Chapter 45: Management of Patients With Oral and Esophageal Disorders

A nurse is completing an assessment on a client with a postoperative neck dissection. The nurse notices excessive bleeding from the dressing site and suspects possible carotid artery rupture. What action should the nurse take first? Elevate the head of the patient's bed Apply pressure to the bleeding site Summon assistance Notify the surgeon to repair the vessel

Apply pressure to the bleeding site The first action for the nurse is to apply pressure to the bleeding site. The nurse will need to obtain assistance, elevate the head of the bed, and notify the surgeon, but client care is most important initially.

An elderly client seeks medical attention for a vague complaint of difficulty swallowing. Which of the following assessment findings is most significant as related to this symptom? Gastroesophageal reflux disease Gastritis Hiatal hernia Esophageal tumor

Esophageal tumor Esophageal tumor is most significant and can result in advancing cancer. Esophageal cancer is a serious condition that presents with a symptom of difficulty swallowing as the tumor grows. Hiatal hernia, gastritis, and GERD can lead to serious associated complications but less likely to be as significant as esophageal tumor/cancer.

A client is being evaluated for esophageal cancer. What initial manifestation of esophageal cancer should the nurse assess? Sensation of a mass in throat Foul breath Hiccups Increasing difficulty in swallowing

Increasing difficulty in swallowing The client first becomes aware of intermittent and increasing difficulty in swallowing with esophageal cancer. As the tumor grows and the obstruction becomes nearly complete, even liquids cannot pass into the stomach. Other clinical manifestations may include the sensation of a mass in the throat, foul breath, and hiccups, but these are not the most common initial clinical manifestation with clients with esophageal cancer.

A nurse caring for a client who has had radical neck surgery notices an abnormal amount of serosanguineous secretions in the wound suction unit during the first postoperative day. What is an expected, normal amount of drainage? Greater than 160 mL Approximately 80 to 120 mL Between 40 and 80 mL Between 120 and 160 mL

Approximately 80 to 120 mL Between 80 to 120 mL may drain over the first 24 hours. Drainage of greater than 120 mL may be indicative of a chyle fistula or hemorrhage.

The nurse is obtaining a history on a patient who comes to the clinic. What symptom described by the patient is one of the first symptoms associated with esophageal disease? Dysphagia Malnutrition Pain Regurgitation of food

Dysphagia Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), the most common symptom of esophageal disease, may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute odynophagia (pain on swallowing).

Which is an accurate statement regarding cancer of the esophagus? It is three times more common in women than men in the United States. It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. It is seen more frequently in Caucasian Americans than in African Americans. Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor.

Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times more often in men as in women. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasian Americans. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Postoperatively, a client with a radical neck dissection should be placed in which position? Prone Fowler Side-lying Supine

Fowler The client should be placed in the Fowler position to facilitate breathing and promote comfort. This position expands the lungs because the diaphragm is pulled downward and the abdominal viscera are pulled away from the lungs. The other positions are not the position of choice postoperatively.

A client has a new order for metoclopramide. What extrapyramidal side effect should the nurse assess for in the client? Anxiety or irritability Hyperactivity Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs Dry mouth not relieved by sugar-free hard candy

Uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that accelerates gastric emptying. Because metoclopramide can have extrapyramidal side effects that are increased in certain neuromuscular disorders, such as Parkinson's disease, it should be used only if no other option exists, and the client should be monitored closely for uncontrolled rhythmic movements of the face or limbs. Metoclopramide side effects are headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Anxiety, hyperactivity, and a dry mouth are not common side effects.

The nurse is creating a plan of care for a client who is not able to tolerate brushing his teeth. The nurse includes which mouth irrigation in the plan of care? Mouthwash and water Full-strength peroxide Dextrose and water Baking soda and water

Baking soda and water When a client is unable to tolerate teeth brushing, the following irrigating solutions are recommended: 1 tsp baking soda in 8 oz warm water, half-strength hydrogen peroxide, or normal saline solution.

