Chapter 14-15 Questions

The FBI currently determines an individual's DNA profile using

13 STR markers

55. Which DNA sequence below would be a palindromic sequence? A. AGCGCT B. AGCAGC C. AAAGGG D. ACACAC E. AGTCGT

A. AGCGCT

68. How is reverse transcriptase used to clone genes? A. Reverse transcriptase is used to make a cDNA copy of an mRNA strand. B. Reverse transcriptase is used to make a cloned DNA copy of a plasmid DNA molecule. C. Reverse transcriptase is necessary to read the information contained on the cDNA molecule. D. Reverse transcriptase transcribes RNA from cDNA in reverse order. E. Reverse transcriptase transcribes cDNA into RNA without transcription of introns.

A. Reverse transcriptase is used to make a cDNA copy of an mRNA strand.

10. Lactose induces the transcription of the lactose operon by: A. binding to the allosteric site of the repressor after being converted to allolactose. B. stimulating lactose metabolism in the cell. C. binding to the glucose operon, making it inoperable. D. binding to the allosteric site of RNA polymerase. E. inhibiting the activity of CAP.

A. binding to the allosteric site of the repressor after being converted to allolactose.

70. The darker sections of the original molecule, labeled as 1, represent: A. exons. B. introns. C. mRNA. D. cDNA. E. DNA polymerase.

A. exons.

58. The total DNA in a cell is referred to as the: A. genome. B. cDNA. C. library. D. chromosomal DNA. E. None of these.

A. genome.

28. Densely staining regions of highly compacted chromatin that are generally not transcribed are: A. heterochromatin. B. homochromatin. C. histone-dependent chromatin. D. primary chromatin. E. None of these.

A. heterochromatin.

44. Increasing the stability of a particular mRNA _________________ the expression of that gene. A. increases B. does not affect C. eliminates D. decreases E. None of these.

A. increases

15. Bacterial enzymes that are part of a rarely used catabolic pathway are usually organized into a(n) ________________. A. inducible operon B. repressible operon

A. inducible operon

51. A large number of copies of any DNA segment can be obtained by: A. introducing foreign DNA into a microorganism so that it can be replicated. B. stimulating increased transcription of the appropriate sequence of mRNA. C. stimulating increased translation of the appropriate DNA molecule. D. inducing the production of DNA from proteins. E. stimulating reverse transcription of tRNA.

A. introducing foreign DNA into a microorganism so that it can be replicated.

45. Enzymes that alter another protein or enzyme's activity by attaching a phosphate group are called: A. kinases. B. phosphatases. C. phospators. D. transcription factors. E. coenzymes.

A. kinases.

12. Inducible genes are usually actively transcribed when: A. the molecule degraded by the enzyme(s) is present in the cell. B. repressor molecules bind to the promoter. C. lactose is absent from the cell. D. quantities of precursor materials are low. E. there is no other substrate that can be used by the cell.

A. the molecule degraded by the enzyme(s) is present in the cell.

61. In producing a genomic library, human DNA and plasmid DNA must first be treated with: A. the same restriction enzyme. B. different restriction enzymes. C. the same DNA ligase. D. different DNA ligases. E. None of these.

A. the same restriction enzyme.

56. "Sticky ends" are: A. the single-stranded ends of a DNA segment created by some restriction enzymes. B. a problem in recombinant DNA technology because they form loops of single-stranded DNA. C. double-stranded ends of a DNA segment created by some restriction enzymes. D. sites of the origin of replication in prokaryotes. E. sugar molecules that are bound to the ends of a DNA fragment.

A. the single-stranded ends of a DNA segment created by some restriction enzymes.

17. In the tryptophan operon, the repressor actively binds to the operator when: A. tryptophan binds to an allosteric site on the repressor. B. tryptophan levels are low. C. lactose levels are low. D. there is a great need for proteins. E. allotryptophan levels are low.

