Chapter 6: FAA Regulations

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with - .008 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. - .04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood. - .004 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace? - 1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling. - 1 mile flight visibility. - 3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.

1 mile flight visibility.

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? - 1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds. - 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds. - 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is - 1,000 feet. - 2,000 feet. - 1 mile.

1 mile.

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is - 5 miles. - 1 mile. - 3 miles.

1 mile.

To operate during the day in Class G airspace you need: - 1 statute mile, clear of clouds. - 0 statute miles, clear of clouds. - 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds.

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

What are the basic VFR weather minima required to takeoff from the Onawa, IA (K36) airport during the day? - 3 statute miles, clear of clouds. - 3 statute miles visibility, 500 feet below the clouds, 1,000 feet above the clouds, and 2,000 feet horizontally from the clouds. - 1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

1 statute mile, clear of clouds.

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least - 2,500 feet and 3 miles. - 1,000 feet and 1 mile. - 1,000 feet and 3 miles.

1,000 feet and 3 miles.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is - 1,500 feet. - 1,000 feet. - 500 feet.

1,000 feet.

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are - 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility. - clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility. - 1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.

Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include that Class E airspace extending upward from - the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL. - 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL. - 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight? - 2,000 feet AGL. - 1,000 feet AGL. - 1,500 feet AGL.

1,500 feet AGL.

The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days? - 7. - 5. - 10.

10.

A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of - 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. - 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider. - 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - 1359.6 hours. - 1349.6 hours. - 1369.6 hours.

1359.6 hours.

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance? - 14 CFR Part 61.113. - 14 CFR Part 91.403. - 14 CFR Part 43.7.

14 CFR Part 43.7.

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of - 12,500 feet MSL. - 14,000 feet MSL. - 15,000 feet MSL.

15,000 feet MSL.

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92, when climbing to cruising flight level? - 18,000 feet MSL. - 14,500 feet MSL. - 24,000 feet MSL.

18,000 feet MSL.

A chair-type parachute must have been packed by a certificated and appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding - 90 days. - 60 days. - 180 days.

180 days.

If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is - 1829. - 1859. - 1929.

1929.

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is - 1,000 feet. - 2,000 feet. - 1,500 feet.

2,000 feet.

Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service? 1. Student or Recreational pilot. 2. Private or Commercial pilot. 3. None of the above. - Neither 1 or 2. - 1. - 2.

2.

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is - 200 knots. - 230 knots. - 250 knots.

200 knots.

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is - 230 knots. - 200 knots. - 250 knots.

200 knots.

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - 180 knots. - 250 knots. - 200 knots.

200 knots.

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is - 230 knots. - 250 knots. - 200 knots.

200 knots.

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding - 24 calendar months. - 6 calendar months. - 12 calendar months.

24 calendar months.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a flight review or completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding - 12 calendar months. - 6 calendar months. - 24 calendar months.

24 calendar months.

To maintain BasicMed privileges, you must complete a BasicMed medical education course within the preceding: - 48 calendar months. - 24 calendar months. - 12 calendar months.

24 calendar months.

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL? - 288 knots. - 250 knots. - 200 knots.

250 knots.

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of - 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes. - 5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace. - 3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is - 5 miles. - 1 mile. - 3 miles.

3 miles.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when the flight visibility is less than - 7 miles. - 5 miles. - 3 miles.

3 miles.

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? - 4 miles. - 3 miles. - 1 mile.

3 miles.

If a certificated pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only - 90 days after the date of the move. - 30 days after the date of the move. - 60 days after the date of the move.

30 days after the date of the move.

A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due? - 3402.5 hours. - 3312.5 hours. - 3395.5 hours.

3402.5 hours.

The width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline is - 8 nautical miles. - 6 nautical miles. - 4 nautical miles.

4 nautical miles.

Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course of 185°? - 4,000 feet. - 5,000 feet. - 4,500 feet.

4,500 feet.

While operating under BasicMed, the pilot in command must have visited their primary care physician within the preceding: - 24 calendar months. - 48 calendar months. - 12 calendar months.

48 calendar months.

What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a 'serious injury'? - 72 hours; commencing within 10 days after date of the injury. - 10 days, with no other extenuating circumstances. - 48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is - 1 mile. - 3 miles. - 5 miles.

5 miles.

Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a Victor Airway with a magnetic course of 175°? The terrain is less than 1,000 feet. - 4,500 feet. - 5,500 feet. - 5,000 feet.

5,500 feet.

You have completed your BasicMed requirements and plan on flying your friends to a football game. What is the maximum amount of passengers you can bring along? - One. - 5. - 4.

