Chapter 32: Labor and Birth Complications

Which nursing intervention should be immediately performed after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant? a.Assessing the infant for signs of trauma b.Administering prophylactic antibiotic agents to the infant c.Applying a cold pack to the infant's scalp d.Measuring the circumference of the infant's head

ANS: A The infant should be assessed for bruising or abrasions at the site of application, facial palsy, and subdural hematoma. Prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary with a forceps delivery. A cold pack would place the infant at risk for cold stress and is contraindicated. Measuring the circumference of the head is part of the initial nursing assessment.

A client at 39 weeks of gestation has been admitted for an external version. Which intervention would the nurse anticipate the provider to order? a.Tocolytic drug b.Contraction stress test (CST) c.Local anesthetic d.Foley catheter

ANS: A A tocolytic drug will relax the uterus before and during the version, thus making manipulation easier. CST is used to determine the fetal response to stress. A local anesthetic is not used with external version. Although the bladder should be emptied, catheterization is not necessary.

A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg intramuscular (IM) doses of betamethasone. What is the purpose of this pharmacologic intervention? a.To stimulate fetal surfactant production b.To reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration c.To suppress uterine contractions d.To maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy

ANS: A Antenatal glucocorticoids administered as IM injections to the mother accelerate fetal lung maturity. Propranolol (Inderal) is given to reduce the effects of ritodrine administration. Betamethasone has no effect on uterine contractions. Calcium gluconate is given to reverse the respiratory depressive effects of magnesium sulfate therapy.

Which description most accurately describes the augmentation of labor? a.Is part of the active management of labor that is instituted when the labor process is unsatisfactory b.Relies on more invasive methods when oxytocin and amniotomy have failed c.Is a modern management term to cover up the negative connotations of forceps-assisted birth d.Uses vacuum cups

ANS: A Augmentation is part of the active management of labor that stimulates uterine contractions after labor has started but is not progressing satisfactorily. Augmentation uses amniotomy and oxytocin infusion, as well as some more gentle, noninvasive methods. Forceps-assisted births are less common than in the past and not considered a method of augmentation. A vacuum-assisted delivery occurs during childbirth if the mother is too exhausted to push. Vacuum extraction is not considered an augmentation methodology.

The exact cause of preterm labor is unknown but believed to be multifactorial. Infection is thought to be a major factor in many preterm labors. Which type of infection has not been linked to preterm birth? a.Viral b.Periodontal c.Cervical d.Urinary tract

ANS: A Infections that increase the risk of preterm labor and birth are bacterial and include cervical, urinary tract, periodontal, and other bacterial infections. Therefore, early, continual, and comprehensive participation by the client in her prenatal care is important. Recent evidence has shown a link between periodontal infections and preterm labor. Researchers recommend regular dental care before and during pregnancy, oral assessment as a routine part of prenatal care, and scrupulous oral hygiene to prevent periodontal infections.

A pregnant woman's amniotic membranes have ruptured. A prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the nurse's highest priority? a.Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b.Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c.Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d.Starting oxygen by face mask

ANS: A The woman is assisted into a modified Sims position, Trendelenburg position, or the knee-chest position in which gravity keeps the pressure of the presenting part off the cord. Although covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked saline, preparing the woman for a cesarean, and starting oxygen by face mark are appropriate nursing interventions in the event of a prolapsed cord, the intervention of top priority would be positioning the mother to relieve cord compression.

What are the complications and risks associated with cesarean births? (Select all that apply.) a.Pulmonary edema b.Wound dehiscence c.Hemorrhage d.Urinary tract infections e.Fetal injuries

ANS: A, B, C, D, E Pulmonary edema, wound dehiscence, hemorrhage, urinary tract infections, and fetal injuries are possible complications and risks associated with cesarean births.

