Chapter 19 Blood

If bile ducts are blocked, A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. B) bilirubin appears in the saliva. C) more hemolysis takes place. D) more red blood cells are produced. E) more white blood cells are produced.

A) more bilirubin appears in the plasma. (diffusion into peripheral tissues)

A patient has an infected puncture wound to her foot. Which type of white blood cell would you expect to be elevated in a differential white cell count? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) lymphocytes E) monocytes

A) neutrophils

During a bacterial infection you would expect to see increased numbers of A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) reticulocytes. E) thrombocytes.

A) neutrophils

The most numerous WBCs in a differential count of a healthy individual are A) neutrophils. B) basophils. C) lymphocytes. D) monocytes. E) leukocytes.

A) neutrophils

The most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

A) neutrophils

A cross-match test is performed between donor blood and recipient blood, even though the ABO and Rh blood types match between the two because A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh. B) all antibodies of the donor blood and the recipient blood must be identified. C) coagulation can occur even in a small percentage of cases. D) one has to make sure that the same agglutinogens have to be on both donor and recipients red blood cells. E) errors are commonly made by the clinical staff regarding donor-recipient matches.

A) there are many more surface antigens on red blood cells other than A, B and Rh.

People who suffer from hemophilia A fail to produce a functional Factor VIII; as a result, A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway. B) they lack a functional extrinsic pathway. C) they lack a functional common pathway. D) their coagulation times are much longer than normal. E) their coagulation times are too quick.

A) they lack a functional intrinsic pathway.

Plasma contains the significant quantities of what proteins?

Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen

What happens if the hematocrit is low or the Hb content of the RBCs is reduced, a condition known as ______

Anemia

What types of globulins are there?

Antibodies (immunoglobulin) and transport globulins

"Aka" arterial stick used for blood gas analysis, an indicator of lung function

Arterial puncture

In an emergency situation when you have no time to wait for cross-matched blood you could give a patient type ________ until the cross-match is available. A) A positive B) O negative C) B negative D) AB positive E) AB negative

B) O negative

Anti-D antibodies are present in the blood of A) all individuals with type AB blood. B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. C) all Rh positive individuals. D) Rh positive individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen. E) all Rh negative individuals.

B) Rh negative individuals who have been exposed to the D surface antigen.

Which of the following statements about blood is false? A) Blood contains buffers that control pH. B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0. C) Blood is more viscous than water. D) Blood is about 55 percent plasma. E) Cells in blood comprise the formed elements.

B) The normal pH of blood is 6.8 to 7.0 (the normal pH is 7.35 to 7.45)

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by the A) sticking of platelets to each other. B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

B) activation of Factor XII by platelet factors.

Antigens of the surface of red blood cells are also called ________ and antibodies in the blood plasma are also called ________. A) agglutinins; agglutinogens B) agglutinogens; agglutinins C) T-cells; B-cells D) erythrogens; antibiotics E) serum; plasma

B) agglutinogens; agglutinins

The protein(s) that are the major contributors to plasma osmolarity is/are A) globulins. B) albumins. C) fibrinogen. D) lipoprotein. E) transferrin.

B) albumins

In which of the following situations would you expect the blood level of bilirubin to be elevated? A) during coagulation B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver C) iron-deficient diet D) low hematocrit E) low blood volume

B) an alcoholic with a damaged liver

Which of these descriptions best matches the term T lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) are involved in cell mediated immunity C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

B) are involved in cell mediated immunity

Granulocytes consist of what three types of mature cells and from what blast cell do granulocytes differentiate? (Figure 19-10) A) monocytes, lymphocytes, and platelets; lymphoblast B) basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil; myeloblast C) erythrocyte, neutrophil, and lymphocyte; proerythroblast D) reticulocyte, megakaryocyte, and promonocyte; monoblast E) platelets, erythrocyte, and monocyte; reticulocyte

B) basophil, eosinophil, and neutrophil; myeloblast

A substance that activates plasminogen might be useful to A) cause clots to form faster. B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster. C) initiate clot formation. D) recruit platelets to the area. E) recruit neutrophils to an infection.

B) cause clot dissolution to proceed faster

How would removal of calcium ions from a blood sample affect coagulation? A) The coagulation pathway would be more sensitive to activation. B) Coagulation would be prevented. C) There would be no important effect because magnesium can substitute for calcium. D) Coagulation would occur only in Rh positive individuals. E) More blood cells would be produced.