5.

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight at night is - 1,000 feet. - 1,500 feet. -500 feet.

500 feet.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure? - 1,000 feet. - 500 feet. - 700 feet.

500 feet.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number? - 70. - 90. - 60.

60.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airspace are issued under which subject number? - 90. - 70. - 60.

70.

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding - 24 hours. - 8 hours. - 12 hours.

8 hours.

A friend wants to ride along on a flight with you. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding - 90 days. - 30 days. - 60 days.

90 days.

To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding - 24 calendar months. - 90 days. - 12 calendar months.

90 days.

FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number? - 60. - 90. - 70.

90.

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? - Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds. - Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator. - Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights.

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft? - Aircraft operated under an authorization issued by the Administrator. - Aircraft involved in ferry flights, training flights, or test flights. - Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.

The aircraft that always has right-of-way is the: -Aircraft in distress. -Glider. -Balloon.

Aircraft in distress.

Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive? - Aircraft maintenance records. - Airworthiness and Registration Certificates. - Airworthiness Certificate and Pilot's Operating Handbook.

Aircraft maintenance records.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? - Airship. - Aircraft towing other aircraft. - Gyroplane.

Aircraft towing other aircraft.

As used with respect to the certification, ratings, privileges, and limitations of airmen, examples of a "category" of aircraft would be: - Cessna 150 or F16. - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air. - Single-engine or multiengine.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and lighter-than-air.

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft? - Transport, restricted, provisional. - Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited. - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft? - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. - Gyroplane, helicopter, airship, free balloon. - Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air.

When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower in Class G airspace each pilot must make: - All turns to the right. - All turns to the left. - A straight-in approach.

All turns to the left.

If a pilot wishes to fly in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC), he or she must possess: - A Private Pilot Certificate. - A Commercial Pilot Certificate. - An Instrument Rating or an Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificate.

An Instrument Rating or an Airline Transport Pilot (ATP) certificate.

What is the definition of a high-performance airplane? - An airplane with a normal cruise speed in excess of 200 knots. - An airplane with 180 horsepower, or retractable landing gear, flaps, and a fixed-pitch propeller. - An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere? -An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. -An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area? - An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. - An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. - An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft? - A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience. - An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. - Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.

An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.

Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - An in-flight fire. - An in-flight loss of VOR receiver capability. - An in-flight generator/alternator failure.

An in-flight fire.

Which incident requires an immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office? - An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident. - An in-flight generator or alternator failure. - An in-flight radio communications failure.

An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.

Advisory Circulars (ACs) are issued to inform the public of nonregulatory material: - And self-cancel after 1 year. - But are binding. - And are not binding.

And are not binding.

What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction? - Annual condition and 50-hour inspections. - Annual condition and 100-hour inspections. - Biannual condition and 100-hour inspections.

Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.

When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft? - Only when passengers are carried. - Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember. - When acting as a crew chief during launch and recovery.You must notify the NTSB immediately if the following occurs. Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000. Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. In-flight fire.

Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate? - Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate. - In the current, FAA-approved flight manual. - In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.

If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required? - August 8, 2 years later. - August 31, next year. - August 31, 2 years later.

August 31, 2 years later.

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight? - Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight. - Check the aircraft logbooks for appropriate entries. - Review wake turbulence avoidance procedures.

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

An airplane and a glider are on a head-on collision course. What should each pilot do? - Both pilots should give way to the right. - The airplane pilot should give way to the left. - The glider pilot should give way to the right.

Both pilots should give way to the right.

A pilot with a private pilot certificate: - Can carry passengers for compensation. - Cannot carry passengers or property for compensation or hire. - Can fly as second in command in an airplane carrying paying passengers that requires two pilots.

Cannot carry passengers or property for compensation or hire.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? - Class A. - Class C. - Class B.

Class A.

In which type of airspace are VFR flights prohibited? - Class C. - Class B. - Class A.

Class A.

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in - Class D airspace. - Class E airspace below 10,000 feet MSL. - Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport.

Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which class airspace? - Class G. - Class E. - Class C.

Class C.

In which class of airspace is aerobatic flight prohibited? - Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL. - Class G airspace above 1,500 feet AGL. - Class E airspace not designated for Federal Airways above 1,500 feet AGL.

Class E airspace below 1,500 feet AGL.

An example of a "type" of aircraft would be: -DC-7, Cessna 172, and F-16. - Transport, Normal, and Utility. -Airplane, Glider, and Rotorcraft.