A. tryptophan binds to an allosteric site on the repressor.

50. A ____________ is required to transfer genes from one organism to another. A. vector B. reverse transcriptase C. transport molecule D. genetic probe E. PCR device

A. vector

49. Bacteriophages are: A. viruses that infect bacteria. B. plasmids that infect bacteria. C. bacteria that infect other bacteria. D. enzymes that destroy bacteria. E. None of the above.

A. viruses that infect bacteria.

80. Why is human blood clotting factor VIII produced by genetically engineered bacteria better to treat hemophilia type A than the clotting factor isolated from human or animal blood? A. Recombinantly produced clotting factor has a longer shelf life than natural clotting factor. B. Clotting factor isolated from blood can transmit infectious agents. C. Clotting factor isolated from human blood can cause transfusion reactions. D. Recombinantly produced clotting factor is free of blood thinning factors. E. Natural clotting factor from blood is not very active.

B. Clotting factor isolated from blood can transmit infectious agents.

59. A genomic library is a collection of: A. plasmid fragments that are spliced into DNA. B. DNA fragments that are spliced into plasmids. C. intron fragments that are spliced into plasmids. D. exon fragments that are spliced into bacterial cells. E. gene fragments that are spliced into main bacterial chromosome.

B. DNA fragments that are spliced into plasmids.

73. ____________ is a technique that can be used to separate DNA molecules on the basis of their size. A. Separation gradient B. Electrophoresis C. Selective sorting D. Cloning E. PCR

B. Electrophoresis

79. Why is insulin produced by genetically engineered E. coli cells superior to insulin obtained from animal sources? A. Animal insulin has a shorter life span than insulin produced using recombinant DNA techniques. B. It contains human rather than animal sequences, reducing the chances of an allergic response. C. Animal insulin is more difficult to purify than is recombinantly produced insulin. D. Recombinantly produced insulin has a much higher activity level. E. Recombinantly produced insulin is easier to obtain than insulin from animals.

B. It contains human rather than animal sequences, reducing the chances of an allergic response.

52. What purpose do restriction enzymes play in bacterial cells? A. Restriction enzymes prevent the overproduction of mRNA in the bacterial cell. B. Restriction enzymes attack bacteriophage DNA when it enters the cell. C. Restriction enzymes promote bonding of the RNA polymerase to the promoter. D. Restriction enzymes limit the rate of bacterial replication. E. Restriction enzymes connect Okazaki fragments.

B. Restriction enzymes attack bacteriophage DNA when it enters the cell.

14. An inducible operon is usually controlled by: A. an inducer molecule that keeps it in the "off" state. B. an active repressor that keeps it in the "off" state. C. being active at all times. D. allolactose. E. being turned "off," usually by the end product of the pathway.

B. an active repressor that keeps it in the "off" state.

24. The structure labeled 7 in the figure of the tryptophan operon is: A. an active repressor protein. B. an inactive repressor protein. C. an active RNA polymerase. D. an inactive RNA polymerase. E. A ribosome.

B. an inactive repressor protein.

38. Gene amplification involves: A. increasing the affinity of a gene to DNA polymerase. B. extra replication of genes that specify a certain gene product only in cells needing this product. C. improving the accuracy by which a gene is copied to produce an mRNA molecule. D. enhancing the activity of RNA polymerase. E. increasing the size of the gene that encodes a needed protein.

B. extra replication of genes that specify a certain gene product only in cells needing this product.

37. Eukaryotic transcription factors: A. are always simpler than bacterial regulators. B. may be activators or repressors of transcription. C. are inducers. D. are corepressors. E. are also known as enhancers.

B. may be activators or repressors of transcription.

21. A new operon is discovered in a bacterium. The control of this operon is affected by a protein that is made by another gene, and is made in an active form that binds to the DNA near the operon to prevent transcription. This is an example of ________________ control. A. positive B. negative C. activational D. repressing E. inducing

B. negative

34. Upstream promoter elements in eukaryotes are: A. nucleotide sequences that act as binding sites for RNA polymerase. B. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation. C. nucleotide sequences that contain the TATA box. D. proteins that enhance RNA polymerase binding to the promoter. E. proteins that inhibit RNA polymerase binding to the promoter.

