Chapter 37-40
Which of the following patients should be assigned an immediate (red tag) category? Select one: A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis B. 29-year-old female with a back injury and numbness and tingling in her extremities C. 31-year-old male with an open fracture of the forearm and minimal external bleeding D. 36-year-old female with an open brain injury, agonal breathing, and a slow pulse rate
A. 22-year-old male with blunt abdominal trauma, tachycardia, pallor, and diaphoresis
Which of the following is probably NOT a mass-casualty incident? Select one: A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances B. A loss of power to a hospital or nursing home with ventilator-dependent patients C. An apartment fire with one patient and the possibility of others trapped in the building D. A rollover crash of a school bus with eight children who have injuries of various severity
A. A motor vehicle crash with two critically injured patients and two ambulances
Which of the following agents blocks the body's ability to use oxygen and possesses an odor similar to almonds? Select one: A. Hydrogen cyanide B. Phosgene oxime C. Organophosphates D. Carbon monoxide
A. Hydrogen cyanide
A type _____ ambulance features a conventional, truck cab-chassis with a modular ambulance body that can be transferred to a newer chassis as needed. Select one: A. I B. II C. III D. IV
A. I
Which of the following items would MOST likely require special protocols in order to be carried on the ambulance? Select one: A. Pneumatic antishock garment B. Pediatric nonrebreathing masks C. Automated external defibrillator D. Devices for restraining a patient
A. Pneumatic antishock garment
Minimum staffing in the patient compartment of a basic life support (BLS) ambulance includes: Select one: A. at least one EMT. B. at least two EMTs. C. an EMT and a paramedic. D. an EMT and an AEMT
A. at least one EMT.
When a rehabilitation area is established at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, it should: Select one: A. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself. B. be mandated that responders participate in a defusing session. C. provide rehabilitative services to both responders and patients. D. be staffed by the treatment supervisor and at least one physician.
A. be in a location that prevents visualization of the scene itself.
The process of removing dirt, dust, blood, or other visible contaminants from a surface or equipment is called: Select one: A. cleaning. B. disinfection. C. sterilization. D. high-level disinfection.
A. cleaning.
The term used when individual units or different organizations make independent and often inefficient decisions regarding an incident is called: Select one: A. freelancing. B. undermining. C. logistical chaos. D. single command.
A. freelancing.
A hiker was injured when he fell approximately 20' from a cliff. When you arrive at the scene, a member of the technical rescue group escorts you to the patient, who is positioned on a steep incline. The MOST appropriate method of immobilizing and moving the patient to the ambulance is to: Select one: A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher. B. immobilize him to a long backboard and use the four-person carry to move him. C. apply a vest-style immobilization device and move him using a stair chair device. D. immobilize him with a short backboard and place him on the ambulance stretcher.
A. immobilize his spine with a long backboard and place him in a basket stretcher.
In contrast to simple access, complex access: Select one: A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle. B. is a skill commonly taught to AEMTs. C. does not involve the breaking of glass. D. often involves simply unlocking a door
A. involves forcible entry into a vehicle.
The scene size-up at a motor vehicle crash or other incident: Select one: A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated. B. should be performed by the most experienced AEMT. C. is a quick visual assessment of the scene prior to entry. D. determines who is allowed to safely enter the hot zone.
A. is an ongoing process until the incident is terminated.
When approaching a helicopter, whether the rotor blades are moving or not, you should: Select one: A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas. B. remember that the main rotor blade is flexible and can dip as low as 5′ to 6′ from the ground. C. carefully approach the aircraft from the rear unless a crew member instructs you to do otherwise. D. approach the aircraft from the side because this will make it easier for you to access the aircraft doors.
A. never duck under the body or the tail boom because the pilot cannot see you in these areas.
Unlike a mass-casualty incident, a natural disaster: Select one: A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days. B. exists when there are more than 100 critically injured patients. C. is typically short-lived and does not require as much manpower. D. usually does not require the ICS process.