Which term describes a reddened, circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis? Lichen planus Actinic cheilitis Chancre Leukoplakia

Chancre A chancre is a reddened circumscribed lesion that ulcerates and becomes crusted and is a primary lesion of syphilis. Lichen planus is a white papule at the intersection of a network of interlacing lesions. Actinic cheilitis is an irritation of the lips associated with a scaling, crusting fissure. Leukoplakias are white patches usually found in the buccal mucosa

Select the assessment finding that the nurse should immediately report, post radical neck dissection. Temperature of 99°F Pain Stridor Localized wound tenderness

Stridor Stridor is the presence of coarse, high-pitched sounds on inspiration. The nurse would auscultate frequently over the trachea. This finding must be immediately reported because it indicates airway obstruction.

A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge? The client doesn't exhibit rectal tenesmus. The client has normal gastric structures. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.

The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia. Dysphagia may be the reason why a client with esophagitis or achalasia seeks treatment. Therefore, when the client is free of esophagitis or achalasia, he is ready for discharge. Dysphagia isn't associated with rectal tenesmus, duodenal inflammation, or abnormal gastric structures.

A client with GERD develops esophagitis. Which diagnostic test would the nurse expect the physician to order to confirm the diagnosis? Stool testing for occult blood Barium swallow 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring Upper endoscopy with biopsy

Upper endoscopy with biopsy Upper endoscopy with biopsy confirms esophagitis. Barium-swallow would reveal inflammation or stricture formation from chronic esophagitis. Tests of stool may show positive findings of blood. Ambulatory 24-hour esophageal pH monitoring allows for observation of the frequency of reflux episodes and their associated symptoms.

Which of the following assessment findings would be most important for indicating dumping syndrome in a postgastrectomy client? Persistent loose stools, chills, hiccups after eating Abdominal distention, elevated temperature, weakness before eating Constipation, rectal bleeding following bowel movements Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating

Weakness, diaphoresis, diarrhea 90 minutes after eating Dumping syndrome produces weakness, dizziness, sweating, palpitations, abdominal cramping, and diarrhea from the rapid emptying of the chyme after eating. Elevated temperature and chills can be a significant finding for infection and should be reported. Constipation with rectal bleeding is not indicative of dumping syndrome.

The most common symptom of esophageal disease is nausea. vomiting. dysphagia. odynophagia.

dysphagia. Dysphagia may vary from an uncomfortable feeling that a bolus of food is caught in the upper esophagus to acute pain upon swallowing. Nausea is the most common symptom of gastrointestinal problems in general. Vomiting is a nonspecific symptom that may have a variety of causes. Odynophagia refers specifically to acute pain upon swallowing.

The nurse instructs the client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) regarding dietary measures. Which action by the client demonstrates that the client has understood the recommended dietary changes? Eliminating spicy foods. Avoiding chocolate and coffee. Eliminating cucumbers and other foods with seeds. Avoiding steamed foods.

Avoiding chocolate and coffee. Chocolate, tea, cola, and caffeine lower esophageal sphincter pressure, thereby increasing reflux. Clients do not need to eliminate spicy foods unless such foods bother them. Foods with seeds are restricted in diverticulosis. Steamed foods are encouraged to retain vitamins and decrease fat intake.

Which clinical manifestation is not associated with hemorrhage? Tachypnea Hypotension Bradycardia Tachycardia

Bradycardia Hemorrhage may occur from carotid artery rupture as a result of necrosis of the graft or damage to the artery itself from tumor or infection. Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension may indicate hemorrhage and impending hypovolemic shock.

Which is an accurate statement regarding cancer of the esophagus? It is three times more common in women than men in the United States . It usually occurs in the fourth decade of life. Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. It is seen more frequently in Caucasian Americans than in African America

Chronic irritation of the esophagus is a known risk factor. In the United States, cancer of the esophagus has been associated with the ingestion of alcohol and the use of tobacco. In the United States, carcinoma of the esophagus occurs more than three times more often in men as in women. It is seen more frequently in African Americans than in Caucasian Americans. It usually occurs in the fifth decade of life.

