Chapter 18 DSM

Which of these antibodies provides evidence of an active infection when present? A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgD

A. IgM

Which of these statements is true for conjugated vaccines? A. They are useful because infants respond poorly to polysaccharide-based antigens. B. They contain only protein subunits. C. They contain attenuated pathogens. D. The antigens are made using recombinant DNA technology. E. They contain only T-dependent antigens.

A. They are useful because infants respond poorly to polysaccharide-based antigens.

To test a patient's serum for evidence of a salmonella infection, you are looking for antibodies. You mix the serum sample with bacteria. What would a positive test show? A. agglutination B. fluorescence C. cell lysis D. hemagglutination

A. agglutination

To perform an indirect ELISA test to identify the strain of influenza in a patient, you would mix the following ingredients. Which do you add FIRST? A. antigen B. patient's serum C. enzyme-linked antibody D. enzyme substrate

A. antigen

As a pediatric oncology nurse, you work with children who are receiving chemotherapy and are frequently immunosuppressed. Which of these types of vaccines are generally NOT appropriate for this patient population? A. attenuated whole-agent vaccines B. Inactivated whole-agent vaccines C. toxoid vaccines D. subunit vaccines E. conjugated vaccines

A. attenuated whole-agent vaccines

In a complement-fixation test, for a serum sample containing antibody against the target antigen, __________. A. complement will be fixed, and sheep red blood cells will not lyse B. complement will be fixed, and sheep red blood cells will lyse C. complement will not be fixed, and sheep red blood cells will lyse D. complement will not be fixed, and sheep red blood cells will not agglutinate E. complement will be fixed, and the sheep red blood cells will agglutinate

A. complement will be fixed, and sheep red blood cells will not lyse

The fluorescent-antibody test, in which labeled antibodies are added to a specimen on a microscope slide, is called the __________ FA test. A. direct B. indirect C. complement D. agglutination

A. direct

Hemagglutination in an immunoassay __________. A. involves antibodies cross-linking erythrocytes B. involves blood clotting C. requires complement to be fixed D. is not truly agglutination E. must indicate the presence of antibody

A. involves antibodies cross-linking erythrocytes

Vaccination eliminates diseases such as smallpox and polio by __________. A. producing non-susceptible hosts B. curing infected people C. killing pathogens D. using all of the listed methods

A. producing non-susceptible hosts

What is the name for a vaccine that is made from an antigenic fragment of a pathogen? A. subunit vaccine B. attenuated whole-agent vaccine C. toxoid D. inactivated whole-agent vaccine

A. subunit vaccine

The practice dating back many hundreds of years in which dried material from smallpox lesions was used to protect against smallpox was called __________. A. variolation B. subunit vaccine C. attenuated vaccine D. nucleic acid vaccine

A. variolation

In an agglutination assay in which serum is diluted by half in each successive well (1:2; 1:4; 1:8; 1:16, etc.), if the 1:64 well is the last well to show agglutination, the titer is __________. A. 32 B. 64 C. 128 D. 1:32 E. 1:64

B. 64

Pneumococcal vaccines are made using the polysaccharide molecules that make up the capsule of the bacterial cell. How would the vaccine given to adults differ from the one given to infants? A. The adult vaccine is an attenuated whole-agent vaccine; the vaccine for infants is an inactivated whole-agent vaccine. B. The adult vaccine consists of purified capsular polysaccharide; the vaccine for infants is a conjugated vaccine in which the polysaccharide is attached to a protein. C. The adult vaccine is a DNA vaccine; the vaccine for infants is a subunit vaccine. D. The adult vaccine is a toxoid; the vaccine for infants is a subunit vaccine.

B. The adult vaccine consists of purified capsular polysaccharide; the vaccine for infants is a conjugated vaccine in which the polysaccharide is attached to a protein.

After receiving a tick bite, Jenny worries that she may have become infected with Lyme disease. Her doctor immediately orders a Lyme titer, which comes back as negative. Her doctor advises her to come back in three weeks and have the titer repeated. Why? A. The laboratory may have made an error, but it is unlikely to make the same error twice. B. The initial titer may have been done so early in the infection that detectable levels of antibody were not yet present. C. The doctor will send the second titer to a different laboratory as a backup. D. No antibodies are produced by the immune system until at least 3 weeks following infection. E. T cell stimulation is delayed during Lyme disease incubation.

B. The initial titer may have been done so early in the infection that detectable levels of antibody were not yet present.

Monoclonal antibodies do NOT have which of the following properties? A. They are produced by a hybrid cell formed by combining a myeloma cell with a normal B cell. B. They consist of antibodies that react with many different antigens. C. They can be produced in large quantities. D. They can be combined with toxins and used therapeutically to destroy cancer cells. E. They can be used to suppress T cell activity and prevent transplant rejection.

B. They consist of antibodies that react with many different antigens.

Which of the following is INCORRECT about nucleic acid vaccines? A. Experiments with animals show that plasmids of "naked" DNA injected into muscle results in the production of the protein antigen encoded in the DNA. B. Two DNA vaccines for humans have been approved. C. A "gene gun" method delivers the vaccine into many skin cell nuclei. D. Nucleic acid vaccines, often called DNA vaccines, are among the newest and most promising vaccines.