What is a maternal indication for the use of vacuum-assisted birth? a.Wide pelvic outlet b.Maternal exhaustion c.History of rapid deliveries d.Failure to progress past station 0

ANS: B A mother who is exhausted may be unable to assist with the expulsion of the fetus. The client with a wide pelvic outlet will likely not require vacuum extraction. With a rapid delivery, vacuum extraction is not necessary. A station of 0 is too high for a vacuum-assisted birth

Which nursing intervention is paramount when providing care to a client with preterm labor who has received terbutaline? a.Assess deep tendon reflexes (DTRs). b.Assess for dyspnea and crackles. c.Assess for bradycardia. d.Assess for hypoglycemia.

ANS: B Terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist that affects the mother's cardiopulmonary and metabolic systems. Signs of cardiopulmonary decompensation include adventitious breath sounds and dyspnea. An assessment for dyspnea and crackles is important for the nurse to perform if the woman is taking magnesium sulfate. Assessing DTRs does not address the possible respiratory side effects of using terbutaline. Since terbutaline is a beta2-adrenergic agonist, it can lead to hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia. Beta2-adrenergic agonist drugs cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.

A pregnant woman at 29 weeks of gestation has been diagnosed with preterm labor. Her labor is being controlled with tocolytic medications. She asks when she might be able to go home. Which response by the nurse is most accurate? a."After the baby is born." b."When we can stabilize your preterm labor and arrange home health visits." c."Whenever your physician says that it is okay." d."It depends on what kind of insurance coverage you have."

ANS: B This client's preterm labor is being controlled with tocolytics. Once she is stable, home care may be a viable option for this type of client. Care of a client with preterm labor is multidisciplinary and multifactorial; the goal is to prevent delivery. In many cases, this goal may be achieved at home. Managed care may dictate an earlier hospital discharge or a shift from hospital to home care. Insurance coverage may be one factor in client care, but ultimately, client safety remains the most important factor.

Indications for a primary cesarean birth are often nonrecurring. Therefore, a woman who has had a cesarean birth with a low transverse scar may be a candidate for vaginal birth after cesarean (VBAC). Which clients would beless likely to have a successful VBAC? (Select all that apply.) aLengthy interpregnancy interval b.African-American race c.Delivery at a rural hospital d.Estimated fetal weight <4000 g e.Maternal obesity (BMI >30)

ANS: B, C, E Indications for a low success rate for a VBAC delivery include a short interpregnancy interval, non-Caucasian race, gestational age longer than 40 weeks, maternal obesity, preeclampsia, fetal weight greater than 4000 g, and delivery at a rural or private hospital.

The nurse recognizes that uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin requires emergency interventions. What clinical cues alert the nurse that the woman is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation? (Select all that apply.) a.Uterine contractions lasting <90 seconds and occurring >2 minutes in frequency b.Uterine contractions lasting >90 seconds and occurring <2 minutes in frequency c.Uterine tone <20 mm Hg d.Uterine tone >20 mm Hg e.Increased uterine activity accompanied by a nonreassuring FHR and pattern

ANS: B, D, E Uterine contractions that occur less frequently than 2 minutes apart and last longer than 90 seconds, a uterine tone over 20 mm Hg, and a nonreassuring FHR and pattern are indications of uterine hyperstimulation with oxytocin administration. Uterine contractions that occur more frequently than 2 minutes apart and last less than 90 seconds are the expected goal of oxytocin induction. A uterine tone less than 20 mm Hg is normal.

What is the primary purpose for the use of tocolytic therapy to suppress uterine activity? a.Drugs can be efficaciously administered up to the designated beginning of term at 37 weeks gestation. b.Tocolytic therapy has no important maternal (as opposed to fetal) contraindications. c.The most important function of tocolytic therapy is to provide the opportunity to administer antenatal glucocorticoids. d.If the client develops pulmonary edema while receiving tocolytic therapy, then intravenous (IV) fluids should be given.

