Ch 16, 17 FF Maternal Test Bank

Which deceleration of the fetal heart rate would not require the nurse to change the maternal position? a. Early decelerations b. Late decelerations c. Variable decelerations d. It is always a good idea to change the womans position

ANS: A Early decelerations (and accelerations) generally do not need any nursing intervention. Late decelerations suggest that the nurse should change the maternal position (lateral); variable decelerations also require a maternal position change (side to side). Although changing positions throughout labor is recommended, it is not required in response to early decelerations.

Which patient status is an acceptable indication for serial oxytocin induction of labor? a. Past 42 weeks gestation b. Multiple fetuses c. Polyhydramnios d. History of long labors

ANS: A Continuing a pregnancy past the normal gestational period is likely to be detrimental to fetal health. Multiple fetuses overdistend the uterus and make induction of labor high risk. Polyhydramnios overdistends the uterus, again making induction of labor high risk. History of rapid labors is a reason for induction of labor because of the possibility that the baby would otherwise be born in uncontrolled circumstances.

A normal uterine activity pattern in labor is characterized by: a. Contractions every 2 to 5 minutes. b. Contractions lasting about 2 minutes. c. Contractions about 1 minute apart. d. A contraction intensity of about 1000 mm Hg with relaxation at 50 mm Hg

ANS: A Contractions normally occur every 2 to 5 minutes and last less than 90 seconds (intensity 800 mm Hg) with about 30 seconds in between (20 mm Hg or less).

Leopold maneuvers would be an inappropriate method of assessment to determine: a. Gender of the fetus. b. Number of fetuses. c. Fetal lie and attitude. d. Degree of the presenting parts descent into the pelvis.

ANS: A Leopold maneuvers help identify the number of fetuses, the fetal lie and attitude, and the degree of descent of the presenting part into the pelvis. The gender of the fetus is not a goal of the examination at this time.

The most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth is: a. Keeping the newborns airway clear. b. Fostering parent-newborn attachment. c. Drying the newborn and wrapping the infant in a blanket. d. Administering eye drops and vitamin

ANS: A The care given immediately after the birth focuses on assessing and stabilizing the newborn. Although fostering parent-infant attachment is an important task for the nurse, it is not the most critical nursing action in caring for the newborn immediately after birth. The nursing activities would be (in order of importance) to maintain a patent airway, support respiratory effort, and prevent cold stress by drying the newborn and covering the infant with a warmed blanket or placing the newborn under a radiant warmer. After the newborn has been stabilized, the nurse assesses the newborns physical condition, weighs and measures the newborn, administers prophylactic eye ointment and a vitamin K injection, affixes an identification bracelet, wraps the newborn in warm blankets, and then gives the infant to the partner or mother when he or she is ready.

Before the physician performs an external version, the nurse should expect an order for a: a. Tocolytic drug. b. Contraction stress test (CST). c. Local anesthetic. d. Foley catheter.

ANS: A A tocolytic drug will relax the uterus before and during version, thus making manipulation easier. CST is used to determine the fetal response to stress. A local anesthetic is not used with external version. The bladder should be emptied; however, catheterization is not necessary.

As the United States and Canada continue to become more culturally diverse, it is increasingly important for the nursing staff to recognize a wide range of varying cultural beliefs and practices. Nurses need to develop respect for these culturally diverse practices and learn to incorporate these into a mutually agreed on plan of care. Although it is common practice in the United States for the father of the baby to be present at the birth, in many societies this is not the case. When implementing care, the nurse would anticipate that a woman from which country would have the father of the baby in attendance? a. Mexico b. China c. Iran d. India

ANS: A A woman from Mexico may be stoic about discomfort until the second stage, at which time she will request pain relief. Fathers and female relatives are usually in attendance during the second stage of labor. The father of the baby is expected to provide encouragement, support, and reassurance that all will be well. Fathers are usually not present in China. The Iranian father will not be present. Female support persons and female care providers are preferred. For many, a male caregiver is unacceptable. The father is usually not present in India, but female relatives are usually present. Natural childbirth methods are preferred.

A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly. The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to: a. Stimulate fetal surfactant production. b. Reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration. c. Suppress uterine contractions. d. Maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy.

ANS: A Antenatal glucocorticoids given as intramuscular injections to the mother accelerate fetal lung maturity. Inderal would be given to reduce the effects of ritodrine administration. Betamethasone has no effect on uterine contractions. Calcium gluconate would be given to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of magnesium sulfate therapy.

The nurse caring for the laboring woman should understand that early decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

ANS: A Early decelerations are the fetuss response to fetal head compression. Variable decelerations are associated with umbilical cord compression. Late decelerations are associated with uteroplacental insufficiency. Spontaneous rupture of membranes has no bearing on the fetal heart rate unless the umbilical cord prolapses, which would result in variable or prolonged bradycardia.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman comprehends that accelerations with fetal movement: a. Are reassuring. b. Are caused by umbilical cord compression. c. Warrant close observation. d. Are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency.

ANS: A Episodic accelerations in the fetal heart rate (FHR) occur during fetal movement and are indications of fetal well-being. Umbilical cord compression results in variable decelerations in the FHR. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well-being and do not warrant close observation. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR.

Fetal well-being during labor is assessed by: a. The response of the fetal heart rate (FHR) to uterine contractions (UCs). b. Maternal pain control. c. Accelerations in the FHR. d. An FHR above 110 beats/min.

ANS: A Fetal well-being during labor can be measured by the response of the FHR to UCs. In general, reassuring FHR patterns are characterized by an FHR baseline in the range of 110 to 160 beats/min with no periodic changes, a moderate baseline variability, and accelerations with fetal movement. Maternal pain control is not the measure used to determine fetal well-being in labor. Although FHR accelerations are a reassuring pattern, they are only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. Although an FHR above 110 beats/min may be reassuring, it is only one component of the criteria by which fetal well-being is assessed. More information would be needed to determine fetal well-being.

What is an essential part of nursing care for the laboring woman? a. Helping the woman manage the pain b. Eliminating the pain associated with labor c. Sharing personal experiences regarding labor and delivery to decrease her anxiety d. Feeling comfortable with the predictable nature of intrapartum care

ANS: A Helping a woman manage the pain is an essential part of nursing care because pain is an expected part of normal labor and cannot be fully relieved. Decreasing anxiety is important; however, managing pain is a top priority. The labor nurse should consistently deliver care based on the standard of care related to the maternity patient. Because of the unpredictable nature of labor, the nurse should always be alert for unanticipated events.

Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm c. External monitors in current use d. Fetus with a known heart defect

ANS: A In order to apply internal monitoring devices, the membranes must be ruptured. Cervical dilation of 4 cm permits the insertion of fetal scalp electrodes and intrauterine catheter. The external monitor can be discontinued after the internal ones are applied. A compromised fetus should be monitored with the most accurate monitoring devices.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) for five sequential contractions begins to decelerate late in the contraction, with the nadir of the decelerations occurring after the peak of the contraction. The nurses first priority is to: a. Change the womans position. b. Notify the care provider. c. Assist with amnioinfusion. d. Insert a scalp electrode.

ANS: A Late decelerations may be caused by maternal supine hypotension syndrome. They usually are corrected when the woman turns on her side to displace the weight of the gravid uterus from the vena cava. If the fetus does not respond to primary nursing interventions for late decelerations, the nurse would continue with subsequent intrauterine resuscitation measures, including notifying the care provider. An amnioinfusion may be used to relieve pressure on an umbilical cord that has not prolapsed. The FHR pattern associated with this situation most likely reveals variable deceleration. A fetal scalp electrode would provide accurate data for evaluating the well-being of the fetus; however, this is not a nursing intervention that would alleviate late decelerations, nor is it the nurses first priority.

The nurse caring for a laboring woman is aware that maternal cardiac output can be increased by: a. Change in position. b. Oxytocin administration. c. Regional anesthesia. d. Intravenous analgesic.

ANS: A Maternal supine hypotension syndrome is caused by the weight and pressure of the gravid uterus on the ascending vena cava when the woman is in a supine position. This reduces venous return to the womans heart, as well as cardiac output, and subsequently reduces her blood pressure. The nurse can encourage the woman to change positions and avoid the supine position. Oxytocin administration, regional anesthesia, and intravenous analgesic may reduce maternal cardiac output.

