Ch 3 - Assessment and Health Promotion

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1 Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or greater. A BMI of 32 puts the woman into the obese category. Overweight is defined as a BMI of 25 to 29.9.

A body mass index (BMI) of 32 is calculated for a woman. The nurse knows that this index puts the woman into which category of weight? 1 Obesity 2 Appropriate 3 Underweight 4 Overweight

The nurse is assessing a woman's breast self-examination (BSE) technique. Which action indicates that the woman needs additional instruction regarding BSE? 1 Performs every month on the first day of her menstrual period 2 Uses the pads of her fingers when palpating each breast 3 Inspects her breasts while standing before a mirror and changing arm positions 4 Places a folded towel under right shoulder and right hand under head when palpating right breast

1 BSE should be performed once a month after the menstrual period has ended. Using the pads of the fingers when palpating each breast, inspecting the breasts while standing before a mirror, placing a folded towel under the right shoulder and right hand under the head are appropriate actions for BSE.

What does the nurse regularly monitor in a patient with cocaine addiction to prevent its associated complications? 1 Blood pressure 2 Blood glucose levels 3 Blood uric acid levels 4 White blood cell counts

1 Cocaine impairs cardiac functioning and causes cardiovascular disorders, such as tachycardia and hypertension. Therefore, to prevent these complications the nurse should regularly monitor blood pressure and heart rate of the patient. Cocaine does not affect the pancreas and insulin levels, so it is not mandatory to regularly monitor blood glucose levels. Cocaine also does not affect hyperuricemia and leucopenia. Therefore, the nurse need not assess the blood uric acid levels and white blood cell count.

A body mass index (BMI) of 32 is calculated for a woman. The nurse knows that this index puts the woman into which category of weight? 1 Obesity 2 Appropriate 3 Underweight 4 Overweight

1 Obesity is defined as a BMI of 30 or greater. A BMI of 32 puts the woman into the obese category. Overweight is defined as a BMI of 25 to 29.9.

A 42-year-old woman asks the nurse about mammograms, now that she is "getting older." The nurse should tell her that: 1 the American Cancer Society recommends mammograms every 1 to 2 years for women ages 40 to 49. 2 the best time to perform a mammogram is just before a menstrual period. 3 regular mammograms reduce the need to perform breast self-examination (BSE). 4 mammograms can confirm the diagnosis for breast cance

1 The current guidelines indicate that a mammogram should be performed every 1 to 2 years on women between the ages of 40 and 49. Mammograms are best performed beginning at about 1 week after menstruation when the breasts are the least tender. Mammograms are not a substitute for BSE, which should still be performed every month. A biopsy of cells from suspicious lesions is required to confirm a diagnosis of cancer.

At a community health care center, the nurse advises a patient to regularly self-examine the breast for early detection of changes in the breast tissue. What instruction does the nurse give while teaching the procedure to the patient? 1 "Palpate the breast slowly with the tip of your three middle fingers." 2 "Lie down and place your hands straight without bending the shoulders." 3 "Apply light pressure to feel the breast tissue close to the chest and ribs." 4 "Observe for presence of a firm ridge in the lower curve of the breast."

1 The nurse should instruct the patient to palpate the breast with the tips of the three middle fingers. This helps to identify the presence of lumps in the breast. While examining the breast the patient should choose a comfortable position. For instance, lying down and placing the pillow under the shoulder helps examine all the breast tissue, such as near the shoulders from the collarbone to under arms. Due to the presence of bony covering, firm pressure should be applied to assess the tissue near to the chest and rib. Appearance of firm ridge in the lower curve of the breast is a normal finding. Dimpling of skin, changes in the nipple, redness, or swelling in the breast are the signs of breast disorders.

Which statement provides correct information about performing a Papanicolaou (Pap) test? 1 The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test. 2 It should be performed once a year beginning with the onset of puberty. 3 A lubricant such as Vaseline should be used to ease speculum insertion. 4 The specimen for the Pap test should be obtained after specimens are collected for cervical infection.

1 Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 hours before the examination to not alter the cytology results. Pap tests are performed annually for sexually active women or by age 18, especially if risk factors for cervical cancer or reproductive tract infections are present. Pap tests may be performed every 3 years in low risk women after three negative results on annual examination. Only warm water should be used on the speculum so as not to alter the cytology results. The cytologic specimen should be obtained first.

The nurse prepares to communicate with an abused patient. The nurse finds that the patient has pain due to pelvic fracture. Which points does the nurse keep in mind before communicating with the patient? Select all that apply. 1 To sit with the patient in a closed room. 2 To tell the patient,"You are not alone." 3 To teach pelvic muscle exercises to the patient. 4 To tell the patient that the pelvic pain is progressive. 5 To inform the patient that pelvic fracture may cause amenorrhea.

1, 2 There are certain guidelines that a nurse should follow while communicating with patients who have been abused. The nurse should sit down with the patient in a closed room and reassure the patient that he or she is not alone, as this helps build trust and enhance the patient's self-esteem. The patient is taught pelvic muscle exercises to strengthen the muscles that support the pelvic floor in order to prevent accidental urine loss. These exercises are taught after interacting with the patient and making the patient feel comfortable. Nurses should not make the patient feel anxious by giving wrong information that the pelvic pain is progressive. The nurse should assure the patient that better treatment will be provided for having effective relief from the pain. Dysrhythmias and amenorrhea are caused due to anorexia nervosa. Therefore, the nurse should not give false information that pelvic fracture may cause amenorrhea.

The women's health nurse knows which statements regarding sexual response are accurate? Select all that apply. 1 Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. 2 Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. 3 The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. 4 Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal. 5 Sexual difficulties should be disregarded in the postpartum period.

1, 2, 4 Men and women are more alike than different in regards to the physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia). Sexual difficulties should be addressed during the postpartum period.

The primary health care provider (PHP) suggests acupuncture for a pregnant patient. Which symptoms in the patient made the PHP suggest acupuncture? Select all that apply. 1 Seizures 2 Agitation 3 Tachycardia 4 Hallucinations 5 Mild euphoria

1, 3 Acupuncture is the best treatment for cocaine abuse in pregnancy. Seizures and tachycardia are the effects of cocaine abuse. Agitation is produced by phencyclidine (PCP) and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) (Delsyd). PCP causes hallucinations and other dissociative symptoms. Mild euphoria is produced by marijuana.

Which symptoms are noted by the nurse while assessing a patient with stress? Select all that apply. 1 Grinding of teeth. 2 Accentuated alertness. 3 The patient cries for no reason. 4 Sweaty hands. 5 The patient has low blood pressure.

1, 3, 4 During stress the patient becomes nervous and has anxiety. Therefore, while assessing a patient with stress the nurse should make a note of the symptoms, such as grinding teeth, crying for no reason, and having sweaty hands. During stress the patient has reduced attention and impaired decision-making abilities. The blood pressure increases during stress due to elevated levels of norepinephrine. Therefore, being on extreme alert and having low blood pressure are not indicative of stress.

The nurse records the body mass index (BMI) of a patient and finds that the patient is overweight. What would be the approximate BMI of the patient? 1 17.5 2 28.3 3 32.6 4 22.9

2 A BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 is an indication of being overweight. In this case, the patient's BMI would be 28.3. If BMI is 17.5 or below 18.5, then the patient is said to be underweight. The BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 indicates normal weight, and a range of 30.0 to 34.5 indicates obesity. Hence, the patient's BMI may not be 32.6 or 22.9.

The primary health care provider observes fetal hyperactivity in a pregnant patient. What is a possible reason for fetal hyperactivity? 1 Pregnant woman had acupuncture treatment. 2 Methadone maintenance treatment during pregnancy. 3 Inadequate maternal intake of calcium supplements. 4 Inadequate maternal intake of folic acid supplements.

2 Fetal hyperactivity is a withdrawal symptom of methadone consumption in pregnant patients, which is used to treat opiate abuse. As methadone is more rapidly metabolized in the pregnant patient, the treatment should be closely monitored. Acupuncture is used to treat cocaine abuse in pregnancy. Cocaine abuse causes an increased incidence of miscarriage, preterm labor, small-for-gestational age babies, abruption of placenta, and stillbirth and anomalies. Inadequate intake of calcium supplements leads to osteoporosis in the pregnant patient. Folic acid insufficiency in the pregnant patient increases the risk of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly.

