CCNA v7 Final
What service is provided by HTTP?
A basic set of rules for exchanging text, graphic images, sound, video, and other multimedia files on the web.
Match the header field with the appropriate layer of the OSI model. (Not all options are used.)
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Match the type of threat with the cause. (Not all options are used.)
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Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network. (Not all options are used.)
- Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.0 /25 which yields 128 host addresses. Network B needs to use 192.168.0.128 /26 which yields 64 host addresses. Network C needs to use 192.168.0.192 /27 which yields 32 host addresses. Network D needs to use 192.168.0.224 /30 which yields 4 host addresses.
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 90 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.128
Which type of server relies on record types such as A, NS, AAAA, and MX in order to provide services?
DNS - Explain:A DNS server stores records that are used to resolve IP addresses to host names. Some DNS record types include the following: A - an end device IPv4 address NS - an authoritative name server AAAA - an end device IPv6 address MX - a mail exchange record
What two ICMPv6 message types must be permitted through IPv6 access control lists to allow resolution of Layer 3 addresses to Layer 2 MAC addresses?
1. neighbor solicitations 2. neighbor advertisements
Which subnet would include the address 192.168.1.96 as a usable host address?
192.168.1.64/26 - Explanation: For the subnet of 192.168.1.64/26, there are 6 bits for host addresses, yielding 64 possible addresses. However, the first and last subnets are the network and broadcast addresses for this subnet. Therefore, the range of host addresses for this subnet is 192.168.1.65 to 192.168.1.126. The other subnets do not contain the address 192.168.1.96 as a valid host address.
What is the subnet ID associated with the IPv6 address 2001:DA48:FC5:A4:3D1B::1/64?
2001:DA48:FC5:A4::/64
What service is provided by HTTPS?
Uses encryption to secure the exchange of text, graphic images, sound, and video on the web.
What characteristic describes a DoS attack?
an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service
What characteristic describes antivirus software?
applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
A wired laser printer is attached to a home computer. That printer has been shared so that other computers on the home network can also use the printer. What networking model is in use?
peer-to-peer (P2P) - Explanation: Peer-to-peer (P2P) networks have two or more network devices that can share resources such as printers or files without having a dedicated server.
Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)
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Match each description with the corresponding TCP mechanism. (Not all options are used.)
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What are the three parts of an IPv6 global unicast address? (Choose three.)
1. subnet ID 2. global routing prefix 3. interface ID
What would be the interface ID of an IPv6 enabled interface with a MAC address of 1C-6F-65-C2-BD-F8 when the interface ID is generated by using the EUI-64 process?
1E6F:65FF:FEC2:BDF8
What service is provided by SMTP?
Allows clients to send email to a mail server and the servers to send email to other servers.
What service is provided by FTP?
Allows for data transfers between a client and a file server.
What happens when the transport input ssh command is entered on the switch vty lines?
Communication between the switch and remote users is encrypted. - Explanation: The transport input ssh command when entered on the switch vty (virtual terminal lines) will encrypt all inbound controlled telnet connections.
A new network administrator has been asked to enter a banner message on a Cisco device. What is the fastest way a network administrator could test whether the banner is properly configured?
Exit privileged EXEC mode and press Enter .
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 21. What service is the client requesting?
FTP
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 80. What service is the client requesting?
HTTP
A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 110. What service is the client requesting?
POP3
Which connector is used with twisted-pair cabling in an Ethernet LAN?
RJ 45 (true answer)
Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols.
TCP: FTP HTTP SMTP UDP: DHCP TFTP
Which value, that is contained in an IPv4 header field, is decremented by each router that receives a packet?
Time-to-Live - Explanation: When a router receives a packet, the router will decrement the Time-to-Live (TTL) field by one. When the field reaches zero, the receiving router will discard the packet and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message to the sender.