B) coagulation would be prevented

When hemoglobin does not have oxygen bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin.

B) deoxyhemoglobin.

Which white blood cell is most effective against parasitic infections? A) neutrophils B) eosinophils C) basophils D) monoctyes E) lymphocytes

B) eosinophils

A plasma protein essential for blood clotting is A) albumin alpha. B) fibrinogen. C) immunoglobulin A. D) metalloprotein D. E) lipoprotein C.

B) fibrinogen

Which of these is used clinically to impede or prevent blood clotting? A) thrombin B) heparin C) fibrin D) tissue factor E) prothrombin

B) heparin

Eileen is a strict vegan and therefore eats no animal products. She develops an anemia that her doctor thinks is caused by a nutritional deficiency. Which of the following is the likeliest candidate? A) aplastic anemia B) iron-deficiency anemia C) sickle cell anemia D) vitamin K deficiency E) vitamin B6 deficiency

B) iron-deficiency anemia

A small white blood cell with a large round nucleus would be a A) neutrophil. B) lymphocyte. C) monocyte. D) basophil. E) eosinophil.

B) lymphocyte

Natural killer cells are one of the functional classes of A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes.

B) lymphocytes

Non-specific immunity, such as phagocytosis, is a function of which blood cells? A) basophils and eosinophils B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes C) lymphocytes and monocytes D) platelets E) lymphocytes

B) neutrophils, eosinophils, and monocytes

Surgical removal of the stomach could cause A) hemophilia. B) pernicious anemia. C) thrombocytopenia. D) leukocytosis. E) jaundice.

B) pernicious anemia.

The enzyme that can digest fibrin and dissolve a clot is A) thrombin. B) plasmin. C) heparin. D) fibrinase. E) phosphokinase.

B) plasmin.

The function of platelets is to assist in the A) destruction of bacteria. B) process called hemostasis. C) removal of worn out red blood cells. D) immune response during an infection. E) transport of blood gases such as oxygen.

B) process called hemostasis.

The developmental stage at which erythrocytes enter the circulation is as A) hemocytoblasts. B) reticulocytes. C) band forms. D) myeloid cells. E) proerythrocytes.

B) reticulocytes.

A bruise appears as a greenish spot in the skin because A) hemoglobin has leaked from the blood into the injury and hemoglobin has a green color. B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin. C) bilirubin from iron recycling has built-up in the bruise. D) red blood cells lyse releasing biliverdin from inside. E) dead white blood cells accumulate at the site of injury.

B) the heme group in the hemoglobin has broken down into biliverdin.

People with type AB blood are considered the "universal recipient" for transfusions because A) their blood cells lack A and B antigens. B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins. C) their blood is plentiful in A and B agglutinins. D) they usually have very strong immune systems. E) they are usually Rh negative.

B) their blood lacks A or B agglutinins.

The hormone that stimulates platelet formation is A) thymosin. B) thrombopoietin. C) erythropoietin. D) colony-stimulating factor. E) endothelin.

B) thrombopoietin

Approximately 45 percent of blood volume is composed of the A) clotting factors. B) formed elements. C) leukocytes. D) plasma. E) antibodies.

b. formed elements

Each of the following is a characteristic of whole blood, except a A) temperature of approximately 38 degrees Celsius. B) viscosity about the same as water. C) pH of 7.4. D) built-in system for clotting. E) red color from hemoglobin.

B) viscosity about the same as water (five times as viscous as water)

The clumping of red blood cells, when the specific antibody against the antigen on the cells is added, is called A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) hemostasis. D) vascularization. E) areolation.

B. agglutination

White blood cells that are increased in allergic individuals are the A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) platelets. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

B. eosinophils

What is the fluid connective tissue of the cardiovascular system that contains cells suspended in a fluid matrix?

Blood

Place where blood is collected, typed, separated into components, stored, and prepared for transfusion to recipients

Blood bank

How can whole blood be separated

By fractionation for analytical or clinical purposes

The average life span of a red blood cell is A) 24 hours. B) 1 month. C) 4 months. D) about 1 year. E) many years.

C) 4 months.

The total volume of blood in the body of a 76-kg man is approximately ________ liters. A) 10 B) 6 to 8 C) 5.3 D) 4.4 E) 3.8

C) 5.3

________ is a condition in which the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood is reduced. A) Polycythemia B) Leukemia C) Anemia D) Leukopenia E) Thrombocytopenia

C) Anemia

A hormone that stimulates production of granulocytes and monocytes is A) M-CSF. B) G-CSF. C) GM-CSF. D) multi-CSF. E) thymosin.

