Chap 11 Innate all from quizzes
A mother brings her 5-month-old infant to the pediatrician for recurrent colds. The mother has never breast-fed and the infant is fed iron-fortified formula. The mother asks, "My baby has been perfectly healthy up until last month—now it seems like she has been sick constantly. Why?" How should the physician respond?
"An infant gets immunity from the mother at birth and from breast milk; this provides protection from infection but wears off in approximately 3 to 6 months. An infant still needs time for his own immune system to mature." Explanation: The infant's immune system is not yet mature. Passive immunity is immunity transferred from mother to fetus before birth. After birth, the neonate receives IgG antibodies from the mother in breast milk or colostrum. Therefore, infants are provided with some degree of protection from infection for approximately 3 to 6 months, giving their own immune systems time to mature.
A pregnant client who has HIV asks the nurse if her baby will have the disease. The best response would be:
"The baby will test positive for the HIV antibody test result, although the child may not necessarily be infected with the virus."
A client stepped on a nail at work. The emergency room physician prescribes a tetanus "booster" shot. The client asks the nurse, "If I have already been vaccinated for tetanus why do I need to have another shot?" How should the nurse respond?
"The booster shot will stimulate your immune system's memory, causing an immediate rise in antibodies to protect you from an infection."
A client called the physician's office with symptoms of the common cold. The nurse educates the client on supportive treatment for symptoms and explains that the body's immune system is fighting the virus but will take approximately how long for a response?
1-2 weeks
Which client is at the greatest risk for developing an intracellular pathogen infection?
A client with AIDS who has a decreased CD4+ TH1 count Explanation: Thus, the CD4+ TH1 cell controls and coordinates host defenses against certain intracellular pathogens, a function that helps to explain why a decreased CD4+ TH1 count in persons with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) places them at high risk for intracellular pathogen infections. If the teenager has a healthy immune system, high school should not place him or her at high risk for infection. A WBC of 8000 is normal. Radioactive iodine attacks the thyroid gland and does not usually interfere with immunity.
The nurse is administering a measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccination to a pediatric client. When the nurse explains immunity to the mother, which type of immunity will she explain that this vaccination provides?
Active artificial immunity
A client is brought to the physician's office with a raised, red macular rash on the trunk and arms accompanied by a fever. A diagnosis of measles is made. Which type of immunity does this disease process provide? · Active artificial immunity · Passive natural immunity · Passive artificial immunity · Active natural immunity
Active natural immunity Explanation: Active immunity is acquired when the host mounts an immune response to an antigen either through the process of vaccination (artificial means) or from environmental exposure (natural means). It is called active immunity because it requires the host's own immune system to develop an immunologic response
An immunocompromised client is exposed to varicella (chickenpox virus). The client has not had the varicella vaccine and has never had the disease. What intervention should the nurse anticipate to prevent this client from developing varicella?
Administer varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG).
The cells that mediate humoral immunity do so because they are capable of producing: · Antibodies · Stem cells · Platelets · Helper T cells
Antibodies Explanation: B lymphocytes (B cells) are the only cells capable of producing antibodies; therefore, they are the cells that mediate humoral immunity. B lymphocytes (B cells) differentiate into plasma cells that produce the needed immunoglobulins (antibodies) for responding to that particular antigen. Stem cells are undifferentiated cells. T helper cells differentiate into cytotoxic and other T-cell forms.
Substances foreign to the host that can stimulate an immune response are known as:
Antigens Explanation: Antigens are foreign substances that stimulate an immune response. Antibodies are innate and will adapt to the antigen. MHC proteins aid in the identification process of host cells. Cytokines are signaling molecules of the immune system.
The nurse knows that inflammation plays a key role in the pathogenesis of many common pathophysiologic states. Which diseases should be nurse include in the teaching plan for senior citizens? Select all that apply.
AtherosclerosisCoronary artery diseaseNon-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM)
Select the type of lymphocyte that matures in the bone marrow.
B lymphocytes
A pregnant client asks the nurse when the immune system develops in the fetus. The best response is:
Beginning at 5 to 6 weeks as the fetal liver becomes active in hematopoiesis
An infectious disease nurse is researching T-cells to determine which cells control replication of intracellular bacteria. Which cells should the nurse begin investigating?