What characteristic describes a VPN?
a tunneling protocol that provides remote users with secure access into the network of an organization
An IPv6 enabled device sends a data packet with the destination address of FF02::2. What is the target of this packet?
all IPv6 configured routers on the local link
Which frame field is created by a source node and used by a destination node to ensure that a transmitted data signal has not been altered by interference, distortion, or signal loss?
frame check sequence field
Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides a route to forward messages through an internetwork?
internet - Explain: The OSI model network layer corresponds directly to the internet layer of the TCP/IP model and is used to describe protocols that address and route messages through an internetwork.
Refer to the exhibit. The switches are in their default configuration. Host A needs to communicate with host D, but host A does not have the MAC address for its default gateway. Which network hosts will receive the ARP request sent by host A?
only hosts B, C, and router R1 - Explain:Since host A does not have the MAC address of the default gateway in its ARP table, host A sends an ARP broadcast. The ARP broadcast would be sent to every device on the local network. Hosts B, C, and router R1 would receive the broadcast. Router R1 would not forward the message.
What is a function of the data link layer?
provides for the exchange of frames over a common local media
Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?
remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0 - Explanation: When PC1 forms the various headers attached to the data one of those headers is the Layer 2 header. Because PC1 connects to an Ethernet network, an Ethernet header is used. The source MAC address will be the MAC address of PC1 and the destination MAC address will be that of G0/0 on R1. When R1 gets that information, the router removes the Layer 2 header and creates a new one for the type of network the data will be placed onto (the serial link).
What characteristic describes an IPS?
software that identifies fast-spreading threats
What is the purpose of the TCP sliding window?
to request that a source decrease the rate at which it transmits data
A user is complaining that an external web page is taking longer than normal to load.The web page does eventually load on the user machine. Which tool should the technician use with administrator privileges in order to locate where the issue is in the network?
tracert
Refer to the exhibit. Match the network with the correct IP address and prefix that will satisfy the usable host addressing requirements for each network.
- Explanation: Network A needs to use 192.168.0.128 /25, which yields 128 host addresses.Network B needs to use 192.168.0.0 /26, which yields 64 host addresses.Network C needs to use 192.168.0.96 /27, which yields 32 host addresses.Network D needs to use 192.168.0.80/30, which yields 4 host addresses.
What are two ICMPv6 messages that are not present in ICMP for IPv4? (Choose two.)
1. Neighbor Solicitation 2. Router Advertisement
Which two protocols operate at the top layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose two.)
1. POP 2. DNS
What two security solutions are most likely to be used only in a corporate environment? (Choose two.)
1. virtual private networks 2. intrusion prevention systems
Refer to the exhibit. Which two network addresses can be assigned to the network containing 10 hosts? Your answers should waste the fewest addresses, not reuse addresses that are already assigned, and stay within the 10.18.10.0/24 range of addresses. (Choose two.)
1. 10.18.10.208/28 2. 10.18.10.224/28 - Explanation: Addresses 10.18.10.0 through 10.18.10.63 are taken for the leftmost network. Addresses 192 through 199 are used by the center network. Because 4 host bits are needed to accommodate 10 hosts, a /28 mask is needed. 10.18.10.200/28 is not a valid network number. Two subnets that can be used are 10.18.10.208/28 and 10.18.10.224/28.
A network administrator wants to have the same network mask for all networks at a particular small site. The site has the following networks and number of devices: "IP phones - 22 addresses PCs - 20 addresses needed Printers - 2 addresses needed Scanners - 2 addresses needed" The network administrator has deemed that 192.168.10.0/24 is to be the network used at this site. Which single subnet mask would make the most efficient use of the available addresses to use for the four subnetworks?
255.255.255.224
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 10 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.240
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 4 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.248
Which scenario describes a function provided by the transport layer?
A student has two web browser windows open in order to access two web sites. The transport layer ensures the correct web page is delivered to the correct browser window. - Explain: The source and destination port numbers are used to identify the correct application and window within that application.
What service is provided by Internet Messenger?
An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 67. What service is the client requesting?
DHCP
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 53. What service is the client requesting?
DNS
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 143. What service is the client requesting?
IMAP
What is one main characteristic of the data link layer?
It shields the upper layer protocol from being aware of the physical medium to be used in the communication.