C) GM-CSF.

Type AB blood has which of the following characteristics? A) RBCs have the Rh positive antigens and the anti-D plasma antibodies. B) RBCs have no surface antigens and both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies. D) RBCs have the A and the B surface antigens and the plasma has anti-A and anti-B antibodies. E) RBCs have the A antigen and the plasma has the anti-B antibody.

C) RBCs have both the A & B surface antigens and no ABO plasma antibodies.

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells is false? A) Red cells are biconcave discs. B) Red cells lack mitochondria. C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter. D) Red cells are specialized for carrying oxygen. E) Red cells can form stacks called rouleaux.

C) Red cells are about 18 µm in diameter.

The disease sickle cell anemia is an example of what can happen if A) the diet is deficient in iron. B) there is insufficient heme in the hemoglobin. C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal. D) red blood cells bind too much oxygen. E) hemolysis is prevented by a mutated gene.

C) a gene for adult hemoglobin is abnormal.

Whole blood for testing in a clinical laboratory is usually collected from A) the heart. B) a superficial artery. C) a superficial vein. D) a capillary. E) an arteriole.

C) a superficial vein.

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are A) globulins. B) transport proteins. C) albumins. D) lipoproteins. E) fibrinogens.

C) albumins.

Which of the following is not one of the formed elements of blood? A) RBCs B) platelets C) antibodies D) lymphocytes E) basophils

C) antibodies

Which common over the counter drug can decrease blood clotting and thus may be beneficial for preventing a heart attack? A) cough syrup B) anti-histamines C) aspirin D) acetaminophen E) tums

C) aspirin

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are A) neutrophils. B) eosinophils. C) basophils. D) lymphocytes. E) monocytes.

C) basophils.

Erythropoiesis is stimulated when A) oxygen levels in the blood increase. B) carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease. C) blood flow to the kidney declines. D) coagulation begins. E) blood pressure increases.

C) blood flow to the kidney declines.

Which of these descriptions best matches the term B lymphocytes? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

C) develop into plasma cells and produce antibodies in response to antigens

The process of fibrinolysis A) activates fibrinogen. B) draws torn edges of damaged tissue closer together. C) dissolves clots. D) forms emboli. E) forms thrombi.

C) dissolves clots.

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone A) thymosin. B) angiotensin. C) erythropoietin. D) thymopoietin. E) renin.

C) erythropoietin

A hematocrit provides information on A) blood type. B) clotting factors. C) formed elements abundance. D) plasma composition. E) sedimentation rate.

C) formed elements abundance.

Each hemoglobin molecule contains A) four alpha chains. B) one alpha and one beta chain. C) four iron atoms. D) one heme group. E) a molecule of oxygen and a molecule of carbon dioxide.

C) four iron atoms (2 alpha chains and 2 beta chains each holding a heme molecule; each heme unit holds 1 iron ion)

All of the following are functions of blood except A) regulating pH. B) transporting gases and hormones. C) generating action potentials. D) defending against pathogens. E) regulating ion concentration.

C) generating action potentials

The waste product bilirubin is produced from A) globin chains of hemoglobin. B) heme molecules plus iron. C) heme molecules lacking iron. D) iron found in hemoglobin molecules. E) abnormal proteins found in red blood cells.

C) heme molecules lacking iron.

More than 95 percent of the protein in a red blood cell is A) albumin. B) porphyrin. C) hemoglobin. D) immunoglobulin. E) fibrinogen.

C) hemoglobin.

Some rat poisons contain a toxin that blocks the liver's ability to utilize vitamin K. Animals that consume this poison would die of A) anemia. B) acidosis. C) hemorrhage. D) thrombocytopenia. E) starvation.

C) hemorrhage.

Which of the following descriptions best matches the term colony stimulating factor? A) adheres to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation D) kills bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

C) hormone that regulates white blood cell formation

Thyroid-binding globulin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding C) hormone-binding D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

C) hormone-binding

Plasma proteins essential in body defense are the A) albumins. B) fibrinogens. C) immunoglobulins. D) metalloproteins. E) lipoproteins.

C) immunoglobulins.

In an emergency situation, a patient may be given plasma expanders while blood typing occurs. The plasma expanders are used to A) stimulate blood clotting. B) replace lost albumin. C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity. D) elevate blood pH. E) stimulate immune responses.

C) increase blood volume and maintain osmolarity.

