ch10: fetal dev/genetics
A pregnant client who is planning to have genetic testing asks the nurse when she should schedule her amniocentesis. What should the nurse tell the client? 24 weeks 30 weeks 16 weeks 10 weeks
16 weeks The nurse should tell the client that an amniocentesis is typically scheduled between 15 and 18 weeks' gestation.
A woman at 15 weeks' gestation who works at a daycare center thinks she may have just been exposed to rubella at work. The client asks how this may affect her fetus. What is the best response the nurse can give? "Your health care provider will let you know if there are any problems with your baby." "By the end of the eighth week all of the organ systems and major structures are present, so exposure to any teratogen can lead to birth defects. More assessments are needed." "We will have to see what gestational age your baby was at exposure." "We will need to perform some additional tests."
"By the end of the eighth week all of the organ systems and major structures are present, so exposure to any teratogen can lead to birth defects. More assessments are needed." All organ systems are complete at 8 weeks gestation. During this time of organogenesis the growing structure is most vulnerable to invasion by teratogens.
A woman is to undergo quad screening testing. The nurse would anticipate that this test would be done at which time? 12 weeks' gestation 24 weeks' gestation 16 weeks' gestation 20 weeks' gestation
16 weeks' gestation Typically, a triple or quad screening test would be done between 15 and 18 weeks' gestation.
A community health nurse is visiting a 16-year-old new mother. The nurse explains to the client and her mother the genetic screening that is required by the state's law. The client asks why it is important to have the testing done on the infant. What is the nurse's best response? "PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia are conditions that could result in disability or death if untreated." "This testing is required and you will not be able to refuse it. It usually is free so there is no reason to refuse it." "Genetic testing is a way to determine the rate of infectious disease." "It is important to test newborns for PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia."
"PKU, congenital hypothyroidism, and galactosemia are conditions that could result in disability or death if untreated." The first aim is to improve management, that is, identify people with treatable genetic conditions that could prove dangerous to their health if left untreated. The other answers are incorrect because genetic testing does not determine the rate of infectious disease. The other answers do not adequately explain the rationale for newborn testing.
A nursing instructor identifies a need for further instruction in regards to the three stages of fetal development when a nursing student makes which statement? "The fetal stage begins at 9 weeks after fertilization." "The embryonic stage begins approximately 2 weeks after fertilization." "The pre-embryonic stage begins approximately 2 weeks after fertilization." "The fetal stage ends at birth."
"The pre-embryonic stage begins approximately 2 weeks after fertilization." The three stages of human development are the pre-embryonic stage, which begins at fertilization and lasts through the end of the second week after fertilization; the embryonic stage, which begins approximately 2 weeks after fertilization and ends at the conclusion of the 8th week after fertilization; and the fetal stage, which begins approximately 9 weeks after fertilization and ends at birth.
The pregnant client at 6 weeks' gestation asks the nurse if an ultrasound will reveal the sex of the fetus yet. What is the best response by the nurse? "We will be able to determine the sex of the baby today with transvaginal ultrasound." "We will have to wait until the baby is 20 weeks' gestation to determine the sex of the baby." "We will have to wait until the baby is 16 weeks' gestation to determine what the sex is." "We will have to wait until the baby is 8 weeks' gestation to be able to determine what the sex is."
"We will have to wait until the baby is 16 weeks' gestation to determine what the sex is." The sex of the baby can be determined by ultrasound at 16 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound at 6 and 8 weeks would be too early to determine the sex. An ultrasound at 20 weeks should confirm what was found at 16 weeks.
A woman who has a recessive gene for sickle cell anemia marries a man who also has a recessive gene for sickle cell anemia. Their first child is born with sickle cell anemia. The chance that their second child will develop this disease is: 3 in 4. 0 in 4. 1 in 4. 2 in 4.
1 in 4. Autosomal recessive inherited diseases occur at a 1-in-4 incidence in offspring. The possibility of a chance happening does not change for a second pregnancy.
The nurse is preparing a presentation for a health fair which will illustrate the development of a baby. The nurse should point out the fertilized egg is implanted in the endometrium by which day? 10 4 6 8
10 By day 10 after fertilization, the blastocyst has completely buried itself in the endometrial lining. Prior to day 10, the attachment is much looser.