Perinatal nurses are legally responsible for: a. Correctly interpreting fetal heart rate (FHR) patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions, and documenting the outcomes. b. Greeting the client on arrival, assessing her, and starting an intravenous line. c. Applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider. d. Making sure that the woman is comfortable.

ANS: A Nurses who care for women during childbirth are legally responsible for correctly interpreting FHR patterns, initiating appropriate nursing interventions based on those patterns, and documenting the outcomes of those interventions. Greeting the client, assessing her, and starting an IV; applying the external fetal monitor and notifying the care provider; and making sure the woman is comfortable may be activities that a nurse performs, but they are not activities for which the nurse is legally responsible.

In assisting with the two factors that have an effect on fetal status (i.e., pushing and positioning), nurses should: a. Encourage the womans cooperation in avoiding the supine position. b. Advise the woman to avoid the semi-Fowler position. c. Encourage the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles to produce a vaginal response. d. Instruct the woman to open her mouth and close her glottis, letting air escape after the push.

ANS: A The woman should maintain a side-lying position. The semi-Fowler position is the recommended side-lying position with a lateral tilt to the uterus. The Valsalva maneuver, which encourages the woman to hold her breath and tighten her abdominal muscles, should be avoided. Both the mouth and glottis should be open, letting air escape during the push.

When assessing a multiparous woman who has just given birth to an 8-pound boy, the nurse notes that the womans fundus is firm and has become globular in shape. A gush of dark red blood comes from her vagina. The nurse concludes that: a. The placenta has separated. b. A cervical tear occurred during the birth. c. The woman is beginning to hemorrhage. d. Clots have formed in the upper uterine segment.

ANS: A Placental separation is indicated by a firmly contracting uterus, a change in the uterus from a discoid to a globular ovoid shape, a sudden gush of dark red blood from the introitus, an apparent lengthening of the umbilical cord, and a finding of vaginal fullness. Cervical tears that do not extend to the vagina result in minimal blood loss. Signs of hemorrhage are a boggy uterus, bright red vaginal bleeding, alterations in vital signs, pallor, lightheadedness, restlessness, decreased urinary output, and alteration in the level of consciousness. If clots have formed in the upper uterine segment, the nurse would expect to find the uterus boggy and displaced to the side.

A means of controlling the birth of the fetal head with a vertex presentation is: a. The Ritgen maneuver. b. Fundal pressure. c. The lithotomy position. d. The De Lee apparatus

ANS: A The Ritgen maneuver extends the head during the actual birth and protects the perineum. Gentle, steady pressure against the fundus of the uterus facilitates vaginal birth. The lithotomy position has been commonly used in Western cultures, partly because it is convenient for the health care provider. The De Lee apparatus is used to suction fluid from the infants mouth.

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) to assess uterine activity, the nurse should be cognizant that: a. The examiners hand should be placed over the fundus before, during, and after contractions. b. The frequency and duration of contractions is measured in seconds for consistency. c. Contraction intensity is given a judgment number of 1 to 7 by the nurse and client together. d. The resting tone between contractions is described as either placid or turbulent.

ANS: A The assessment is done by palpation; duration, frequency, intensity, and resting tone must be assessed. The duration of contractions is measured in seconds; the frequency is measured in minutes. The intensity of contractions usually is described as mild, moderate, or strong. The resting tone usually is characterized as soft or relaxed.

9. In evaluating the effectiveness of oxytocin induction, the nurse would expect: a. Contractions lasting 40 to 90 seconds, 2 to 3 minutes apart. b. The intensity of contractions to be at least 110 to 130 mm Hg. c. Labor to progress at least 2 cm/hr dilation. d. At least 30 mU/min of oxytocin will be needed to achieve cervical dilation.

ANS: A The goal of induction of labor would be to produce contractions that occur every 2 to 3 minutes and last 60 to 90 seconds. The intensity of the contractions should be 40 to 90 mm Hg by intrauterine pressure catheter. Cervical dilation of 1 cm/hr in the active phase of labor would be the goal in an oxytocin induction. The dose is increased by 1 to 2 mU/min at intervals of 30 to 60 minutes until the desired contraction pattern is achieved. Doses are increased up to a maximum of 20 to 40 mU/min.

Immediately after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, the nurse should: a. Assess the infant for signs of trauma. b. Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics. c. Apply a cold pack to the infants scalp. d. Measure the circumference of the infants head.

ANS: A The infant should be assessed for bruising or abrasions at the site of application, facial palsy, and subdural hematoma. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary with a forceps delivery. A cold pack would put the infant at risk for cold stress and is contraindicated. Measuring the circumference of the head is part of the initial nursing assessment.

The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown and believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Select the type of infection that has not been linked to preterm births. a. Viral b. Periodontal c. Cervical d. Urinary tract

ANS: A The infections that increase the risk of preterm labor and birth are all bacterial. They include cervical, urinary tract, periodontal, and other bacterial infections. Therefore, it is important for the client to participate in early, continual, and comprehensive prenatal care. Evidence has shown a link between periodontal infections and preterm labor. Researchers recommend regular dental care before and during pregnancy, oral assessment as a routine part of prenatal care, and scrupulous oral hygiene to prevent infection. Cervical infections of a bacterial nature have been linked to preterm labor and birth. The presence of urinary tract infections increases the risk of preterm labor and birth.

The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. Over the uterine fundus. b. On the fetal scalp. c. Inside the uterus. d. Over the mothers lower abdomen

ANS: A The tocotransducer monitors uterine activity and should be placed over the fundus, where the most intensive uterine contractions occur. The tocotransducer is for external use.

When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, the nurse recognizes that the most conclusive sign that uterine contractions are effective would be: a. Dilation of the cervix. b. Descent of the fetus. c. Rupture of the amniotic membranes. d. Increase in bloody show

ANS: A The vaginal examination reveals whether the woman is in true labor. Cervical change, especially dilation, in the presence of adequate labor indicates that the woman is in true labor. Descent of the fetus, or engagement, may occur before labor. Rupture of membranes may occur with or without the presence of labor. Bloody show may indicate slow, progressive cervical change (e.g., effacement) in both true and false labor

A pregnant womans amniotic membranes rupture. Prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the top priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d. Starting oxygen by face mask

ANS: A The woman is assisted into a position (e.g., modified Sims position, Trendelenburg position, or the knee-chest position) in which gravity keeps the pressure of the presenting part off the cord. Although covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked saline, preparing the woman for a cesarean, and starting oxygen by face mark are appropriate nursing interventions in the event of a prolapsed cord, the intervention of top priority would be positioning the mother to relieve cord compression

A laboring woman is lying in the supine position. The most appropriate nursing action at this time is to: a. Ask her to turn to one side. b. Elevate her feet and legs. c. Take her blood pressure. d. Determine whether fetal tachycardia is present

ANS: A The womans supine position may cause the heavy uterus to compress her inferior vena cava, thus reducing blood return to her heart and reducing placental blood flow. Elevating her legs will not relieve the pressure from the inferior vena cava. If the woman is allowed to stay in the supine position and blood flow to the placental is reduced significantly, fetal tachycardia may occur. The most appropriate nursing action is to prevent this from occurring by turning the woman to her side. Blood pressure readings may be obtained when the patient is in the appropriate and safest position.

A pregnant woman is in her third trimester. She asks the nurse to explain how she can tell true labor from false labor. The nurse would explain that true labor contractions: a. Increase with activity such as ambulation. b. Decrease with activity. c. Are always accompanied by the rupture of the bag of waters. d. Alternate between a regular and an irregular pattern.

ANS: A True labor contractions become more intense with walking. False labor contractions often stop with walking or position changes. Rupture of membranes may occur before or during labor. True labor contractions are regular

When managing the care of a woman in the second stage of labor, the nurse uses various measures to enhance the progress of fetal descent. These measures include: a. Encouraging the woman to try various upright positions, including squatting and standing. b. Telling the woman to start pushing as soon as her cervix is fully dilated. c. Continuing an epidural anesthetic so pain is reduced and the woman can relax d. Coaching the woman to use sustained, 10- to 15-second, closed-glottis bearing-down efforts with each contraction.

ANS: A Upright positions and squatting both may enhance the progress of fetal descent. Many factors dictate when a woman will begin pushing. Complete cervical dilation is necessary, but it is only one factor. If the fetal head is still in a higher pelvic station, the physician or midwife may allow the woman to labor down (allowing more time for fetal descent, thereby reducing the amount of pushing needed) if the woman is able. The epidural may mask the sensations and muscle control needed for the woman to push effectively. Closed glottic breathing may trigger the Valsalva maneuver, which increases intrathoracic and cardiovascular pressures, reducing cardiac output and inhibiting perfusion of the uterus and placenta. In addition, holding the breath for longer than 5 to 7 seconds diminishes the perfusion of oxygen across the placenta and results in fetal hypoxia.