Which exercises should the nurse teach a patient to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor? 1 Squat exercises 2 Kegel exercises 3 Plank exercises 4 Aerobic exercises

2 Kegel exercises are pelvic muscle exercises that involve the tightening and relaxing of the muscles that support the bladder and urethra. Squat exercises are for buttocks and thighs to strengthen the legs. Plank exercises are used for the abdomen, shoulders, and chest muscles. Aerobic exercise increases the metabolism and helps with weight loss. Aerobic exercise does not help to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with injuries and burns. When interacting with the patient, the nurse understands that the patient is being physically abused by the intimate partner. What will be the immediate action of the nurse? 1 Tell the patient, "It is your mistake to tolerate your partner's misbehavior." 2 Tell the patient, "It is a crime, and you deserve to be treated with respect." 3 Ask the patient, "Why you are silent and not revolting against your partner?" 4 Talk to the patient's partner and advise to stop abusing the patient during pregnancy.

2 Many patients who have been physically abused have low self-esteem and depression. The nurse should effectively communicate with the patients to increase their self-esteem. The nurse should give moral support to the patient by saying, "It is a crime, and you deserve to be treated with respect." Such a statement provides comfort to the patient, as it shows that the nurse is understanding and perceptive. Making the patient feel to blame could cause the patient to become more depressed, which would lead to withdrawal. Additionally, making negative remarks like, "It is your mistake to tolerate," may make the patient defensive, and, in turn, cause the patient to stop interacting with the nurse. The nurse should avoid asking the patient why she remains silent, because this may come across as if the nurse is blaming her for being abused. The nurse should not talk to the patient's partner, as it may put the patient in further danger.

A pregnant patient is admitted to the emergency department. The laboratory reports show that there is increased carbon dioxide level in the blood and improper oxygen supply to the fetus. On evaluating the medical history of the patient, the nurse finds that the patient is addicted to drugs. Which drug did the patient use? 1 Cocaine 2 Marijuana 3 Phencyclidine 4 Methamphetamine

2 Marijuana is a substance derived from the cannabis plant, which causes an altered state of awareness. In a pregnant patient marijuana readily crosses the placenta and increases carbon dioxide levels in the mother's blood, which leads to a reduced oxygen supply to the fetus. Cocaine is a powerful nervous system stimulant that causes high pleasure, but, in pregnant patients, can lead to miscarriage, stillbirth, or preterm labor. Phencyclidine (PCP) is a synthetic drug. It causes dissociative symptoms, such as hallucination and disordered thinking. Methamphetamine is a highly addictive stimulant that makes the user feel hypersexual and uninhibited. In the pregnant patient, the use of methamphetamine leads to preterm birth and intrauterine growth restriction.

The nurse-midwife is teaching a group of pregnant women about Kegel exercises. Which statement by a participant indicates a correct understanding of the instruction? 1 "I will only see results if I perform 100 Kegel exercises each day." 2 "I should hold the Kegel exercise contraction for 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds between exercises." 3 "I should only perform Kegel exercises in the sitting position." 4 "I will perform daily Kegel exercises during the last trimester of my pregnancy to achieve the best results."

2 The correct technique for Kegel exercises is to hold the contraction for at least 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds in between so the muscles can have time to recover and each contraction can be as strong as the woman can make it. Guidelines suggest that women perform between 30 and 80 Kegel exercises. Kegel exercises are best performed in a supine position with the knees bent. Kegel exercises should be performed throughout the pregnancy to achieve the best results.

The nurse is preparing to conduct a pelvic exam in a patient with trichomoniasis. The nurse finds that the patient has visual impairment and is physically disabled. Which action does the nurse employ while conducting the test? 1 The nurse conducts the test in the presence of the patient's family member. 2 The nurse informs about each step to the patient before performing the test. 3 The nurse asks the patient to lie in lithotomy position during the pelvic exam. 4 The nurse takes the permission of the patient's family members for conducting the test.

2 While assessing and examining a patient with visual impairment and physical disability, the nurse should make the patient feel comfortable to reduce the patient's anxiety. The nurse should explain the examination and inform the patient before touching him or her. The nurse should conduct the pelvic examination in a private and comfortable setting. The patient may not be comfortable with the presence of the family members during the examination. Lithotomy position may not be comfortable to physically disabled patients. Hence, the nurse should explain different positions to the patient and ask which position may be most comfortable for him or her. The nurse should take the permission of the patient before conducting the test, as it helps to establish trust and reduce anxiety.

What should the clinic nurse include in the instructions for a woman scheduling a pelvic examination? Select all that apply. 1 You can use a douche the day before the examination. 2 You should avoid intercourse for 24-48 hours before the examination. 3 Be sure to apply any vaginal medication you are taking before the examination. 4 If you start your menstrual cycle on the day of the examination, we will need to reschedule. 5 Arrive at the clinic with a full bladder.

2, 4 The complete gynecologic assessment includes a pelvic examination. The woman should schedule the examination between menstrual periods and should not douche or have sexual intercourse for 24-48 hours before the examination. She also is advised not to use vaginal medications, sprays, or deodorants that might interfere with interpretation of specimens that are collected. A full bladder is not necessary for a pelvic examination and could be uncomfortable for the client.

What is the purpose of recommending a Papanicolaou (Pap) test for women over 20 years of age? To detect if the patient has: 1 An infection. 2 Conceived. 3 Cervical cancer. 4 Been sexually abused.

3 A Pap test is commonly recommended for women between 20 to 65 years of age to detect the presence of carcinogenic conditions, such as cervical cancers. Urinary tract infection can be assessed by doing a urine culture. Pregnancy can be determined by assessing the human chorionic gonadotropin levels in the urine or blood. The smear from the vagina is examined for presence of sperm to find out if the woman has been sexually abused.

A patient is suffering from a sleep disorder. What advice does the nurse give to the patient to improve sleep? 1 Do aerobics for 2 hours before sleeping. 2 Consume energy drinks before sleeping. 3 Avoid consuming alcohol before sleeping. 4 Try to sleep at all possible times for few weeks.

3 Difficulty staying asleep or initiating sleep is correlated to physical and mental health. Alcohol should be avoided to improve sleep as it causes a hazy mind and proper rest is not provided. Physical strain or vigorous activity, like aerobics, should be avoided before sleep. Instead the patient must be advised to partake in soothing activities, such as guided imagery and listening to soft music. Energy drinks contains high amounts of caffeine, which affect the central nervous system and can lead to sleep deprivation. Hence, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid consuming energy drinks before going to bed. To prevent sleep disorders the patient must be encouraged to follow a regular sleep pattern. This promotes a proper sleep-wake cycle. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to not sleep unnecessarily, and the patient should sleep only at night.

The nurse is teaching a woman of childbearing age about the purpose of a pelvic examination. Which statement made by the woman indicates further teaching is needed? 1 "I know the pelvic exam is done to take samples for the Pap test." 2 "I know the health care provider will be palpating my uterus during the pelvic exam." 3 "I know they will be able to feel my fallopian tubes and check them during the pelvic exam." 4 "I know they can collect a sample during the pelvic exam to rule out if I have chlamydia."

3 Feeling the fallopian tubes usually is not possible during a pelvic examination, so the woman needs further teaching if a statement is made that the fallopian tubes will be checked. The pelvic examination is done to take a Pap sample, a chlamydia sample, and the uterus is palpated during the pelvic examination.

While assessing a patient using the SCOFF questionnaire, the nurse finds that the patient has gradually lost weight over several months. What factor responsible for weight loss does the nurse suspect in the patient? 1 Obesity 2 Stress 3 Anorexia nervosa 4 Lack of physical activity

3 SCOFF is a questionnaire used to assess whether the patient has anorexia nervosa—an eating disorder. Obesity results in an increase of weight rather than a decrease of weight. Stress results in hormonal imbalance, muscle tenseness, and a weakened immune system. Exercise helps to strengthen and support muscles, lowers stress, and helps prevent diseases. A drastic decrease in weight is not due to lack of physical exercise.

The nurse is providing instruction to an adolescent regarding the normal menstrual cycle. To assess understanding, the nurse asks the young woman to repeat back to her the appropriate phase of the cycle for implantation of the fertilized ovum to occur. The correct phase is: 1 Menstrual 2 Proliferative 3 Secretory

3 The menstrual phase is marked by the shedding of the lining of the uterus. This phase lasts 3 to 5 days and is known as the woman's period. The proliferative phase beings at the end of menses and is one of restoration and repair. Under the influence of estrogen the uterine lining proliferates and becomes more vascular. During the secretory phase the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum results in the thickening of the uterine lining, creating the perfect environment for the fertilized ovum.