An obstruction in blood flow to the kidneys would result in A) pernicious anemia. B) renal anemia. C) increased erythropoiesis. D) decreased erythropoiesis. E) increased sensitivity to vitamin K.

C) increased erythropoiesis.

Platelets are pinched off from giant multinucleated cells in the bone marrow called A) erythroblasts. B) normoblasts. C) megakaryocytes. D) myeloblasts. E) lymphoblasts.

C) megakaryocytes.

Which of the following combinations may result in the hemolytic disease of the newborn? A) mother Rh positive, baby Rh negative B) mother Rh negative, baby Rh negative C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive D) mother type A+, baby type O+ E) mother Rh positive, baby Rh positive

C) mother Rh negative, baby Rh positive

When hemoglobin is saturated with oxygen atoms it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin.

C) oxyhemoglobin

Where are red blood cells produced? (Figure 19-5) A) spleen B) liver C) red bone marrow D) kidney E) large intestine

C) red bone marrow

In adults, erythropoiesis exclusively takes place in A) the liver. B) yellow bone marrow. C) red bone marrow. D) the spleen. E) lymphoid tissue.

C) red bone marrow.

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of Factor VII exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium. D) release of heparin from the liver. E) conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.

C) release of tissue factor (Factor III) by damaged endothelium.

Erythropoietin is a hormone A) released by the liver to stimulate red blood cell production. B) released by the liver to stimulate white blood cell production. C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production. D) released by the kidneys to stimulate red and white blood cell production. E) released by the bone marrow to stimulate red blood cell production.

C) released by the kidneys to stimulate red blood cell production.

Which of the following would you expect to see in increased numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a unit of blood? A) fibrocytes B) platelets C) reticulocytes D) lymphocytes E) neutrophils

C) reticulocytes (immature RBC)

A blood clot attached to the inner surface of a blood vessel is called a A) embolus. B) plaque. C) thrombus. D) platelet plug. E) fibrin mesh.

C) thrombus

The combination of plasma and formed elements is called A) serum. B) lymph. C) whole blood. D) extracellular fluid. E) packed blood.

C) whole blood.

Areas in a vessel wall where large quantities of lipid accumulate are called A) thrombi. B) emboli. C) plaques. D) clots. E) occlusions.

C. Plaques

In case of hemorrhage, platelets are stored as a reserve in A) the heart. B) the kidneys. C) the spleen. D) the thymus gland. E) bone marrow.

C. spleen

The end process of hemostasis

Clot retraction

You have type B positive blood. What are all the types of packed RBCs you can receive? A) A positive and A negative B) B positive and B negative C) A positive and B positive D) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative E) O positive and O negative

D) B positive, B negative, O positive, O negative

________ involves a cascade of reactions leading to the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. A) Vascular spasm B) The platelet phase C) Retraction D) Coagulation E) Fibrinolysis

D) Coagulation

Which feature of WBCs makes them particularly important in tissue injury? A) They undergo aerobic respiration. B) They stick to injured blood vessels. C) They undergo a fast rate of mitosis. D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues. E) They carry loads of oxygen.

D) They can squeeze out through blood vessel walls into tissues.

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the A) sticking of platelets to damaged tissue. B) activation of a proenzyme exposed to collagen. C) release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium. D) activation of Factor X and production of prothrombin activator. E) conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin.

D) activation of Factor X, production of prothrombin activator.

Which plasma protein transports fatty acids and some hormones? A) apolipoprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) albumin E) gamma globulin

D) albumin

Hormones called ________ are involved in regulation of white blood cell populations. A) erythropoietin B) bilirubin C) thrombopoietin D) colony-stimulating factors E) plasmin

D) colony-stimulating factors

The process of red blood cell production is called A) erythrocytosis. B) erythropenia. C) hemocytosis. D) erythropoiesis. E) hematopenia.

D) erythropoiesis.

The percent fraction of formed elements relative to whole blood is the A) viscosity. B) specific gravity. C) packed volume. D) hematocrit. E) differential cell count.

D) hematocrit

Consider the following results from a blood lab test. Which value is most likely abnormal? A) RBCs—5.2 million/μl B) platelets—280,000/μl C) leukocytes—8600/μl D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml E) hematocrit—44 percent

D) hemoglobin—10.7 g/100 ml

Antibodies are what type of plasma protein? A) apolipoprotein B) metalloprotein C) steroid-binding protein D) immunoglobulin E) fibrinogen

D) immunoglobulin

All of the following are true of neutrophils except that they are A) granular leukocytes. B) phagocytic. C) also known as polymorphonuclear leukocytes. D) important in coagulation. E) active in fighting bacterial infections.