When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the womans risk for _________________________ has increased. a. Intrauterine infection b. Hemorrhage c. Precipitous labor d. Supine hypotension

ANS: A When the membranes rupture, microorganisms from the vagina can ascend into the amniotic sac and cause chorioamnionitis and placentitis. Rupture of membranes (ROM) is not associated with fetal or maternal bleeding. Although ROM may increase the intensity of contractions and facilitate active labor, it does not result in precipitous labor. ROM has no correlation with supine hypotension

With regard to a womans intake and output during labor, nurses should be aware that: a. The tradition of restricting the laboring woman to clear liquids and ice chips is being challenged because regional anesthesia is used more often than general anesthesia. b. Intravenous (IV) fluids usually are necessary to ensure that the laboring woman stays hydrated. c. Routine use of an enema empties the rectum and is very helpful for producing a clean, clear delivery. d. When a nulliparous woman experiences the urge to defecate, it often means birth will follow quickly.

ANS: A Women are awake with regional anesthesia and are able to protect their own airway, which reduces the worry over aspiration. Routine IV fluids during labor are unlikely to be beneficial and may be harmful. Routine use of an enema is at best ineffective and may be harmful. A multiparous woman may feel the urge to defecate and it may mean birth will follow quickly, but not for a first-timer.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that amnioinfusion is used to treat: a. Variable decelerations. b. Late decelerations. c. Fetal bradycardia. d. Fetal tachycardia

ANS: A Amnioinfusion is used during labor either to dilute meconium-stained amniotic fluid or to supplement the amount of amniotic fluid to reduce the severity of variable decelerations caused by cord compression. Amnioinfusion has no bearing on late decelerations, fetal bradycardia, or fetal tachycardia alterations in fetal heart rate (FHR) tracings.

With regard to the process of augmentation of labor, the nurse should be aware that it: a. Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory. b. Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed. c. Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth. d. Uses vacuum cups

ANS: A Augmentation is part of the active management of labor that stimulates uterine contractions after labor has started but is not progressing satisfactorily. Augmentation uses amniotomy and oxytocin infusion, as well as some gentler, noninvasive methods. Forceps-assisted births and vacuum-assisted births are appropriately used at the end of labor and are not part of augmentation.

Women who have participated in childbirth education classes often bring a birth bag or Lamaze bag with them to the hospital. These items often assist in reducing stress and providing comfort measures. The nurse caring for women in labor should be aware of common items that a client may bring, including (Select all that apply): a. Rolling pin b. Tennis balls c. Pillow d. Stuffed animal or photo e. Candles

ANS: A, B, C, D The rolling pin and tennis balls are used to provide counterpressure, especially if the woman is experiencing back labor. Although the facility has plenty of pillows, when the client brings her own, it is a reminder of home and provides added comfort. A stuffed animal or framed photo can be used to provide a focal point during contractions. Although many women find the presence of candles conducive to creating calm and relaxing surroundings, these are not suitable for a hospital birthing room environment. Oxygen may be in use, resulting in a fire hazard. Flameless candles are often sold in hospital gift shops. It is also important for the nurse to orient the patient and her family to the call bell and light switches to familiarize herself with the environment.

Induction of labor is considered an acceptable obstetric procedure if it is in the best interest to deliver the fetus. The charge nurse on the labor and delivery unit is often asked to schedule patients for this procedure and therefore must be cognizant of the specific conditions appropriate for labor induction. These include (Select all that apply): a. Rupture of membranes at or near term. b. Convenience of the woman or her physician. c. Chorioamnionitis (inflammation of the amniotic sac). d. Post-term pregnancy. e. Fetal death.

ANS: A, C, D, E These are all acceptable indications for induction. Other conditions include intrauterine growth retardation (IUGR), maternal-fetal blood incompatibility, hypertension, and placental abruption. Elective inductions for the convenience of the woman or her provider are not recommended; however, they have become commonplace. Factors such as rapid labors and living a long distance from a health care facility may be valid reasons in such a circumstance. Elective delivery should not occur before 39 weeks completed gestation.

A new client and her partner arrive on the labor, delivery, recovery, and postpartum unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the babys heart rate should be. Your best response is: a. Don't worry about that machine; thats my job. b. The top line graphs the babys heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor. c. The top line graphs the babys heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are. d. Your doctor will explain all of that later.

ANS: B The top line graphs the babys heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor educates the partner about fetal monitoring and provides support and information to alleviate his fears. Dont worry about that machine; thats my job discredits the partners feelings and does not provide the teaching he is requesting. The top line graphs the babys heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are provides inaccurate information and does not address the partners concerns about the fetal heart rate. The EFM graphs the frequency and duration of the contractions, not the intensity. Nurses should take every opportunity to provide client and family teaching, especially when information is requested.

A maternal indication for the use of vacuum extraction is: a. A wide pelvic outlet. b. Maternal exhaustion. c. A history of rapid deliveries. d. Failure to progress past 0 station.

ANS: B A mother who is exhausted may be unable to assist with the expulsion of the fetus. The patient with a wide pelvic outlet will likely not require vacuum extraction. With a rapid delivery, vacuum extraction is not necessary. A station of 0 is too high for a vacuum extraction.

Concerning the third stage of labor, nurses should be aware that: a. The placenta eventually detaches itself from a flaccid uterus. b. An expectant or active approach to managing this stage of labor reduces the risk of complications. c. It is important that the dark, roughened maternal surface of the placenta appear before the shiny fetal surface. d. The major risk for women during the third stage is a rapid heart rate.

ANS: B Active management facilitates placental separation and expulsion, thus reducing the risk of complications. The placenta cannot detach itself from a flaccid (relaxed) uterus. Which surface of the placenta comes out first is not clinically important. The major risk for women during the third stage of labor is postpartum hemorrhage.

A woman who is gravida 3 para 2 enters the intrapartum unit. The most important nursing assessments are: a. Contraction pattern, amount of discomfort, and pregnancy history. b. Fetal heart rate, maternal vital signs, and the womans nearness to birth. c. Identification of ruptured membranes, the womans gravida and para, and her support person. d. Last food intake, when labor began, and cultural practices the couple desires.

ANS: B All options describe relevant intrapartum nursing assessments; however, this focused assessment has priority. If the maternal and fetal conditions are normal and birth is not imminent, other assessments can be performed in an unhurried manner. This includes: gravida, para, support person, pregnancy history, pain assessment, last food intake, and cultural practices.

What is an expected characteristic of amniotic fluid? a. Deep yellow color b. Pale, straw color with small white particles c. Acidic result on a Nitrazine test d. Absence of ferning

ANS: B Amniotic fluid normally is a pale, straw-colored fluid that may contain white flecks of vernix. Yellow-stained fluid may indicate fetal hypoxia up to 36 hours before rupture of membranes, fetal hemolytic disease, or intrauterine infection. Amniotic fluid produces an alkaline result on a Nitrazine test. The presence of ferning is a positive indication of amniotic fluid.

26. Under which circumstance would it be unnecessary for the nurse to perform a vaginal examination? a. An admission to the hospital at the start of labor b. When accelerations of the fetal heart rate (FHR) are noted c. On maternal perception of perineal pressure or the urge to bear down d. When membranes rupture

ANS: B An accelerated FHR is a positive sign; however, variable decelerations merit a vaginal examination. Vaginal examinations should be performed when the woman is admitted, when she perceives perineal pressure or the urge to bear down, when her membranes rupture, when a significant change in her uterine activity has occurred, or when variable decelerations of the FHR are noted.

While caring for the patient who requires an induction of labor, the nurse should be cognizant that: a. Ripening the cervix usually results in a decreased success rate for induction. b. Labor sometimes can be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents. c. Oxytocin is less expensive than prostaglandins and more effective but creates greater health risks. d. Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.

ANS: B Balloon catheters or laminaria tents are mechanical means of ripening the cervix. Ripening the cervix, making it softer and thinner, increases the success rate of induced labor. Prostaglandin E1 is less expensive and more effective than oxytocin but carries a greater risk. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which is used to induce labor only when the cervix is already ripe.