B. nucleotide sequences that regulate the efficiency of transcription initiation.

27. Feedback inhibition of the first enzyme of a pathway by the end product of the pathway is an example of: A. translational control. B. posttranslational control. C. transcriptional control. D. inhibiting control. E. repression.

B. posttranslational control.

19. Translational controls regulate: A. the activity of a protein end-product that is produced. B. the rate at which an mRNA molecule is translated. C. the rate at which an mRNA molecule is synthesized. D. the uptake of nucleic acids into the cell. E. the attachment of phosphate groups to polypeptides.

B. the rate at which an mRNA molecule is translated.

2. The focus of gene regulation in multicellular organisms is on: A. operons. B. the specificity of products in different tissues. C. economizing resources at all levels. D. rapid turnover of RNA molecules. E. All of these.

B. the specificity of products in different tissues.

13. Repressible genes are usually actively transcribed when: A. repressor molecules bind to the promoter. B. the supply of the end product formed by the enzymes encoded by these genes is low. C. tryptophan accumulates in the cell. D. quantities of precursor materials are high. E. there is no other substrate that can be used by the cell.

B. the supply of the end product formed by the enzymes encoded by these genes is

82. The columns in the accompanying figure represent F (for female), C (for children), and M (for male). The presence of the band marked with arrow #2, shows that: A. this DNA sequence in the children is a mutation. B. this DNA sequence in the children is inherited from their mother. C. this DNA sequence in the children is inherited from their father. D. this sequence in the children is inherited from both their mother and father. E. individual F is not the mother of these children.

B. this DNA sequence in the children is inherited from their mother.

22. Bacterial gene regulation occurs mainly at the _______ level. A. translational B. transcriptional C. posttranscriptional D. feedback inhibition E. posttranslational

B. transcriptional

75. Southern blotting is a process where ____________ is transferred from a gel to a __________________ where a probe can be applied. A. DNA; water solution B. protein; water solution C. DNA; nitrocellulose filter D. RNA; nitrocellulose filter E. protein; nitrocellulose filter

C. DNA; nitrocellulose filter

26. Feedback inhibition is: A. transcriptional control. B. transcriptional control. C. a mechanism affecting events after translation. D. a repressible system. E. None of these.

C. a mechanism affecting events after translation.

40. The type of expression illustrated in the accompanying figure is: A. a typical bacterial gene. B. a weakly expressed bacterial gene. C. a strongly expressed eukaryotic gene. D. a weakly expressed eukaryotic gene. E. a gene stimulated by an enhancer.

C. a strongly expressed eukaryotic gene

29. Genes in euchromatic regions are: A. inhibited. B. duplicated C. actively being transcribed. D. repressed. E. unregulated.

C. actively being transcribed.

11. The inducer of the lactose operon in E. coli is: A. CAP. B. AMP. C. allolactose. D. glucose. E. galactose.

C. allolactose.

16. A repressible operon is usually controlled by: A. an inactive repressor that allows it to be in the "on" state. B. the supply of the precursor product for the enzymes. C. an inactive repressor that keeps it in the "off" state. D. tryptophan. E. being turned "on," usually by the end product of the pathway.

C. an inactive repressor that keeps it in the "off" state.

62. During the preparation of a human genomic library, plasmids containing human DNA fragments are inserted into: A. compatible human cells. B. an antibiotic-resistant strain of E. coli to protect the inserted fragments. C. antibiotic-sensitive E. coli cells that become antibiotic-resistant if transformed. D. bacteriophages. E. mRNA molecules.

C. antibiotic-sensitive E. coli cells that become antibiotic-resistant if transformed.

31. DNA sequences that are methylated by a cell are usually genes that: A. have been replicated B. are actively expressed. C. are inactive. D. are constitutive. E. are repressed.

C. are inactive.

6. The operator of the lactose operon in E. coli is located: A. between the promoter and the TATA box. B. upstream of the promoter. C. between the promoter and the structural genes. D. among the structural genes. E. anywhere on the chromosome.