ANS: C Buying time for antenatal glucocorticoids to accelerate fetal lung development may be the best reason to use tocolytic therapy. Once the pregnancy has reached 34 weeks, however, the risks of tocolytic therapy outweigh the benefits. Important maternal contraindications to tocolytic therapy exist. Tocolytic-induced edema can be caused by IV fluids.

The nurse is teaching a client with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) regarding self-care activities. Which activities should the nurse include in her teaching? a.Report a temperature higher than 40° C. b.Tampons are safe to use to absorb the leaking amniotic fluid. c.Do not engage in sexual activity. d.Taking frequent tub baths is safe.

ANS: C Sexual activity should be avoided because it may induce preterm labor. A temperature higher than 38° C should be reported. To prevent the risk of infection, tub baths should be avoided and nothing should be inserted into the vagina. Further, foul-smelling vaginal fluid, which may be a sign of infection, should be reported.

Which statement related to the induction of labor is most accurate? a.Can be achieved by external and internal version techniques b.Is also known as a trial of labor (TOL) c.Is almost always performed for medical reasons d.Is rated for viability by a Bishop score

ANS: D Induction of labor is likely to be more successful with a Bishop score of 9 or higher for first-time mothers or 5 or higher for veterans. Version is the turning of the fetus to a better position by a physician for an easier or safer birth. A TOL is the observance of a woman and her fetus for several hours of active labor to assess the safety of vaginal birth. Two thirds of cases of induced labor are elective and not done for medical reasons

When would an internal version be indicated to manipulate the fetus into a vertex position? a.Fetus from a breech to a cephalic presentation before labor begins b.Fetus from a transverse lie to a longitudinal lie before a cesarean birth c.Second twin from an oblique lie to a transverse lie before labor begins d.Second twin from a transverse lie to a breech presentation during a vaginal birth

ANS: D Internal version is used only during a vaginal birth to manipulate the second twin into a presentation that allows it to be vaginally born. For internal version to occur, the cervix needs to be completely dilated.

In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, which finding alerts the nurse to possible side effects? a.Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours b.DTRs 2+ and no clonus c.Respiratory rate (RR) of 16 breaths per minute d.Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl

ANS: D The therapeutic range for magnesium sulfate management is 4 to 7.5 mg/dl. A serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dl could lead to signs and symptoms of magnesium toxicity, including oliguria and respiratory distress. Urine output of 160 ml in 4 hours, DTRs of 2+, and a RR of 16 breaths per minute are all normal findings.

Women who are obese are at risk for several complications during pregnancy and birth. Which of these would the nurse anticipate with an obese client? (Select all that apply.) a.Thromboembolism b.Cesarean birth c.Wound infection d.Breech presentation e.Hypertension

ANS: A, B, C, E A breech presentation is not a complication of pregnancy or birth for the client who is obese. Venous thromboembolism is a known risk for obese women. Therefore, the use of thromboembolism-deterrent (TED) hose and sequential compression devices may help decrease the chance for clot formation. Women should also be encouraged to ambulate as soon as possible. In addition to having an increased risk for complications with a cesarean birth, in general, obese women are also more likely to require an emergency cesarean birth. Many obese women have a pannus (i.e., large roll of abdominal fat) that overlies a lower transverse incision made just above the pubic area. The pannus causes the area to remain moist, which encourages the development of infection. Obese women are more likely to begin pregnancy with comorbidities such as hypertension and type 2 diabetes.

A number of methods can be used for inducing labor. Which cervical ripening method falls under the category of mechanical or physical? a.Prostaglandins are used to soften and thin the cervix. b.Labor can sometimes be induced with balloon catheters or laminaria tents. c.Oxytocin is less expensive and more effective than prostaglandins but creates greater health risks. d.Amniotomy can be used to make the cervix more favorable for labor.

ANS: B Balloon catheters or laminaria tents are mechanical means of ripening the cervix. Ripening the cervix, making it softer and thinner, increases the success rate of induced labor. Prostaglandin E1 is less expensive and more effective than oxytocin but carries a greater risk. Amniotomy is the artificial rupture of membranes, which is used to induce labor only when the cervix is already ripe.