A woman with sickle cell anemia has just found out that she is 6 weeks' pregnant. The woman is being scheduled for chorionic villus testing to determine her child's risk for sickle cell anemia. The nurse would inform the woman that the earliest time she may undergo this test would be at which week of gestation? 15 weeks 10 weeks 18 weeks 16 weeks
10 weeks Chorionic villus sampling is typically performed between 10 and 12 weeks' gestation with results available in less than 1 week. So the earliest time would be 10 weeks. An alpha-fetoprotein test is typically performed between 15 and 18 weeks' gestation. An amniocentesis is usually performed between 15 and 20 weeks' gestation to allow for adequate amniotic fluid volume to accumulate. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling is generally performed after 16 weeks' gestation.
The nurse is caring for a client at the prenatal clinic. The client reports that she has felt some fluttering sensations in her lower abdomen and she noticed that her waistline is now totally gone. Additionally, she shows the nurse her nipples and the areola are much darker. Based upon this assessment, in which month of pregnancy is this client? 5th month 4th month 2nd month 3rd month
4th month Based upon the presenting findings, the mother is in her 4th month of pregnancy. This is when quickening occurs—the beginning of feeling fetal movement. Also, the mother now has lost her waistline and the breast areola has begun to darken.
The nurse cares for multiple clients planning to have children. Which client will the nurse identify as priority for needing a referral for prenatal genetic testing? A female client who is 38 years of age A male client who is 45 years of age A female client diagnosed with diabetes mellitus A male client with family history of sickle cell disease
A male client with family history of sickle cell disease The nurse would refer the male client with a family history of a sickle cell disease, a genetic disorder, for prenatal genetic testing. Women older than 35 years of age and men older than 45 years of age should be referred. However, age is not priority over a known family history. Women with diabetes need not necessarily be referred for genetic testing.
A pregnant client is undergoing a fetal biophysical profile. Which parameter of the profile helps measure long-term adequacy of the placental function? Fetal breathing record Amniotic fluid volume Fetal heart rate Fetal reactivity
Amniotic fluid volume A biophysical profile combines five parameters (fetal reactivity, fetal breathing movements, fetal body movement, fetal tone, and amniotic fluid volume) into one assessment. The fetal heart and breathing record measures short-term central nervous system function; the amniotic fluid volume helps measure long-term adequacy of placental function.
The nursing instructor is leading a discussion on the process of implantation with a group of nursing students. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which explanation of a blastocyst? A ball of about 16 identical cells that forms when the zygote divides An inner layer of cells that is separated from an outer layer of cells by a fluid-filled cavity A group of cells that forms what will become the placenta. The endometrium that is enriched in nutrients in preparation for pregnancy
An inner layer of cells that is separated from an outer layer of cells by a fluid-filled cavity The zygote divides rapidly, until it forms a ball of about 16 identical cells, which is then called a morula. The morula is then swept down the fallopian tube and into the uterus, a process that takes approximately 7 to 9 days. The lining of the uterus, or endometrium, has become rich in nutrients in preparation for the pregnancy. Just before the morula reaches the uterus, the cells begin to form layers—first an inner layer, then an outer layer that is around a fluid-filled space. This structure is called a blastocyst. As the structure continues to grow, the outer layer becomes the trophoblast, which will become the structures that nourish (the placenta) and protect the developing conceptus. The inner cell mass will become the embryo which will continue to grow and become the fetus.
When counseling potential parents about genetic disorders, which statement would be appropriate? Genetic disorders primarily follow Mendelian laws of inheritance. All genetic disorders involve a similar number of abnormal chromosomes. The absence of genetic disorders in both families eliminates the possibility of having a child with a genetic disorder. Environmental influences may affect multifactorial inheritance.
Environmental influences may affect multifactorial inheritance. It is difficult to predict with certainty the incidence of genetic disorders because in some disorders, more than one gene is involved and environmental insults may play a role (cleft palate, for example).
At a prenatal checkup with a client at 7 weeks' gestation, the nurse would identify what as a normal finding? Fetal heart sounds are heard. Quickening is detected by the mother. Gender identity is determined with ultrasound. The fetus would have a startle reflex.