B. Two DNA vaccines for humans have been approved.

Monoclonal antibodies are produced __________. A. by one human B. by hybrid cells C. in one animal D. by pooled sera from several humans

B. by hybrid cells

The viral hemagglutination inhibition test __________. A. can be used to detect the presence of the measles virus in patient serum B. can be used to detect the presence of antibody to the measles virus in patient serum C. is used to determine blood type D. involves antiviral antibodies enhancing binding of viral particles to erythrocytes E. involves antibodies against erythrocytes blocking viral binding sites

B. can be used to detect the presence of antibody to the measles virus in patient serum

A patient's serum is tested using the complement fixation test. If hemolysis occurs, __________. A. it can be concluded that the patient had antibody to sheep red blood cells B. complement was not fixed by antibodies in the patient's serum and was available to the antibodies, thus inducing lysis of sheep red blood cells C. it can be concluded that the patient had antibody to the test antigen D. complement bound to neither the antibody directed against the target antigen nor to the antibody directed against sheep red blood cells E. the patient suffers from a disease in which complement is lacking or in low concentration

B. complement was not fixed by antibodies in the patient's serum and was available to the antibodies, thus inducing lysis of sheep red blood cells

To perform a direct ELISA test for rotavirus, you would mix the following ingredients. Which do you add LAST? A. anti-rotavirus B. enzyme substrate C. patient sample D. enzyme-linked antibody

B. enzyme substrate

A rapid test for Bordetella pertussis uses fluorescent dye-labeled antibodies to stain a smear made from a nasopharyngeal swab. What would a positive test show? A. agglutination B. fluorescent cells C. purple cells D. enzyme activity

B. fluorescent cells

Viral vaccines have been produced using viruses grown by all of these methods EXCEPT being __________. A. grown in bird embryos B. grown on agar plates C. grown in animal cell culture D. isolated directly from humans E. grown in animals

B. grown on agar plates

Which type of vaccine is most likely to be contaminated with endotoxin? A. conjugated vaccine B. killed whole-cell vaccine C. subunit vaccine D. toxoid vaccine

B. killed whole-cell vaccine

Which of these is NOT a property of the fluorescence-activated cell sorter (FACS)? A. It can detect fluorescence. B. It can separate cells based on charge. C. It can detect serum antibody levels. D. It can modify cell charge. E. It uses a laser beam.

C. It can detect serum antibody levels.

Knowing that rubella virus causes hemagglutination, you mix red blood cells, rubella virus, and a patient's serum in a tube. Hemagglutination does NOT occur. What do you conclude? A. Rubella virus does not agglutinate red blood cells. B. The patient has rubella. C. The patient has antibodies against rubella virus. D. The patient does not have antibodies against rubella.

C. The patient has antibodies against rubella virus.

The results of a titer for varicella antibodies show that Sarah is nonimmune to varicella virus. She decides to get the varicella vaccine, but her physician will not vaccinate her at this time because she is currently pregnant. Why should this vaccine NOT be given to pregnant women? A. This vaccine will not produce an immune response in pregnant women. B. This vaccine may cause pregnant women to develop shingles. C. There is a risk of the attenuated vaccine strain crossing the placenta and infecting the fetus. D. This vaccine may cause chicken pox in pregnant women. E. Vaccinating pregnant women is linked to the development of lung and kidney disorders in children.

C. There is a risk of the attenuated vaccine strain crossing the placenta and infecting the fetus.

A direct agglutination test could be used for which of the following? A. To detect bacterial pathogens B. To detect antibodies against a virus C. To detect antibodies against a bacterium D. To detect viruses

C. To detect antibodies against a bacterium

To detect the presence of antibody to a pathogen in a person through use of the indirect fluorescent-antibody technique, __________. A. a known antigen is fixed to a slide, and patient serum labeled with a fluorescent tag is added B. a known antigen is fixed to a slide, patient serum is added, and labeled anti-mouse immune serum globulin is added C. a known antigen is fixed to a slide, patient serum is added, and labeled antibodies that are directed against human antibodies are added D. a slide is coated with patient serum, and labeled antibodies against human antibodies are added E. a slide is coated with patient serum, and microbes dyed with a fluorescent stain are added

C. a known antigen is fixed to a slide, patient serum is added, and labeled antibodies that are directed against human antibodies are added

Which kind of vaccine may confer lifelong immunity against a pathogen? A. inactivated killed vaccines B. toxoids C. live attenuated vaccines D. subunit vaccines

C. live attenuated vaccines

Which of the following diseases has been eliminated worldwide by vaccination? A. polio B. measles C. smallpox D. mumps

C. smallpox

__________ vaccines are made from antigenic fragments of microbes rather than whole microbes. A. attenuated B. nucleic acid C. subunit D. conjugated