The nurse should include questions regarding sexuality when gathering data for a reproductive health history of a female patient. Which principle should guide the nurse when interviewing the patient? 1 An in-depth exploration of specific sexual practices should be included for every patient. 2 Sexual histories are optional if the patient is not currently sexually active. 3 Misconceptions and inaccurate information expressed by the patient should be corrected promptly. 4 Questions regarding the patient's sexual relationship are unnecessary if she is monogamous.

3 To obtain the most accurate reproductive health history, the nurse needs to correct misconceptions and inaccurate information. More in-depth assessments are required if the patient is sexually active or if problems or concerns are raised during general questions. Sexuality should be included on every reproductive health history whether or not the patient is sexually active. The relationship and sexual partner should be discussed even if the patient is monogamous.

What risk factors does the nurse assess in a patient during preconception care? Select all that apply. 1 Gingivitis 2 Sleep disorder 3 Exposure to toxic chemicals 4 Down syndrome and cystic fibrosis 5 Hypertension, diabetes, and anemia

3, 4, 5 The nurse should assess patients for risk factors, such as toxic chemicals exposure, Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, hypertension, diabetes, and anemia, during preconception care to minimize fetal malformations and miscarriage. Sleep disorders and gingivitis do not cause fetal malformation and miscarriage. However, advising the patient to avoid consuming coffee and to listen to soft music can treat sleep disorders. Gingivitis can be prevented by advising the patient to maintain proper oral hygiene and to take vitamin C supplements. These do not cause major risks to the fetus and patient.

The nurse observes that a patient weighs 166 lb and is 160 cm tall. What is the approximate body mass index (BMI) of the patient? Record your answer using a whole number. ___________

30 The weight of the patient is 166 lb. 1 kg= 2.2 lb. Therefore, 166 lb = 75.4 kg. The patient's height = 160 cm. If 1 m= 100 cm, then 160 cm = 1.6 m. BMI is defined as a measure of a person's weight (kilograms) divided byte square of the height (meters). Hence, the BMI of the patient = 75.4/1.62 = 75.4/2.56=29.45. It is approximately equal to 30.

During the assessment of a pregnant patient the nurse suspects that the patient may have dysrhythmias, cardiomyopathy, and heart failure. To prevent these complications the nurse suggests the patient maintain a healthy diet and stop rigorous exercise. What is the most likely reason for anticipating these complications in the patient? 1 Maternal obesity. 2 Maternal presentation of bulimia nervosa. 3 Patient is a cigarette smoker. 4 Maternal presentation of anorexia nervosa

4 Anorexia nervosa is a chronic eating disorder in which a patient perceives himself or herself to be too heavy. As such, patients with anorexia nervosa undertake severe diets and rigorous exercise. As a result, the patient may have dysrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. To prevent these complications the nurse advises the patient to maintain a healthy diet and stop rigorous exercise. Patients who are very obese are at increased risk for hypertension, diabetes, gallbladder disease, postterm pregnancy, and musculoskeletal problems. Bulimia nervosa is a chronic eating disorder in which the patient practices secret, uncontrolled binge eating habits that alternate with methods to prevent weight gain. If the patient had bulimia, the nurse would anticipate that the patient may have dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, gastrointestinal abnormalities, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Cigarette smoking causes early menopause, osteoporosis, and chronic lung disorders.

After assessing a patient, the nurse understands that the patient may have early menopause and is also at risk for osteoporosis. What could be the reason for this condition? The patient is: 1 Diabetic. 2 Morbidly obese. 3 Severely anemic. 4 A cigarette smoker.

4 Cigarette smoking may reduce the age for menopause and increase the risk for osteoporosis after menopause. Diabetes is caused by an increase in blood glucose levels due to reduced insulin production. This condition does not result in menopause. Obesity is caused due to accumulation of excess fat in the body. It can cause premature death, diabetes, heart disease, and osteoporosis. It does not cause early menopause. Anemia is caused by reduced red blood cell count and does not usually result in menopause and osteoporosis.

The laboratory report of a pregnant patient indicates high blood plasma levels of methamphetamine. What are the possible complications that nurse suspects to find in the neonate? 1 Hearing impairment 2 Microcephaly 3 Absence of upper limbs 4 Reduced head circumference

4 Methamphetamine is a central nervous system stimulant that is cheap and easily available. Like other illicit drugs, amphetamine decreases the intrauterine growth and causes major birth defects in the neonate if the mother takes it during pregnancy. It leads to growth retardation and decreases the head circumference of the neonate. Hearing impairment is caused by amino glycosides antibiotics, and not by methamphetamine. Microcephaly is caused by alcohol consumption. Absence of upper limbs or reduced development of limbs is called phocomelia and is caused by thalidomide (Thalomid). However, its use is banned all over the world.

A pregnant patient is unable to curtail alcohol abuse. What does the health care provider prescribe for the patient to prevent fetal abnormalities? 1 Iron supplements 2 Calcium supplements 3 Folic acid supplements 4 Multivitamin supplements

4 Multivitamin supplements are provided to pregnant patients who are unable to curtail alcohol abuse. Multivitamin supplements help reduce the effect of prenatal alcohol exposure in children. Iron supplements are used to treat anemia or iron deficiency, but not alcohol abuse. Calcium supplements are prescribed for bone ailments. Folic acid is prescribed during pregnancy to prevent miscarriage or birth defect, but is not taken for alcohol abuse.

The nurse is preparing to examine a patient with cervical cancer. Which is the most suitable site of examination for the patient? 1 Clitoris 2 Fallopian tube 3 Bartholin glands 4 Transformation zone

4 The nurse should examine the transformation zone: the junction of squamous and columnar epithelial layers, for any neoplastic changes. The clitoris is a small structure composed of erectile tissue with numerous sensory nerve endings and is located underneath the prepuce. Its size increases during sexual arousal. The fallopian tubes provide a passage between the ovaries and the uterus for the movement of the ovum. Bartholin glands are located posteriorly on the sides of the vaginal opening. They secrete clear mucus to lubricate the vagina during sexual arousal.

1 The current guidelines indicate that a mammogram should be performed every 1 to 2 years on women between the ages of 40 and 49. Mammograms are best performed beginning at about 1 week after menstruation when the breasts are the least tender. Mammograms are not a substitute for BSE, which should still be performed every month. A biopsy of cells from suspicious lesions is required to confirm a diagnosis of cancer.

A 42-year-old woman asks the nurse about mammograms, now that she is "getting older." The nurse should tell her that: 1 the American Cancer Society recommends mammograms every 1 to 2 years for women ages 40 to 49. 2 the best time to perform a mammogram is just before a menstrual period. 3 regular mammograms reduce the need to perform breast self-examination (BSE). 4 mammograms can confirm the diagnosis for breast cance

3 Difficulty staying asleep or initiating sleep is correlated to physical and mental health. Alcohol should be avoided to improve sleep as it causes a hazy mind and proper rest is not provided. Physical strain or vigorous activity, like aerobics, should be avoided before sleep. Instead the patient must be advised to partake in soothing activities, such as guided imagery and listening to soft music. Energy drinks contains high amounts of caffeine, which affect the central nervous system and can lead to sleep deprivation. Hence, the nurse should advise the patient to avoid consuming energy drinks before going to bed. To prevent sleep disorders the patient must be encouraged to follow a regular sleep pattern. This promotes a proper sleep-wake cycle. Therefore, the nurse should advise the patient to not sleep unnecessarily, and the patient should sleep only at night.

A patient is suffering from a sleep disorder. What advice does the nurse give to the patient to improve sleep? 1 Do aerobics for 2 hours before sleeping. 2 Consume energy drinks before sleeping. 3 Avoid consuming alcohol before sleeping. 4 Try to sleep at all possible times for few weeks.

2 Marijuana is a substance derived from the cannabis plant, which causes an altered state of awareness. In a pregnant patient marijuana readily crosses the placenta and increases carbon dioxide levels in the mother's blood, which leads to a reduced oxygen supply to the fetus. Cocaine is a powerful nervous system stimulant that causes high pleasure, but, in pregnant patients, can lead to miscarriage, stillbirth, or preterm labor. Phencyclidine (PCP) is a synthetic drug. It causes dissociative symptoms, such as hallucination and disordered thinking. Methamphetamine is a highly addictive stimulant that makes the user feel hypersexual and uninhibited. In the pregnant patient, the use of methamphetamine leads to preterm birth and intrauterine growth restriction.