Which is the primary symptom of achalasia (absent or ineffective peristalsis (wavelike contraction) of the distal esophagus accompanied by failure of the esophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing)? Pulmonary symptoms Heartburn Difficulty swallowing Chest pain

Difficulty swallowing The primary symptom of achalasia is difficulty in swallowing both liquids and solids. The client may also report chest pain and heartburn that may or may not be associated with eating. Secondary pulmonary complications may result from aspiration of gastric contents.

An elderly client states, "I don't understand why I have so many caries in my teeth." What assessment made by the nurse places the client at risk for dental caries? Eating fruits and cheese in diet Drinking fluoridated water Using a soft-bristled toothbrush Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2

Exhibiting hemoglobin A1C 8.2 Measures used to prevent and control dental caries include controlling diabetes. A hemoglobin A1C of 8.2 is not controlled. It is recommended for hemoglobin A1C to be less than 7 for people with diabetes. Other measures to prevent and control dental caries include drinking fluoridated water; eating foods that are less cariogenic, which include fruits, vegetables, nuts, cheese, or plain yogurt; and brushing teeth evenly with a soft-bristled toothbrush.

For a client with salivary calculi, which procedure uses shock waves to disintegrate the stone? Biopsy Radiation Chemotherapy Lithotripsy

Lithotripsy Lithotripsy uses shock waves to disintegrate stones. It may be used instead of surgical extraction for parotid stones and smaller submandibular stones. Radiation, chemotherapy, and biopsy do not use shock waves to disintegrate a stone.

A client is postoperative following a graft reconstruction of the neck. What intervention is the most important for the nurse to complete with the client? Assess the graft for color and temperature. Administer prescribed intravenous vancomycin at the correct time. Cleanse around the drain using aseptic technique. Reinforce the neck dressing when blood is present on the dressing.

Assess the graft for color and temperature. Assessing the graft for color and temperature addresses circulation and is most important for the nurse to complete. Reinforcing the neck dressing is important, but not the priority. Administering medication and cleansing the drain site are not most important interventions with the client after graft reconstruction of the neck.

Which term is used to describe stone formation in a salivary gland, usually the submandibular gland? Parotitis Sialolithiasis Stomatitis Sialadenitis

Sialolithiasis Salivary stones are formed mainly from calcium phosphate. Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland. Sialadenitis refers to inflammation of the salivary glands. Stomatitis refers to inflammation of the oral mucosa.

An older client is diagnosed with parotitis. What bacterial infection does the nurse suspect caused the client's parotitis? Streptococcus viridans Staphylococcus aureus Pneumococcus Pseudomonas

Staphylococcus aureus The elderly and debilitated clients experience decreased salivary flow from general dehydration or medications. The bacterial infection is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The infecting organism travels from the mouth through the salivary gland.

A nurse enters the room of a client who has returned to the unit after having a radical neck dissection. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing Foley catheter bag containing 500 ml of amber urine A piggyback infusion of levofloxacin The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat

The client lying in a lateral position, with the head of bed flat A client who has had neck surgery is at risk for neck swelling. To prevent respiratory complications, the head of the bed should be at least at a 30-degree angle. This position gives the lungs room to expand and decreases swelling by promoting venous and lymphatic drainage. This position also minimizes the risk of aspiration. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing, a Foley bag containing amber urine, and levofloxacin infusing aren't causes for concern.

The nurse is conducting a health instruction program on oral cancer. The nurse determines that the participants understand the instructions when they state "A typical lesion is soft and craterlike." "Most oral cancers are painful at the outset." "Many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages." "Blood testing is used to diagnose oral cancer."

"Many oral cancers produce no symptoms in the early stages." The most frequent symptom of oral cancer is a painless sore that does not heal. The client may complain of tenderness and difficulty chewing, swallowing, or speaking as the cancer progresses. Biopsy is used to diagnose oral cancer. A typical lesion in oral cancer is a painless, hardened ulcer with raised edges.