CD8 cells
In both the innate and adaptive immune systems, cells communicate information about invading organisms by the secretion of chemical mediators. Which are these mediators? Select all that apply. Coxiella Chemokines Colony-stimulating factors Virulence factors
Chemokines Colony-stimulating factors
A client receiving chemotherapy has leukopenia. Which type of medication would promote long-term improvement in the client's immune response?
Colony-stimulating factor (CSF)
Which findings are considered part of normal aging? Select all that apply.
Decrease in CD4+ count Decreased IL-2 level Explanation: There is a decrease in the size of the thymus gland, which is thought to affect T-cell function. A suggested biologic clock in T cells that determines the number of times it divides may regulate cell number with age. Some researchers have reported a decrease in the absolute number of lymphocytes, and others have found little, if any, change. The most common finding is a slight decrease in the proportion of T cells to other lymphocytes and a decrease in CD4+ and CD8+ T cells. Evidence indicates that aged T cells have a decreased rate of synthesis of the cytokines that drive the proliferation of lymphocytes and a diminished expression of the receptors that interact with those cytokines. For example, it has been shown that IL-2, IL-4, and IL-12 levels decrease with aging. Although B-cell function is compromised with age, the range of antigens that can be recognized is not diminished.
A clinical research study is evaluating cells that bridge both the innate and adaptive immune systems. A nurse has identified the dendritic cells (DCs) as a key component. Which statement validates this finding?
Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. Explanation: Dendritic cells (DCs) are specialized, bone marrow-derived leukocytes found in lymphoid tissue and are the bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems. They are present primarily in an immature form that is available to directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, DCs undergo a complex maturation process in order to function as key antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. They are responsible for the processing and presentation of foreign antigens to the lymphocytes.
Which cells block the entry of microbes and destroy them by secreting antimicrobial enzymes, proteins, and peptides within the mucous membrane linings of the gastrointestinal, respiratory, and urogenital tract?
Epithelial
The laboratory finds IgA in a sample of cord blood from a newborn infant. This finding is important because it signifies what?
Fetal reaction to exposure to an intrauterine infection
A client is experiencing a decrease in the number of circulating neutrophils (neutropenia) during an active bacterial infection. The nurse examines the client's lab results looking for which cytokines that is responsible for promoting growth and maturation of neutrophils during inflammatory reactions?
Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF)
A client is experiencing a decrease in the number of circulating neutrophils (neutropenia) during an active bacterial infection. The nurse examines the client's lab results looking for which cytokines that is responsible for promoting growth and maturation of neutrophils during inflammatory reactions? Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) Monocyte CSF (M-CSF) Histamine Interferon (IFN)
Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF)
A client diagnosed with sepsis has a critically low neutrophil count. The nurse expects which drug or drug class to be used to stimulate white blood cell production?
Granulocyte CSF (G-CSF) such as filgrastim
A client has recently received a pneumococcal vaccine and the client's B cells are consequently producing antibodies. Which cells may enhance this production of antibodies? • Cytotoxic T cells • Natural killer cells • Helper T cells • Regulatory T cell
Helper T cells Explanation: In order for B lymphocytes to produce antibodies, they require the help of specific T lymphocytes, called helper T cells, which help B lymphocytes produce antibodies. Natural killer cells as well as regulatory and cytotoxic T cells do not perform this function
A client with end-stage kidney disease is receiving a kidney donated by a family member. When caring for this client, what does the nurse know is the major target involved in organ transplant rejection?
Human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
A client receives an interleukin-2 (IL-2) infusion to treat cancer. Which response explains how this cytokine will affect the growth of cancer cells?
IL-2 stimulates growth of cytotoxic T lymphocytes. Explanation: Cytokines are small proteins used by the innate and adaptive immune systems to communicate with each other. IL-2 is a growth factor for activated T cells produced by macrophages. IL-2 activates cytotoxic T lymphocytes and natural killer cells. These cells destroy abnormal cells.
The nurse is assisting a new mother with breast-feeding. What does the nurse understand is a primary secretory Ig that is found in the colostrum?