A pregnant patient is admitted to the emergency department. The laboratory reports show that there is increased carbon dioxide level in the blood and improper oxygen supply to the fetus. On evaluating the medical history of the patient, the nurse finds that the patient is addicted to drugs. Which drug did the patient use? 1 Cocaine 2 Marijuana 3 Phencyclidine 4 Methamphetamine

4 Multivitamin supplements are provided to pregnant patients who are unable to curtail alcohol abuse. Multivitamin supplements help reduce the effect of prenatal alcohol exposure in children. Iron supplements are used to treat anemia or iron deficiency, but not alcohol abuse. Calcium supplements are prescribed for bone ailments. Folic acid is prescribed during pregnancy to prevent miscarriage or birth defect, but is not taken for alcohol abuse.

A pregnant patient is unable to curtail alcohol abuse. What does the health care provider prescribe for the patient to prevent fetal abnormalities? 1 Iron supplements 2 Calcium supplements 3 Folic acid supplements 4 Multivitamin supplements

38. Many pregnant teens wait until the second or third trimester to seek prenatal care. The nurse should understand that the reasons behind this delay include: a. Lack of realization that they are pregnant. b. Uncertainty as to where to go for care. c. Continuing to deny the pregnancy. d. A desire to gain control over their situation. e. Wanting to hide the pregnancy as long as possible.

A, B, C, E

The nurse is assessing a woman's breast self-examination (BSE) technique. Which action indicates that a woman needs further instruction regarding BSE? A. Performs every month on the first day of her menstrual period B. Uses the pads of her fingers when palpating each breast C. Inspects her breasts while standing before a mirror and changing arm positions D. Places a folded towel under right shoulder and right hand under head when palpating right breast

A. Performs every month on the first day of her menstrual period BSE should be performed once a month after the menstrual period has ended. These are correct actions for performing a BSE.

A 42-year-old woman asks the nurse about mammograms, now that she is "getting older." The nurse should tell her that: A. The American Cancer Society recommends mammograms every 1 to 2 years for women ages 40 to 49. B. The best time to perform a mammogram is just before a menstrual period. C. Regular mammograms reduce the need to perform breast self-examination (BSE). D. Mammograms can confirm the diagnosis for breast cancer.

A. The American Cancer Society recommends mammograms every 1 to 2 years for women ages 40 to 49. The current guidelines indicate that a mammogram should be performed every 1 to 2 years on women between the ages of 40 and 49. Mammograms are best performed beginning at about 1 week after menstruation when the breasts are the least tender. Mammograms are not a substitute for BSE, which should still be performed every month. A biopsy of cells from suspicious lesions is required to confirm a diagnosis of cancer.

Which is correct concerning the performance of a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear? A. The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test. B. It should be performed once a year beginning with the onset of puberty. C. A lubricant such as Vaseline should be used to ease speculum insertion. D. The specimen for the Pap smear should be obtained after specimens are collected for cervical infection.

A. The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test. Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 hours before the examination so as not to alter the cytology results. Pap smears are performed annually for sexually active women or by age 18, especially if risk factors for cervical cancer or reproductive tract infections are present. Pap smears may be performed every 3 years in low risk women after three negative results on annual examination. Only warm water should be used on the speculum so as not to alter the cytology results. The cytologic specimen should be obtained first.

The women's health nurse knows which statements regarding sexual response are accurate? (Select all that apply.) A. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. B. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. C. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. D. Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal. E. Sexual difficulties should be disregarded in the postpartum period.

A. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. B. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. D. Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal. Men and women are surprisingly alike. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia). Sexual difficulties should be addressed during the postpartum period.

The nurse is assessing a patient with bleeding disorder. Which action should the nurse adopt while interacting with the patient? Select all that apply. The nurse should: Acknowledge the feelings of the patient. Repeat the words mentioned by the patient. Maintain stable eye contact with the patient. Sit straight and avoid leaning toward the patient. Consider the feelings that are expressed verbally by the patient.

Acknowledge the feelings of the patient. Repeat the words mentioned by the patient. Maintain stable eye contact with the patient. During the assessment the nurse should be able to effectively communicate with the patient, as this builds trust and rapport. Acknowledging the patient's feelings indicates that the nurse is able to understand the patient's concerns. The nurse should follow the technique of reflection by repeating the words mentioned by the patient. This shows that the nurse is effectively listening to the patient's concerns. The nurse should maintain eye contact with patient, as it helps to avoid distraction and allows the nurse to focus better on the conversation. The nurse should lean forward while interacting with the patient as a gesture that the nurse is listening to the patient. This technique helps the nurse listen to the patient properly. Some patients may not express their feelings effectively. Therefore, the nurse should consider both verbal and nonverbal clues to understand the patient's feelings.

4 Cigarette smoking may reduce the age for menopause and increase the risk for osteoporosis after menopause. Diabetes is caused by an increase in blood glucose levels due to reduced insulin production. This condition does not result in menopause. Obesity is caused due to accumulation of excess fat in the body. It can cause premature death, diabetes, heart disease, and osteoporosis. It does not cause early menopause. Anemia is caused by reduced red blood cell count and does not usually result in menopause and osteoporosis.

After assessing a patient, the nurse understands that the patient may have early menopause and is also at risk for osteoporosis. What could be the reason for this condition? The patient is: 1 Diabetic. 2 Morbidly obese. 3 Severely anemic. 4 A cigarette smoker.

1 The nurse should instruct the patient to palpate the breast with the tips of the three middle fingers. This helps to identify the presence of lumps in the breast. While examining the breast the patient should choose a comfortable position. For instance, lying down and placing the pillow under the shoulder helps examine all the breast tissue, such as near the shoulders from the collarbone to under arms. Due to the presence of bony covering, firm pressure should be applied to assess the tissue near to the chest and rib. Appearance of firm ridge in the lower curve of the breast is a normal finding. Dimpling of skin, changes in the nipple, redness, or swelling in the breast are the signs of breast disorders.

At a community health care center, the nurse advises a patient to regularly self-examine the breast for early detection of changes in the breast tissue. What instruction does the nurse give while teaching the procedure to the patient? 1 "Palpate the breast slowly with the tip of your three middle fingers." 2 "Lie down and place your hands straight without bending the shoulders." 3 "Apply light pressure to feel the breast tissue close to the chest and ribs." 4 "Observe for presence of a firm ridge in the lower curve of the breast."

During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response would be to: A. Reassure the woman that the examination will not reveal any problems. B. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she will become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. C. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. D. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.

B. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she will become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. This statement is inappropriate and may be untrue. During assessment and evaluation the responsibility for self-care, health promotion, and enhancement of wellness is emphasized. The pelvic examination provides a good opportunity for the practitioner to emphasize the need for regular vulvar self-examination. Because the nurse is unsure of the cause of this client's discomfort, this comment would be incorrect. This statement is not accurate and should not be used in this situation.

The nurse-midwife is teaching a group of women who are pregnant, including instruction on Kegel exercises. Which statement by a participant would indicate a correct understanding of the instruction? A. I will only see results if I perform 100 Kegel exercises each day. B. I should hold the Kegel exercise contraction for 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds between exercises. C. I should only perform Kegel exercises in the sitting position. D. I will perform daily Kegel exercises during the last trimester of my pregnancy to achieve the best results.

B. I should hold the Kegel exercise contraction for 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds between exercises. Guidelines suggest that women perform between 30 and 80 Kegel exercises. The correct technique for Kegel exercises is to hold the contraction for at least 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds in between so the muscles can have time to recover and each contraction can be as strong as the woman can make it. Kegel exercises are best performed in a supine position with the knees bent. Kegel exercises should be performed throughout the pregnancy to achieve the best results.

During the preconception phase, the nurse should teach about which infectious diseases as risk factors for maternal complications? (Select all that apply.) A. Diabetes B. Rubella C. Hepatitis B D. Anemia E. HIV/AIDS

B. Rubella C. Hepatitis B E. HIV/AIDS Rubella, Hepatitis B, and HIV/AIDS are all infectious diseases. Diabetes and anemia are chronic diseases.

A 65-year-old woman, G6 P6006, is complaining of increasing stress incontinence and pelvic pressure and fullness. Pelvic examination reveals a bulging in the anterior vaginal wall. This woman is most likely experiencing: A. Uterine prolapse B. Rectocele C. Cystocele. D. Vesicovaginal fistula

C. Cystocele. Prolapse or downward displacement of the uterus could result in protrusion of the uterus through the vagina. Rectocele would result in herniation of the rectal wall through the posterior vagina. Clinical manifestations would relate to alterations in bowel elimination. This is the classic clinical manifestations of cystocele. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal passage between the bladder and the vagina, resulting in urinary incontinence and excoriation of the vaginal mucosa.