D) important in coagulation.

Pernicious anemia caused by a lack of intrinsic factor is specifically treated by A) oral doses of iron. B) injections of iron. C) oral doses of vitamin B12. D) injections of vitamin B12. E) blood transfusion.

D) injections of vitamin B12.

Each molecule of heme contains a single ion of what element? (Figure 19-3) A) sodium B) potassium C) magnesium D) iron E) calcium

D) iron

During routine bloodwork, Mary's doctor noticed significant leukocytosis. He is concerned she might have A) pernicious anemia. B) sickle cell anemia. C) thalassemia. D) leukemia. E) leukopenia.

D) leukimia

Which of the following white blood cells are mobile? A) lymphocytes B) neutrophils C) monocytes D) neutrophils and monocytes E) basophils

D) neutrophils and monocytes

The level of erythropoietin in the blood would rise due to all of the following except A) anemia. B) high altitude. C) as a consequence of hemorrhage. D) periods of fasting. E) when blood flow to the kidneys is disrupted.

D) periods of fasting.

A person's blood type is determined by the A) size of the RBCs. B) volume of the RBCs. C) chemical composition of the hemoglobin. D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane. E) shape of the RBCs.

D) presence of specific glycoproteins on the cell membrane.

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the concentration of A) water. B) electrolytes. C) nitrogen wastes. D) proteins. E) glucose.

D) proteins

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is A) excreted by the kidneys. B) excreted by the liver. C) excreted by the intestines. D) recycled to the red bone marrow. E) stored in yellow bone marrow.

D) recycled to the red bone marrow.

All the circulating red blood cells in an adult originate in the A) heart. B) thymus. C) spleen. D) red bone marrow. E) lymph tissue.

D) red bone marrow.

In adults, the only site of red blood cell production, and the primary site of white blood cell formation, is the A) liver. B) spleen. C) thymus. D) red bone marrow. E) yellow bone marrow.

D) red bone marrow.

The process of lymphopoiesis occurs mainly in the A) spleen. B) kidneys. C) lymph nodes. D) red bone marrow. E) thymus.

D) red bone marrow.

Blood that has clotting proteins removed is termed A) whole blood. B) hematocrit. C) formed elements. D) serum. E) plasma.

D) serum

Hydroxyurea is a common drug treatment for sickle cell anemia patients. Hydroxyurea improves sickle cell symptoms because it A) causes more hemoglobin alpha chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. B) causes more hemoglobin beta chains to be produced improving oxygen transport. C) increases the free iron in plasma. D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport. E) increases the production of heme.

D) stimulates the production of fetal hemoglobin improving oxygen transport.

The conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin is catalyzed by the enzyme A) fibrinogen-converting enzyme. B) plasmin. C) factor VIII. D) thrombin. E) prothrombinase.

D) thrombin.

A person whose platelet count is 40,000/µl is suffering from A) thrombocytosis. B) leukocytosis. C) hemocytosis. D) thrombocytopenia. E) leukopenia.

D) thrombocytopenia.

The most common blood type is A) type A. B) type B. C) type AB. D) type O. E) type AO.

D) type O

The first step of hemostasis is A) coagulation. B) agglutination. C) clot retraction. D) vascular spasm. E) platelet phase.

D) vascular spasm

A typical adult hematocrit is A) 85. B) 75. C) 65. D) 45. E) 25.

D. 45

These clots can loosen, travel through the circulation, and end up wedged in blood vessels in the lungs

Deep vein thrombosis

Hemoglobin molecule not bound to oxygen

Deoxyhemoglobin (dark red RBCs)

You are caring for an adult patient who weighs 48 kg. What would her approximate blood volume be? A) 6.6 L B) 6.0 L C) 5.6 L D) 4.8 L E) 3.8 L

E) 3.8 L

Which of the following is not a way that red blood cell shape is significant? A) It gives the red blood cell a large surface area to volume ratio. B) It allows fast exchange of gases between the inside of the cell and the plasma. C) It enables red blood cells to form stacks. D) It allows red blood cells to bend and flex. E) It enables red blood cells to phagocytose bacteria.

E) It enables red blood cells to phagocytose bacteria.