IgA
Which immunoglobulin is the first circulating immunoglobulin to appear in response to an antigen and is the first antibody type made by a newborn?
IgM
A client tells the nurse she is at risk to prematurely deliver her baby and is concerned that the baby does not have a developed immune system. The best response would be:
Infants born prematurely may have deficient immunity.
Select the phases that make up the reaction of the complement system.
Initial activation, amplification of inflammation, membrane attack response Explanation: The reactions of the complement system can be divided into three phases: (1) initial activation, (2) amplification of inflammation, and (3) membrane attack response. The other options are not part of the system.
A client being treated for a bacterial infection is improving and preparing for discharge. The nurse explains the disease process and functioning of the immune system to the client. Which cytokine is identified as responsible for decreasing the inflammatory immune response?
Interleukin-10 (IL-10)
A nurse is teaching a new mother diagnosed with HIV about the transfer of the infection to her newborn. The mother begins to cry and states, "It's too late, the lab tests on my baby are already positive for HIV." How should the nurse respond?
Just because the test is positive for HIV does not mean your baby is infected with the virus."
Which event is part of the effector function of activated members of the complement system?
Localization of infection
What is a common source of interleukin-1 (IL-1), interleukin-6 (IL-6), and interleukin-12 (IL-12)?
Macrophages
A client is being treated for lupus, an autoimmune disease. The nurse is teaching the client how the immune system normally differentiates between self and non-self (foreign peptides). The nurse knows teaching has been effective when the client correctly identifies which molecule as the self-recognition protein?
Major histocompatibility complex (MHC)
Which statement describes a key feature of natural killer (NK) cells?
NK cells play a role in both innate and adaptive immune responses.
A blood smear is being examined and a stain has been added that will identify granulocytes. Which cell types will be visible with the stain? Select all that apply.
Neutrophil Eosinophil Basophil
A teenager with an infected wound asks, "How does my body fight off the germs in my scraped arm?" Which response by the nurse correctly identifies the cells that play a central role to the innate immune response to an infectious microorganism?
Neutrophils
A child has a congenital condition in which the thymus gland is absent. What should the nurse include in the education of care of this client to the parents?
Observe and report signs and symptoms of infection. Explanation: The thymus is essential to the development of the immune system because it is responsible for the production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes.
The process by which microbes are coated to allow for more efficient recognition by phagocytes is known as:
Opsonization Explanation: Opsonization is the coating of particles with proteins, lectins, and complement to make them more attractive for phagocytes to recognize them as a foreign pathogen. Immunization is the process of acquiring the ability to respond to an antigen after its administration by vaccine. Immunity is protection from disease and, more specifically, infectious disease. Memory response occurs on second or subsequent exposures to the antigen.
A woman experiences a viral infection while pregnant. Which type of immunity does an infant have at birth against this infection? · Tolerance · Passive · Adaptive · Active
Passive Explanation: Passive immunity is when the antibodies against an antigen are transferred directly to the host, such as when a fetus gains from the mother's immune system. Active immunity is acquired through exposure to antigens, and having the B and T lymphocytes develop a response. Tolerance is the ability of the immune system to react to foreign substances but not the body cells. Adaptive immunity is when the immune system responds to antigens and is moderated by B and T lymphocytes.
Activating lymphocytes depends on which actions of antigens by macrophages?
Processing and displaying Explanation: Macrophages engulf and process the antigen, then move it to the surface for display to a T lymphocyte. Macrophages do not completely destroy antigens; the T and B cells do the destruction after the processed antigen is presented. Memory cells remember the first encounter with a particular antigen and repeat the same response. Macrophages capture one antigen at a time, not in clusters or in groups.
The nurse is planning care for a client with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency. What is a priority intervention to incorporate into the plan?
Protecting the client from infection Explanation: The client with immunodeficiency has an absent or inadequate immune response. Cell-mediated, or cellular, immunity is mediated by the cytotoxic T lymphocytes (T cells) and functions in the elimination of intracellular pathogens. A lack of this response increases the client's risk of infection.
The results of recent research suggest that a key role in the origin of some diseases is played by inflammation. For which disease is it thought that inflammation has a role in its beginnings?