The nurse should include questions regarding sexuality when gathering data for a reproductive health history of a female patient. Which principle should guide the nurse when interviewing the patient? A. An in-depth exploration of specific sexual practices should be included for every patient. B. Sexual histories are optional if the patient is not currently sexually active. C. Misconceptions and inaccurate information expressed by the patient should be corrected promptly. D. Questions regarding the patient's sexual relationship are unnecessary if she is monogamous.

C. Misconceptions and inaccurate information expressed by the patient should be corrected promptly. More in-depth assessments are required if the patient is sexually active or if problems or concerns are raised during general questions. Sexuality should be included on every reproductive health history whether or not the patient is sexually active. To obtain the most accurate reproductive health history, the nurse needs to correct misconceptions and inaccurate information. The relationship and sexual partner should be discussed even if the patient is monogamous.

When obtaining a reproductive health history from a female patient, the nurse should: A. Limit the time spent on exploration of intimate topics. B. Avoid asking questions that may embarrass the patient. C. Use only accepted medical terminology when referring to body parts and functions. D. Explain the purpose for the questions asked and how the information will be used.

D. Explain the purpose for the questions asked and how the information will be used. Sufficient time must be spent on gathering relevant data. All questions should be asked, even if it may be embarrassing for the patient or the nurse, or if it involves intimate topics. Always use terms the patient can understand. Explanation of the purpose for the questions asked while obtaining a reproductive health history will help to gather honest and relevant data.

The nurse should refer the patient for further testing if she noted this on inspection of the breasts of a 55-year-old woman: A. Left breast slightly smaller than right breast. B. Eversion (elevation) of both nipples. C. Bilateral symmetry of venous network, which is faintly visible D. Small dimple located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast.

D. Small dimple located in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. In many women, one breast is smaller than the other. Eversion of both nipples is a normal finding. Faintly visible venous network is a normal finding. A small dimple is an abnormal finding and should be further evaluated.

The nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who is found to be obese. What are the disease conditions to which the patient is highly susceptible? Select all that apply. Anemia Hypertension Liver cirrhosis Diabetes mellitus Post term pregnancy

Diabetes mellitus Hypertension Post term pregnancy Obesity causes increase in the cholesterol levels, irregular menstrual cycle, stress, depression, and other complications in pregnancy. Therefore, the patient is highly susceptible to hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and post term pregnancy. Anemia is caused by a decrease in red blood cell (RBC) count or lower levels of hemoglobin in the blood. Liver cirrhosis is advanced liver disease, which is characterized by replacement of liver tissues by fibrosis.

4 Anorexia nervosa is a chronic eating disorder in which a patient perceives himself or herself to be too heavy. As such, patients with anorexia nervosa undertake severe diets and rigorous exercise. As a result, the patient may have dysrhythmias and cardiomyopathy. To prevent these complications the nurse advises the patient to maintain a healthy diet and stop rigorous exercise. Patients who are very obese are at increased risk for hypertension, diabetes, gallbladder disease, postterm pregnancy, and musculoskeletal problems. Bulimia nervosa is a chronic eating disorder in which the patient practices secret, uncontrolled binge eating habits that alternate with methods to prevent weight gain. If the patient had bulimia, the nurse would anticipate that the patient may have dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, gastrointestinal abnormalities, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Cigarette smoking causes early menopause, osteoporosis, and chronic lung disorders.

During the assessment of a pregnant patient the nurse suspects that the patient may have dysrhythmias, cardiomyopathy, and heart failure. To prevent these complications the nurse suggests the patient maintain a healthy diet and stop rigorous exercise. What is the most likely reason for anticipating these complications in the patient? 1 Maternal obesity. 2 Maternal presentation of bulimia nervosa. 3 Patient is a cigarette smoker. 4 Maternal presentation of anorexia nervosa

Secretory The menstrual phase is marked by the shedding of the lining of the uterus. This phase lasts 3 to 5 days and is known as the woman's period. The proliferative phase beings at the end of menses and is one of restoration and repair. Under the influence of estrogen the uterine lining proliferates and becomes more vascular. During the secretory phase the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum results in the thickening of the uterine lining, creating the perfect environment for the fertilized ovum.

Please preview the short video. The nurse is providing instruction to an adolescent regarding the normal menstrual cycle. To assess understanding, the nurse asks the young woman to repeat back to her the appropriate phase of the cycle for implantation of the fertilized ovum to occur. The correct phase is: Menstrual Proliferative Secretory

Please preview the short video. The nurse is providing instruction to an adolescent regarding the normal menstrual cycle. To assess understanding, the nurse asks the young woman to repeat back to her the appropriate phase of the cycle for implantation of the fertilized ovum to occur. The correct phase is: Menstrual Proliferative Secretory

Secretory The menstrual phase is marked by the shedding of the lining of the uterus. This phase lasts 3 to 5 days and is known as the woman's period. The proliferative phase beings at the end of menses and is one of restoration and repair. Under the influence of estrogen the uterine lining proliferates and becomes more vascular. During the secretory phase the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum results in the thickening of the uterine lining, creating the perfect environment for the fertilized ovum.

4 Methamphetamine is a central nervous system stimulant that is cheap and easily available. Like other illicit drugs, amphetamine decreases the intrauterine growth and causes major birth defects in the neonate if the mother takes it during pregnancy. It leads to growth retardation and decreases the head circumference of the neonate. Hearing impairment is caused by amino glycosides antibiotics, and not by methamphetamine. Microcephaly is caused by alcohol consumption. Absence of upper limbs or reduced development of limbs is called phocomelia and is caused by thalidomide (Thalomid). However, its use is banned all over the world.

The laboratory report of a pregnant patient indicates high blood plasma levels of methamphetamine. What are the possible complications that nurse suspects to find in the neonate? 1 Hearing impairment 2 Microcephaly 3 Absence of upper limbs 4 Reduced head circumference

Acknowledge the feelings of the patient. Repeat the words mentioned by the patient. Maintain stable eye contact with the patient. During the assessment the nurse should be able to effectively communicate with the patient, as this builds trust and rapport. Acknowledging the patient's feelings indicates that the nurse is able to understand the patient's concerns. The nurse should follow the technique of reflection by repeating the words mentioned by the patient. This shows that the nurse is effectively listening to the patient's concerns. The nurse should maintain eye contact with patient, as it helps to avoid distraction and allows the nurse to focus better on the conversation. The nurse should lean forward while interacting with the patient as a gesture that the nurse is listening to the patient. This technique helps the nurse listen to the patient properly. Some patients may not express their feelings effectively. Therefore, the nurse should consider both verbal and nonverbal clues to understand the patient's feelings.

The nurse is assessing a patient with bleeding disorder. Which action should the nurse adopt while interacting with the patient? Select all that apply. The nurse should: Acknowledge the feelings of the patient. Repeat the words mentioned by the patient. Maintain stable eye contact with the patient. Sit straight and avoid leaning toward the patient. Consider the feelings that are expressed verbally by the patient.

Diabetes mellitus Hypertension Post term pregnancy Obesity causes increase in the cholesterol levels, irregular menstrual cycle, stress, depression, and other complications in pregnancy. Therefore, the patient is highly susceptible to hypertension, diabetes mellitus, and post term pregnancy. Anemia is caused by a decrease in red blood cell (RBC) count or lower levels of hemoglobin in the blood. Liver cirrhosis is advanced liver disease, which is characterized by replacement of liver tissues by fibrosis.

The nurse is assessing a pregnant patient who is found to be obese. What are the disease conditions to which the patient is highly susceptible? Select all that apply. Anemia Hypertension Liver cirrhosis Diabetes mellitus Post term pregnancy

1 BSE should be performed once a month after the menstrual period has ended. Using the pads of the fingers when palpating each breast, inspecting the breasts while standing before a mirror, placing a folded towel under the right shoulder and right hand under the head are appropriate actions for BSE.

The nurse is assessing a woman's breast self-examination (BSE) technique. Which action indicates that the woman needs additional instruction regarding BSE? 1 Performs every month on the first day of her menstrual period 2 Uses the pads of her fingers when palpating each breast 3 Inspects her breasts while standing before a mirror and changing arm positions 4 Places a folded towel under right shoulder and right hand under head when palpating right breast

2 Many patients who have been physically abused have low self-esteem and depression. The nurse should effectively communicate with the patients to increase their self-esteem. The nurse should give moral support to the patient by saying, "It is a crime, and you deserve to be treated with respect." Such a statement provides comfort to the patient, as it shows that the nurse is understanding and perceptive. Making the patient feel to blame could cause the patient to become more depressed, which would lead to withdrawal. Additionally, making negative remarks like, "It is your mistake to tolerate," may make the patient defensive, and, in turn, cause the patient to stop interacting with the nurse. The nurse should avoid asking the patient why she remains silent, because this may come across as if the nurse is blaming her for being abused. The nurse should not talk to the patient's partner, as it may put the patient in further danger.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with injuries and burns. When interacting with the patient, the nurse understands that the patient is being physically abused by the intimate partner. What will be the immediate action of the nurse? 1 Tell the patient, "It is your mistake to tolerate your partner's misbehavior." 2 Tell the patient, "It is a crime, and you deserve to be treated with respect." 3 Ask the patient, "Why you are silent and not revolting against your partner?" 4 Talk to the patient's partner and advise to stop abusing the patient during pregnancy.