C. between the promoter and the structural genes.

48. The use of organisms to develop useful products is called: A. bioengineering. B. in vitro gene technology. C. biotechnology. D. recombinant DNA technology. E. genetic engineering.

C. biotechnology.

66. To avoid the introduction of introns into the vector, a ________ copy of mature mRNA is made, using the enzyme _____________________. A. sDNA; RNA polymerase B. cDNA; DNA ligase C. cDNA; reverse transcriptase D. sDNA; reverse transcriptase E. cDNA; DNA polymerase

C. cDNA; reverse transcriptase

4. Genes that encode proteins that are always needed are called: A. repressible genes. B. promoter genes. C. constitutive genes. D. inducible genes. E. operons.

C. constitutive genes.

33. A TATA box is seen in ______________ cells and is the site where _______________________. A. bacterial; RNA polymerase binds B. eukaryotic; DNA ligase cleaves introns C. eukaryotic; RNA polymerase binds D. both bacterial and eukaryotic; transcription factors bind E. bacterial; a repressor protein binds

C. eukaryotic; RNA polymerase binds

53. Transformation is a process whereby: A. bacteria are transferred into plasmid cells. B. viruses are transferred into bacterial cells. C. plasmids are transferred into bacterial cells. D. bacteria are transferred into viral cells. E. plasmids are transferred into viral cells.

C. plasmids are transferred into bacterial cells.

71. The process occurring at the step labeled 7 is called: A. PCR. B. transcription. C. reverse transcription. D. RNA processing. E. None of these.

C. reverse transcription.

65. The use of antibiotic medium at the end of this process: A. selects against plasmids containing human DNA fragments. B. selects for plasmids containing particular DNA fragments. C. selects for bacteria containing plasmids. D. selects for bacteria lacking plasmids. E. prevents contamination of the medium.

C. selects for bacteria containing plasmids.

18. An activator protein would have which of the following effects on an operon with a positive control mechanism? A. stimulate transcription B. turn off transcription C. stimulate transcription when a coactivator is bound to the allosteric site D. inhibit transcription when a coactivator is bound to the allosteric site E. no response

C. stimulate transcription when a coactivator is bound to the allosteric site

60. A genomic library consists of fragments of all of the DNA: A. that occurs in one species. B. contained in one chromosome. C. that would be found in a typical cell of a particular organism. D. in a recombinant gene. E. that codes for functional enzymes in a typical cell of a particular organism.

C. that would be found in a typical cell of a particular organism.

72. The most significant difference between the original DNA molecule and the final product, labeled 12, is: A. that the final product is much longer. B. the lack of exons. C. the lack of introns. D. the gene sequences that code for protein have been altered. E. None of these.

C. the lack of introns.

9. The molecular switch that controls gene expression is known as: A. the operon. B. controller. C. the operator. D. repressor. E. inducer.

C. the operator.

63. The amplification of recombinant plasmids occurs by: A. the growth of the plasmid DNA. B. DNA replication of plasmids outside a host cell. C. the process of growth and division of the host cell. D. transformation of bacterial cells. E. the polymerase chain reaction.

C. the process of growth and division of the host cell.

81. The columns in the accompanying figure represent F (for female), C (for children), and M (for male). The presence of the band marked with arrow # 1 shows that: A. this DNA sequence was inherited by both children from their father. B. this DNA sequence was inherited by both children from their mother. C. this DNA sequence was inherited by only one child from the father. D. this DNA sequence was inherited by only one child from the mother. E. individual M is not the father of these children.

C. this DNA sequence was inherited by only one child from the father.

25. The promoter in the figure is labeled _____ A. 6 B. 3 C. 1 D. 2 E. 7

D. 2

39. A cell may meet the need for large quantities of a specific protein by: A. continuously synthesizing the mRNA molecule that specifies that protein. B. increasing the half-life of the mRNA that specifies the protein. C. having multiple copies of the gene that codes for that protein. D. All of these. E. None of these.