C. subunit

Subunit vaccines tend to be safer than whole-cell vaccines because __________. A. they contain intact but dead microbes B. they contain avirulent strains C. they cannot reproduce in the host D. they are antigenic E. they produce a stronger immune response

C. they cannot reproduce in the host

An individual with a high concentration of a particular antibody is said to have a high __________. A. agglutination B. serum C. titer D. viral load

C. titer

You are performing an agglutination test to detect the enzyme streptolysin in a patient's serum. To do this, what would you mix the serum sample with? A. Streptococcus bacteria B. Anti-Streptococcus antibodies C. Antigen-coated latex spheres D. Antibody-coated latex spheres

D. Antibody-coated latex spheres

Which of the following would you use to detect antibodies against HIV in a patient? A. Fluorescence-activated cell sorter B. Direct fluorescent-antibody test C. Direct agglutination test D. Indirect ELISA

D. Indirect ELISA

I developed a test for a pathogen that is very specific but NOT very sensitive. What does this mean? A. My test is very accurate and can detect very low levels of the pathogen. B. My test is not very accurate. C. My test is very likely to give me a false positive result. D. My test is very accurate, but there must be a lot of pathogen present for it to work.

D. My test is very accurate, but there must be a lot of pathogen present for it to work.

Which of these answers describes the best way to diagnose congenital toxoplasmosis in a newborn infant? A. Test the mother's serum for the presence of IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma. B. Test the infant's serum for the presence of IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma. C. Test the mother's serum for the presence of IgG antibodies against Toxoplasma. D. Test the infant's serum for the presence of IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma. E. Test the infant's blood for the presence of Toxoplasma protozoa.

D. Test the infant's serum for the presence of IgM antibodies against Toxoplasma.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about adjuvants? A. Adjuvants are aluminum salts that are combines with many vaccines. B. Alum is the only adjuvant approved for humans in the United States. C. Some adjuvants are approved only for use in animals. D. The exact mechanism by which adjuvants work is well researched and known

D. The exact mechanism by which adjuvants work is well researched and known

What is the purpose of a complement fixation test? A. To test for viral antigens B. To test for bacterial antigens C. To test for viral hemagglutination D. To detect low levels of antibodies

D. To detect low levels of antibodies

The reaction of antibody with particulate antigen is called a(n) __________ reaction. A. precipitation reaction B. immunodiffusion C. hemagglutination D. agglutination

D. agglutination

A vaccine consisting of a live avirulent strain of mumps virus is called a(n) __________. A. toxoid B. subunit vaccine C. conjugated vaccine D. attenuated vaccine

D. attenuated vaccine

For the Hib vaccine, Haemophilus influenzae type b capsular polysaccharide is attached to a protein such as diphtheria toxoid. This attachment to the protein causes a better immune response against H. influenzae type b in infants. This Hib vaccine is a(n) __________. A. attenuated whole-agent vaccine B. toxoid vaccine C. subunit vaccine D. conjugated vaccine

D. conjugated vaccine

For which of the following diseases can you receive a vaccination without the requirement for another booster? A. influenza B. tetanus C. rabies D. pneumococcal pneumonia

D. pneumococcal pneumonia

For both the direct and the indirect ELISA, __________. A. agglutination of antigen is observed B. the purpose is to detect antigen C. the purpose is to detect antibody D. substrate is added as a final step E. hemagglutination is the desired outcome

D. substrate is added as a final step

Which of the following is NOT a type of vaccine? A. Subunit vaccines B. Conjugated vaccine C. Nucleic acid vaccine D. they are all considered types of vaccines

D. they are all considered types of vaccines

A vaccine consisting of an inactivated diphtheria toxin is called a(n) __________. A. conjugated vaccine B. subunit vaccine C. attenuated whole-agent vaccine D. toxoid

D. toxoid

Which of the following statements is NOT true for the indirect ELISA? A. It is important to wash off unbound molecules between steps. B. It can detect antibody in patient serum. C. Microtiter plate wells are first coated with antigen. D. If testing human serum, labeled antiglobulins directed against human antibodies should be used. E. An antibody sandwich is created

E. An antibody sandwich is created

Which of the following statements is NOT true of toxoid vaccines? A. They are derived from toxins. B. They are used, for example, to prevent symptoms of tetanus. C. They are used, for example, to prevent diphtheria. D. They require booster shots for maximum efficacy. E. Only one dose is generally enough to infer a lasting immune response

E. Only one dose is generally enough to infer a lasting immune response

The toxin neutralization assay __________. A. is designed so that, in the presence of toxin and corresponding antibodies, toxin molecules bind to target cells and then to antibodies directed against that toxin B. is designed to show the presence of a particular toxin when the cells used in the assay are damaged by the toxin C. requires antibody molecules to be labeled with a fluorescent dye D. is designed to neutralize toxins by cross-linking the antibody molecules directed against them E. can detect the presence of antitoxin

E. can detect the presence of antitoxin

Which of these immunological assays for serum antibody requires cells as the indicator? A. ELISA B. precipitin ring C. immunodiffusion D. indirect agglutination E. complment fixation

E. complment fixation