The nurse thoroughly dries the infant immediately after birth primarily to: a. Stimulate crying and lung expansion. b. Remove maternal blood from the skin surface. c. Reduce heat loss from evaporation. d. Increase blood supply to the hands and feet

ANS: C Infants are wet with amniotic fluid and blood at birth, and this accelerates evaporative heat loss. The primary purpose of drying the infant is to prevent heat loss. Rubbing the infant does stimulate crying; however, it is not the main reason for drying the infant. This process does not remove all the maternal blood.

Nurses should know some basic definitions concerning preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. For instance: a. The terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b. Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of pregnancy. c. Low birth weight is anything below 3.7 pounds. d. In the United States early in this century, preterm birth accounted for 18% to 20% of all births

ANS: B Before 20 weeks, it is not viable (miscarriage); after 37 weeks, it can be considered term. Although these terms are used interchangeably, they have different meanings: preterm birth describes the length of gestation (37 weeks) regardless of weight; low birth weight describes weight only (2500 g or less) at the time of birth, whenever it occurs. Low birth weight is anything less than 2500 g, or about 5.5 pounds. In 2003 the preterm birth rate in the United States was 12.3%, but it is increasing in frequency.

A woman who is 39 weeks pregnant expresses fear about her impending labor and how she will manage. The nurses best response is: a. Dont worry about it. Youll do fine. b. Its normal to be anxious about labor. Lets discuss what makes you afraid. c. Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isnt. d. You can have an epidural. You wont feel anything.

ANS: B Its normal to be anxious about labor. Lets discuss what makes you afraid allows the woman to share her concerns with the nurse and is a therapeutic communication tool. Dont worry about it. Youll do fine negates the womans fears and is not therapeutic. Labor is scary to think about, but the actual experience isnt negates the womans fears and offers a false sense of security. It is not true that every woman may have an epidural. A number of criteria must be met for use of an epidural. Furthermore, many women still experience the feeling of pressure with an epidural.

What correctly matches the type of deceleration with its likely cause? a. Early decelerationumbilical cord compression b. Late decelerationuteroplacental inefficiency c. Variable decelerationhead compression d. Prolonged decelerationcause unknown

ANS: B Late deceleration is caused by uteroplacental inefficiency. Early deceleration is caused by head compression. Variable deceleration is caused by umbilical cord compression. Prolonged deceleration has a variety of either benign or critical causes.

The primary difference between the labor of a nullipara and that of a multipara is the: a. Amount of cervical dilation. c. Level of pain experienced. b. Total duration of labor. d. Sequence of labor mechanisms.

ANS: B Multiparas usually labor more quickly than nulliparas, thus making the total duration of their labor shorter. Cervical dilation is the same for all labors. The level of pain is individual to the woman, not to the number of labors she has experienced. The sequence of labor mechanisms remains the same with all labors.

The nurse expects to administer an oxytocic (e.g., Pitocin, Methergine) to a woman after expulsion of her placenta to: a. Relieve pain. b. Stimulate uterine contraction. c. Prevent infection. d. Facilitate rest and relaxation

ANS: B Oxytocics stimulate uterine contractions, which reduce blood loss after the third stage of labor. Oxytocics are not used to treat pain or prevent infection. They cause the uterus to contract, which reduces blood loss. Oxytocics do not facilitate rest and relaxation.

What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask.

ANS: B Repositioning the mother, increasing intravenous (IV) fluid, and providing oxygen via face mask are correct nursing actions for intrauterine resuscitation. The nurse should initiate intrauterine resuscitation in an ABC manner, similar to basic life support. The first priority is to open the maternal and fetal vascular systems by repositioning the mother for improved perfusion. The second priority is to increase blood volume by increasing the IV fluid. The third priority is to optimize oxygenation of the circulatory volume by providing oxygen via face mask. If these interventions do not resolve the fetal heart rate issue quickly, the primary provider should be notified immediately.

After an emergency birth, the nurse encourages the woman to breastfeed her newborn. The primary purpose of this activity is to: a. Facilitate maternal-newborn interaction. b. Stimulate the uterus to contract. c. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia. d. Initiate the lactation cycle.

ANS: B Stimulation of the nipples through breastfeeding or manual stimulation causes the release of oxytocin and prevents maternal hemorrhage. Breastfeeding facilitates maternal-newborn interaction, but it is not the primary reason a woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth. The primary intervention for preventing neonatal hypoglycemia is thermoregulation. Cold stress can result in hypoglycemia. The woman is encouraged to breastfeed after an emergency birth to stimulate the release of oxytocin, which prevents hemorrhage. Breastfeeding is encouraged to initiate the lactation cycle, but it is not the primary reason for this activity after an emergency birth.

Nurses can help their clients by keeping them informed about the distinctive stages of labor. What description of the phases of the first stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent: Mild, regular contractions; no dilation; bloody show; duration of 2 to 4 hours b. Active: Moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; duration of 3 to 6 hours c. Lull: No contractions; dilation stable; duration of 20 to 60 minutes d. Transition: Very strong but irregular contractions; 8- to 10-cm dilation; duration of 1 to 2 hours

ANS: B The active phase is characterized by moderate, regular contractions; 4- to 7-cm dilation; and a duration of 3 to 6 hours. The latent phase is characterized by mild-to-moderate, irregular contractions; dilation up to 3 cm; brownish-topale pink mucus, and a duration of 6 to 8 hours. No official lull phase exists in the first stage. The transition phase is characterized by strong to very strong, regular contractions; 8- to 10-cm dilation; and a duration of 20 to 40 minutes.

During labor a fetus with an average heart rate of 135 beats/min over a 10-minute period would be considered to have: a. Bradycardia. b. A normal baseline heart rate. c. Tachycardia. d. Hypoxia.

ANS: B The baseline heart rate is measured over 10 minutes; a normal range is 110 to 160 beats/min. Bradycardia is a fetal heart rate (FHR) below 110 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Tachycardia is an FHR over 160 beats/min for 10 minutes or longer. Hypoxia is an inadequate supply of oxygen; no indication of this condition exists with a baseline heart rate in the normal range.

Through vaginal examination the nurse determines that a woman is 4 cm dilated, and the external fetal monitor shows uterine contractions every 3.5 to 4 minutes. The nurse would report this as: a. First stage, latent phase. b. First stage, active phase. c. First stage, transition phase. d. Second stage, latent phase

ANS: B The first stage, active phase of maternal progress indicates that the woman is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. During the latent phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress would be 0 to 3 cm dilation with contractions every 5 to 30 minutes. During the transition phase of the first stage of labor, the expected maternal progress is 8 to 10 cm dilation with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes. During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman is completely dilated and experiences a restful period of laboring down.

A patient whose cervix is dilated to 5 cm is considered to be in which phase of labor? a. Latent phase b. Active phase c. Second stage d. Third stage

ANS: B The latent phase is from the beginning of true labor until 3 cm of cervical dilation. The active phase of labor is characterized by cervical dilation of 4 to 7 cm. The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is completely dilated until the birth of the baby. The third stage of labor is from the birth of the baby until the expulsion of the placenta. This patient is in the active phase of labor.

For women who have a history of sexual abuse, a number of traumatic memories may be triggered during labor. The woman may fight the labor process and react with pain or anger. Alternately, she may become a passive player and emotionally absent herself from the process. The nurse is in a unique position of being able to assist the client to associate the sensations of labor with the process of childbirth and not the past abuse. The nurse can implement a number of care measures to help the client view the childbirth experience in a positive manner. Which intervention would be key for the nurse to use while providing care? a. Telling the client to relax and that it wont hurt much b. Limiting the number of procedures that invade her body c. Reassuring the client that as the nurse you know what is best d. Allowing unlimited care providers to be with the client

ANS: B The number of invasive procedures such as vaginal examinations, internal monitoring, and intravenous therapy should be limited as much as possible. The nurse should always avoid words and phrases that may result in the clients recalling the phrases of her abuser (e.g., Relax, this wont hurt or Just open your legs.) The womans sense of control should be maintained at all times. The nurse should explain procedures at the clients pace and wait for permission to proceed. Protecting the clients environment by providing privacy and limiting the number of staff who observe the client will help to make her feel safe.

Nurses alert to signs of the onset of the second stage of labor can be certain that this stage has begun when: a. The woman has a sudden episode of vomiting. b. The nurse is unable to feel the cervix during a vaginal examination. c. Bloody show increases. d. The woman involuntarily bears down.