DC-7, Cessna 172, and F-16.

You must turn on your anti-collision lights: - At night or in inclement weather. - Day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they constitute a hazard to safety. - At night when the visibility is less than three miles and flying in Class B airspace.

Day and night, except when the pilot-in-command determines that they constitute a hazard to safety.

If a person is convicted of flying an airplane while intoxicated, he or she might expect: - To write a report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 day after the conviction. - To write a notification of the conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute. - Denial of an application for an FAA certificate or rating.

Denial of an application for an FAA certificate or rating.

When may an 121.5 MHz emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be tested? - At 15 and 45 minutes past the hour. - Anytime. - During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

During the first 5 minutes after the hour.

To fly in formation: - Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight. - You may operate in Class D airspace under special VFR. - You may fly over a densely populated area above 500 feet AGL.

Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight.

To fly in formation: - You may fly over a densely populated area above 500 feet AGL. - Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight. - You may operate in Class D airspace under special VFR.

Each PIC must have conferred with the other pilots as to what they would do in flight.

In order to be eligible for BasicMed privileges, the pilot in command must: - Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after April 1, 2016. - Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after July 14, 2006. - Have a written statement of good health by a primary-care physician in the preceding 60 calendar months.

Either hold or have held a valid medical certificate after July 14, 2006.

Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi? - Steady green. - Flashing green. - Flashing white.

Flashing green.

Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office? - Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing. - A forced landing due to engine failure. - Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Flight control system malfunction or failure.

Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft? - Flight over a densely populated area. - Flight within Class D airspace. - Flight under instrument flight rules.

Flight over a densely populated area.

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? - Airship. - Glider. - Aircraft refueling other aircraft.

Glider.

What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight? - If the passengers pay all the operating expenses. - There is no exception. - If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft? - If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface. - Only in an emergency. - If prior permission is received from the Federal Aviation Administration.

If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? - Only if the person does not have access to the cockpit or pilot's compartment. - In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. - Under no condition.

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance? - If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions. - In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory. - When operating in Class A airspace at night.

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

NTSB Part 830 states that an aircraft operator must immediately notify them: - Of any aircraft incident. - If the aircraft is later to its destination than one hour of its projected arrival time. - In the case of an aircraft accident.

In the case of an aircraft accident.

Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found? - In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof. - On the Airworthiness Certificate. - In the aircraft airframe and engine logbooks.

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

You must notify the NTSB immediately if the following occurs. - Fire of the primary aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage to other property of more than $25,000. - Ground fire resulting in fire equipment dispatch. - In-flight fire.

In-flight fire.

For private pilot operations, a Second-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 42-year-old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on - July 31, 1 year later. - July 15, 2 years later. - July 31, 2 years later.

July 31, 2 years later.

An aircraft's annual inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than - July 31, next year. - July 1, next year. - July 13, next year.

July 31, next year.

For a student pilot solo flight, he or she must have the following on board: - Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA. - Logbook with instructor endorsement and student pilot certificate only. - Student pilot certificate and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA only.

Logbook with instructor endorsement, photo ID, student pilot certificate, and current medical certificate or other medical documentation acceptable to the FAA.

A Third-Class Medical Certificate is issued to a 51-year-old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a Private Pilot Certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on - May 3, 1 year later. - May 31, 1 year later. - May 31, 2 years later.

May 31, 2 years later.

While operating under BasicMed as pilot in command, the aircraft: - Must be limited to 12 seats and not certified for more than 12,500 lbs. - Must be limited to 6 seats and not certified for more than 6,000 lbs. - Must be limited to 5 seats and not certified for more than 6,000 lbs.

Must be limited to 6 seats and not certified for more than 6,000 lbs.

On landing, your tire blows and the wheel is dented. What action is required to comply with NTSB Part 830? - A report must be filed with the nearest FAA field office within 7 days. - No notification or report is required. - An immediate notification must be filed by the operator of the aircraft with the nearest NTSB field office.

No notification or report is required.

You are planning to go on a trip with friends to Canada. You're the pilot in command and you're operating under BasicMed. Can you go? - Yes, as long as you apply for a waiver with Transport Canada. - Yes, BasicMed is recognized as the equivalent of a third-class medical certificate in Canada. - No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States and the Bahamas.

No, BasicMed is only valid in the United States and the Bahamas.

With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft? - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider. - Landplane, seaplane. - Normal, utility, acrobatic.

Normal, utility, acrobatic.

For private pilot operations, a First-Class Medical Certificate issued to a 23-year-old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on - October 31, next year. - October 21, 2 years later. - October 31, 5 years later.