2 While assessing and examining a patient with visual impairment and physical disability, the nurse should make the patient feel comfortable to reduce the patient's anxiety. The nurse should explain the examination and inform the patient before touching him or her. The nurse should conduct the pelvic examination in a private and comfortable setting. The patient may not be comfortable with the presence of the family members during the examination. Lithotomy position may not be comfortable to physically disabled patients. Hence, the nurse should explain different positions to the patient and ask which position may be most comfortable for him or her. The nurse should take the permission of the patient before conducting the test, as it helps to establish trust and reduce anxiety.

The nurse is preparing to conduct a pelvic exam in a patient with trichomoniasis. The nurse finds that the patient has visual impairment and is physically disabled. Which action does the nurse employ while conducting the test? 1 The nurse conducts the test in the presence of the patient's family member. 2 The nurse informs about each step to the patient before performing the test. 3 The nurse asks the patient to lie in lithotomy position during the pelvic exam. 4 The nurse takes the permission of the patient's family members for conducting the test.

4 The nurse should examine the transformation zone: the junction of squamous and columnar epithelial layers, for any neoplastic changes. The clitoris is a small structure composed of erectile tissue with numerous sensory nerve endings and is located underneath the prepuce. Its size increases during sexual arousal. The fallopian tubes provide a passage between the ovaries and the uterus for the movement of the ovum. Bartholin glands are located posteriorly on the sides of the vaginal opening. They secrete clear mucus to lubricate the vagina during sexual arousal.

The nurse is preparing to examine a patient with cervical cancer. Which is the most suitable site of examination for the patient? 1 Clitoris 2 Fallopian tube 3 Bartholin glands 4 Transformation zone

3 The menstrual phase is marked by the shedding of the lining of the uterus. This phase lasts 3 to 5 days and is known as the woman's period. The proliferative phase beings at the end of menses and is one of restoration and repair. Under the influence of estrogen the uterine lining proliferates and becomes more vascular. During the secretory phase the secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum results in the thickening of the uterine lining, creating the perfect environment for the fertilized ovum.

The nurse is providing instruction to an adolescent regarding the normal menstrual cycle. To assess understanding, the nurse asks the young woman to repeat back to her the appropriate phase of the cycle for implantation of the fertilized ovum to occur. The correct phase is: 1 Menstrual 2 Proliferative 3 Secretory

3 Feeling the fallopian tubes usually is not possible during a pelvic examination, so the woman needs further teaching if a statement is made that the fallopian tubes will be checked. The pelvic examination is done to take a Pap sample, a chlamydia sample, and the uterus is palpated during the pelvic examination.

The nurse is teaching a woman of childbearing age about the purpose of a pelvic examination. Which statement made by the woman indicates further teaching is needed? 1 "I know the pelvic exam is done to take samples for the Pap test." 2 "I know the health care provider will be palpating my uterus during the pelvic exam." 3 "I know they will be able to feel my fallopian tubes and check them during the pelvic exam." 4 "I know they can collect a sample during the pelvic exam to rule out if I have chlamydia."

30 The weight of the patient is 166 lb. 1 kg= 2.2 lb. Therefore, 166 lb = 75.4 kg. The patient's height = 160 cm. If 1 m= 100 cm, then 160 cm = 1.6 m. BMI is defined as a measure of a person's weight (kilograms) divided byte square of the height (meters). Hence, the BMI of the patient = 75.4/1.62 = 75.4/2.56=29.45. It is approximately equal to 30.

The nurse observes that a patient weighs 166 lb and is 160 cm tall. What is the approximate body mass index (BMI) of the patient? Record your answer using a whole number. ___________

1, 2 There are certain guidelines that a nurse should follow while communicating with patients who have been abused. The nurse should sit down with the patient in a closed room and reassure the patient that he or she is not alone, as this helps build trust and enhance the patient's self-esteem. The patient is taught pelvic muscle exercises to strengthen the muscles that support the pelvic floor in order to prevent accidental urine loss. These exercises are taught after interacting with the patient and making the patient feel comfortable. Nurses should not make the patient feel anxious by giving wrong information that the pelvic pain is progressive. The nurse should assure the patient that better treatment will be provided for having effective relief from the pain. Dysrhythmias and amenorrhea are caused due to anorexia nervosa. Therefore, the nurse should not give false information that pelvic fracture may cause amenorrhea.

The nurse prepares to communicate with an abused patient. The nurse finds that the patient has pain due to pelvic fracture. Which points does the nurse keep in mind before communicating with the patient? Select all that apply. 1 To sit with the patient in a closed room. 2 To tell the patient,"You are not alone." 3 To teach pelvic muscle exercises to the patient. 4 To tell the patient that the pelvic pain is progressive. 5 To inform the patient that pelvic fracture may cause amenorrhea.

2 A BMI of 25.0 to 29.9 is an indication of being overweight. In this case, the patient's BMI would be 28.3. If BMI is 17.5 or below 18.5, then the patient is said to be underweight. The BMI of 18.5 to 24.9 indicates normal weight, and a range of 30.0 to 34.5 indicates obesity. Hence, the patient's BMI may not be 32.6 or 22.9.

The nurse records the body mass index (BMI) of a patient and finds that the patient is overweight. What would be the approximate BMI of the patient? 1 17.5 2 28.3 3 32.6 4 22.9

3 To obtain the most accurate reproductive health history, the nurse needs to correct misconceptions and inaccurate information. More in-depth assessments are required if the patient is sexually active or if problems or concerns are raised during general questions. Sexuality should be included on every reproductive health history whether or not the patient is sexually active. The relationship and sexual partner should be discussed even if the patient is monogamous.

The nurse should include questions regarding sexuality when gathering data for a reproductive health history of a female patient. Which principle should guide the nurse when interviewing the patient? 1 An in-depth exploration of specific sexual practices should be included for every patient. 2 Sexual histories are optional if the patient is not currently sexually active. 3 Misconceptions and inaccurate information expressed by the patient should be corrected promptly. 4 Questions regarding the patient's sexual relationship are unnecessary if she is monogamous.

2 The correct technique for Kegel exercises is to hold the contraction for at least 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds in between so the muscles can have time to recover and each contraction can be as strong as the woman can make it. Guidelines suggest that women perform between 30 and 80 Kegel exercises. Kegel exercises are best performed in a supine position with the knees bent. Kegel exercises should be performed throughout the pregnancy to achieve the best results.

The nurse-midwife is teaching a group of pregnant women about Kegel exercises. Which statement by a participant indicates a correct understanding of the instruction? 1 "I will only see results if I perform 100 Kegel exercises each day." 2 "I should hold the Kegel exercise contraction for 10 seconds and rest for 10 seconds between exercises." 3 "I should only perform Kegel exercises in the sitting position." 4 "I will perform daily Kegel exercises during the last trimester of my pregnancy to achieve the best results."

1, 3 Acupuncture is the best treatment for cocaine abuse in pregnancy. Seizures and tachycardia are the effects of cocaine abuse. Agitation is produced by phencyclidine (PCP) and lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) (Delsyd). PCP causes hallucinations and other dissociative symptoms. Mild euphoria is produced by marijuana.

The primary health care provider (PHP) suggests acupuncture for a pregnant patient. Which symptoms in the patient made the PHP suggest acupuncture? Select all that apply. 1 Seizures 2 Agitation 3 Tachycardia 4 Hallucinations 5 Mild euphoria

2 Fetal hyperactivity is a withdrawal symptom of methadone consumption in pregnant patients, which is used to treat opiate abuse. As methadone is more rapidly metabolized in the pregnant patient, the treatment should be closely monitored. Acupuncture is used to treat cocaine abuse in pregnancy. Cocaine abuse causes an increased incidence of miscarriage, preterm labor, small-for-gestational age babies, abruption of placenta, and stillbirth and anomalies. Inadequate intake of calcium supplements leads to osteoporosis in the pregnant patient. Folic acid insufficiency in the pregnant patient increases the risk of neural tube defects, such as spina bifida and anencephaly.