ANS: B The only certain objective sign that the second stage has begun is the inability to feel the cervix because it is fully dilated and effaced. Vomiting, an increase in bloody show, and involuntary bearing down are only suggestions of second-stage labor.

The nurse is caring for a client whose labor is being augmented with oxytocin. He or she recognizes that the oxytocin should be discontinued immediately if there is evidence of: a. Uterine contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes. b. A fetal heart rate (FHR) of 180 with absence of variability. c. The clients needing to void. d. Rupture of the clients amniotic membranes.

ANS: B This FHR is nonreassuring. The oxytocin should be discontinued immediately, and the physician should be notified. The oxytocin should be discontinued if uterine hyperstimulation occurs. Uterine contractions that are occurring every 8 to 10 minutes do not qualify as hyperstimulation. The clients needing to void is not an indication to discontinue the oxytocin induction immediately or to call the physician. Unless a change occurs in the FHR pattern that is nonreassuring or the client experiences uterine hyperstimulation, the oxytocin does not need to be discontinued. The physician should be notified that the clients membranes have ruptured.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman realizes that variable fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are caused by: a. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Fetal hypoxemia

ANS: B Variable decelerations can occur any time during the uterine contracting phase and are caused by compression of the umbilical cord. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would result in tachycardia initially and then bradycardia if hypoxia continues.

With regard to dysfunctional labor, nurses should be aware that: a. Women who are underweight are more at risk. b. Women experiencing precipitous labor are about the only dysfunctionals not to be exhausted. c. Hypertonic uterine dysfunction is more common than hypotonic dysfunction. d. Abnormal labor patterns are most common in older women.

ANS: B Precipitous labor lasts less than 3 hours. Short women more than 30 pounds overweight are more at risk for dysfunctional labor. Hypotonic uterine dysfunction, in which the contractions become weaker, is more common. Abnormal labor patterns are more common in women less than 20 years of age.

2. The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug? a. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) b. Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations c. Assessing for bradycardia d. Assessing for hypoglycemia

ANS: B Terbutaline is a b2 -adrenergic agonist that affects the cardiopulmonary and metabolic systems of the mother. Signs of cardiopulmonary decompensation would include chest pain and palpitations. Assessing DTRs would not address these concerns. b2 -Adrenergic agonist drugs cause tachycardia, not bradycardia. The metabolic effect leads to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia

The nurse knows that the second stage of labor, the descent phase, has begun when: a. The amniotic membranes rupture. b. The cervix cannot be felt during a vaginal examination. c. The woman experiences a strong urge to bear down. d. The presenting part is below the ischial spines.

ANS: C During the descent phase of the second stage of labor, the woman may experience an increase in the urge to bear down. Rupture of membranes has no significance in determining the stage of labor. The second stage of labor begins with full cervical dilation. Many women may have an urge to bear down when the presenting part is below the level of the ischial spines. This can occur during the first stage of labor, as early as 5-cm dilation.

In planning for an expected cesarean birth for a woman who has given birth by cesarean previously and who has a fetus in the transverse presentation, which information would the nurse include? a. Because this is a repeat procedure, you are at the lowest risk for complications. b. Even though this is your second cesarean birth, you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures. c. Because this is your second cesarean birth, you will recover faster. d. You will not need preoperative teaching because this is your second cesarean birth.

ANS: B Even though this is your second cesarean birth, you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures is the most appropriate statement. It is not accurate to state that the woman is at the lowest risk for complications. Both maternal and fetal risks are associated with every cesarean section. Because this is your second cesarean birth, you will recover faster is not an accurate statement. Physiologic and psychologic recovery from a cesarean section is multifactorial and individual to each client each time. Preoperative teaching should always be performed, regardless of whether the client has already had this procedure.

14. A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor. Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications. She asks when she would be able to go home. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a. After the baby is born. b. When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits. c. Whenever the doctor says that it is okay. d. It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have.

ANS: B The clients preterm labor is being controlled with tocolytics. Once she is stable, home care may be a viable option for this type of client. Care of a woman with preterm labor is multifactorial; the goal is to prevent delivery. In many cases this may be achieved at home. Care of the preterm client is multidisciplinary and multifactorial. Managed care may dictate earlier hospital discharges or a shift from hospital to home care. Insurance coverage may be one factor in the care of clients, but ultimately client safety remains the most important factor.

Complications and risks associated with cesarean births include (Select all that apply): a. Placental abruption. b. Wound dehiscence. c. Hemorrhage. d. Urinary tract infections. e. Fetal injuries.

ANS: B, C, D, E Placental abruption and placenta previa are both indications for cesarean birth and are not complications thereof. Wound dehiscence, hemorrhage, urinary tract infection, and fetal injuries are all possible complications and risks associated with delivery by cesarean section.

The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues would alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation (Select all that apply)? a. Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency b. Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency c. Uterine tone <20 mm Hg d. Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e. Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring fetal heart rate (FHR) and pattern

ANS: B, D, E Uterine contractions that occur less than 2 minutes apart and last more than 90 seconds, a uterine tone of over 20 mm Hg, and a nonreassuring FHR and pattern are all indications of uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin administration. Uterine contractions that occur more than 2 minutes apart and last less than 90 seconds are the expected goal of oxytocin induction. A uterine tone of less than 20 mm Hg is normal.

Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction

ANS: C A bulging vulva that encircles the fetal head describes crowning, which occurs shortly before birth. Birth of the head occurs when the station is +4. A 0 station indicates engagement. Bloody show occurs throughout the labor process and is not an indication of an imminent birth. Rupture of membranes can occur at any time during the labor process and does not indicate an imminent birth.

The priority nursing care associated with an oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion is: a. Measuring urinary output. b. Increasing infusion rate every 30 minutes. c. Monitoring uterine response. d. Evaluating cervical dilation.

ANS: C Because of the risk of hyperstimulation, which could result in decreased placental perfusion and uterine rupture, the nurses priority intervention is monitoring uterine response. Monitoring urinary output is also important; however, it is not the top priority during the administration of Pitocin. The infusion rate may be increased after proper assessment that it is an appropriate interval to do so. Monitoring labor progression is the standard of care for all labor patients.

As relates to the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity, nurses should be aware that: a. The drugs can be given efficaciously up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks. b. There are no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c. Its most important function is to afford the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d. If the client develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytics, intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.

ANS: C Buying time for antenatal glucocorticoids to accelerate fetal lung development may be the best reason to use tocolytics. Once the pregnancy has reached 34 weeks, the risks of tocolytic therapy outweigh the benefits. There are important maternal contraindications to tocolytic therapy. Tocolytic-induced edema can be caused by IV fluids.

A nulliparous woman who has just begun the second stage of her labor would most likely: a. Experience a strong urge to bear down. b. Show perineal bulging. c. Feel tired yet relieved that the worst is over. d. Show an increase in bright red bloody show.

ANS: C Common maternal behaviors during the latent phase of the second stage of labor include feeling a sense of accomplishment and optimism because the worst is over. During the latent phase of the second stage of labor, the urge to bear down often is absent or only slight during the acme of contractions. Perineal bulging occurs during the transition phase of the second stage of labor, not at the beginning of the second stage. An increase in bright red bloody show occurs during the descent phase of the second stage of labor.

1. Fetal bradycardia is most common during: a. Intraamniotic infection. b. Fetal anemia. c. Prolonged umbilical cord compression. d. Tocolytic treatment using terbutaline.

ANS: C Fetal bradycardia can be considered a later sign of fetal hypoxia and is known to occur before fetal death. Bradycardia can result from placental transfer of drugs, prolonged compression of the umbilical cord, maternal hypothermia, and maternal hypotension. Intraamniotic infection, fetal anemia, and tocolytic treatment using terbutaline would most likely result in fetal tachycardia.

Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to: a. Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta. b. Increase amniotic fluid volume. c. Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. d. Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.

ANS: C It is accurate to state that Prepidil will be administered to ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. It is not administered to enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta, increase amniotic fluid volume, or stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that maternal hypotension can result in: a. Early decelerations. b. Fetal dysrhythmias. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Spontaneous rupture of membranes.

ANS: C Low maternal blood pressure reduces placental blood flow during uterine contractions and results in fetal hypoxemia. Maternal hypotension is not associated with early decelerations, fetal dysrhythmias, or spontaneous rupture of membranes.