Fetal heart sounds are heard. Although the heart is not fully developed, it begins to beat at week 5, and a regular rhythm and can be heard at week 7. Quickening is felt around week 13. Gender identity can be determined at weeks 9 to 12. The startle reflex can be seen around weeks 21 to 24.
A nurse overhears a colleague tell a client that based on the genetic testing results she should terminate the pregnancy. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to take? Tell the unlicensed assistive personnel Call the client later and apologize. Contact the health care provider. Immediately stop the nurse.
Immediately stop the nurse. The nurse should interrupt the nurse and remind him or her that it is important not to impose personal values onto the client.
A client at 38 weeks' gestation is diagnosed with placental insufficiency. Which prescription from the health care provider will the nurse anticipate? Discharge the client home with daily nonstress testing. Administer one dose of betamethasone. Prepare the client for an induction of labor. Assess the client's blood pressure every 2 hours.
Prepare the client for an induction of labor. Placental insufficiency is a serious complication where the placenta no longer works properly to provide nutrition and oxygen to the fetus, nor remove waste products from the fetus. Because this client's fetus is at full term, the nurse would anticipate an induction of labor or a cesarean birth. The client is not stable enough to be sent home for monitoring. Hypertension can be a cause of placental insufficiency; however, at this point in the pregnancy, birth is the best option. Betamethasone is a steroid given to clients to hasten preterm fetal lung development. This client is at term and does not need betamethasone.
When describing the characteristics of the amniotic fluid to a pregnant woman, the nurse would include which information? It is usually an acidic fluid. It is composed primarily of organic substances. It limits fetal movement in utero. The amount gradually fluctuates during pregnancy.
The amount gradually fluctuates during pregnancy. Amniotic fluid is alkaline. Amniotic fluid is composed of 98% water and 2% organic matter. Amniotic fluid volume gradually fluctuates throughout pregnancy. Sufficient amounts promote fetal movement to enhance musculoskeletal development.
A multigravida client is concerned that she may deliver early. When asking the nurse what is the earliest her baby can be delivered and survive, which time frame would the nurse point out? The end of the first trimester The end of the fourth trimester The end of the second trimester The end of the third trimester
The end of the second trimester During the second trimester, fetal growth is significant. The fetus begins this trimester 3 inches long and weighing less than 1 oz (0.8 gm). By the end of the second trimester, the fetus is about 15 inches long and weighs more than 2 lbs (1000 gm). Major organs develop to the point that the fetus may survive (with help) outside the womb. The fetus would not be able to survive at the end of the first trimester. The end of the third trimester is the expected time of deliver. The fourth trimester involves the time after delivery.
At a prenatal class, the nurse educator describes the function of the placenta. What information would the nurse likely include? Select all that apply. The placenta produces hormones that ready fetal organs for life outside the uterus. The placenta stimulates the mother to bring more food to the placenta. The placenta removes the waste products that the fetus produces. The placenta makes hormones to control the way the fetus is supplied with nutrients and oxygen. The placenta ensures that the fetus is protected from all teratogens. The placenta acts as a barrier between the mother and fetus.
The placenta produces hormones that ready fetal organs for life outside the uterus. The placenta stimulates the mother to bring more food to the placenta. The placenta removes the waste products that the fetus produces. The placenta makes hormones to control the way the fetus is supplied with nutrients and oxygen. The placenta acts as a pass-through between the mother and fetus to help supply the fetus with the nutrients and oxygen needed for growth. The placenta removes waste products from the fetus, induces the mother to bring more food to the placenta, and, near the time of birth, produces hormones that ready fetal organs for life outside the uterus. The placenta is not a barrier. Almost everything the mother ingests passes through to the developing fetus, and thus the fetus is not protected from teratogens.
How does fetal circulation differ from circulation after birth? The ductus arteriosus carries the majority of the blood circulating from the left atrium to the left ventricle directly to the aorta. In utero, blood through the pulmonary artery is only 50% of the post-delivery blood flow. The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood, while deoxygenated blood is carried by the umbilical arteries. Fetal blood flow bypasses the right atrium and goes directly to the right ventricle.
The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood, while deoxygenated blood is carried by the umbilical arteries. A woman who has the BRCA1 hereditary breast cancer gene mutation has a lifetime risk of breast cancer that can be as high as 80%, not 100%. This quality, known as incomplete penetrance, indicates the probability that a given gene will produce disease. The other answers are incorrect because lifestyles, other gene mutations, and susceptibility are not the deciding factor in getting breast cancer if a woman has the BRCA1 gene mutation.