A. often requires personnel to remain on scene for several days.
When transporting a patient who is secured to a backboard, it is important to: Select one: A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders. B. routinely elevate the head of the backboard 12". C. use at least eight straps to secure the patient to the board. D. place a folded towel or blanket under his or her head.
A. place deceleration straps over the patient's shoulders.
When working at the scene of a motor vehicle crash at night, you should NOT use: Select one: A. road flares. B. reflective vests. C. portable floodlights. D. intermittent flashing devices.
A. road flares.
All of the following are vesicant agents, EXCEPT: Select one: A. sarin. B. lewisite. C. sulfur mustard. D. phosgene oxime.
A. sarin.
The use of lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way. B. legally gives the emergency vehicle operator the right of way. C. allows other drivers to hear and see you from a great distance. D. is required any time a patient is being transported to the hospital.
A. signifies a request for other drivers to yield the right of way.
The primary route of exposure of vesicant agents is the: Select one: A. skin. B. nervous system. C. vascular system. D. respiratory tract.
A. skin.
A 52-year-old male presents with a fever of 102.5°F and a severe headache. As you assess him, you note the presence of multiple blisters on his face and chest, which are all identical in shape and size. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with: Select one: A. smallpox. B. sarin toxicity. C. yellow fever virus. D. cutaneous anthrax.
A. smallpox.
At present, the likelihood of a nuclear attack against the United States is very low because: Select one: A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb. B. the United States has an effective early warning system to detect an incoming nuclear missile. C. other than the United States, no other countries are currently in possession of nuclear weapons. D. all nuclear devices or weapons that different countries are in possession of are currently accounted for.
A. terrorist nations do not have the ability to deliver a nuclear weapon via missile or bomb.
Command functions under the ICS include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. triage officer. B. safety officer. C. liaison officer. D. public information officer
A. triage officer.
You are treating a patient who experienced a significant exposure to cyanide. He is semiconscious and is breathing inadequately. The MOST appropriate method of providing assisted ventilations to this patient is to: Select one: A. use a bag-mask device. B. perform mouth-to-mask ventilations. C. request a paramedic unit to intubate. D. perform mouth-to-mouth ventilations.
A. use a bag-mask device.
The chemical attacks that occurred in Tokyo between 1994 and 1995 were carried out by a/an: Select one: A. violent religious group. B. extremist political group. C. single-issue terrorist group. D. group of domestic terrorists.
A. violent religious group.
As soon as you leave the hospital and are en route back to your station, you should inform the dispatcher: Select one: A. whether you are back in service. B. that you are prepared for another call. C. of the name of the accepting physician. D. about the patient's clinical condition.
A. whether you are back in service.
You are triaging four patients who were involved in a head-on motor vehicle crash. Which of the following patients should be assigned the highest (red) triage category? Select one: A. A 50-year-old male with an open head injury and no pulse B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing C. A 36-year-old female with back pain and numb extremities D. A 29-year-old male with bilaterally closed femur deformities
B. A 49-year-old female with diabetes and difficulty breathing
Which of the following statements regarding a "dirty bomb" is correct? Select one: A. The effectiveness of a dirty bomb is solely dependent on the amount of alpha radiation that it emits. B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it. C. Dirty bombs contain significant amounts of radioactive material and are capable of being delivered via a missile. D. The dirty bomb, because of its ability to cause massive damage over a large geographic area, is an effective WMD.
B. Dirty bombs could injure victims with both radioactive material and the explosive material used to deliver it.
Which of the following statements regarding hazardous materials is correct? Select one: A. Most hazardous materials are odorless and colorless, even when a substantial leak or spill has occurred. B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical. C. Identifying the presence of a hazardous material is generally very easy because of the consistent use of placards. D. A package or truck need only contain small quantities of a hazardous chemical before it must bear a placard or label
B. Some substances are not hazardous by themselves, but become toxic when mixed with another chemical.
According to the START triage system, which of the following patients should be triaged as an immediate priority (red tag)? Select one: A. Conscious with a respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min B. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min C. Apneic, despite manually opening the airway D. Conscious, in severe pain, with radial pulses present
B. Unresponsive with a respiratory rate of 34 breaths/min
Equipment and supplies that are carried on an ambulance should be stored: Select one: A. as directed by the EMS system's medical director. B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use. C. based on recommendations of the health department. D. in locked or secured cabinets in order to prevent theft.