What is a benefit of using cloud computing in networking?
Network capabilities are extended without requiring investment in new infrastructure, personnel, or software.
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 69. What service is the client requesting?
TFTP
Which wireless technology has low-power and data rate requirements making it popular in home automation applications?
ZigBee
What characteristic describes adware?
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
What characteristic describes identity theft?
the use of stolen credentials to access private data
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
store-and-forward switching
Which two traffic types use the Real-Time Transport Protocol (RTP)? (Choose two.)
1. video 2. voice
A network administrator wants to have the same subnet mask for three subnetworks at a small site. The site has the following networks and numbers of devices: "Subnetwork A: IP phones - 10 addresses Subnetwork B: PCs - 8 addresses Subnetwork C: Printers - 2 addresses" What single subnet mask would be appropriate to use for the three subnetworks?
255.255.255.240 - Explain:If the same mask is to be used, then the network with the most hosts must be examined for number of hosts. Because this is 10 hosts, 4 host bits are needed. The /28 or 255.255.255.240 subnet mask would be appropriate to use for these networks.
Refer to the exhibit. Which protocol was responsible for building the table that is shown? "interface: 192.168.1.67 — 0xa internet address physical address type 192.168.1.254 64-0f-29-0d-36-91 dynamic . . . interface: 10.82.253.91 —- 0x10"
ARP
What service is provided by DHCP?
Dynamically assigns IP addresses to end and intermediary devices.
What is an advantage to using a protocol that is defined by an open standard?
It encourages competition and promotes choices. - Explain:A monopoly by one company is not a good idea from a user point of view. If a protocol can only be run on one brand, it makes it difficult to have mixed equipment in a network. A proprietary protocol is not free to use. An open standard protocol will in general be implemented by a wide range of vendors.
How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?
It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files. - Explanation: The service password-encryption command encrypts plaintext passwords in the configuration file so that they cannot be viewed by unauthorized users.
What service is provided by BOOTP?
Legacy application that enables a diskless workstation to discover its own IP address and find a BOOTP server on the network.
What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
MAC address
Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order: peer-to-peer network: [+] no dedicated server is required [+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis peer-to-peer aplication: [#] requires a specific user interface [#] a background service is required - Explain:Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.
Match a statement to the related network model. (Not all options are used.)
Place the options in the following order: peer-to-peer network: [+] no dedicated server is required [+] client and server roles are set on a per request basis peer-to-peer application: [#] requires a specific user interface [#] a background service is required - Explain:Peer-to-peer networks do not require the use of a dedicated server, and devices can assume both client and server roles simultaneously on a per request basis. Because they do not require formalized accounts or permissions, they are best used in limited situations. Peer-to-peer applications require a user interface and background service to be running, and can be used in more diverse situations.
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
SSH
Two pings were issued from a host on a local network. The first ping was issued to the IP address of the default gateway of the host and it failed. The second ping was issued to the IP address of a host outside the local network and it was successful. What is a possible cause for the failed ping?
Security rules are applied to the default gateway device, preventing it from processing ping requests.
What is the consequence of configuring a router with the ipv6 unicast-routing global configuration command?
The IPv6 enabled router interfaces begin sending ICMPv6 Router Advertisement messages.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.
Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?
The untwisted length of each wire is too long. - Explanation: When a cable to an RJ-45 connector is terminated, it is important to ensure that the untwisted wires are not too long and that the flexible plastic sheath surrounding the wires is crimped down and not the bare wires. None of the colored wires should be visible from the bottom of the jack.
Three bank employees are using the corporate network. The first employee uses a web browser to view a company web page in order to read some announcements. The second employee accesses the corporate database to perform some financial transactions. The third employee participates in an important live audio conference with other corporate managers in branch offices. If QoS is implemented on this network, what will be the priorities from highest to lowest of the different data types?
financial transactions, audio conference, web pagedio conference, financial transactions, web page - Explanation: QoS mechanisms enable the establishment of queue management strategies that enforce priorities for different categories of application data. Thus, this queuing enables voice data to have priority over transaction data, which has priority over web data.