A client is confused concerning her fertile period each month. The nurse would educate the client by providing which information? The female fertility period is from Day 12 to Day 21 of her menstrual cycle. Fertilization can occur only if intercourse occurs on the day of ovulation. The window of opportunity for conception is from 3 days before to 2 days following ovulation. Since a sperm can only live 12 to 24 hours after ejaculation, fertility is limited to 1 day before to 1 day after ovulation.
The window of opportunity for conception is from 3 days before to 2 days following ovulation. Since sperm are viable for 24 to 72 hours after ejaculation and the ovum remains fertile for a maximum of 48 hours after ovulation, the window is from 3 days before to 2 days after ovulation.
The family whose first child had an autosomal dominant genetic disorder is having genetic counseling to plan a subsequent pregnancy. Which statement by the nurse accurately reflects this family's genetic condition? There is a 50% chance for each child from a subsequent pregnancy being affected. With healthy preconception and pregnancy lifestyle, the chances of an affected child can be decreased. There is a 25% chance for a subsequent child being affected by this genetic disorder. After a first child with an autosomal dominant disorder, a second child is also certain to be affected.
There is a 50% chance for each child from a subsequent pregnancy being affected. An autosomal dominant genetic condition has a 50% chance of being passed on in each pregnancy. It is not influenced by the number of previously affected children ("1 in 2" does not mean that one child will be affected and another will or will not). It is not influenced by preconception or prenatal health; the condition is passed on based on genetics.
A nurse is caring for a 37-year-old pregnant client who is expecting twin boys. The client smoked prior to conception but has stopped during the pregnancy. A relative of the client has Klinefelter syndrome, and the client wants to find out more about the disorder. Which information will the nurse provide to the client during genetic counseling? Klinefelter syndrome occurs only in girls and not boys. The client's previous smoking habit will increase the risk of a genetic disorder. There is a greater risk of Klinefelter syndrome due to the client's age. Having twins increases the risk of Klinefelter syndrome.
There is a greater risk of Klinefelter syndrome due to the client's age. The risk of trisomies such as Klinefelter syndrome increases with the age of the mother at the time of pregnancy. Klinefelter syndrome occurs only in males. Having twins does not increase the risk of Klinefelter syndrome for the babies, nor does the client's previous smoking habit have any bearing on the risk for Klinefelter syndrome.
A nurse is caring for a 32-year-old Jewish client who is pregnant with a female baby. The parents are not directly related by blood. The mother reports that her husband's cousin had an infant born with Tay-Sachs disease that died two years ago and she is concerned about her baby. Which information should the nurse need to give this client regarding her baby having the same disease? There is no risk of Tay-Sachs disease because the parents are not related by blood. The age of the client increases the susceptibility of the baby to Tay-Sachs disease. There is a risk to the baby based upon the Jewish background, so genetic testing would be recommended. Tay-Sachs disease affects only male infants so there is no problem with her baby.
There is a risk to the baby based upon the Jewish background, so genetic testing would be recommended. Tay-Sachs disease affects both male and female babies. The age of the client does not significantly increase the risk of Tay-Sachs disease. Even though the client and her husband are not related by blood, their Jewish background/heritage places their baby at a greater risk. There is a chance that the offspring may have Tay-Sachs disease even if both parents don't have it because they could be carriers, so genetic testing would be advisable.
A female client desires preconception genetic counseling because the client has a brother with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, an X-linked recessive genetic disorder. How does the nurse best explain the genetics of this disorder to this client? The gene for Duchenne muscular dystrophy does not yet have a test available, so diagnosis is based on symptoms and family history. This gene is usually carried by the mother, and there is a 50% chance that you are a carrier. Because only males are affected by this disorder, you may be offered assisted reproduction to ensure a female child. Passing on Duchenne muscular dystrophy is only a concern if your partner's family also has a history of this disease.
This gene is usually carried by the mother, and there is a 50% chance that you are a carrier. X-linked recessive inheritance involves a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome. This causes the disease to always be expressed in males (who are homozygous for the gene mutation because they have one X and one Y chromosome). Females with one copy of the mutated gene are carriers. This client's mother was most likely a carrier (though spontaneous mutations are also possible), and the client has a 50% chance of being a carrier of this gene mutation.