B. according to the urgency and frequency of their use.
You are assessing a 30-year-old female who presents with respiratory distress and tachycardia after she opened a package that was delivered to her home. The patient tells you that there was a fine white powder on the package, but she did not think it was important. This patient has MOST likely been exposed to: Select one: A. Ebola. B. anthrax. C. botulinum. D. a neurotoxin.
B. anthrax.
A disease vector is defined as: Select one: A. the spectrum of signs that define a disease. B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter. C. the period of time between exposure and illness. D. the ability of a virus or bacterium to be spread.
B. any agent that acts as a carrier or transporter.
A weapon of mass destruction (WMD) is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. a device or agent used to destroy a specific area or region within a given geographic location. B. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage. C. a nuclear or chemical weapon that can be launched from one country to another country. D. any device used for the express purpose of creating carnage in an effort to make a particular point.
B. any agent used to bring about mass death, casualties, or massive infrastructural damage.
You are attempting to gain access to a patient who was injured when his truck struck another vehicle from behind. The patient is conscious and alert, but is screaming in pain. You try to open the door, but it is locked. You should: Select one: A. break the window and unlock the door. B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door. C. request the rescue team to extricate him. D. use a pry bar to attempt to open the door.
B. ask the patient if he can unlock the door.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, if a pediatric patient has a respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min, you should: Select one: A. look for posturing. B. assess for a distal pulse. C. assess neurologic status. D. assign an immediate category.
B. assess for a distal pulse.
During a motor vehicle collision involving multiple patients, the IC would MOST likely: Select one: A. maintain responsibility for all of the command functions. B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions. C. delegate all of the command functions to the appropriate personnel. D. relinquish command when a senior EMS provider arrives at the scene.
B. designate a safety officer, but retain other command functions.
Injuries or conditions that would be classified as first priority (red tag; immediate) include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. severe medical problems. B. fractures of multiple long bones. C. any airway or breathing difficulty. D. uncontrolled or severe hemorrhage.
B. fractures of multiple long bones.
As the first arriving emergency responder at the scene of a suspected terrorist or WMD incident, you should request additional resources as needed and then: Select one: A. remain where you are until additional ambulances arrive at the scene. B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive. C. direct your partner to begin triaging patients as you call medical control. D. carefully inspect the area for the presence of secondary explosive devices.
B. function as the incident commander until additional personnel arrive.
If hydroplaning of the ambulance occurs, the driver should: Select one: A. slowly move the steering wheel back and forth. B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes. C. slowly pump the brakes until he or she regains vehicle control. D. quickly jerk the steering wheel.
B. gradually slow down without jamming on the brakes.
According to the Department of Homeland Security Advisory System, the color orange indicates a _______ risk of terrorist attacks. Select one: A. low B. high C. severe D. general
B. high
In order to accomplish the goal of primary triage, it is important to: Select one: A. take no more than 2 minutes to determine the patient's status. B. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic. C. begin life-saving care immediately upon detecting critical injuries. D. perform a rapid assessment on all patients who appear to be unstable.
B. keep the triage assessment brief and the patient categories basic.
As a triage supervisor, you: Select one: A. must prepare patients for transport before they leave the triage area. B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged. C. are responsible for providing initial treatment to all patients. D. should communicate with area hospitals regarding their capabilities.
B. must not begin treatment until all patients have been triaged.
Immediately upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call involving a traumatic injury, you should notify the dispatcher of your arrival and then: Select one: A. quickly gain access to the patient. B. observe the scene for safety hazards. C. determine if additional units are needed. D. carefully assess the mechanism of injury.