When assessing a client during a routine checkup, the nurse reviews the history and notes that the client had aphthous stomatitis at the time of the last visit. How is aphthous stomatitis best described by the nurse? A canker sore of the oral soft tissues An acute stomach infection Acid indigestion An early sign of peptic ulcer disease

A canker sore of the oral soft tissues Aphthous stomatitis refers to a canker sore of the oral soft tissues, including the lips, tongue, and inside of the cheeks. Aphthous stomatitis isn't an acute stomach infection, acid indigestion, or early sign of peptic ulcer disease.

A client in the emergency department reports that a piece of meat became stuck in the throat while eating. The nurse notes the client is anxious with respirations at 30 breaths/min, frequent swallowing, and little saliva in the mouth. An esophagogastroscopy with removal of foreign body is scheduled for today. What would be the first activity performed by the nurse? Assess lung sounds bilaterally. Obtain consent for the esophagogastroscopy. Suction the oral cavity of the client. Administer prescribed morphine intravenously.

Assess lung sounds bilaterally. All these activities are things the nurse may do for a client with a foreign body in the esophagus. This client is at risk for esophageal perforation, and thus pneumothorax. By auscultating lung sounds the nurse will be able to assess if a pneumothorax is present. The client has little saliva in the oral cavity and does not need to be suctioned. A client may also report pain with a foreign body. However, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) take priority. The consent for the esophagogastroscopy may be obtained after the nurse has completed the client assessment.

A patient describes a burning sensation in the esophagus, pain when swallowing, and frequent indigestion. What does the nurse suspect that these clinical manifestations indicate? Peptic ulcer disease Esophageal cancer Gastroesophageal reflux disease Diverticulitis

Gastroesophageal reflux disease Symptoms may include pyrosis (burning sensation in the esophagus), dyspepsia (indigestion), regurgitation, dysphagia or odynophagia (pain on swallowing), hypersalivation, and esophagitis.

A client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) comes to the clinic and is experiencing white patches on the lateral border of the tongue. What type of lesions does the nurse document? Aphthous stomatitis Nicotine stomatitis Erythroplakia Hairy leukoplakia

Hairy leukoplakia Hairy leukoplakia is a condition often seen in people who are HIV positive in which white patches with rough, hairlike projections form, typically on lateral border of the tongue. Aphthous stomatitis is typically a recurrent round or oval sore or ulcer on the inside of the lips and cheeks or underneath the tongue and is not associated with HIV. Erythroplakia describes a red area or red spots on the lining of the mouth and is not associated with HIV. Nicotine stomatitis is a white patch in the mouth caused by extreme heat from smoking.

A group of students is reviewing information about oral cancers in preparation for an examination. The students demonstrate a need for additional review when they identify which of the following as a risk factor? History of GERD Pipe smoking Excess alcohol use Prolonged exposure to sun

History of GERD Development of oral cancers is linked with smoking, chewing tobacco, and drinking alcohol in excess. Lip cancer is associated with pipe smoking and prolonged exposure to wind and sun. A history of GERD is associated with the development of esophageal cancer.

A client has a radical neck dissection to treat cancer of the neck. The nurse develops the care plan and includes all the following diagnoses. The nurse identifies the highest priority diagnosis as Impaired tissue integrity related to surgical intervention Risk for infection related to surgical intervention Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to treatment Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus

Ineffective airway clearance related to obstruction by mucus All the nursing diagnoses are appropriate for a client who has a radical neck dissection. According to Maslow's hierarchy of needs, physiological needs take priority. Under physiological needs, airway, breathing, circulation (ABCs) take highest priority. Thus, ineffective airway clearance is the highest priority nursing diagnosis.

A client has a cheesy white plaque in the mouth. The plaque looks like milk curds and can be rubbed off. What is the nurse's best intervention? Provide saline rinses prior to meals. Instruct the client to swish prescribed nystatin solution for 1 minute. Remove the plaque from the mouth by rubbing with gauze. Encourage the client to ingest a soft or bland diet.

Instruct the client to swish prescribed nystatin solution for 1 minute. A cheesy white plaque in the mouth that looks like milk curds and can be rubbed off is candidiasis. The most effective treatment is antifungal medication such as nystatin (Mycostatin). When used as a suspension, the client is to swish vigorously for at least 1 minute and then swallow. Other measures such as providing saline rinses or ingesting a soft or bland diet are comfort measures. The nurse does not remove the plaques; doing so will cause erythema and potential bleeding.