A mother has come to the clinic with her 13-year-old daughter to find out why she has not started her menses. After a thorough examination and history, genetic testing is prescribed to rule out which abnormality? Klinefelter's syndrome fragile X syndrome Turner syndrome cri du chat syndrome
Turner syndrome Turner syndrome is a common abnormality of the sex chromosome in which a portion or all of the X chromosome is missing. Only about one third of the cases are diagnosed as newborns; the remaining two thirds are diagnosed in early adolescence when they experience primary amenorrhea. No cure exists for this syndrome. Hormone replacement therapy may be used to induce puberty.
The process of oogenesis begins before birth but is not complete until the childbearing years. At what point does the second meiotic division occur in this process? as the ovum is expelled from the corpus luteum when the ovum attaches to the uterine wall at the time of fertilization by the sperm at the time of division of the secondary oocyte and the first polar body
at the time of fertilization by the sperm The first meiotic division occurs before ovulation, forming a secondary oocyte and a polar body. The polar body disintegrates due to lack of cytoplasm. This leads to the second meiotic division as the sperm fertilizes the oocyte. The second division occurs long before attachment to the uterine wall and after the division, producing the polar body as the ovum leaves the ovary.
For which client is preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) a viable option? client who is currently 32 years of age client whose partner has cystic fibrosis client who had a miscarriage at 15 weeks' gestation client in the second week of pregnancy
client whose partner has cystic fibrosis Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is a viable option when either parent is a carrier of a genetic disorder. It is also an option when the mother is of advanced maternal age or has a history of multiple miscarriages. PGD is not a viable option for pregnant clients.
The nursing instructor is preparing a class presentation covering the various hormones and their functions during pregnancy. The instructor determines the class is successful when the class correctly matches which function with hCG? provides rich blood supply to decidua continues progesterone production by corpus luteum sustains life of placenta maintains nutrient-rich decidua
continues progesterone production by corpus luteum The corpus luteum is responsible for producing progesterone until this function is assumed by the placenta. hCG is a fail-safe mechanism to prolong the life of the corpus luteum and ensure progesterone production. Estrogen is responsible for providing a rich blood supply to the decidua. Progesterone helps maintain a nutrient-rich decidua.
After teaching a class on the various structures formed by the embryonic membranes, the nurse determines that the teaching was successful when the class identifies which structure as being formed by the ectoderm? ears lungs stomach bones
ears The ectoderm forms the structures of the special senses. The endoderm forms the structures of the respiratory and digestive systems. The mesoderm forms the structures of the skeletal system.
The nursing student is preparing a presentation that will illustrate the various stages of fetal development. The student will label which stage as the time when the various tissues of the growing embryo begin to assume specific functions? pre-embryonic embryonic post-embryonic fetal
embryonic During the embryonic period, the cells multiply and tissues begin to assume specific functions, a process known as differentiation. This stage lasts from the end of the second week after fertilization until the end of the eighth week. The pre-embryonic stage begins with fertilization and lasts for 2 weeks. Cellular division and implantation occur during this stage of development. The fetal stage is from the beginning of the ninth week after fertilization and continues until birth. There is additional growth and maturation of the organs and body systems during this time. There is no post-embryonic stage.
During which stage of fetal development is exposure to teratogens most damaging? fetal stage mitosis stage embryonic stage pre-embryonic stage
embryonic stage The most sensitive period of fetal development related to teratogens is during the embryonic period when the different body systems are developing. During the pre-embryonic stage, the fetal stage, and the mitosis stage, the risk of teratogenic exposure is not as influential on the fetus.
A nursing student is explaining to a newly pregnant woman what happens during each stage of fetal development. At which stage does the nurse inform the woman that the lungs are fully shaped? end of 16 weeks end of 4 weeks end of 12 weeks end of 8 weeks
end of 16 weeks At the end of 16 weeks, the lungs are fully shaped, fetus swallows amniotic fluid, skeletal structure is identifiable, downy lanugo hair is present on the body, and sex can be determined using ultrasound.