Monocytes can be stimulated by which of the following colony-stimulating factors? A) G-CSF B) G-CSF and GM-CSF C) EPO D) G-CSF and EPO E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF

E) M-CSF, GM-CSF, multi-CSF

________ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells. A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes E) Monocytes

E) Monocytes

In what way does blood assist in immune function? A) Platelets allow clotting. B) Red blood cells transport gases. C) White blood cells defend against pathogens. D) Albumins transport hormones. E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens.

E) Plasma antibodies and white blood cells defend against pathogens.

________ are immature erythrocytes that are present in the circulation. A) Erythroblasts B) Normoblasts C) Myeloblasts D) Band cells E) Reticulocytes

E) Reticulocytes

The function of red blood cells is to A) carry oxygen from the cells to the lungs. B) carry carbon dioxide from the lungs to the body's cells. C) carry nutrients from the digestive system to the body's cells. D) defend the body against infectious organisms. E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.

E) carry oxygen to the cells and then carry away carbon dioxide.

Platelets are A) red blood cells that lack a nucleus. B) red blood cells that have a nucleus. C) large cells with a prominent, concave nucleus. D) tiny cells with a polynucleus. E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells.

E) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells

Reticulocytes complete their development into ________ in the circulation. A) neutrophils B) megakaryocytes C) thrombocytes D) macrophages E) erythrocytes

E) erythrocytes

Which of these proteins functions to store or transport iron? A) hemoglobin B) ferritin C) hemosiderin D) transferrin E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

E) ferritin, hemosiderin, and transferrin

Excess iron is stored in the liver and spleen as A) transferrin. B) urobilin and stercobilin. C) bilirubin and biliverdin. D) hemoglobin. E) hemosiderin and ferritin.

E) hemosiderin and ferritin.

Mary is tested for the amount of hemoglobin in her blood. The test results indicate that her hemoglobin level is 16 g/dL of blood. This value indicates that A) she is suffering from anemia. B) she has fewer red blood cells than normal. C) her hematocrit is probably lower than normal. D) she may be suffering from a form of leukemia. E) her hemoglobin level is normal.

E) her hemoglobin level is normal

Which organ secretes most of the plasma proteins? A) pancreas B) heart C) kidney D) brain E) liver

E) liver

During fetal development the primary site(s) of red blood cell production is/are A) bone marrow. B) liver. C) thymus. D) kidneys. E) liver and spleen.

E) liver and spleen

The blood cells involved in specific immunity are the: A) neutrophils B) monocytes C) basophils D) erythrocytes E) lymphocytes

E) lymphocytes.

The primary reason males have a higher hematocrit than females is because A) males have more skeletal muscle. B) males have larger livers. C) males have longer blood vessels. D) males have fewer white blood cells. E) males have androgens.

E) males have androgens.

Macrophages develop from A) neutrophils. B) lymphocytes. C) thrombocytes. D) eosinophils. E) monocytes.

E) monocytes

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by macrophages in the A) spleen. B) liver. C) bone marrow. D) digestive tract. E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

E) spleen, liver, and bone marrow.

Which of the following could be used as a treatment for a stroke if given early in the disease progression? A) tissue factor B) vitamin K C) calcium channel blockers D) factor X E) tissue plasminogen activator

E) tissue plasminogen activator

Plasma is closest in composition to A) urine. B) isotonic saline solution. C) sterile water. D) CSF. E) interstitial fluid.

E)intetstitial fluid

A sign of thrombocytopenia would be A) a drop in oxygen-carrying capacity. B) allergic reactions. C) bacterial infections. D) excessive clotting. E) bleeding.

E. Bleeding

A condition in which a drifting blood clot (an embolus) becomes stuck in a blood vessel, blocking circulation to the area downstream

Embolism

___________ are released by the endothelial cells which are peptide hormones during the vascular phase

Endothelins

During the vascular phase changes take place at the _____________ of the vessel at the injury site

Endothelium

What are RBCs formed by

Erythropoiesis

This binds oxygen more readily than adult hemoglobin

Fetal hemoglobin

What plasma proteins functions for clotting

Fibrinogen

1) releasing chemicals important to the clotting process 2) forming and temporary patching the walls of damaged blood vessels 3) reduces size of breaks in vessel walls

Functions of Platelets

Each hemoglobin (Hb) chain contains a single molecule or ____ a nonprotein pigment complex that forms a ring

Heme

A genetic disorder seen in males and characterized by the lack of clotting factors such as Factor VIII or IX

Hemophilia

The stopping of bleeding that halts the loss of blood through the walls of damaged blood vessels