What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?
ipconfig
What does the term "attenuation" mean in data communication?
loss of signal strength as distance increases
What characteristic describes a Trojan horse?
malicious software or code running on an end device
What characteristic describes a virus?
malicious software or code running on an end device
What are proprietary protocols?
protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation - Explain: Proprietary protocols have their definition and operation controlled by one company or vendor. Some of them can be used by different organizations with permission from the owner. The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.
A disgruntled employee is using some free wireless networking tools to determine information about the enterprise wireless networks. This person is planning on using this information to hack the wireless network. What type of attack is this?
reconnaissance
What characteristic describes spyware?
software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user
Which information does the show startup-config command display?
the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM - Explain:The show startup-config command displays the saved configuration located in NVRAM. The show running-config command displays the contents of the currently running configuration file located in RAM.
Users are reporting longer delays in authentication and in accessing network resources during certain time periods of the week. What kind of information should network engineers check to find out if this situation is part of a normal network behavior?
the network performance baseline
What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?
twisting the wires together into pairs - Explanation: To help prevent the effects of crosstalk, UTP cable wires are twisted together into pairs. Twisting the wires together causes the magnetic fields of each wire to cancel each other out.
Match the description to the IPv6 addressing component. (Not all options are used.)
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Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols
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Match each type of frame field to its function. (Not all options are used.)
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Match the characteristic to the forwarding method. (Not all options are used.)
- Explanation: A store-and-forward switch always stores the entire frame before forwarding, and checks its CRC and frame length. A cut-through switch can forward frames before receiving the destination address field, thus presenting less latency than a store-and-forward switch. Because the frame can begin to be forwarded before it is completely received, the switch may transmit a corrupt or runt frame. All forwarding methods require a Layer 2 switch to forward broadcast frames.
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 200 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.0
What are three characteristics of the CSMA/CD process? (Choose three.)
1. A device listens and waits until the media is not busy before transmitting. 2. After detecting a collision, hosts can attempt to resume transmission after a random time delay has expired. 3. All of the devices on a segment see data that passes on the network medium.
Which two statements describe how to assess traffic flow patterns and network traffic types using a protocol analyzer? (Choose two.)
1. Capture traffic during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. 2. Perform the capture on different network segments. - Explanation: Traffic flow patterns should be gathered during peak utilization times to get a good representation of the different traffic types. The capture should also be performed on different network segments because some traffic will be local to a particular segment.
An administrator defined a local user account with a secret password on router R1 for use with SSH. Which three additional steps are required to configure R1 to accept only encrypted SSH connections? (Choose three.)
1. Configure the IP domain name on the router. 2. Generate the SSH keys. 3. Enable inbound vty SSH sessions.
Which two statements are correct about MAC and IP addresses during data transmission if NAT is not involved? (Choose two.)
1. Destination IP addresses in a packet header remain constant along the entire path to a target host. 2. Destination and source MAC addresses have local significance and change every time a frame goes from one LAN to another.
A network technician is researching the use of fiber optic cabling in a new technology center. Which two issues should be considered before implementing fiber optic media? (Choose two.)
1. Fiber optic provides higher data capacity but is more expensive than copper cabling. 2. Fiber optic cabling requires different termination and splicing expertise from what copper cabling requires.
What are two features of ARP? (Choose two.)
1. If a host is ready to send a packet to a local destination device and it has the IP address but not the MAC address of the destination, it generates an ARP broadcast. 2. If a device receiving an ARP request has the destination IPv4 address, it responds with an ARP reply.
Which two statements describe features of an IPv4 routing table on a router? (Choose two.)
1. If there are two or more possible routes to the same destination, the route associated with the higher metric value is included in the routing table. 2. If a default static route is configured in the router, an entry will be included in the routing table with source code S.
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
1. Layer 1 statuses 2. IP addresses - Explanation: The command show ip interface brief shows the IP address of each interface, as well as the operational status of the interfaces at both Layer 1 and Layer 2. In order to see interface descriptions and speed and duplex settings, use the command show running-config interface. Next-hop addresses are displayed in the routing table with the command show ip route, and the MAC address of an interface can be seen with the command show interfaces.