A young couple, 8 weeks' pregnant with their first child, are being assessed at their first prenatal visit. They ask about scheduling an ultrasound to find out the gender of the fetus. For when should the nurse recommend this ultrasound be scheduled? for today (8 weeks' gestation) for 12 weeks' gestation for 16 weeks' gestation for 20 weeks' gestation
for 16 weeks' gestation The sex organs can be distinguished at 12 weeks' gestation but are difficult to see on routine ultrasound. The gender of the fetus can be determined at the end of 16 weeks' gestation on ultrasound.
The nurse is creating an educational pamphlet for pregnant mothers. Which is the best description of fetal development for the nurse to emphasize? sex and systems developed gestational age, length, weight, and systems developed length, weight, sex age in weeks and systems developed
gestational age, length, weight, and systems developed Client education is a major component of maternal-child nursing. During pregnancy, nurses provide anticipatory guidance to prepare the woman and her significant other for the changes each month brings. Clients most often want to know gestational age in weeks, length, weight, and systems developed; the client is then able to visualize what the fetus looks like.
A nurse is preparing a presentation for a group of nurses about genetic discoveries and advances. When discussing this topic, the nurse would most likely include which topic area related to the potential for misuse? gene replacement therapy for defective genes slower diagnosis of specific diseases greater emphasis on the causes of diseases individual risk profiling and confidentiality
individual risk profiling and confidentiality Individual risk profiling based on an individual's genetic makeup can raise issues related to privacy and confidentiality. Gene replacement therapy for defective genes and a greater emphasis on looking at the causes of disease are considered benefits associated with genetic advances. Rapid, more specific diagnosis of diseases would be possible.
An 18-year-old pregnant woman asks the nurse why she has to have a routine alpha-fetoprotein serum level drawn. The nurse explains that this: measures the fetal liver function. may reveal chromosomal abnormalities. tests the ability of her heart to accommodate the pregnancy. is a screening test for placental function.
may reveal chromosomal abnormalities. An alpha-fetoprotein analysis is a cost-effective screening test to detect chromosomal and open-body-cavity disorders.
A woman is confused after finding out the ultrasound results predict a different due date for the birth of her baby. Which factor should the nurse point out is most likely the reason for the miscalculation of the fetal age? amount of weight gain of mother in early weeks of pregnancy not seeking prenatal care in the beginning mistaking implantation bleeding for last menstrual period (LMP) an error in math when calculating
mistaking implantation bleeding for last menstrual period (LMP) The most common cause is implantation bleeding, which can occur as the blastocyst implants itself into the endometrium. This bleeding can be mistaken for a scanty menstrual period and can lead to miscalculation of fetal age by 2 weeks. The other choices might also contribute, especially the math miscalculation, but are not the primary reason.
Three sisters decide to have genetic testing done because their mother and their maternal grandmother died of breast cancer. Each of the sisters has the BRCA1 gene mutation. The nurse explains that just because they have the gene does not mean that they will develop breast cancer, but rather their chances of developing breast cancer depend on: what other gene mutations they have. their lifestyles. penetrance. susceptibility.
penetrance A woman who has the BRCA1 hereditary breast cancer gene mutation has a lifetime risk of breast cancer that can be as high as 80%, not 100%. This quality, known as incomplete penetrance, indicates the probability that a given gene will produce disease. The other answers are incorrect because lifestyles, other gene mutations, and susceptibility are not the deciding factor in getting breast cancer if a woman has the BRCA1 gene mutation.
The placenta is the site where antibodies in the mother's blood pass into the fetal circulation. These antibodies give passive immunity to the fetus for several common childhood diseases. There are some infections for which the mother does not provide antibodies to the fetus. What infection is the fetus not protected from? diphtheria smallpox rubeola rubella
rubella The fetus does not receive immunity to rubella, cytomegalovirus (CMV), varicella, or measles. If the woman encounters these pathogens during her pregnancy, fetal infection may ensue.
Girls with Turner syndrome will usually exhibit: short stature. painful joints. chorea-like movements. progressive dementia.
short stature. Girls with Turner syndrome usually have a single X chromosome, causing them to have short stature and infertility. Persons with sickle cell anemia have painful joints. Color blindness occurs in persons diagnosed with Huntington disease, and they may exhibit chorea-like movements. Progressive dementia occurs in early-onset familial Alzheimer disease.