Rheumatoid arthritis Explanation: Among the functions of the innate immune system is induction of a complex cascade of events known as the inflammatory response. Recent evidence suggests that inflammation plays a key role in the pathogenesis of a number of disorders such as atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease, bronchial asthma, type 2 diabetes mellitus, rheumatoid arthritis, multiple sclerosis, and systemic lupus erythematosus. Osteoporosis is the abnormal loss of bone tissue and density. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a genetic disease causing multiple bone fractures in a newborn. Hydronephrosis is a condition of the kidney causing distention of the pelvis and calyces because of an obstruction in the ureter causing an inability of urine to pass.
A client has been identified as having an excess of macrophage inhibitory factor, causing the client to have inhibited movement and activity of macrophages. Which process should the health care team expect to remain unaffected?
Specificity and memory of the immune response
Which type of immunity provides a defense against intracellular microbes such as viruses?
T lymphocytes
Which statement explains how T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes differ?
T lymphocytes mature in the thymus gland; B lymphocytes mature in the bone marrow.
A client experiencing severe neck pain and fever comes to the emergency room and is diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. Knowing that the client's immune system is fighting the infection, the infectious disease nurse correctly identifies which pathway as the activation of the complement system?
The classical
In an attempt to best explain the innate immune system to a class of first-year nursing students, the instructor should describe what characteristic?
The response of the innate immune system is rapid, usually within minutes to hours, and prevents the establishment of infection and deeper tissue penetration of microorganisms. Explanation: The innate immune system is the first line of defense. The adaptive immune system is composed of lymphocytes and their products. Antibodies comprise humoral immunity and T-cells provide cellular immunity.
Select the response that correctly identifies B lymphocytes.
They are the only cells capable of producing antibodies.
Which is the main purpose of the complement system in the presence of invading microorganisms?
To attack and destroy antigens
One of the self-regulatory actions of the immune system is to identify self-antigens and be nonreactive to them. Which term best describes this process of the immune system? Antigen diversity Nonreactivity Tolerance Antigen specificity
Tolerance
A client seeks treatment in the clinic for exposure to poison ivy with a rash over the right arm and hand. The nurse is aware that what toxin is found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for eliciting an allergic reaction?
Urushiol Explanation: Urushiol is a toxin found in the oils on poison ivy that is responsible for initiating an allergic reaction.
The entrance of a microbe into an individual's vascular space has initiated opsonization. How will the health care provider explain this process that is critical in stopping the infiltration of the microbe through opsonization? Opsonization:
coats a microbe to activate phagocytosis recognition. Explanation: The coating of particles, such as microbes, is called opsonization, and the coating materials are called opsonins. The opsonin bound to the microbe then activates the phagocyte after attachment to a complementary receptor on the phagocyte. Opsonization does not involve stimulation by T cells, stimulation of the bone marrow, or the lysis of microbes by cytotoxic T cells.
Immunologically active sites on antigens are recognized as:
epitopes
The most important function of the thymus is:
immune cell production and maturation.
A student asks, "What does cell-mediated immunity mean to the client?" The instructor responds, "This means:
the body is trying to defend itself against intracellular microbe invasion by engulfing and destroying the microbe."
Once T helper cells are activated, they secrete which substance that activates and influences nearly all of the other cells of the immune system? · Cytokines · Leukotrienes · Bradykinins · Complement proteins
· Cytokines
Adaptive immune responses, also called acquired or specific immunity, are composed primarily of which type of cells? · Granulocytes · Lymphocytes · Epithelial cells · Toll-like receptors
· Lymphocytes
Which type of immunity is achieved by an infant from its mother through antibodies transferred in utero or in breast milk? · Artificially acquired passive immunity · Naturally acquired passive immunity · Naturally acquired active immunity · Artificially acquired active immunity
· Naturally acquired passive immunity
A client is being evaluated for atopic dermatitis possibly caused by a latex-related allergic reaction. The nurse will review which lab results to determine if an allergy is present? · Basophils · Serum IgE · Serum IgG · Neutrophils
· Serum IgE
While caring for a pediatric client admitted with a viral infection, the nurse knows that which type of cell will be the child's primary defense against the virus?