B. observe the scene for safety hazards.
A persistent or nonvolatile chemical agent can: Select one: A. evaporate quickly when left on a surface. B. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours. C. explode without warning and releases gases. D. remain in the environment for many weeks.
B. remain on a surface for more than 24 hours.
You and your partner are standing by at the scene of a residential fire when you hear the incident commander state "We have located a victim" over the radio. You should: Select one: A. notify the hospital that you will be transporting a burn patient to their facility. B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you. C. immediately locate the incident commander and ask where the victim is located. D. locate the victim and provide initial care while your partner stays with the ambulance.
B. remain with the ambulance and wait for fire personnel to bring the victim to you.
Early signs and symptoms of smallpox include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. body aches. B. skin blisters. C. high fever. D. headaches.
B. skin blisters.
It is 10:30 PM and you have requested air medical transport for a critically injured patient. When you arrive at the designated landing zone, you should: Select one: A. mark the proposed landing area with road flares. B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards. C. provide the flight crew with a patient status update. D. mark the landing site using personnel with flashlights.
B. survey the area for power lines or other hazards.
In preparing for a disaster, EMS systems should have enough supplies for at least a ______ period of self-sufficiency. Select one: A. 24-hour B. 48-hour C. 72-hour D. 96-hour
C. 72-hour
Which of the following questions is of LEAST pertinence when the AEMT is determining whether or not to declare a mass-casualty incident and activate the ICS? Select one: A. What will happen if there are more than two patients that require emergency care? B. How long will it take for additional resources to arrive at the scene once requested? C. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care? D. How many seriously injured patients can be effectively cared for in my ambulance?
C. How many paramedics are able to respond to the scene and provide advanced care?
A tour bus has overturned, resulting in numerous patients. When you arrive, you are immediately assigned to assist in the triage process. Patient 1 is a middle-aged male with respiratory distress, chest pain, and a closed deformity to his right forearm. Patient 2 is a young female who is conscious and alert, but has bilateral femur fractures and numerous abrasions to her arms and face. Patient 3 is an older woman who complains of abdominal pain and has a history of cardiovascular disease. Patient 4 is unresponsive, is not breathing, has a weak carotid pulse, and has a grossly deformed skull. What triage categories should you assign to these patients? Select one: A. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, minimal (green); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, expectant (black) B. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, immediate (red); Patient 3, delayed (yellow); Patient 4, immediate (red) C. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black) D. Patient 1, delayed (yellow); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, minimal (green); Patient 4, immediate (red)
C. Patient 1, immediate (red); Patient 2, delayed (yellow); Patient 3, immediate (red); Patient 4, expectant (black)
Which of the following terrorist groups poses the LEAST threat to a person's physical safety? Select one: A. Doomsday cults B. Single-issue groups C. Technology terrorists D. Extremist political groups
C. Technology terrorists
Which of the following chemicals requires identification with a placard, regardless of how many pounds the shipment weighs? Select one: A. Air-reactive solids B. Flammable liquids C. Water-reactive solids D. Nonflammable gases
C. Water-reactive solids
Common activities that occur while you and your partner are en route to the scene of an emergency call include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. assigning tasks to each member of the response team. B. obtaining additional information from the dispatcher. C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call. D. fastening your seatbelts before the ambulance departs.
C. apprising the medical director of the nature of the call.
When responding to or functioning at a tactical situation, you should: Select one: A. leave your emergency lights on in order to identify yourself as EMS. B. remain near the side of the ambulance, even if you are told otherwise. C. depart the scene only after the incident commander has verified that it is safe. D. transport any patients from the scene using the quickest route to the hospital.
C. depart the scene only after the incident commander has verified that it is safe.
Aggressive ambulance driving may have a negative effect on other motorists because: Select one: A. they may become enraged and attempt to run you off the road. B. they move to the right or drive as close to the curb as possible. C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle. D. they often freeze when they see the lights in the rearview mirror.