The primary health care provider observes fetal hyperactivity in a pregnant patient. What is a possible reason for fetal hyperactivity? 1 Pregnant woman had acupuncture treatment. 2 Methadone maintenance treatment during pregnancy. 3 Inadequate maternal intake of calcium supplements. 4 Inadequate maternal intake of folic acid supplements.

1, 2, 4 Men and women are more alike than different in regards to the physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. Vasocongestion causes vaginal lubrication and engorgement of the genitals. The final state of the sexual response cycle is the resolution phase after orgasm. Arousal is characterized by increased muscular tension (myotonia). Sexual difficulties should be addressed during the postpartum period.

The women's health nurse knows which statements regarding sexual response are accurate? Select all that apply. 1 Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. 2 Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. 3 The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. 4 Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal. 5 Sexual difficulties should be disregarded in the postpartum period.

3, 4, 5 The nurse should assess patients for risk factors, such as toxic chemicals exposure, Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, hypertension, diabetes, and anemia, during preconception care to minimize fetal malformations and miscarriage. Sleep disorders and gingivitis do not cause fetal malformation and miscarriage. However, advising the patient to avoid consuming coffee and to listen to soft music can treat sleep disorders. Gingivitis can be prevented by advising the patient to maintain proper oral hygiene and to take vitamin C supplements. These do not cause major risks to the fetus and patient.

What risk factors does the nurse assess in a patient during preconception care? Select all that apply. 1 Gingivitis 2 Sleep disorder 3 Exposure to toxic chemicals 4 Down syndrome and cystic fibrosis 5 Hypertension, diabetes, and anemia

1 Cocaine impairs cardiac functioning and causes cardiovascular disorders, such as tachycardia and hypertension. Therefore, to prevent these complications the nurse should regularly monitor blood pressure and heart rate of the patient. Cocaine does not affect the pancreas and insulin levels, so it is not mandatory to regularly monitor blood glucose levels. Cocaine also does not affect hyperuricemia and leucopenia. Therefore, the nurse need not assess the blood uric acid levels and white blood cell count.

What does the nurse regularly monitor in a patient with cocaine addiction to prevent its associated complications? 1 Blood pressure 2 Blood glucose levels 3 Blood uric acid levels 4 White blood cell counts

3 A Pap test is commonly recommended for women between 20 to 65 years of age to detect the presence of carcinogenic conditions, such as cervical cancers. Urinary tract infection can be assessed by doing a urine culture. Pregnancy can be determined by assessing the human chorionic gonadotropin levels in the urine or blood. The smear from the vagina is examined for presence of sperm to find out if the woman has been sexually abused.

What is the purpose of recommending a Papanicolaou (Pap) test for women over 20 years of age? To detect if the patient has: 1 An infection. 2 Conceived. 3 Cervical cancer. 4 Been sexually abused.

2, 4 The complete gynecologic assessment includes a pelvic examination. The woman should schedule the examination between menstrual periods and should not douche or have sexual intercourse for 24-48 hours before the examination. She also is advised not to use vaginal medications, sprays, or deodorants that might interfere with interpretation of specimens that are collected. A full bladder is not necessary for a pelvic examination and could be uncomfortable for the client.

What should the clinic nurse include in the instructions for a woman scheduling a pelvic examination? Select all that apply. 1 You can use a douche the day before the examination. 2 You should avoid intercourse for 24-48 hours before the examination. 3 Be sure to apply any vaginal medication you are taking before the examination. 4 If you start your menstrual cycle on the day of the examination, we will need to reschedule. 5 Arrive at the clinic with a full bladder.

2 Kegel exercises are pelvic muscle exercises that involve the tightening and relaxing of the muscles that support the bladder and urethra. Squat exercises are for buttocks and thighs to strengthen the legs. Plank exercises are used for the abdomen, shoulders, and chest muscles. Aerobic exercise increases the metabolism and helps with weight loss. Aerobic exercise does not help to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles.

Which exercises should the nurse teach a patient to strengthen the muscles of the pelvic floor? 1 Squat exercises 2 Kegel exercises 3 Plank exercises 4 Aerobic exercises

1 Women should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have sexual intercourse for 24 hours before the examination to not alter the cytology results. Pap tests are performed annually for sexually active women or by age 18, especially if risk factors for cervical cancer or reproductive tract infections are present. Pap tests may be performed every 3 years in low risk women after three negative results on annual examination. Only warm water should be used on the speculum so as not to alter the cytology results. The cytologic specimen should be obtained first.

Which statement provides correct information about performing a Papanicolaou (Pap) test? 1 The woman should not douche, use vaginal medications, or have intercourse for at least 24 hours before the test. 2 It should be performed once a year beginning with the onset of puberty. 3 A lubricant such as Vaseline should be used to ease speculum insertion. 4 The specimen for the Pap test should be obtained after specimens are collected for cervical infection.

1, 3, 4 During stress the patient becomes nervous and has anxiety. Therefore, while assessing a patient with stress the nurse should make a note of the symptoms, such as grinding teeth, crying for no reason, and having sweaty hands. During stress the patient has reduced attention and impaired decision-making abilities. The blood pressure increases during stress due to elevated levels of norepinephrine. Therefore, being on extreme alert and having low blood pressure are not indicative of stress.

Which symptoms are noted by the nurse while assessing a patient with stress? Select all that apply. 1 Grinding of teeth. 2 Accentuated alertness. 3 The patient cries for no reason. 4 Sweaty hands. 5 The patient has low blood pressure.

3 SCOFF is a questionnaire used to assess whether the patient has anorexia nervosa—an eating disorder. Obesity results in an increase of weight rather than a decrease of weight. Stress results in hormonal imbalance, muscle tenseness, and a weakened immune system. Exercise helps to strengthen and support muscles, lowers stress, and helps prevent diseases. A drastic decrease in weight is not due to lack of physical exercise.

While assessing a patient using the SCOFF questionnaire, the nurse finds that the patient has gradually lost weight over several months. What factor responsible for weight loss does the nurse suspect in the patient? 1 Obesity 2 Stress 3 Anorexia nervosa 4 Lack of physical activity

36. When the nurse is alone with a battered patient, the patient seems extremely anxious and says, "It was all my fault. The house was so messy when he got home and I know he hates that." The best response by the nurse is: a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?" b. "What else do you do that makes him angry enough to hurt you?" c. "He will never find out what we talk about. Don't worry. We're here to help you." d. "You have to remember that he is frustrated and angry so he takes it out on you."

a. "No one deserves to be hurt. It's not your fault. How can I help you?"

16. Which statement would indicate that the client requires additional instruction about breast self-examination? a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period." b. "I should check my breasts at the same time each month, like after my period." c. "I should also feel in my armpit area while performing my breast examination." d. "I should check each breast in a set way, such as in a circular motion."

a. "Yellow discharge from my nipple is normal if I'm having my period."

5. Because of the effect of cyclic ovarian changes on the breast, the best time for breast self-examination (BSE) is: a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases. b. Day 1 of the endometrial cycle. c. Midmenstrual cycle. d. Any time during a shower or bath.

a. 5 to 7 days after menses ceases

2. The uterus is a muscular, pear-shaped organ that is responsible for: a. Cyclic menstruation. b. Sex hormone production. c. Fertilization. d. Sexual arousal.

a. Cyclic menstruation.

35. Despite warnings, prenatal exposure to alcohol continues to exceed by far exposure to illicit drugs. A diagnosis of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is made when there are visible markers in each of three categories. Which is category is not associated with a diagnosis of FAS? a. Respiratory conditions b. Impaired growth c. CNS abnormality d. Craniofacial dysmorphologies

a. Respiratory conditions

15. The transition phase during which ovarian function and hormone production decline is called: a. The climacteric. b. Menarche. c. Menopause. d. Puberty.

a. The climacteric

19. The female reproductive organ(s) responsible for cyclic menstruation is/are the: a. Uterus. b. Ovaries. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Urethra.

a. Uterus.

7. Individual irregularities in the ovarian (menstrual) cycle are most often caused by: a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase. b. An intact hypothalamic-pituitary feedback mechanism. c. A functioning corpus luteum. d. A prolonged ischemic phase.

a. Variations in the follicular (preovulatory) phase

37. A common effect of both smoking and cocaine use in the pregnant woman is: a. Vasoconstriction b. Increased appetite c. Changes in insulin metabolism d. Increased metabolism

a. Vasoconstriction

31. Which statement by the patient indicates that she understands breast self-examination? a. "I will examine both breasts in two different positions." b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts." c. "I will examine the outer upper area of the breast only." d. "I will use the palm of the hand to perform the examination."

b. "I will perform breast self-examination 1 week after my menstrual period starts."