October 31, 5 years later.

In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight? - Operating limitations and Registration Certificate. - Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms. - Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's manual.

Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.

Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives (AD's) are complied with? - Mechanic with inspection authorization (IA). - Owner or operator. - Repair station.

Owner or operator.

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when? - Each person on board the aircraft during the entire flight. - Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only. - Pilots only, during takeoffs and landings.

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? - Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements. - Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating. - Commercial Pilot Certificate.

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened? - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. - Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route. - Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than - September 30, 2015. - September 1, 2016. - September 30, 2016.

September 30, 2016.

Which operation would be described as preventive maintenance? - Alteration of main seat support brackets. - Engine adjustments to allow automotive gas to be used. - Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.

Servicing landing gear wheel bearings.

With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft? - Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air. - Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea. - Lighter-than-air, airship, hot air balloon, gas balloon.

Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft? - Sunset to sunrise. - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. - End of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.

Sunset to sunrise.

A pilot convicted of the manufacture or distribution of drugs might expect: - To file a notification of this conviction to the FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction. - Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization. - To file a written report with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) not later than 60 days after the conviction.

Suspension or revocation of any certificate, rating, or authorization.

The underlying principle of the right-of-way rules is to ensure: - That each person operating an aircraft will see and avoid other aircraft. - All aircraft are treated in the same manner. - Airplanes operating on an airport surface have right-of-way over other vehicles.

That each person operating an aircraft will see and avoid other aircraft.

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right-of-way? - The airplane. - The airship. - Each pilot should alter course to the right.

The airship.

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter? - Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. - The elevation of the departure area. - The elevation of the nearest airport corrected to mean sea level.

The elevation of the departure area.

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts? - The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight. - The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts. - The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight? - A certificated aircraft mechanic. - The pilot in command. - The owner or operator.

The pilot in command.

What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night? - The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped. - The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace. - The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.

The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.

Who is responsible for briefing passengers regarding the use of seat belts? - The right-seat pilot. - The pilot-in-command. - Each passenger.

The pilot-in-command.

Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required? - A full, detailed description of the work done must be entered in the airframe logbook. - The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records. - The date the work was completed, and the name of the person who did the work must be entered in the airframe and engine logbook.

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.

What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's)? - They are mandatory. - For Informational purposes only. - They are voluntary.

They are mandatory.

What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace? - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver. - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. - Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace? - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and DME. - Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter. - Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.

Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.

Which V-speed represents maneuvering speed? - VA. - VLO. - VNE.

VA.

Which V-speed represents maximum landing gear extended speed? - VLO. - VFE. - VLE.

VLE.

Maximum structural cruising speed is abbreviated as: - VNO - VNE - VS0

VNO

Which would provide the greatest gain in altitude in the shortest distance during climb after takeoff? - VA. - VY. - VX.

VX.

After takeoff, which airspeed would the pilot use to gain the most altitude in a given period of time? - VA - VX - VY

VY

When are non-rechargeable batteries of an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) required to be replaced? - At the time of each 100-hour or annual inspection. - Every 24 months. - When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

When 50 percent of their useful life expires.

With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute? - When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more. - When a door is removed from the aircraft to facilitate parachute jumpers. - When intentionally banking in excess of 30°.

When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30° or more.

When must batteries in an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) be replaced or recharged, if rechargeable? - After any inadvertent activation of the ELT. - When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour. - When the ELT can no longer be heard over the airplane's communication radio receiver.

When the ELT has been in use for more than 1 cumulative hour.

You must notify the NTSB if there has been substantial damage: - To an engine caused by engine failure in flight. - Which requires repairs to landing gear. - Which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.

Which adversely affects structural strength or flight characteristics.

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance? - Immediately. - Within 48 hours if requested by ATC. - Within 7 days.

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

The plane you are flying is capable of cruising at 28,000 ft and going 330 knots. You are pilot in command operating under BasicMed, and part 91. Is this flight legal? - No, the airplane must be certified at or below 18,000' max altitude and 250 knots or less. - Yes, as long as you receive a permit from the nearest FSDO. - Yes, as long as you do not exceed 18,000' and 250 knots.

Yes, as long as you do not exceed 18,000' and 250 knots.

May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody? - Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. - Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage. - No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.

Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.

May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive (AD)? - Yes, AD's are only voluntary. - Yes, under VFR conditions only. - Yes, if allowed by the AD.

Yes, if allowed by the AD.

Which restriction applies to private pilots flying without a current medical certificate under the guidance of BasicMed? - You may not fly over large bodies of water unless you remain within gliding distance of land at all times. - You may not operate an airplane for compensation or hire. - You cannot fly an airplane that is configured to carry more than 4 passengers.