The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate may be caused by: a. Narcotics. b. Barbiturates. c. Methamphetamines. d. Tranquilizers

ANS: C Narcotics, barbiturates, and tranquilizers may be causes of decreased variability; methamphetamines may cause increased variability.

Because the risk for childbirth complications may be revealed, nurses should know that the point of maximal intensity (PMI) of the fetal heart tone (FHT) is: a. Usually directly over the fetal abdomen. b. In a vertex position heard above the mothers umbilicus. c. Heard lower and closer to the midline of the mothers abdomen as the fetus descends and rotates internally. d. In a breech position heard below the mothers umbilicus.

ANS: C Nurses should be prepared for the shift. The PMI of the FHT usually is directly over the fetal back. In a vertex position it is heard below the mothers umbilicus. In a breech position it is heard above the mothers umbilicus.

Surgical, medical, or mechanical methods may be used for labor induction. Which technique is considered a mechanical method of induction? a. Amniotomy b. Intravenous Pitocin c. Transcervical catheter d. Vaginal insertion of prostaglandins

ANS: C Placement of a balloon-tipped Foley catheter into the cervix is a mechanical method of induction. Other methods to expand and gradually dilate the cervix include hydroscopic dilators such as laminaria tents (made from desiccated seaweed), or Lamicel (contains magnesium sulfate). Amniotomy is a surgical method of augmentation and induction. Intravenous Pitocin and insertion of prostaglandins are medical methods of induction

1. In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor, which concern must the nurse address? a. Nursing assessments will be different from those done in the hospital setting. b. Restricted activity and medications will be necessary to prevent recurrence of preterm labor. c. Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects. d. Home health care providers will be necessary

ANS: C Prolonged bed rest may cause adverse effects such as weight loss, loss of appetite, muscle wasting, weakness, bone demineralization, decreased cardiac output, risk for thrombophlebitis, alteration in bowel functions, sleep disturbance, and prolonged postpartum recovery. Nursing assessments will differ somewhat from those performed in the acute care setting, but this is not the concern that needs to be addressed. Restricted activity and medication may prevent preterm labor, but not in all women. In addition, the plan of care is individualized to meet the needs of each woman. Many women will receive home health nurse visits, but care is individualized for each woman.

The nurse caring for a woman in labor understands that prolonged decelerations: a. Are a continuing pattern of benign decelerations that do not require intervention. b. Constitute a baseline change when they last longer than 5 minutes. c. Usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. d. Require the usual fetal monitoring by the nurse.

ANS: C Prolonged decelerations usually are isolated events that end spontaneously. However, in certain combinations with late and/or variable decelerations, they are a danger sign that requires the nurse to notify the physician or midwife immediately. A deceleration that lasts longer than 10 minutes constitutes a baseline change

The nurse recognizes that a woman is in true labor when she states: a. I passed some thick, pink mucus when I urinated this morning. b. My bag of waters just broke. c. The contractions in my uterus are getting stronger and closer together. d. My baby dropped, and I have to urinate more frequently now.

ANS: C Regular, strong contractions with the presence of cervical change indicate that the woman is experiencing true labor. Loss of the mucous plug (operculum) often occurs during the first stage of labor or before the onset of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. Spontaneous rupture of membranes often occurs during the first stage of labor, but it is not the indicator of true labor. The presenting part of the fetus typically becomes engaged in the pelvis at the onset of labor, but this is not the indicator of true labor.

At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infants trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. What is the correct Apgar score for this infant? A. 7 B. 8 C. 9 D. 10

ANS: C The Apgar score is 9 because 1 point is deducted from the total score of 10 for the infants blue hands and feet. The baby received 2 points for each of the categories except color. Because the infants hands and feet were blue, this category is given a grade of 1.

According to standard professional thinking, nurses should auscultate the fetal heart rate (FHR): a. Every 15 minutes in the active phase of the first stage of labor in the absence of risk factors. b. Every 20 minutes in the second stage, regardless of whether risk factors are present. c. Before and after ambulation and rupture of membranes. d. More often in a womans first pregnancy.

ANS: C The FHR should be auscultated before and after administration of medications and induction of anesthesia. In the active phase of the first stage of labor, the FHR should be auscultated every 30 minutes if no risk factors are involved; with risk factors it should be auscultated every 15 minutes. In the second stage of labor the FHR should be auscultated every 15 minutes if no risk factors are involved; with risk factors it should be auscultated every 5 minutes. The fetus of a first-time mother is automatically at greater risk.

Which description of the phases of the second stage of labor is accurate? a. Latent phase: Feeling sleepy, fetal station 2+ to 4+, duration 30 to 45 minutes b. Active phase: Overwhelmingly strong contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, duration 5 to 15 minutes c. Descent phase: Significant increase in contractions, Ferguson reflux activated, average duration varied d. Transitional phase: Woman laboring down, fetal station 0, duration 15 minutes

ANS: C The descent phase begins with a significant increase in contractions; the Ferguson reflex is activated, and the duration varies, depending on a number of factors. The latent phase is the lull, or laboring down, period at the beginning of the second stage. It lasts 10 to 30 minutes on average. The second stage of labor has no active phase. The transition phase is the final phase in the second stage of labor; contractions are strong and painful

To provide safe care for the woman, the nurse understands that which condition is a contraindication for an amniotomy? a. Dilation less than 3 cm b. Cephalic presentation c. -2 station d. Right occiput posterior position

ANS: C The dilation of the cervix must be great enough to determine labor. The presenting part of the fetus should be engaged and well applied to the cervix before the procedure in order to prevent cord prolapse. Amniotomy is deferred if the presenting part is higher in the pelvis. ROP indicates a cephalic presentation, which is appropriate for an amniotomy.

The least common cause of long, difficult, or abnormal labor (dystocia) is: a. Midplane contracture of the pelvis. b. Compromised bearing-down efforts as a result of pain medication. c. Disproportion of the pelvis. d. Low-lying placenta.

ANS: C The least common cause of dystocia is disproportion of the pelvis.

The uterine contractions of a woman early in the active phase of labor are assessed by an internal uterine pressure catheter (IUPC). The nurse notes that the intrauterine pressure at the peak of the contraction ranges from 65 to 70 mm Hg and the resting tone range is 6 to 10 mm Hg. The uterine contractions occur every 3 to 4 minutes and last an average of 55 to 60 seconds. On the basis of this information, the nurse should: a. Notify the womans primary health care provider immediately. b. Prepare to administer an oxytocic to stimulate uterine activity. c. Document the findings because they reflect the expected contraction pattern for the active phase of labor. d. Prepare the woman for the onset of the second stage of labor.

ANS: C The nurse is responsible for monitoring the uterine contractions to ascertain whether they are powerful and frequent enough to accomplish the work of expelling the fetus and the placenta. In addition, the nurse would document these findings in the clients medical record. This labor pattern indicates that the client is in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Nothing indicates a need to notify the primary care provider at this time. Oxytocin augmentation is not needed for this labor pattern; this contraction pattern indicates adequate active labor. Her contractions eventually will become stronger, last longer, and come closer together during the transition phase of the first stage of labor. The transition phase precedes the second stage of labor, or delivery of the fetus.

Which action is correct when palpation is used to assess the characteristics and pattern of uterine contractions? a. Place the hand on the abdomen below the umbilicus and palpate uterine tone with the fingertips. b. Determine the frequency by timing from the end of one contraction to the end of the next contraction. c. Evaluate the intensity by pressing the fingertips into the uterine fundus. d. Assess uterine contractions every 30 minutes throughout the first stage of labor.

ANS: C The nurse or primary care provider may assess uterine activity by palpating the fundal section of the uterus using the fingertips. Many women may experience labor pain in the lower segment of the uterus that may be unrelated to the firmness of the contraction detectable in the uterine fundus. The frequency of uterine contractions is determined by palpating from the beginning of one contraction to the beginning of the next contraction. Assessment of uterine activity is performed in intervals based on the stage of labor. As labor progresses this assessment is performed more frequently.

What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat-to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions.

ANS: C The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor, particularly when the membranes are intact. Short-term changes cannot be measured with this technology. The tocotransducer cannot measure and record the intensity of UCs. The transducer must be repositioned when the woman or fetus changes position.

The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the characteristics of true labor contractions. The nurse evaluates the womans understanding of the instructions when she states, True labor contractions will: a. Subside when I walk around. b. Cause discomfort over the top of my uterus. c. Continue and get stronger even if I relax and take a shower. d. Remain irregular but become stronger.