A client who reports increasing difficulty swallowing, weight loss, and fatigue is diagnosed with esophageal cancer. Because this client has difficulty swallowing, what should the nurse assign highest priority to? Helping the client cope with body image changes Preventing injury Maintaining a patent airway Ensuring adequate nutrition

Maintaining a patent airway Rapid growth of cancer cells in the esophagus may put pressure on the adjacent trachea, jeopardizing the airway. Therefore, maintaining a patent airway is the highest care priority for a client with esophageal cancer. Helping the client cope with body image changes, ensuring adequate nutrition, and preventing injury are appropriate for a client with this disease, but are less crucial than maintaining airway patency.

The nurse working in the recovery room is caring for a client who had a radical neck dissection. The nurse notices that the client makes a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration. Which intervention by the nurse is appropriate? Document the presence of stridor Lower the head of the bed Notify the physician Administer a breathing treatment

Notify the physician The presence of stridor, a coarse, high-pitched sound upon inspiration, in the immediate postoperative period following radical neck dissection, indicates obstruction of the airway, and the nurse must report it immediately to the physician.

A client has been taking a 10-day course of antibiotics for pneumonia. The client has been having white patches that look like milk curds in the mouth. What treatment will the nurse educate the client about? Cephalexin Nystatin Acyclovir Fluocinolone acetonide oral base gel

Nystatin Candidiasis is a fungal infection that results in a cheesy white plaque in the mouth that looks like milk curds. It commonly occurs in antibiotic therapy. Antifungal medications such as nystatin (Mycostatin), amphotericin B, clotrimazole, or ketoconazole may be prescribed.

The client has returned to the floor following a radical neck dissection. Anesthesia has worn off. What is the nurse's priority action? Administer morphine for report of pain. Provide feeding through the gastrostomy tube. Empty the Jackson-Pratt device (portable drainage device). Place the client in the Fowler's position.

Place the client in the Fowler's position. All the options are activities the nurse may do; however, the nurse has to prioritize according to Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Physiological needs are addressed first. Under physiological needs, ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) take priority. Placing the client in the Fowler's position facilitates breathing and promotes comfort.

A patient has been diagnosed with a hiatal hernia. The nurse explains the diagnosis to the patient and his family by telling them that a hernia is a (an): Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. Twisting of the duodenum through an opening in the diaphragm. Involution of the esophagus, which causes a severe stricture. Extension of the esophagus through an opening in the diaphragm.

Protrusion of the upper stomach into the lower portion of the thorax. It is important for the patient and his family to understand the altered association between the esophagus and the stomach. The diaphragm opening, through which the esophagus passes, becomes enlarged and part of the upper stomach moves up into the lower portion of the thorax. The abnormality is not an involuntary, protruding, or twisted segment.

A 59-year-old woman with a recent history of heartburn, regurgitation, and occasional dysphagia has been diagnosed with a sliding hiatal hernia following an upper GI series. The nurse is providing patient education about the management of this health problem. What should the nurse suggest as a management strategy to this patient? Minimizing her intake of highly spiced foods and dairy products Drinking one to two glasses of water before and after each meal Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Abstaining from alcohol

Remaining upright for at least 1 hour following each meal Management for a sliding hernia includes frequent, small feedings that can pass easily through the esophagus. The patient is advised not to recline for 1 hour after eating, to prevent reflux or movement of the hernia, and to elevate the head of the bed on 4- to 8-inch (10- to 20-cm) blocks to prevent the hernia from sliding upward. Fluid intake is encouraged, but this should be ingested throughout a meal, not just before and after the meal. It is not necessary to refrain from drinking alcohol, spicy foods, or dairy products.

Which term describes an inflammation of the salivary glands? Pyosis Parotitis Stomatitis Sialadenitis

Sialadenitis Sialadenitis is inflammation of the salivary glands. Parotitis is inflammation of the parotid glands. Stomatitis is inflammation of the oral mucosa. Pyosis is pus.