D. All of these. / inhibition of DNA synthesis (except)

5. The researchers who first discovered the mechanism of control of a bacterial gene were: A. Hershey and Chase. B. Griffith and Avery. C. Watson and Crick. D. Jacob and Monod. E. McClintock and Morgan.

D. Jacob and Monod.

67. Which of the following statements regarding cDNA libraries is false? A. They are usually double stranded DNA. B. They are composed of DNA synthesized with the use of reverse transcriptase. C. They are composed of DNA synthesized from an mRNA template. D. They contain introns and exons. E. They contain DNA that is complementary to the mRNA from which it was synthesized.

D. They contain introns and exons.

78. Proteomics is made complicated by the fact that: A. gene therapy is in its infancy. B. DNA sequencing requires powerful computers. C. the response to a drug varies with the individual. D. certain genes encode several different proteins. E. All of these.

D. certain genes encode several different proteins.

8. The gene that codes for the repressor protein of the E. coli lactose operon is: A. located between the operator and the promoter. B. downstream from the promoter region. C. downstream from the operator. D. constitutive. E. turned off most of the time.

D. constitutive.

43. In eukaryotes, some DNA sequences act as introns in some cells and as exons in other cells. This is an example of ______________________. A. gene repression B. mRNA splicing C. gene amplification D. differential mRNA processing E. gene processing

D. differential mRNA processing

36. DNA sequences called ____________ increase the rate of RNA synthesis after initiation of transcription. A. promoters B. TATA boxes C. UPEs D. enhancers E. regulators

D. enhancers

57. DNA ligase links two ____________ DNA fragments by ____________ bonds. A. complementary; hydrogen B. circular; covalent C. palindromic; covalent D. linear; covalent E. linear; hydrogen

D. linear; covalent

76. The presence of detectable variation in the genomes of different individuals of a population is termed: A. DNA sequencing. B. DNA electrophoresis. C. DNA tandem repeats. D. polymorphism. E. DNA profiling.

D. polymorphism.

54. Bacteria methylate their DNA in order to: A. prepare for DNA replication. B. prepare for mitosis. C. effectively infect other cells. D. protect it from restriction enzymes. E. prevent viral DNA from hybridizing with bacterial DNA.

D. protect it from restriction enzymes.

3. Bacteria rarely regulate gene products through: A. promoter sequences. B. activator proteins. C. repressor proteins. D. protein degradation. E. operons.

D. protein degradation

46. Splicing together DNA from 2 different organisms is called: A. bioengineering. B. in vitro gene technology. C. biotechnology. D. recombinant DNA technology. E. genetic engineering.

D. recombinant DNA technology.

41. The structure labeled 2 in the associated figure is: A. the enhancer. B. the TATA box. C. the Pribnow box. D. the transcription initiation site. E. the transcription termination site.

D. the transcription initiation site.

20. A repressor protein would have which of the following effects on repressible genes with a negative control mechanism? A. stimulate transcription in the presence of a corepressor B. turn off transcription in the presence of an inducer C. stimulate transcription in the presence of a coactivator D. turn off transcription in the presence of a corepressor E. no response

D. turn off transcription in the presence of a corepressor

77. If a protein-coding gene is identified, its function can be studied by using RNA interference to ______________. A. produce a RFLP B. produce an EST C. turn the gene on D. turn the gene off E. induce a mutation

D. turn the gene off

Dideoxynucleotides are used in

DNA sequencing

The chain termination method is used in

DNA sequencing

1. Regulation of gene expression can be accomplished by controlling: A. the activity of a protein product. B. the amount of mRNA that is available. C. the rate of translation of mRNA. D. the rate of mRNA degradation. E. All of these.

E. All of these.

74. PCR: A. can only be carried out if DNA polymerase is heat resistant. B. is used to amplify tiny quantities of DNA in vitro. C. replicates specific DNA sequences. D. has applications for archaeology and crime scene analysis. E. All of these.

E. All of these.

42. Which of the following types of processing does eukaryotic mRNA undergo before it becomes functional? A. splicing B. capping C. polyadenylation D. removal of introns E. All of these.