ANS: C True labor contractions occur regularly, becoming stronger, lasting longer, and occurring closer together. They may become intense during walking and continue despite comfort measures. Typically true labor contractions are felt in the lower back, radiating to the lower portion of the abdomen. During false labor, contractions tend to be irregular and felt in the abdomen above the navel. Typically the contractions often stop with walking or a change of position.

The nurse providing care for the laboring woman should understand that late fetal heart rate (FHR) decelerations are the result of: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. b. Umbilical cord compression. c. Uteroplacental insufficiency. d. Meconium fluid.

ANS: C Uteroplacental insufficiency would result in late decelerations in the FHR. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR. Meconium-stained fluid may or may not produce changes in the fetal heart rate, depending on the gestational age of the fetus and whether other causative factors associated with fetal distress are present.

A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. Two hours ago her vaginal examination revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part was at station 0. Five minutes ago her vaginal examination indicated that there had been no change. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a. Prolonged latent phase c. Arrest of active phase b. Protracted active phase d. Protracted descent

ANS: C With an arrest of the active phase, the progress of labor has stopped. This client has not had any anticipated cervical change, thus indicating an arrest of labor. In the nulliparous woman a prolonged latent phase typically would last more than 20 hours. A protracted active phase, the first or second stage of labor, would be prolonged (slow dilation). With protracted descent, the fetus would fail to descend at an anticipated rate during the deceleration phase and second stage of labor.

A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this womans labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing pelvic dystocia

ANS: C Women who experience hypertonic uterine dysfunction, or primary dysfunctional labor, often are anxious firsttime mothers who are having painful and frequent contractions that are ineffective at causing cervical dilation or effacement to progress. With hypotonic uterine dysfunction, the woman initially makes normal progress into the active stage of labor; then the contractions become weak and inefficient or stop altogether. The contraction pattern seen in this woman signifies hypertonic uterine activity. Typically uterine activity in this phase occurs at 4- to 5-minute intervals lasting 30 to 45 seconds. Pelvic dystocia can occur whenever contractures of the pelvic diameters reduce the capacity of the bony pelvis, including the inlet, midpelvis, outlet, or any combination of these planes.

It is paramount for the obstetric nurse to understand the regulatory procedures and criteria for admitting a woman to the hospital labor unit. Which guideline is an important legal requirement of maternity care? a. The patient is not considered to be in true labor (according to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act [EMTALA]) until a qualified health care provider says she is. b. The woman can have only her male partner or predesignated doula with her at assessment. c. The patients weight gain is calculated to determine whether she is at greater risk for cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) and cesarean birth. d. The nurse may exchange information about the patient with family members

ANS: C According to EMTALA, a woman is entitled to active labor care and is presumed to be in true labor until a qualified health care provider certifies otherwise. A woman can have anyone she wishes present for her support. The risk for CPD is especially great for petite women or those who have gained 16 kg or more. All patients should have their weight and BMI calculated on admission. This is part of standard nursing care on a maternity unit and not a regulatory concern. According to the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the patient must give consent for others to receive any information related to her condition.

The nurse providing care to a woman in labor should understand that cesarean birth: a. Is declining in frequency in the twenty-first century in the United States. b. Is more likely to be performed for poor women in public hospitals who do not receive the nurse counseling as do wealthier clients. c. Is performed primarily for the benefit of the fetus. d. Can be either elected or refused by women as their absolute legal right.

ANS: C The most common indications for cesarean birth are danger to the fetus related to labor and birth complications. Cesarean births are increasing in the United States in this century. Wealthier women who have health insurance and who give birth in a private hospital are more likely to experience cesarean birth. A womans right to elect cesarean surgery is in dispute, as is her right to refuse it if in doing so she endangers the fetus. Legal issues are not absolutely clear.

A nurse may be called on to stimulate the fetal scalp: a. As part of fetal scalp blood sampling. b. In response to tocolysis. c. In preparation for fetal oxygen saturation monitoring. d. To elicit an acceleration in the fetal heart rate (FHR).

ANS: D The scalp can be stimulated using digital pressure during a vaginal examination. Fetal scalp blood sampling involves swabbing the scalp with disinfectant before a sample is collected. The nurse would stimulate the fetal scalp to elicit an acceleration of the FHR. Tocolysis is relaxation of the uterus. Fetal oxygen saturation monitoring involves the insertion of a sensor.

The most common cause of decreased variability in the fetal heart rate (FHR) that lasts 30 minutes or less is: a. Altered cerebral blood flow. b. Fetal hypoxemia. c. Umbilical cord compression. d. Fetal sleep cycles.

ANS: D A temporary decrease in variability can occur when the fetus is in a sleep state. These sleep states do not usually last longer than 30 minutes. Altered fetal cerebral blood flow would result in early decelerations in the FHR. Fetal hypoxemia would be evidenced by tachycardia initially and then bradycardia. A persistent decrease or loss of FHR variability may be seen. Umbilical cord compression would result in variable decelerations in the FHR.

When a nulliparous woman telephones the hospital to report that she is in labor, the nurse initially should: a. Tell the woman to stay home until her membranes rupture. b. Emphasize that food and fluid intake should stop. c. Arrange for the woman to come to the hospital for labor evaluation. d. Ask the woman to describe why she believes she is in labor.

ANS: D Assessment begins at the first contact with the woman, whether by telephone or in person. By asking the woman to describe her signs and symptoms, the nurse can begin the assessment and gather data. The amniotic membranes may or may not spontaneously rupture during labor. The client may be instructed to stay home until the uterine contractions become strong and regular. The nurse may want to discuss the appropriate oral intake for early labor such as light foods or clear liquids, depending on the preference of the client or her primary health care provider. Before instructing the woman to come to the hospital, the nurse should initiate the assessment during the telephone interview.

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. What finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

ANS: D Cervical changes such as shortened endocervical length, effacement, and dilation are predictors of imminent preterm labor. Changes in the cervix accompanied by regular contractions indicate labor at any gestation. Estriol is a form of estrogen produced by the fetus that is present in plasma at 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been shown to increase before preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions that do not cause cervical change are not considered a threat. The presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation could predict preterm labor, but it has only a 20% to 40% positive predictive value. Of more importance are other physiologic clues of preterm labor such as cervical changes.

When assessing the relative advantages and disadvantages of internal and external electronic fetal monitoring, nurses comprehend that both: a. Can be used when membranes are intact. b. Measure the frequency, duration, and intensity of uterine contractions. c. May need to rely on the woman to indicate when uterine activity (UA) is occurring. d. Can be used during the antepartum and intrapartum periods.

ANS: D External monitoring can be used in both periods; internal monitoring can be used only in the intrapartum period. For internal monitoring the membranes must have ruptured, and the cervix must be sufficiently dilated. Internal monitoring measures the intensity of contractions; external monitoring cannot do this. With external monitoring, the woman may need to alert the nurse that UA is occurring; internal monitoring does not require this.

With regard to the care management of preterm labor, nurses should be aware that: a. Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so hit-and-miss, teaching pregnant women the symptoms probably causes more harm through false alarms. b. Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c. Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d. The diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.

ANS: D Gestational age of 20 to 37 weeks, uterine contractions, and a cervix that is 80% effaced or dilated 2 cm indicates preterm labor. It is essential that nurses teach women how to detect the early symptoms of preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions resemble preterm labor contractions, but they are not true labor. Waiting too long to see a health care provider could result in not administering essential medications. Preterm labor is not necessarily long-term labor.

The standard of care for obstetrics dictates that an internal version may be used to manipulate the: a. Fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins. b. Fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before cesarean birth. c. Second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins. d. Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during vaginal birth.

ANS: D Internal version is used only during vaginal birth to manipulate the second twin into a presentation that allows it to be born vaginally. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be completely dilated.

For the labor nurse, care of the expectant mother begins with any or all of these situations, with the exception of: a. The onset of progressive, regular contractions. b. The bloody, or pink, show. c. The spontaneous rupture of membranes. d. Formulation of the womans plan of care for labor.

ANS: D Labor care begins when progressive, regular contractions begin; the blood-tinged mucoid vaginal discharge appears; or fluid is discharged from the vagina. The woman and nurse can formulate their plan of care before labor or during treatment.