The nurse who elects to work in the specialty of obstetric care must have the ability to distinguish between preterm birth, preterm labor, and low birth weight. Which statement regarding this terminology is correct? a.Terms preterm birth and low birth weight can be used interchangeably. b.Preterm labor is defined as cervical changes and uterine contractions occurring between 20 and 37 weeks of gestation. c.Low birth weight is a newborn who weighs below 3.7 pounds. d.Preterm birth rate in the United States continues to increase.

ANS: B Before 20 weeks of gestation, the fetus is not viable (miscarriage); after 37 weeks, the fetus can be considered term. Although these terms are used interchangeably, they have different meanings: preterm birth describes the length of gestation (before 37 weeks), regardless of the newborn's weight; low birth weight describes only the infant's weight at the time of birth (2500 g or less), whenever it occurs. Low birth weight is anything below 2500 g or approximately pounds. In 2011, the preterm birth rate in the United States was 11.7 %; it has dropped every year since 2008.

Prostaglandin gel has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. What is the primary purpose of prostaglandin administration? a.To enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta b.To increase amniotic fluid volume c.To ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction d.To stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture

ANS: C Preparations of prostaglandin E1 and E2 are effective when used before labor induction to ripen (i.e., soften and thin) the cervix. Uteroplacental perfusion is not altered by the use of prostaglandins. The insertion of prostaglandin gel has no effect on the level of amniotic fluid. In some cases, women will spontaneously begin laboring after the administration of prostaglandins, thereby eliminating the need for oxytocin. It is not common for a woman's membranes to rupture as a result of prostaglandin use.

In planning for home care of a woman with preterm labor, which concern should the nurse need to address? a.Nursing assessments are different from those performed in the hospital setting. b.Restricted activity and medications are necessary to prevent a recurrence of preterm labor. c.Prolonged bed rest may cause negative physiologic effects. d.Home health care providers are necessary

ANS: C Prolonged bed rest may cause adverse effects such as weight loss, loss of appetite, muscle wasting, weakness, bone demineralization, decreased cardiac output, risk for thrombophlebitis, alteration in bowel functions, sleep disturbance, and prolonged postpartum recovery. Nursing assessments differ somewhat from those performed in the acute care setting, but this concern does not need to be addressed. Restricted activity and medications may prevent preterm labor but not in all women. In addition, the plan of care is individualized to meet the needs of each client. Many women receive home health nurse visits, but care is individualized for each woman

A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every to 2 minutes and states that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman's labor? a.She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b.She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c.She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d.She is experiencing precipitous labor.

ANS: C The contraction pattern observed in this woman signifies hypertonic uterine activity. Typically, uterine activity in this phase occurs at 4- to 5-minute intervals lasting 30 to 45 seconds. Women who experience hypertonic uterine dysfunction, or primary dysfunctional labor, are often anxious first-time mothers who are having painful and frequent contractions that are ineffective at causing cervical dilation or effacement to progress. With hypotonic uterine dysfunction, the woman initially makes normal progress into the active stage of labor; then the contractions become weak and inefficient or stop altogether. Precipitous labor is one that lasts less than 3 hours from the onset of contractions until time of birth.

Which statement related to cephalopelvic disproportion (CPD) is the least accurate? a.CPD can be related to either fetal size or fetal position. b.The fetus cannot be born vaginally. c.CPD can be accurately predicted. d.Causes of CPD may have maternal or fetal origins.

ANS: C Unfortunately, accurately predicting CPD is not possible. Although CPD is often related to excessive fetal size (macrosomia), malposition of the fetal presenting part is the problem in many cases, not true CPD. When CPD is present, the fetus cannot fit through the maternal pelvis to be born vaginally. CPD may be related to either fetal origins such as macrosomia or malposition or maternal origins such as a too small or malformed pelvis.