Hemostasis

What establishes a framework for tissue repair

Hemostasis

In basophils what compound prevents blood clotting

Heparin

In basophils what dilates blood vessels

Histamine

What can cause the production of feral hemoglobin to be stimulated in adults and also one method of treatment for sickle cell disease

Hydroxyurea or butyrate

Having an excessive blood volume

Hypervolemic

Having a low blood volume

Hypovolemic

Where does the high viscosity of blood come from

Interactions among dissolved proteins, formed elements, and water molecules in plasma

What does fibrinogen become if steps are not taken to prevent clotting in the blood

It's converted into FIBRIN which removes the clotting proteins and becomes SERUM

What are the two populations of stem cells responsible for formed elements

Myeloid and lymphoid stem cells

Referring to normal blood volume

Normovolemic

Iron interacting with oxygen molecule of heme

Oxyhemoglobin (bright red RBCs)

An abnormal accumulation of large quantities of lipids within a blood vessel wall

Plaque

The attachment of platelets to exposed surfaces is called_______

Platelet adhesion

As more platelets arrive and stick to you the process becomes know as _______ __________ which begins with in 15 sec after injury occurs and leads to the __________ ____

Platelet aggregation; platelet plug

Systemic toxic illness due to bacterial invasion of the bloodstream from a local infection. Chills, fever, and exhaustion. The disorder is treated with massive doses of antibiotic. "AKA" blood poisoning.

Septicemia

These local hormones during the vascular phase (1) stimulate smooth muscle contraction and promote vascular spasms and (2) stimulate the division of endothelial cells, smooth muscle cells, and fibroblast to accelerate the repair process

The Endothelins

The percentage of a blood sample that consists of formed elements

The hematocrit

What synthesizes and releases more than 90 % of plasma proteins

The liver

attachment of platelets to sticky endothelial surfaces, basement membrane and to exposed collagen fibers marks the start of what phase

The platelet phase

What cants RBCs do without a nuclei and ribosomes

They cannot divide or synthesize proteins or enzymes

A condition in which the platelet count is too low

Thrombocytopenia

platelet production taking place in red bone marrow

Thrombocytopoiesis

Clotting problems; when clots form in the venous system, the serious condition DVT can result

Thrombophilia

What substance is produced by the kidney that accelerates platelet formation and the production of megakaryocytes

Thrombopoietin (Thrombocyte Stimulating Factor)

What 3 substances influence the rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation

Thrombopoietin (thrombocytes stimulation formation), Interleukin, and Multi-CSF

A blood clot attached to the luminal (inner) surface of a blood vessel

Thrombus

How do RBCs contain the energy that they need

Through the anaerobic metabolism of glucose

The vascular spasms last about 30 minutes in a period called

Vascular Phase

What decreases the diameter at the site of an injury

Vascular Spasm

common sampling techniques because superficial veins are easy to locate, the walls of veins are thinner compared to those of the arteries, and blood pressure in the venous system is relatively low, so the puncture wound seals quickly

Venipuncture

Cutting the walls of a blood vessel triggers a contraction of smooth muscle fibers of the vessel wall

Yields Vascular Spasms

a rare disease in which the body fails to produce blood cells in sufficient numbers.

aplastic anemia.

What causes an increase in hematocrit

1) dehydration due to a decrease in plasma volume or after stimulation with the hormone erythropoietin 2) the hematocrit disease as a result of internal bleeding or problems with RBC formation

What are the 5 major functions of the blood

1. Transportation of gas, nutrients, hormones, etc. 2. Regulation of pH 3. Restricting fluid loss at an injury site 4. Defense against toxins 5. Stabilizing body temperature (core vs. shell)

Normal range of hemoglobin for women

12-16 g/dL

Normal range of hemoglobin for men

14-18 g/dL

What is the average concentration of platelets

350, 000 micro liters

RBC account for what percentage of formed elements

99.9%

Plasma composes about ________ percent of whole blood and water composes ________ percent of the plasma volume. A) 55; 92 B) 92; 7 C) 92; 55 D) 45; 55 E) 50; 50

A) 55; 92

Blood volume represents about ________ percent of a person's body weight. A) 7 B) 15 C) 2 D) 25 E) 42

A) 7

Which of the following is true regarding red blood cells? A) They are anucleate. B) They survive for approximately one year. C) They have a biconvex shape. D) They are produced in the spleen. E) They primarily carry carbon dioxide.

A) They are anucleate.