Which two statements accurately describe an advantage or a disadvantage when deploying NAT for IPv4 in a network? (Choose two.)
1. NAT provides a solution to slow down the IPv4 address depletion. 2. NAT introduces problems for some applications that require end-to-end connectivity.
A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)
1. RFI 2. EMI
What are two problems that can be caused by a large number of ARP request and reply messages? (Choose two.)
1. The ARP request is sent as a broadcast, and will flood the entire subnet. 2. A large number of ARP request and reply messages may slow down the switching process, leading the switch to make many changes in its MAC table. - Explanation: ARP requests are sent as broadcasts:(1) All nodes will receive them, and they will be processed by software, interrupting the CPU.(2) The switch forwards (floods) Layer 2 broadcasts to all ports. A switch does not change its MAC table based on ARP request or reply messages. The switch populates the MAC table using the source MAC address of all frames. The ARP payload is very small and does not overload the switch.
Which two statements are correct in a comparison of IPv4 and IPv6 packet headers? (Choose two.)
1. The Time-to-Live field from IPv4 has been replaced by the Hop Limit field in IPv6. 2. The Source Address field name from IPv4 is kept in IPv6.
Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)
1. The switch can be remotely managed. 2. One device is attached to a physical interface. 3. The default SVI has been configured. - Explain:Vlan1 is the default SVI. Because an SVI has been configured, the switch can be configured and managed remotely. FastEthernet0/0 is showing up and up, so a device is connected.
Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the output, which two statements about network connectivity are correct? (Choose two.)
1. There are 4 hops between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. 2. There is connectivity between this device and the device at 192.168.100.1. - Explain:The output displays a successful Layer 3 connection between a host computer and a host at 19.168.100.1. It can be determined that 4 hops exist between them and the average transmission time is 1 milliseconds. Layer 3 connectivity does not necessarily mean that an application can run between the hosts.
Data is being sent from a source PC to a destination server. Which three statements correctly describe the function of TCP or UDP in this situation? (Choose three.)
1. UDP segments are encapsulated within IP packets for transport across the network. 2. The UDP destination port number identifies the application or service on the server which will handle the data. 3. The source port field identifies the running application or service that will handle data returning to the PC. - Explanation: Layer 4 port numbers identify the application or service which will handle the data. The source port number is added by the sending device and will be the destination port number when the requested information is returned. Layer 4 segments are encapsulated within IP packets. UDP, not TCP, is used when low overhead is needed. A source IP address, not a TCP source port number, identifies the sending host on the network. Destination port numbers are specific ports that a server application or service monitors for requests.
What are the two most effective ways to defend against malware? (Choose two.)
1. Update the operating system and other application software. 2. Install and update antivirus software. - Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist must be aware of the technologies and measures that are used as countermeasures to protect the organization from threats and vulnerabilities.
What are two primary responsibilities of the Ethernet MAC sublayer? (Choose two.)
1. accessing the media 2. data encapsulation
Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data 2. enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium
Which three layers of the OSI model map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)
1. application 2. session 3. presentation - Explanation: The TCP/IP model consists of four layers: application, transport, internet, and network access. The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session, transport, network, data link, and physical. The top three layers of the OSI model: application, presentation, and session map to the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame 2. places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
What are three commonly followed standards for constructing and installing cabling? (Choose three.)
1. cable lengths 2. pinouts 3. connector types
A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)
1. coverage area 2. security 3. interference - Explanation: The three areas of concern for wireless networks focus on the size of the coverage area, any nearby interference, and providing network security. Extensive cabling is not a concern for wireless networks, as a wireless network will require minimal cabling for providing wireless access to hosts. Mobility options are not a component of the areas of concern for wireless networks.
A user is attempting to access http://www.cisco.com/ without success. Which two configuration values must be set on the host to allow this access? (Choose two.)
1. default gateway 2. DNS server
What are two functions that are provided by the network layer? (Choose two.)