Natural killer (NK) cells Explanation: The third type of lymphocyte, the natural killer (NK) cell is part of the innate immune system and may be the first line of defense against viral infections. The NK cell also has the ability to recognize and kill tumor cells, abnormal body cells, and cells infected with intracellular pathogens, such as viruses and intracellular bacteria. Complement is activated in the inflammatory response. Leukotrienes and bradykinin are also a part of the inflammatory response.
The first physical line of defense in innate immunity is:
Skin and mucous membranes Explanation: The first physical line of defense are the skin and mucous membranes, which prevent pathogens from entering. Plasma proteins, neutrophils, and specialized lymphocytes are examples of cellular level protection.
A client with infectious mononucleosis asks the nurse why the lymph nodes are enlarged. Which statement is the nurse's appropriate response? · Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses." · "Your lymph nodes multiply to fight infection." · "Your lymph nodes are infected and should be removed." · "Your lymph nodes are blocked and need to be drained."
"Your lymph nodes trap and destroy viruses." Explanation: The lymph nodes remove foreign material from the lymph system before the fluid can enter the bloodstream. Mononucleosis is an infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The lymph nodes trap the virus where the lymphocytes and macrophages can destroy it. Enlargement may occur with increased production of lymphocytes, backup of lymph fluid, or malignancy.
A nurse is planning to teach a parent group about the spread of infection, the importance of vaccines, and active immunity. Which of the following statements should be included in the teaching plan? Select all that apply.
Active immunity can be acquired through the process of vaccination or from environmental exposure to an antigen. Active immunity allows the host's own immune system to develop an immunological response. Active immunity is long-lasting and can improve on repeated exposures to an antigen.
A client is brought to the physician's office with a raised, red macular rash on the trunk and arms accompanied by a fever. A diagnosis of measles is made. Which type of immunity does this disease process provide?
Active natural immunity Explanation: Active immunity is acquired when the host mounts an immune response to an antigen either through the process of vaccination (artificial means) or from environmental exposure (natural means). It is called active immunity because it requires the host's own immune system to develop an immunologic response.
An infectious disease nurse is researching T-cells to determine which cells control replication of intracellular bacteria. Which cells should the nurse begin investigating?
CD8 cells Explanation: All viruses and some bacteria multiply in the cytoplasm of infected cells. Once inside cells, these pathogens replicate and are not accessible to antibodies. They can be eliminated only by the destruction or modification of the infected cells. The elimination of infected cells without the destruction of healthy tissue requires the cytotoxic mechanisms of CD8 T cells. Therefore, the CD8 cytotoxic T cells are especially important in controlling replicating viruses and intracellular bacteria.
Which of the types of T cells is responsible for destroying pathogens by punching holes in their cell membrane and by secreting cytokines/lymphokines?
Cytotoxic T cells
A clinical research study is evaluating cells that bridge both the innate and adaptive immune systems. A nurse has identified the dendritic cells (DCs) as a key component. Which statement validates this finding? · Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. · Dendritic cells (DCs) can also act as opsonins and can coat cellular particles on pathogens and enhance the phagocytic function of innate cells. · Dendritic cells (DCs) spontaneously kill target tumor and/or infected cells without previous exposure to surface antigens. · Dendritic cells (DCs) destroy the invading organism through the process of phagocytosis.
Dendritic cells (DCs) directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, they undergo a maturation process and function as antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. Explanation: Dendritic cells (DCs) are specialized, bone marrow-derived leukocytes found in lymphoid tissue and are the bridge between the innate and adaptive immune systems. They are present primarily in an immature form that is available to directly sense pathogens, capture foreign agents, and transport them to secondary lymphoid tissues. Once activated, DCs undergo a complex maturation process in order to function as key antigen-presenting cells (APCs) capable of initiating adaptive immunity. They are responsible for the processing and presentation of foreign antigens to the lymphocytes.
Select the statement that best describes the effectiveness of vaccination in the older adult population.
Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults. Explanation: Older adults tend to be more susceptible to infections, have more evidence of autoimmune and immune complex disorders than younger persons, and have a higher incidence of cancer. Experimental evidence suggests that vaccination is less successful in inducing immunization in older persons than in younger adults. However, the effect of altered immune function on the health of older adults is clouded by the fact that age-related changes or disease may affect the immune response.
A lactation nurse visits a new mother after delivery of her first child and encourages the mother to breast-feed her infant, even for a short time. Which statement made by the nurse correctly explains the importance of breast-feeding?
For several months, colostrum will provide the infant with passive immunity to diseases to which the mother has immunity. Explanation: After birth, the neonate receives IgG antibodies from the mother in breast milk or colostrum. Therefore, infants are provided with some degree of protection from infection for approximately 3 to 6 months, giving their own immune systems time to mature. IgA is primarily a secretory Ig that is found in saliva, tears, colostrum (i.e., first milk of a nursing mother), and bronchial, gastrointestinal, prostatic, and vaginal secretions. Its primary function is in local immunity on mucosal surfaces. IgA prevents the attachment of viruses and bacteria to epithelial cells.
Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces?
IgA Explanation: IgA is found in saliva and tears, and is a primary defense against infections in mucosal tissues. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to antigen invasion. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and can cross the placenta. IgD is an antigen receptor on B-cell membranes.
Which immunoglobulin is primarily found in secretions and has a primary function of providing local immunity on mucosal surfaces?
IgA Explanation: IgA is found in saliva and tears, and is a primary defense against infections in mucosal tissues. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to antigen invasion. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin and can cross the placenta. IgD is an antigen receptor on B-cell membranes.
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is released in response to allergy or parasitic infections?
IgE Explanation: IgE is secreted in response to inflammation and allergy and is released in the presence of parasitic infection. IgG is responsible for antiviral, antitoxin, and antibacterial responses. IgA is found in body secretions and helps with local immunity on mucosal surfaces. IgM is the first antibody developed by an infant. IgD helps B cells mature.
The nurse is aware that the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta is: · IgD · IgG · IgA · IgM
IgG Explanation: IgG is the only class of immunoglobulins to cross the placenta. Levels of maternal IgG decrease significantly during the first 3 to 6 months of life, while infant synthesis of immunoglobulins increases.
Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is the most abundant of circulating antibodies?
IgG Explanation: IgG makes up about 75% of the immunoglobulins. IgA is about 15%, IgM 10%, and IgE 0.004% of the total.
A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome with thymic hypoplasia. Which immune response would the nurse anticipate in this child?
Increased risk of infection Explanation: The thymus is essential to the development of the immune system because it is responsible for the production of mature, immunocompetent T lymphocytes. Mature, immunocompetent T-helper and T-cytotoxic cells leave the thymus in 2 to 3 days and enter the peripheral lymphoid tissues through the bloodstream. Without a thymus, infections would occur frequently. These T cells recognize foreign antigens and build an immune response. Therefore, with thymic hypoplasia, there is a risk for increased infection (not reduced infection or no change). Obviously, there is an antigen response.
An obstetrics nurse is counseling an expectant mother. The mother is concerned about letting people hold her baby once the baby is born, fearing that the infant will get sick. What should the nurse explain to the mother?
Maternal immunoglobulins cross the placenta and protect the newborn early in life. Explanation: Passive immunity is immunity transferred from another source. An infant receives passive immunity naturally from the transfer of antibodies from its mother in utero and through breast milk. Maternal IgG crosses the placenta and protects the newborn during the first few months of life. Innate immunity are not effective yet, and protection is unrelated to the amount of lymphoid tissue.
A person has been exposed to a particular antigen and a now experiences a repeat exposure. What stimulates a quicker immune response?
Memory T cells Explanation: The memory T and B lymphocytes that are generated remain in the body for a longer time and can respond more rapidly during repeat exposures to an antigen related to their acquired memory.
Which physiologic characteristics correspond with innate immunity? Select all that apply.
Similar immune response for each exposure Immediate response to antigen invasion Explanation: Innate immunity is immediate, but it is limited to certain general classes of microbes instead of to specific organisms. The response to each infection is similar; some defenses are the epithelium of the skin and mucous membranes along with inflammation and fever. Cellular components of innate immunity include phagocytes, natural killer cells, and dendritic cells. Cytokines, complement proteins, acute-phase proteins, and soluble mediators are molecular components of the innate immunity.