Which of the following is not true of monocytes? A) about same size as basophils B) enter tissues and wander C) become macrophages D) are long-lived E) can phagocytize bacteria

A) about same size as basophils

Which of the following descriptions best matches the function of platelets? A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium B) helper cells are one type C) produce antibodies in response to antigens D) kill bacteria using hydrogen peroxide E) often elevated in allergic individuals

A) adhere to collagen beneath endothelium

Type A blood has what type of RBC surface antigen and what type of opposing antibodies? (Figure 19-6) A) antigen A; anti-B antibodies B) antigen B; anti-A antibodies C) antigen A; anti-A antibodies D) antigen B; anti-B antibodies E) antigen A; both anti-A and anti-B antibodies

A) antigen A; anti-B antibodies

When carbon dioxide is bound to hemoglobin it is termed A) carbaminohemoglobin. B) deoxyhemoglobin. C) oxyhemoglobin. D) hemolyzed. E) sickle hemoglobin.

A) carbaminohemoglobin

The function of hemoglobin is to A) carry dissolved blood gases. B) carry bicarbonate ion. C) aid in the process of blood clotting. D) produce antibodies. E) stimulate erythropoiesis.

A) carry dissolved blood gases.

The phase of hemostasis that involved clotting of blood is called A) coagulation. B) hemolysis. C) vascular spasm. D) a platelet plug. E) diapedesis.

A) coagulation

Eosinophils function in: A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens B) blood coagulation C) production of surface antigens for red blood cells D) antibody production E) production of heparin

A) destroying antibody-labeled antigens

The ________ is a procedure that is used to determine the number of each of the various types of white blood cells. A) differential count B) hematocrit C) sedimentation rate D) WBC count E) complete cell count (CBC)

A) differential count

A moving blood clot is called a(n) A) embolus. B) thrombus. C) plaque. D) procoagulant. E) platelet plug.

A) embolus

Which mature cell has no nucleus, no mitochondria and no ribosomes? A) erythrocyte B) leukocyte C) platelet D) thrombocyte E) neutrophil

A) erythrocyte

Tissue factor (Factor III) is a factor in the ________ pathway. A) extrinsic B) intrinsic C) common D) retraction E) fibrinolytic

A) extrinsic

Jane has Type A blood; therefore, she A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens. B) can give blood to other people with Type A blood only. C) can receive blood from other people with Type A blood only. D) makes anti-A without ever having been exposed to Type A blood. E) has B antigen on her RBCs.

A) has antibodies to B agglutinogens. (B surface antigens)

A red blood cell that contains excessive amounts of hemoglobin would be called A) hyperchromic. B) normochromic. C) hypochromic. D) normocytic. E) macrocytic.

A) hyperchromic

A person who has a low blood volume is said to be A) hypovolemic. B) hypervolemic. C) normovolemic. D) isovolemic. E) antivolemic.

A) hypovolemic

Which of the following is not true of neutrophils? A) less abundant than lymphocytes B) can make hydrogen peroxide C) can exit capillaries D) can destroy bacteria E) attracted to complement-coated bacteria

A) less abundant than lymphocytes

Transferrin is an example of which kind of plasma protein? A) metalloprotein B) steroid-binding protein C) hormone-binding protein D) apolipoprotein E) transport albumin

A) metalloprotein (carries metal ion)

A fibrin network that contains trapped blood cells and platelets is called a(n) A) platelet plug. B) rouleaux. C) agglutinin. D) blood clot. E) lysin.

d. Blood clot

Who has more blood, men or women?

men

The medical technician who draws blood from a vein for laboratory tests is called a

phlebotomist

Three types of formed elements in the blood

red blood cells, white blood cells, platelets

What are the three phases of hemostasis

vascular phase, platelet phase, coagulation phase

Each heme ring in hemoglobin encloses an atom of A) magnesium. B) calcium. C) iron. D) sodium. E) copper.

c. iron

Most of the protein factors that are required for clotting are synthesized by A) platelets. B) megakaryocytes. C) the liver. D) the kidneys. E) the spleen.

c. liver

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors? A) vitamin A B) vitamin B C) vitamin K D) vitamin D E) vitamin E

c. vitamin K

The most abundant component of plasma is A) ions. B) proteins. C) water. D) gases. E) nutrients.

c. water

Type A blood has ________ antibodies in the blood plasma. A) anti-A B) anti-D C) anti-B D) anti-Rh E) anti-O

c. anti-B