1. directing data packets to destination hosts on other networks 2. providing end devices with a unique network identifier
What are two characteristics of IP? (Choose two.)
1. does not require a dedicated end-to-end connection 2. operates independently of the network media - Explain:The Internet Protocol (IP) is a connectionless, best effort protocol. This means that IP requires no end-to-end connection nor does it guarantee delivery of packets. IP is also media independent, which means it operates independently of the network media carrying the packets.
Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium 2. handles communication between upper layer networking software and Ethernet NIC hardware
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media 2. integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. implements trailer with frame check sequence for error detection 2. places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame
What are two common causes of signal degradation when using UTP cabling? (Choose two.)
1. improper termination 2. low-quality cable or connectors
Which two functions are performed at the MAC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication?
1. integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper 2. implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media
What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
1. message size 2. message encoding 3. delivery options
Which two commands can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table? (Choose two.)
1. netstat -r 2. route print - Explaination: On a Windows host, the route print or netstat -r commands can be used to display the host routing table. Both commands generate the same output. On a router, the show ip route command is used to display the routing table. The netstat -s command is used to display per-protocol statistics. The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.
Match the firewall function to the type of threat protection it provides to the network. (Not all options are used.)
1. packet filtering - prevents access based on IP or MAC address 2. URL filtering - prevents access to websites 3. network address translator - (none) 4. stateful packet inspection - prevents unsolicited incoming -sessions 5. application filtering - prevents access by port number - Explain:Firewall products come packaged in various forms. These products use different techniques for determining what will be permitted or denied access to a network. They include the following: + Packet filtering - Prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses+ Application filtering - Prevents or allows access by specific application types based on port numbers+ URL filtering - Prevents or allows access to websites based on specific URLs or keywords+ Stateful packet inspection (SPI) - Incoming packets must be legitimate responses to requests from internal hosts. Unsolicited packets are blocked unless permitted specifically. SPI can also include the capability to recognize and filter out specific types of attacks, such as denial of service (DoS)
A group of Windows PCs in a new subnet has been added to an Ethernet network. When testing the connectivity, a technician finds that these PCs can access local network resources but not the Internet resources. To troubleshoot the problem, the technician wants to initially confirm the IP address and DNS configurations on the PCs, and also verify connectivity to the local router. Which three Windows CLI commands and utilities will provide the necessary information? (Choose three.)
1. ping 2. ipconfig 3. nslookup
Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.)
1. places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame 2. enables IPv4 and IPv6 to utilize the same physical medium - Explanation: The data link layer is actually divided into two sublayers: + Logical Link Control (LLC): This upper sublayer defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols. It places information in the frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being used for the frame. This information allows multiple Layer 3 protocols, such as IPv4 and IPv6, to utilize the same network interface and media.+ Media Access Control (MAC): This lower sublayer defines the media access processes performed by the hardware. It provides data link layer addressing and delimiting of data according to the physical signaling requirements of the medium and the type of data link layer protocol in use.
An employee of a large corporation remotely logs into the company using the appropriate username and password. The employee is attending an important video conference with a customer concerning a large sale. It is important for the video quality to be excellent during the meeting. The employee is unaware that after a successful login, the connection to the company ISP failed. The secondary connection, however, activated within seconds. The disruption was not noticed by the employee or other employees. What three network characteristics are described in this scenario? (Choose three.)
1. quality of service 2. fault tolerance 3. security
What are two characteristics shared by TCP and UDP? (Choose two.)
1. use of checksum 2. port numbering - Explain:Both TCP and UDP use source and destination port numbers to distinguish different data streams and to forward the right data segments to the right applications. Error checking the header and data is done by both protocols by using a checksum calculation to determine the integrity of the data that is received. TCP is connection-oriented and uses a 3-way handshake to establish an initial connection. TCP also uses window to regulate the amount of traffic sent before receiving an acknowledgment. UDP is connectionless and is the best protocol for carry digitized VoIP signals.
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer has been given the network address of 192.168.99.0 and a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 to subnet across the four networks shown. How many total host addresses are unused across all four subnets?