A woman is having her first child. She has been in labor for 15 hours. A vaginal examination performed 2 hours earlier revealed the cervix to be dilated to 5 cm and 100% effaced, and the presenting part of the fetus was at station 0; however, another vaginal examination performed 5 minutes ago indicated no changes. What abnormal labor pattern is associated with this description? a.Prolonged latent phase b.Protracted active phase c.Secondary arrest d.Protracted descent

ANS: C With a secondary arrest of the active phase, the progress of labor has stopped. This client has not had any anticipated cervical change, indicating an arrest of labor. In the nulliparous woman, a prolonged latent phase typically lasts longer than 20 hours. A protracted active phase, the first or second stage of labor, is prolonged (slow dilation). With a protracted descent, the fetus fails to descend at an anticipated rate during the deceleration phase and second stage of labor.

A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. Which finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a.Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b.Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c.Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d.The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm.

ANS: D Cervical changes such as shortened endocervical length, effacement, and dilation are predictors of imminent preterm labor. Changes in the cervix accompanied by regular contractions indicate labor at any gestation. Estriol is a form of estrogen produced by the fetus that is present in plasma at 9 weeks of gestation. Levels of salivary estriol have been shown to increase before preterm birth. Irregular, mild contractions that do not cause cervical change are not considered a threat. The presence of fetal fibronectin in vaginal secretions between 24 and 36 weeks of gestation could predict preterm labor, but it has only a 20% to 40% positive predictive value. Of more importance are other physiologic clues of preterm labor such as cervical changes.

The nurse is performing an assessment on a client who thinks she may be experiencing preterm labor. Which information is the most important for the nurse to understand and share with the client? a.Because all women must be considered at risk for preterm labor and prediction is so variable, teaching pregnant women the symptoms of preterm labor probably causes more harm through false alarms. b.Braxton Hicks contractions often signal the onset of preterm labor. c.Because preterm labor is likely to be the start of an extended labor, a woman with symptoms can wait several hours before contacting the primary caregiver. d.Diagnosis of preterm labor is based on gestational age, uterine activity, and progressive cervical change.

ANS: D Gestational age of 20 to 37 weeks, uterine contractions, and a cervix that is 80% effaced or dilated 2 cm indicates preterm labor. It is essential that nurses teach women how to detect the early symptoms of preterm labor. Braxton Hicks contractions resemble preterm labor contractions, but they are not true labor. Waiting too long to see a health care provider could result in essential medications failing to be administered. Preterm labor is not necessarily long-term labor.

Which assessment is least likely to be associated with a breech presentation? a.Meconium-stained amniotic fluid b.Fetal heart tones heard at or above the maternal umbilicus c.Preterm labor and birth d.Postterm gestation

ANS: D Postterm gestation is not likely to occur with a breech presentation. The presence of meconium in a breech presentation may be a result of pressure on the fetal wall as it traverses the birth canal. Fetal heart tones heard at the level of the umbilical level of the mother are a typical finding in a breech presentation because the fetal back would be located in the upper abdominal area. Breech presentations often occur in preterm births.

The obstetric provider has informed the nurse that she will be performing an amniotomy on the client to induce labor. What is the nurse's highest priority intervention after the amniotomy is performed? a.Applying clean linens under the woman b.Taking the client's vital signs c.Performing a vaginal examination d.Assessing the fetal heart rate (FHR)

ANS: D The FHR is assessed before and immediately after the amniotomy to detect any changes that might indicate cord compression or prolapse. Providing comfort measures, such as clean linens, for the client is important but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The woman's temperature should be checked every 2 hours after the rupture of membranes but not the priority immediately after an amniotomy. The woman would have had a vaginal examination during the procedure. Unless cord prolapse is suspected, another vaginal examination is not warranted. Additionally, FHR assessment provides clinical cues to a prolapsed cord.