20. The body part that both protects the pelvic structures and accommodates the growing fetus during pregnancy is the: a. Perineum. b. Bony pelvis. c. Vaginal vestibule. d. Fourchette.

b. Bony pelvis

13. During a health history interview, a woman states that she thinks that she has "bumps" on her labia. She also states that she is not sure how to check herself. The correct response would be to: a. Reassure the woman that the examination will not reveal any problems. b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination. c. Reassure the woman that "bumps" can be treated. d. Reassure her that most women have "bumps" on their labia.

b. Explain the process of vulvar self-examination to the woman and reassure her that she should become familiar with normal and abnormal findings during the examination.

26. During which phase of the cycle of violence does the batterer become contrite and remorseful? a. Battering phase b. Honeymoon phase c. Tension-building phase d. Increased drug-taking phase

b. Honeymoon phase

12. A 62-year-old woman has not been to the clinic for an annual examination for 5 years. The recent death of her husband reminded her that she should come for a visit. Her family doctor has retired, and she is going to see the women's health nurse practitioner for her visit. To facilitate a positive health care experience, the nurse should: a. Remind the woman that she is long overdue for her examination and that she should come in annually. b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview. c. Reassure the woman that a nurse practitioner is just as good as her old doctor. d. Encourage the woman to talk about the death of her husband and her fears about her own death.

b. Listen carefully and allow extra time for this woman's health history interview.

9. Physiologically, sexual response can be characterized by: a. Coitus, masturbation, and fantasy. b. Myotonia and vasocongestion. c. Erection and orgasm. d. Excitement, plateau, and orgasm.

b. Myotonia and vasocongestion

23. Certain fatty acids classified as hormones that are found in many body tissues and that have roles in many reproductive functions are known as: a. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH). b. Prostaglandins (PGs). c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). d. Luteinizing hormone (LH).

b. Prostaglandins (PGs).

27. A patient at 24 weeks of gestation says she has a glass of wine with dinner every evening. The nurse will counsel her to eliminate all alcohol intake because: a. A daily consumption of alcohol indicates a risk for alcoholism. b. She will be at risk for abusing other substances as well. c. The fetus is placed at risk for altered brain growth. d. The fetus is at risk for multiple organ anomalies.

b. She will be at risk for abusing other substances as well.

3. Unique muscle fibers make the uterine myometrium ideally suited for: a. Menstruation. b. The birth process. c. Ovulation. d. Fertilization.

b. The birth process.

17. A woman who is 6 months pregnant has sought medical attention, saying she fell down the stairs. What scenario would cause an emergency department nurse to suspect that the woman has been a victim of intimate partner violence (IPV)? a. The woman and her partner are having an argument that is loud and hostile. b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing. c. Examination reveals a fractured arm and fresh bruises. d. She avoids making eye contact and is hesitant to answer questions.

b. The woman has injuries on various parts of her body that are in different stages of healing.

30. As a girl progresses through development, she may be at risk for a number of age-related conditions. While preparing a 21-year-old client for her first adult physical examination and Papanicolaou (Pap) test, the nurse is aware of excessiveness shyness. The young woman states that she will not remove her bra because, "There is something wrong with my breasts; one is way bigger." What is the best response by the nurse in this situation? a. "Please reschedule your appointment until you are more prepared." b. "It is okay; the provider will not do a breast examination." c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you." d. "That is unfortunate; this must be very stressful for you."

c. "I will explain normal growth and breast development to you."

18. A 20-year-old patient calls the clinic to report that she has found a lump in her breast. The nurse's best response is: a. "Don't worry about it. I'm sure it's nothing." b. "Wear a tight bra, and it should shrink." c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician." d. "Check it again in 1 month and call me back if it's still there."

c. "Many women have benign lumps and bumps in their breasts. However, to make sure that it's benign, you should come in for an examination by your physician."

11. The nurse guides a woman to the examination room and asks her to remove her clothes and put on an examination gown with the front open. The woman states, "I have special undergarments that I do not remove for religious reasons." The most appropriate response from the nurse would be: a. "You can't have an examination without removing all your clothes." b. "I'll ask the doctor to modify the examination." c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably." d. "What? I've never heard of such a thing! That sounds different and strange."

c. "Tell me about your undergarments. I'll explain the examination procedure, and then we can discuss how you can have your examination comfortably."

29. The microscopic examination of scrapings from the cervix, endocervix, or other mucous membranes to detect premalignant or malignant cells is called: a. Bimanual palpation. b. Rectovaginal palpation. c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test d. A four As procedure.

c. A Papanicolaou (Pap) test

14. A woman arrives at the clinic for her annual examination. She tells the nurse that she thinks she has a vaginal infection and she has been using an over-the-counter cream for the past 2 days to treat it. The nurse's initial response should be to: a. Inform the woman that vaginal creams may interfere with the Papanicolaou (Pap) test for which she is scheduled. b. Reassure the woman that using vaginal cream is not a problem for the examination. c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection. d. Ask the woman to reschedule the appointment for the examination.

c. Ask the woman to describe the symptoms that indicate to her that she has a vaginal infection.

33. A woman who is older than 35 years may have difficulty achieving pregnancy primarily because: a. Personal risk behaviors influence fertility b. She has used contraceptives for an extended time c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process d. Prepregnancy medical attention is lacking

c. Her ovaries may be affected by the aging process

8. Prostaglandins are produced in most organs of the body, including the uterus. Other source(s) of prostaglandins is/are: a. Ovaries. b. Breast milk. c. Menstrual blood. d. The vagina.

c. Menstrual blood.

21. A fully matured endometrium that has reached the thickness of heavy, soft velvet describes the _____ phase of the endometrial cycle. a. Menstrual b. Proliferative c. Secretory d. Ischemic

c. Secretory

32. A pregnant woman who abuses cocaine admits to exchanging sex for her drug habit. This behavior places her at a greater risk for: a. Depression of the central nervous system b. Hypotension and vasodilation c. Sexually transmitted diseases d. Postmature birth

c. Sexually transmitted diseases

6. Menstruation is periodic uterine bleeding: a. That occurs every 28 days. b. In which the entire uterine lining is shed. c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones. d. That leads to fertilization.

c. That is regulated by ovarian hormones.

24. Which statement regarding female sexual response is inaccurate? a. Women and men are more alike than different in their physiologic response to sexual arousal and orgasm. b. Vasocongestion is the congestion of blood vessels. c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle. d. Facial grimaces and spasms of hands and feet are often part of arousal.

c. The orgasmic phase is the final state of the sexual response cycle.

28. As a powerful central nervous system stimulant, which of these substances can lead to miscarriage, preterm labor, placental separation (abruption), and stillbirth? a. Heroin b. Alcohol c. PCP d. Cocaine

d. Cocaine

25. As part of their participation in the gynecologic portion of the physical examination, nurses should: a. Take a firm approach that encourages the client to facilitate the examination by following the physician's instructions exactly. b. Explain the procedure as it unfolds and continue to question the client to get information in a timely manner. c. Take the opportunity to explain that the trendy vulvar self-examination is only for women at risk for cancer. d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.

d. Help the woman relax through proper placement of her hands and proper breathing during the examination.

22. The stimulated release of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone is part of the: a. Menstrual cycle. c. Ovarian cycle. b. Endometrial cycle. c. Ovarian cycle. d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle.

d. Hypothalamic-pituitary cycle.

34. The most dangerous effect on the fetus of a mother who smokes cigarettes while pregnant is: a. Genetic changes and anomalies b. Extensive central nervous system damage c. Fetal addiction to the substance inhaled d. Intrauterine growth restriction

d. Intrauterine growth restriction

1. The two primary functions of the ovary are: a. Normal female development and sex hormone release. b. Ovulation and internal pelvic support. c. Sexual response and ovulation. d. Ovulation and hormone production.

d. Ovulation and hormone production.

4. The hormone responsible for maturation of mammary gland tissue is: a. Estrogen. b. Testosterone. c. Prolactin. d. Progesterone.

d. Progesterone.

10. The long-term treatment plan for an adolescent with an eating disorder focuses on: a. Managing the effects of malnutrition. b. Establishing sufficient caloric intake. c. Improving family dynamics. d. Restructuring perception of body image.

d. Restructuring perception of body image.


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