Which fetal heart rate (FHR) finding would concern the nurse during labor? a. Accelerations with fetal movement b. Early decelerations c. An average FHR of 126 beats/min d. Late decelerations

ANS: D Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency and are associated with fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent and uncorrected. Accelerations in the FHR are an indication of fetal well- being. Early decelerations in the FHR are associated with head compression as the fetus descends into the maternal pelvic outlet; they generally are not a concern during normal labor.

When using intermittent auscultation (IA) for fetal heart rate, nurses should be aware that: a. They can be expected to cover only two or three clients when IA is the primary method of fetal assessment. b. The best course is to use the descriptive terms associated with electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) when documenting results. c. If the heartbeat cannot be found immediately, a shift must be made to EFM. d. Ultrasound can be used to find the fetal heartbeat and reassure the mother if initial difficulty was a factor.

ANS: D Locating fetal heartbeats often takes time. Mothers can be reassured verbally and by the ultrasound pictures if ultrasound is used to help locate the heartbeat. When used as the primary method of fetal assessment, auscultation requires a nurse-to-client ratio of one to one. Documentation should use only terms that can be numerically defined; the usual visual descriptions of EFM are inappropriate.

As a perinatal nurse you realize that a fetal heart rate that is tachycardic, is bradycardic, or has late decelerations or loss of variability is nonreassuring and is associated with: a. Hypotension. b. Cord compression. c. Maternal drug use. d. Hypoxemia.

ANS: D Nonreassuring heart rate patterns are associated with fetal hypoxemia. Fetal bradycardia may be associated with maternal hypotension. Fetal variable decelerations are associated with cord compression. Maternal drug use is associated with fetal tachycardia.

Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b. Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c. Preterm labor and birth d. Post-term gestation

ANS: D Post-term gestation is not likely to be seen with a breech presentation. The presence of meconium in a breech presentation may result from pressure on the fetal wall as it traverses the birth canal. Fetal heart tones heard at the level of the umbilical level of the mother are a typical finding in a breech presentation because the fetal back would be located in the upper abdominal area. Breech presentations often occur in preterm births.

Which collection of risk factors most likely would result in damaging lacerations (including episiotomies)? a. A dark-skinned woman who has had more than one pregnancy, who is going through prolonged second-stage labor, and who is attended by a midwife b. A reddish-haired mother of two who is going through a breech birth c. A dark-skinned, first-time mother who is going through a long labor d. A first-time mother with reddish hair whose rapid labor was overseen by an obstetrician

ANS: D Reddish-haired women have tissue that is less distensible than that of darker-skinned women and therefore may have less efficient healing. First time mothers are also more at risk, especially with breech births, long second-stage labors, or rapid labors in which there is insufficient time for the perineum to stretch. The rate of episiotomies is higher when obstetricians rather than midwives attend births.

For a woman at 42 weeks of gestation, which finding would require further assessment by the nurse? a. Fetal heart rate of 116 beats/min b. Cervix dilated 2 cm and 50% effaced c. Score of 8 on the biophysical profile d. One fetal movement noted in 1 hour of assessment by the mother

ANS: D Self-care in a post-term pregnancy should include performing daily fetal kick counts three times per day. The mother should feel four fetal movements per hour. If fewer than four movements have been felt by the mother, she should count for 1 more hour. Fewer than four movements in that hour warrants evaluation. Normal findings in a 42-week gestation include fetal heart rate of 116 beats/min, cervix dilated 20 cm and 50% effaced, and a score of 8 on the biophysical profile.

While evaluating an external monitor tracing of a woman in active labor whose labor is being induced, the nurse notes that the fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to decelerate at the onset of several contractions and returns to baseline before each contraction ends. The nurse should: a. Change the womans position. b. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion. c. Insert an internal monitor. d. Document the finding in the clients record.

ANS: D The FHR indicates early decelerations, which are not an ominous sign and do not require any intervention. The nurse should simply document these findings.

The priority nursing intervention after an amniotomy should be to: a. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid. b. Change the patients gown. c. Estimate the amount of amniotic fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate.

ANS: D The fetal heart rate must be assessed immediately after the rupture of the membranes to determine whether cord prolapse or compression has occurred. Secondary to FHR assessment, amniotic fluid amount, color, odor, and consistency is assessed. Dry clothing is important for patient comfort; however, it is not the top priority.

If a woman complains of back labor pain, the nurse could best suggest that she: a. Lie on her back for a while with her knees bent. b. Do less walking around. c. Take some deep, cleansing breaths. d. Lean over a birth ball with her knees on the floor.

ANS: D The hands-and-knees position, with or without the aid of a birth ball, should help with the back pain. The supine position should be discouraged. Walking generally is encouraged.

The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a womans progress in labor should: a. Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor. b. Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position. c. Wear two clean gloves for each examination. d. Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner.

ANS: D The nurse should discuss the findings of the vaginal examination with the woman and her partner and report them to the primary care provider. A vaginal examination should be performed only when indicated by the status of the woman and her fetus. The woman should be positioned to avoid supine hypotension. The examiner should wear a sterile glove while performing a vaginal examination for a laboring woman.

The nurse practicing in a labor setting knows that the woman most at risk for uterine rupture is: a. A gravida 3 who has had two low-segment transverse cesarean births. b. A gravida 2 who had a low-segment vertical incision for delivery of a 10-pound infant. c. A gravida 5 who had two vaginal births and two cesarean births. d. A gravida 4 who has had all cesarean births.

ANS: D The risk of uterine rupture increases for the patient who has had multiple prior births withno vaginal births. As the number of prior uterine incisions increases, so does the risk for uterine rupture. Low-segment transverse cesarean scars do not predispose the patient to uterine rupture.

3. In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours b. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL

ANS: D The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 5 to 8 mg/dL. A serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL could lead to signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity, including oliguria and respiratory distress. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours, deep tendon reflexes 2+ with no clonus, and respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min are normal findings.

A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurses initial response would be to: a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the womans primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern

ANS: D The umbilical cord may prolapse when the membranes rupture. The fetal heart rate and pattern should be monitored closely for several minutes immediately after ROM to ascertain fetal well-being, and the findings should be documented. Rupture of membranes (ROM) may increase the intensity and frequency of the uterine contractions, but it does not indicate that birth is imminent. The nurse may notify the primary care provider after ROM occurs and fetal well-being and the response to ROM have been assessed. The nurses priority is to assess fetal well-being. The nurse should document the characteristics of the amniotic fluid, but the initial response is to assess fetal well-being and the response to ROM.

A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor.

ANS: D This situation describes a woman with normal assessments who is probably in false labor and will likely not deliver rapidly once true labor begins. There is no indication that further assessments or observations are indicated; therefore, the patient will be discharged along with instructions to return when contractions increase in intensity and frequency. Neither a cesarean birth nor a sedative is required at this time

You are evaluating the fetal monitor tracing of your client, who is in active labor. Suddenly you see the fetal heart rate (FHR) drop from its baseline of 125 down to 80. You reposition the mother, provide oxygen, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and perform a vaginal examination. The cervix has not changed. Five minutes have passed, and the fetal heart rate remains in the 80s. What additional nursing measures should you take? a. Scream for help. b. Insert a Foley catheter. c. Start Pitocin. d. Notify the care provider immediately.

ANS: D To relieve an FHR deceleration, the nurse can reposition the mother, increase IV fluid, and provide oxygen. If oxytocin is infusing, it should be discontinued. If the FHR does not resolve, the primary care provider should be notified immediately. Inserting a Foley catheter is an inappropriate nursing action. If the FHR were to continue in a nonreassuring pattern, a cesarean section could be warranted, which would require a Foley catheter. However, the physician must make that determination. Pitocin may place additional stress on the fetus.

In documenting labor experiences, nurses should know that a uterine contraction is described according to all these characteristics except: a. Frequency (how often contractions occur). b. Intensity (the strength of the contraction at its peak). c. Resting tone (the tension in the uterine muscle). d. Appearance (shape and height).

ANS: D Uterine contractions are described in terms of frequency, intensity, duration, and resting tone.

Nurses should be aware that the induction of labor: a. Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques. b. Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL). c. Is almost always done for medical reasons. d. Is rated for viability by a Bishop score.

ANS: D Induction of labor is likely to be more successful with a Bishop score of 9 or higher for first-time mothers and 5 or higher for veterans. Version is turning of the fetus to a better position by a physician for an easier or safer birth. A trial of labor is the observance of a woman and her fetus for several hours of active labor to assess the safety of vaginal birth. Two thirds of cases of induced labor are elective and are not done for medical reasons.

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