200
Refer to the exhibit. A company uses the address block of 128.107.0.0/16 for its network. What subnet mask would provide the maximum number of equal size subnets while providing enough host addresses for each subnet in the exhibit?
255.255.255.128 - Explanation: The largest subnet in the topology has 100 hosts in it so the subnet mask must have at least 7 host bits in it (27-2=126). 255.255.255.0 has 8 hosts bits, but this does not meet the requirement of providing the maximum number of subnets.
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 61 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.192
What subnet mask is needed if an IPv4 network has 40 devices that need IP addresses and address space is not to be wasted?
255.255.255.192
A network administrator is adding a new LAN to a branch office. The new LAN must support 25 connected devices. What is the smallest network mask that the network administrator can use for the new network?
255.255.255.224
An organization is assigned an IPv6 address block of 2001:db8:0:ca00::/56. How many subnets can be created without using bits in the interface ID space?
256
Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the destination address be in the frame when it leaves host A?
BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB - Explaination:When a host sends information to a distant network, the Layer 2 frame header will contain a source and destination MAC address. The source address will be the originating host device. The destination address will be the router interface that connects to the same network. In the case of host A sending information to host B, the source address is AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA and the destination address is the MAC address assigned to the R2 Ethernet interface, BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB.
What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?
CSMA/CA
Which range of link-local addresses can be assigned to an IPv6-enabled interface?
FE80::/10 - Explanation:Link-local addresses are in the range of FE80::/10 to FEBF::/10. The original IPv6 specification defined site-local addresses and used the prefix range FEC0::/10, but these addresses were deprecated by the IETF in favor of unique local addresses. FDEE::/7 is a unique local address because it is in the range of FC00::/7 to FDFF::/7. IPv6 multicast addresses have the prefix FF00::/8.
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator has assigned the LAN of LBMISS an address range of 192.168.10.0. This address range has been subnetted using a /29 prefix. In order to accommodate a new building, the technician has decided to use the fifth subnet for configuring the new network (subnet zero is the first subnet). By company policies, the router interface is always assigned the first usable host address and the workgroup server is given the last usable host address. Which configuration should be entered into the properties of the workgroup server to allow connectivity to the Internet?
IP address: 192.168.10.38 subnet mask: 255.255.255.248, default gateway: 192.168.10.33 - Explain:Using a /29 prefix to subnet 192.168.10.0 results in subnets that increment by 8: 192.168.10.0 (1) 192.168.10.8 (2) 192.168.10.16 (3) 192.168.10.24 (4) 192.168.10.32 (5)
What mechanism is used by a router to prevent a received IPv4 packet from traveling endlessly on a network?
It decrements the value of the TTL field by 1 and if the result is 0, it discards the packet and sends a Time Exceeded message to the source host.
A host is trying to send a packet to a device on a remote LAN segment, but there are currently no mappings in its ARP cache. How will the device obtain a destination MAC address?
It will send an ARP request for the MAC address of the default gateway.
Refer to the exhibit. Host B on subnet Teachers transmits a packet to host D on subnet Students. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 addresses are contained in the PDUs that are transmitted from host B to the router?
Layer 2 destination address = 00-00-0c-94-36-ab Layer 2 source address = 00-00-0c-94-36-bb Layer 3 destination address = 172.16.20.200 Layer 3 source address = 172.16.10.200
What is an advantage for small organizations of adopting IMAP instead of POP?
Messages are kept in the mail servers until they are manually deleted from the email client. - Explanation: IMAP and POP are protocols that are used to retrieve email messages. The advantage of using IMAP instead of POP is that when the user connects to an IMAP-capable server, copies of the messages are downloaded to the client application. IMAP then stores the email messages on the server until the user manually deletes those messages.
Refer to the exhibit. PC1 issues an ARP request because it needs to send a packet to PC2. In this scenario, what will happen next?
PC2 will send an ARP reply with its MAC address. - Explain:When a network device wants to communicate with another device on the same network, it sends a broadcast ARP request. In this case, the request will contain the IP address of PC2. The destination device (PC2) sends an ARP reply with its MAC address.