C. it may not allow for their reaction time to respond to your vehicle.
As you and your partner report for duty, you check your ambulance and begin talking about the possibility of a terrorist attack. The MOST effective and appropriate way to determine the likelihood of this happening is to: Select one: A. check with local businesses to see if they have received any terrorist threats. B. ask your immediate supervisor if he or she has been watching the local news. C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security. D. ascertain the current situation overseas with regard to the number of casualties.
C. know the current threat level issued by the Department of Homeland Security.
The type and severity of wounds sustained from incendiary and explosive devices primarily depend on the: Select one: A. type of material used to manufacture the device. B. pressure that is generated from the explosion itself. C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion. D. size of the structure that was involved in the explosion.
C. patient's distance from the epicenter of the explosion.
When arriving at the scene of an overturned tractor-trailer rig, you note that a green cloud is being emitted from the crashed vehicle. The driver is still in the truck; he is conscious but bleeding profusely from the head. After notifying the hazardous materials team, you should: Select one: A. park downhill from the scene. B. ask the driver to exit the vehicle. C. position the ambulance upwind. D. quickly gain access to the patient.
C. position the ambulance upwind.
When removing a critically injured patient from his or her vehicle, you should: Select one: A. remove him or her using a short backboard. B. move him or her in one fast, continuous step. C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process. D. release c-spine control to facilitate rapid removal.
C. protect the cervical spine during the entire process.
You have a critically injured patient in the back of your ambulance, ready to be transported. There are other injured patients at the scene and it will be approximately 10 minutes before other ambulances will arrive. Law enforcement personnel are at the scene. You should: Select one: A. transport the critically injured patient to a trauma center. B. direct a police officer to monitor the patients as you transport. C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives. D. assign the least injured patient the task of caring for the others.
C. remain at the scene until at least one other ambulance arrives.
When a helicopter is used during nighttime operations, you should avoid: Select one: A. directing light toward the ground at the landing site. B. using any lights, whether on the ground or in the air. C. shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter. D. placing flares within 25' of the aircraft after it has landed.
C. shining any flashlights or spotlights at the helicopter.
According to the JumpSTART triage system, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands, including children with special needs: Select one: A. are treated immediately in the primary triage area and then transported. B. are initially triaged on the basis of whether or not they have distal pulses. C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage. D. are the first to be transported, regardless of the severity of their injuries.
C. should be taken to the treatment area for immediate secondary triage.
When determining the exact location and position of the patient(s) in a wrecked vehicle, you and your team should routinely consider all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. the position of the crashed vehicle. B. hazards that pose a risk to rescuers. C. the make and model of the vehicle. D. the possibility of vehicle instability.
C. the make and model of the vehicle.
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a mass-casualty incident? Select one: A. An incident that involves more than five critically injured or ill patients B. An incident where patients have been exposed to hazardous materials C. An incident in which at least half of the patients are critically injured D. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
D. An incident that greatly taxes or depletes a system's available resources
Which of the following duties or responsibilities does NOT fall within the realm of the EMS branch of the ICS? Select one: A. Triage B. Transport C. Treatment D. Extrication
D. Extrication
Which of the following statements regarding communications at a disaster or mass-casualty incident is correct? Select one: A. Each command group should utilize a separate radio frequency. B. Ten-codes or signals should be used when communicating via radio. C. When possible, all communication should occur via two-way radio. D. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.
D. If possible, use face-to-face communications to minimize radio traffic.
Your work uniform is an example of what level of protection? Select one: A. Level A protection B. Level B protection C. Level C protection D. Level D protection
D. Level D protection
Which of the following statements regarding the rapid extrication technique is correct? Select one: A. The only indication for performing a rapid extrication is if the patient is not entrapped and is in cardiac arrest. B. Rapid extrication involves the use of heavy equipment to disentangle a patient from his or her crashed vehicle. C. It involves rapidly removing a patient from his or her vehicle after immobilizing him or her with a short backboard. D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.