E. All of these./Protein proteolysis (not)

35. Eukaryotic enhancers are capable of which of the following? A. regulating a gene even if they are cut out of the DNA and reinserted inverted B. regulating a gene from very long distances C. interacting with proteins that regulate transcription D. increasing the rate of RNA synthesis after initiation E. All of these

E. All of these/ decrease the rate of transcription (except)

23. The area of the tryptophan operon labeled 3 is the: A. promoter. B. repressor gene. C. ribosome. D. RNA polymerase. E. None of these.

E. None of these/Operator

64. What process or enzyme was used for Step 1 in the accompanying figure? A. PCR B. a bacteriophage C. a reverse transcriptase D. a DNA ligase E. a restriction enzyme

E. a restriction enzyme

7. How does the lactose repressor block transcription of the lactose operon? A. by "turning off" the appropriate genes in the intron B. by regulating the activity of the enzymes that the operon codes for C. by binding allosterically to the appropriate genes D. by slowing the uptake of lactose into the cell E. by binding to the operator

E. by binding to the operator

32. The rate of eukaryotic transcription after initiation is affected by: A. upstream promoter elements. B. groups of genes arranged into operons. C. the action of catabolite activator proteins. D. how fast caps and tails can be added to pre-mRNA. E. enhancers.

E. enhancers.

47. The modification of the DNA of an organism to produce new genes with new traits is most properly called: A. bioengineering. B. in vitro gene technology. C. biotechnology. D. recombinant DNA technology. E. genetic engineering.

E. genetic engineering.

69. In polymerase chain reaction technology, the two strands of DNA are separated by: A. gel electrophoresis. B. treating them with restriction enzymes. C. centrifugation. D. exposing them to high pH. E. heating them.

E. heating them.

30. In female mammals, most of the inactive X chromosome has become: A. associated with histones. B. active X factor. C. euchromatin. D. replicated. E. heterochromatin.

E. heterochromatin.

The method of choice to determine a DNA profile on DNA-containing forensic evidence that is old or has been damaged is:

Mitochondrial DNA sequencing

The ratio of different-colored fluorescent dyes in microarray can be used to infer information about

Patterns of gene expression, drug activity and the identity of disease-causing genes

Introducing a gene for a surface protein by a disease-causing agent into a nonpathogenic vector is a method to

Produce a recombinant vaccine

The method for DNA sequencing was developed by

Sanger

The area of genomics that is concerned with mapping and sequences genomes is called________ genomics.

Structural

a chromosome library is a collection of all of the DNA

contained in one chromosome

the major problem with polymerase chain reaction is

contamination

One feature of "engineered" plasmids that is helpful in the isolation and analysis of cloned DNA is: a) they can only handle DNA fragments of up to 120kb b) that they are an integral part of all eukaryotic cells c) they contain no genetic material of their own so that the cloned fragment is truly isolated d) the presence of genes that allow transformed cells to survive on different media such as antibiotics. e) All of the above

d) the presence of genes that allow transformed cells to survive on different media such as antibiotics.

The polymerase chain reaction was devised by: a. Francis Crick. b. Walter Gilbert. c. E.M. Southern. d. Kary Mullis. e. Leland Hartwell.

d. Kary Mullis.

Which of the following statements concerning PCR is false? b. PCR is used to amplify tiny quantities of DNA in vitro. c. PCR replicates specific DNA sequences. d. PCR has applications for archaeology and crime scene analysis. e. PCR utilizes a heat-sensitive Taq polymerase.

e. PCR utilizes a heat-sensitive Taq polymerase.

Gene targeting is currently being used in all of the following applications except

forensic science

cAMP levels decrease when ________. The results in _________ of CAP.

glucose levels increase; inhibition

Catabolite activator proteins

increase the affinity of the promoter region for RNA polymerase

Gene targeting

is usually studied in organisms in which the knockout gene is homozygous in only one cell type

which statement about cloning vectors is FALSE?

plasmid cloning vectors can accommodate DNA fragments up to 20kb