You may not operate an airplane for compensation or hire.

Each recreational or private pilot is required to have - a biennial flight review. - an annual flight review. - a semiannual flight review.

a biennial flight review.

To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the - Airworthiness Certificate. - Registration Certificate. - aircraft maintenance records.

aircraft maintenance records.

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include - an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned. - the designation of an alternate airport. - a study of arrival procedures at airports/ heliports of intended use.

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by - an inspection sticker placed on the instrument panel that lists the annual inspection completion date. - an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records. - the relicensing date on the Registration Certificate.

an appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance, unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is - if the clearance contains a restriction. - an emergency. - when the clearance states 'at pilot's discretion.'

an emergency.

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with - an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability. - an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver. - instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code

Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs - at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions. - at all tower controlled airports only when weather conditions are less than VFR. - at all tower controlled airports within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions.

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is - at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds. - less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet. - at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft - that has the other to its right. - that is the least maneuverable. - at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.

An ATC clearance provides - priority over all other traffic. - authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. - adequate separation from all traffic.

authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a non-towered airport? - Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. - Make all turns to the left. - Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.

comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to - review traffic control light signal procedures. - determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data. - check the accuracy of the navigation equipment and the emergency locator transmitter (ELT).

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may - not deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 unless prior to the deviation approval is granted by the Administrator. - deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet the emergency, but must submit a written report to the Administrator within 24 hours. - deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should - abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing. - discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land. - exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe for landing.

An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to - exercise extreme caution. - hold position. - not land; the airport is unsafe.

exercise extreme caution.

The pilot in command is responsible for ensuring that each person on board applicable U. S. registered aircraft is briefed and instructed on how and when to - adjust their seat. - fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness. - operate the fire extinguisher.

fasten and unfasten their seat belt and shoulder harness.

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the - flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile. - ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles. - ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.

ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.

If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified - within 7 days. - immediately. - within 48 hours.

immediately.

A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot - should give way to other aircraft and continue circling. - should return for landing. - is cleared to land.

is cleared to land.

Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of any - person in a position of authority. - local law enforcement officer. - authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.

local law enforcement officer.

Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a -magnetic course of 0° through 179°. - true course of 0° through 179°. -magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.

magnetic course of 0° through 179°.

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall - stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing. - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing. - maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall - remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar. - maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold. - maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current - medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate. - logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished. - endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.

The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane may be touch and go or full stop. must be to a full stop. must be touch and go.

must be to a full stop.

In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may - not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expeditures, or rental fees. - act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for compensation if the flight is in connection with a business or employment. - not be paid in any manner for the operating expenses of a flight.

not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expeditures, or rental fees.

FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by - subscribing to the Federal Register. - distribution from the nearest FAA district office. - ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.

Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that has an experimental certificate - from the primary airport within Class D airspace. - beneath the floor of Class B airspace. - over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.

No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when - less than 2,500 feet AGL. - over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement. - flight visibility is less than 5 miles.

over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.

The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the - pilot in command. - owner or operator. - mechanic who performs the work.

owner or operator.

The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the - owner or operator. - pilot in command. - mechanic who performed the work.

owner or operator.

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the - aircraft manufacturer. - pilot in command. - Federal Aviation Administration.

pilot in command.

In order to act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, a pilot must have - made and logged three solo takeoffs and landings in a high-performance airplane. - received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower. - passed a flight test in a high-performance airplane.

received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.

Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high-performance airplane, that person must have - received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook. - passed a flight test in that airplane from an FAA inspector. - an endorsement in that person's logbook that he or she is competent to act as pilot in command.

received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.

A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to - return to the starting point on the airport. - taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways. - taxi at a faster speed.

return to the starting point on the airport.

The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a - log book endorsement from a flight instructor. - review of the maintenance records. - statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.

review of the maintenance records.

VSO is defined as the - stalling speed or minimum takeoff safety speed. - stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in a specified configuration. - stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed in the landing configuration.

If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be - alternating red and green. - steady red. - flashing red.

steady red.

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during - flight in turbulent air. - takeoffs and landings. - all flight conditions.

takeoffs and landings.

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during - the entire flight time at those altitudes. - that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes. - that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.

that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

The definition of nighttime is - the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. - 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. - sunset to sunrise.

the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately-rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated - by any private pilot. - with passengers aboard. - for compensation or hire.

with passengers aboard.