D. The rapid extrication technique is indicated if the scene is unsafe and the patient is not entrapped in his or her vehicle.
Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? Select one: A. The unified command system is one in which one person is in charge, even if multiple agencies respond to a disaster or mass-casualty incident. B. Ideally, the unified command system is used for short-duration, limited incidents that require the services of a single agency from one jurisdiction. C. In a unified command system, there are separate ICs for fire, police, EMS, and any other agencies that respond to the incident. D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
D. Under the unified command system, plans are drawn up in advance by all cooperating agencies that assume a shared responsibility for decision making.
In general, medivac helicopters should be utilized when: Select one: A. ground transport would leave your service area without an ambulance for greater than 30 minutes. B. ground transport to the hospital exceeds 30 to 45 minutes, even if the patient's present condition is stable. C. a patient has been in cardiac arrest for more than 15 minutes and has not responded to CPR and defibrillation. D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care
D. a patient has a time-dependent injury or illness and traffic conditions would cause a significant delay in definitive care
Cross-contamination occurs when: Select one: A. an AEMT provides care to a victim after the victim has been decontaminated. B. two AEMTs are exposed to the same agent after being decontaminated. C. an AEMT has direct contact with a chemical agent at a terrorist incident. D. an AEMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
D. an AEMT is exposed to a victim who has not yet been decontaminated.
Your unit has been dispatched to stand by at the scene of a structure fire. There are no injuries of which you are aware. Upon arriving at the scene, you should: Select one: A. contact medical control and apprise him or her of the situation. B. park your ambulance behind the incident commander's vehicle. C. set up a staging area where fire fighters can be treated if necessary. D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged
D. ask the incident commander where the ambulance should be staged
Historically, the weak point at most major incidents has been: Select one: A. accountability. B. lack of personnel. C. incident briefing. D. communication.
D. communication.
Placards and labels on a storage container are intended to: Select one: A. advise responders of the appropriate neutralizing measures. B. broadly classify chemicals as being explosive or non-explosive. C. provide specific information about the chemical being carried. D. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
D. give a general idea of the hazard inside that particular container.
Delivering a patient to the hospital involves all of the following activities, EXCEPT: Select one: A. completing a detailed written report. B. informing the dispatcher of your arrival. C. restocking any disposable items you used. D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk
D. giving a verbal report to the triage clerk
Maintaining a cushion of safety when operating an ambulance means: Select one: A. remaining in the far right-hand lane when transporting a critical patient and refraining from passing other motorists on the left side. B. driving at the posted speed limit, regardless of the patient's condition, and routinely using your lights and siren when driving on a freeway. C. driving about 2 to 3 seconds behind any vehicles in front of you and exceeding the posted speed limit by no more than 20 to 25 mph. D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.
D. keeping a safe distance between your ambulance and the vehicles in front of you and remaining aware of vehicles potentially hiding in your mirror's blind spots.
General principles for approaching a potential HazMat incident include: Select one: A. parking the ambulance in a location that is upwind and downhill. B. taking standard precautions before entering any HazMat scene. C. asking for wind direction from dispatch and entering downwind. D. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.
D. maintaining a safe distance and viewing the scene with binoculars.
The reference used as a base for your initial actions at a HazMat incident is/are: Select one: A. the bill of lading. B. your local EMS protocols. C. the material safety data sheet (MSDS). D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.
D. the Emergency Response Guidebook.
The process performed to artificially maximize the target population's exposure to a biologic agent, thereby exposing the greatest number of people and achieving the desired effect, is called: Select one: A. potentiation. B. alkalinization. C. dissemination. D. weaponization.
D. weaponization.
A patient who has experienced a back injury, with or without spinal cord damage, should be triaged with a __________ tag during a mass-casualty incident. Select one: A. red B. green C. black D. yellow
D. yellow