks in multiple branch offices. Each location is configured with an SSID called "Office". The administrator wants every user who connects to the SSID at any location to have the same access level. What must be set the same on each network to meet the requirement? A. radio policy B. profile name C. NAS-ID configuration D. security policies
D. security policies
Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer? A. virtual routing and forwarding B. virtual device contexts C. network port ID virtualization D. server virtualization
D. server virtualization
Which interface is used for out-of-band management on a WLC? A. management B. virtual C. dynamic D. service port
D. service port
What is the functionality of the Cisco DNA Center? A. IP address pool distribution scheduler B. data center network policy controller C. console server that permits secure access to all network devices D. software-defined controller for automation of devices and services
D. software-defined controller for automation of devices and services
What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment? A. to increase bandwidth B. to stabilize the RF environment C. to allow for channel bonding D. to reduce interference
D. to reduce interference
How must a switch interface be configured when an AP is in FlexConnect mode? A. access port B. EtherChannel C. PoE port D. trunk port
D. trunk port
DRAG DROP-Drag and drop the wireless standards from the left onto the number of nonoverlapping channels they support on the right.
J Non-Overlapping Channels 802.11a 802.11b 802.11n 2.4GHz 2J Non- Overlapping Channels 802.11g 802.11n 5gz
DRAG DROP-Drag and drop the cloud-computing components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
On-demand self-service measured service resource pooling rapid elasticity broad network access
DRAG DROP-Drag and drop the wireless architecture benefits from the left onto the architecture types on the right.
Splt Mac - Work is divided between the access point and the controller - uses the capwap tunneling protocol the access point transmit beacon farames Autonomous - appropriate for a small business environment supports per device configuration and management
DRAG DROP-Drag and drop the VLAN port modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right.
sTATIC ACCESS DYNAMIC ACCESS trunk tunnel private
DRAG DROP-Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
wireless lan controller access point service port virtual interface dynamic interface