A newborn has been lethargic, is not nursing well, and is basically looking ill. Following lab tests, it has been found that the newborn has IgM present in his blood. How should the nurse interpret this finding?
The presence of IgM suggests the infant has a current infection. Explanation: IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to antigen and is the first antibody type made by a newborn. This is diagnostically useful because the presence of IgM suggests a current infection in the infant by a specific pathogen. IgE is involved in inflammation, allergic responses, and combating parasitic infections. It binds to mast cells and basophils. The binding of antigen to mast cell- or basophil-bound IgE triggers these cells to release histamine and other mediators important in inflammation and allergies. IgA is found in saliva and tears, and is a primary defense against infections in mucosal tissues.
A client comes to the clinic with the following cardinal signs of inflammation: redness, heat, pain and swelling, following a laceration to the thigh. Which statement correctly explains the cause of swelling at the laceration site?
When activated, the complement protein C3 breaks into two fragments. The larger 3b fragment acts as an enzyme to cleave C5 into two components; the C5b fragment produces vasodilation and increases vascular permeability, causing edema.
The nurse is explaining the quality of pleiotropism that is possessed by many cytokines. The quality of pleiotropism implies that such cytokines:
are able to act on different types of cells.
While explaining immunity to a client, the nurse responds, "The body's internal organs are protected from pathogens because:
our mucosal tissue contains all the necessary cell components to fight a pathogen with an immune response." Explanation: Secondary lymphoid tissues contain all the necessary cell components (i.e., T cells, B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells) for an immune response. Because of the continuous stimulation of the lymphocytes in these tissues by microorganisms constantly entering the body, large numbers of plasma cells are evident. Immunity at the mucosal layers helps to exclude many pathogens and thus protects the vulnerable internal organs. Although cells of both the innate and adaptive immune systems communicate critical information by cell-to-cell contact, many interactions and effector responses depend on the secretion of short-acting soluble molecules called cytokines. The actions of cytokines are often pleiotropic and redundant. Pleiotropism refers to the ability of a cytokine to act on different cell types.
Following delivery, the parents have chosen to have their infant's cord blood frozen. A blood test is performed on the cord blood and found to contain IgM antibodies. The nurse interprets this to mean:
the infant has been exposed to an intrauterine infection.
A sixth-grade science teacher asks the students to explain the role of cilia in the lower respiratory tract. Which student response is best? · "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out." · "Cilia can trap the microbes in one location so the body can grow scar tissue around them and wall them off so they can't cause disease." · "Cilia help to warm the airways so that moisture in the air can neutralize any germs that get in our lungs." · "Cilia help facilitate a chemical defense against germs by secreting an enzyme that will cement the germ to the lining of the airways."
· "These little hairs move germs trapped in mucus toward the throat so the body can cough them out."
A hospital client with a diagnosis of sepsis is in need of a specific response to microorganisms and a long-lasting immunity to the pathogens in question. Which component of the client's immune system is most able to meet these criteria? · Neutrophils · Macrophages · Natural killer cells · Lymphocytes
· Lymphocytes
A nurse is teaching a group of seniors about the decline of the immune system due to aging. Which topic should be included in the teaching plan regarding the immune response of older adults? Select all that apply. · Weakened response to vaccinations · Increase in susceptibility to infections · Increase in activation of immune responsiveness · Decrease in autoimmune disorders · Higher incidence of cancer
· Weakened response to vaccinations · Increase in susceptibility to infections · Higher incidence of cancer
A mother is diagnosed with a bacterial infection and is worried that her newborn infant will also contract the infection. Which statement should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the client? · Your infant will require a vaccination to avoid getting the infection. · Since you are not immune to this infection, your infant is also at risk for contracting the infection. · Since the newborn immune system is not mature your infant cannot contract the infection. · Your newborn has maternal IgG antibodies that were transferred through the placenta before birth, providing some protection from infection.
· Your newborn has maternal IgG antibodies that were transferred through the placenta before birth, providing some protection from infection.