Refer to the exhibit. The IP address of which device interface should be used as the default gateway setting of host H1?
R1: G0/0
What service is provided by DNS?
Resolves domain names, such as cisco.com, into IP addresses.
What service is provided by POP3?
Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.
A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting?
SSH
A technician with a PC is using multiple applications while connected to the Internet. How is the PC able to keep track of the data flow between multiple application sessions and have each application receive the correct packet flows?
The data flow is being tracked based on the source port number that is used by each application. - Explanation:The source port number of an application is randomly generated and used to individually keep track of each session connecting out to the Internet. Each application will use a unique source port number to provide simultaneous communication from multiple applications through the Internet.
What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?
The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
The global configuration command ip default-gateway 172.16.100.1 is applied to a switch. What is the effect of this command?
The switch can be remotely managed from a host on another network. - Explanation: A default gateway address is typically configured on all devices to allow them to communicate beyond just their local network.In a switch this is achieved using the command ip default-gateway .
Which type of security threat would be responsible if a spreadsheet add-on disables the local software firewall?
Trojan horse - Explanation: A Trojan horse is software that does something harmful, but is hidden in legitimate software code. A denial of service (DoS) attack results in interruption of network services to users, network devices, or applications. A brute-force attack commonly involves trying to access a network device. A buffer overflow occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a memory location than it can hold.
Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?
application, transport, Internet, and network access layers - Explanation: The TCP/IP model contains the application, transport, internet, and network access layers. A file transfer uses the FTP application layer protocol. The data would move from the application layer through all of the layers of the model and across the network to the file server.
What characteristic describes antispyware?
applications that protect end devices from becoming infected with malicious software
A company has a file server that shares a folder named Public. The network security policy specifies that the Public folder is assigned Read-Only rights to anyone who can log into the server while the Edit rights are assigned only to the network admin group. Which component is addressed in the AAA network service framework?
authorization - Explanation: After a user is successfully authenticated (logged into the server), the authorization is the process of determining what network resources the user can access and what operations (such as read or edit) the user can perform.
A technician can ping the IP address of the web server of a remote company but cannot successfully ping the URL address of the same web server. Which software utility can the technician use to diagnose the problem?
nslookup - Explain:Traceroute (tracert) is a utility that generates a list of hops that were successfully reached along the path from source to destination.This list can provide important verification and troubleshooting information. The ipconfig utility is used to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC. The Netstat utility is used to identify which active TCP connections are open and running on a networked host. Nslookup is a utility that allows the user to manually query the name servers to resolve a given host name. This utility can also be used to troubleshoot name resolution issues and to verify the current status of the name servers.
When a switch configuration includes a user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
store-and-forward
During the process of forwarding traffic, what will the router do immediately after matching the destination IP address to a network on a directly connected routing table entry?
switch the packet to the directly connected interface
A user sends an HTTP request to a web server on a remote network. During encapsulation for this request, what information is added to the address field of a frame to indicate the destination?
the MAC address of the default gateway
Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?
to enable the switch to be managed remotely - Explanation: A switch, as a Layer 2 device, does not need an IP address to transmit frames to attached devices. However, when a switch is accessed remotely through the network, it must have a Layer 3 address. The IP address must be applied to a virtual interface rather than to a physical interface. Routers, not switches, function as default gateways.
A user is executing a tracert to a remote device. At what point would a router, which is in the path to the destination device, stop forwarding the packet?
when the value in the TTL field reaches zero - Explain:When a router receives a traceroute packet, the value in the TTL field is decremented by 1. When the value in the field reaches zero, the receiving router will not forward the packet, and will send an ICMP Time Exceeded message back to the source.
Users report that the network access is slow. After questioning the employees, the network administrator learned that one employee downloaded a third-party scanning program for the printer. What type of malware might be introduced that causes slow performance of the network?
worm - Explanation: A cybersecurity specialist needs to be familiar with the characteristics of the different types of malware and attacks that threaten an organization.
