chapter 62 ~ management of pts w cerebrovascular disorders
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
"Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." rationale: This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
A client who has experienced an initial transient ischemic attack (TIA) states: "I'm glad it wasn't anything serious." Which is the best nursing response to this statement?
"TIA is a warning sign. Let's talk about lowering your risks."
A client recently experienced a stroke with accompanying left-sided paralysis. His family voices concerns about how to best interact with him. They report the client doesn't seem aware of their presence when they approach him on his left side. What advice should the nurse give the family?
"The client is unaware of his left side. You should approach him on the right side." rationale: The client is experiencing unilateral neglect and is unaware of his left side. The nurse should advise the family to approach him on his unaffected (right) side. Approaching the client on the affected side would be counterproductive. It's too premature to make the determination whether this condition will be permanent.
The nurse is caring for a client with aphasia. Which action will the nurse take when communicating with the client? Select all that apply.
- Face the client when talking - Speak in a normal tone of voice - Pause between phrases - Use gestures when talking
Which of the following are assessment findings associated with thrombocytopenia? Select all that apply.
- bleeding gums - epistaxis - hematemesis rationale: Pertinent findings of thrombocytopenia include: bleeding gums, epistaxis, hematemesis, hypotension, and tachypnea.
A nurse is caring for a client with a cerebral aneurysm. Which nursing interventions would be most useful to the nurse to avoid bleeding in the brain? Select all that apply.
- report changes in neuro status as soon as a worsening trend is identified - maintain the HOB at 30 degrees - avoid any activities that cause a Valsalva maneuver rationale: Cerebral aneurysm precautions are implemented for the patient with a diagnosis of aneurysm to provide a nonstimulating environment, prevent increases in intracranial pressure, and prevent further bleeding. The patient is placed on bed rest in a quiet, nonstressful environment, because activity, pain, and anxiety are thought to elevate the blood pressure, which may increase the risk for bleeding. The head of the bed is elevated 30 degrees to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure. Any activity that suddenly increases the blood pressure or obstructs venous return is avoided. This includes the Valsalva maneuver, straining, forceful sneezing, pushing oneself up in bed and acute flexion or rotation of the head and neck (which compromises the jugular veins). Stool softeners and mild laxatives are prescribed to prevent constipation, which can cause an increase in intracranial pressure. Dim lighting is helpful for photophobia. Increasing fluid volume does not affect brain bleeding.
A patient is in the acute phase of an ischemic stroke. How long does the nurse know that this phase may last?
1 to 3 days rationale: The acute phase of an ischemic stroke may last 1 to 3 days, but ongoing monitoring of all body systems is essential as long as the patient requires care.
An emergency department nurse understands that a 110-lb (50-kg) recent stroke victim will receive at least the minimum dose of recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA). What minimum dose will the client receive?
45 mg rationale: The client is weighed to determine the dose of t-PA. Typically, two or more IV sites are established prior to administration of t-PA (one for the t-PA and the other for administration of IV fluids). The dosage for t-PA is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 90 mg. 50 kg X 0.9 mg= 45 mg dose
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time?
4:00 p.m. rationale: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after symptom onset. Therefore, since symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm.
A nurse is teaching a community group about modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors for ischemic strokes. Which of the following is a risk factor that cannot be modified?
Advanced age
Which term refers to the inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis?
Apraxia rationale: Verbal apraxia refers to difficulty forming and organizing intelligible words although the musculature is intact. Agnosia is a failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity or word or phrase that is no longer appropriate.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the temporal (lateral and superior portions) lobe. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment of this client?
Auditory agnosia rationale: Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia. If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and lack of motivation. Damage to motor neurons may cause hemiparesis, hemiplegia, and a change in reflexes.
Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Bleeding rationale: Bleeding is the most common side effect of tPA. The patient is closely monitored for bleeding (at IV insertion sites, gums, urine/stools, and intracranially by assessing changes in level of consciousness). Headache, increased ICP, and hypertension are not side effects of tPA.
The provider diagnoses the patient as having had an ischemic stroke. The etiology of an ischemic stroke would include which of the following?
Cardiogenic emboli rationale: Aneurysms, hemorrhages, and malformations are all examples of a hemorrhagic stroke. An embolism can block blood flow, leading to ischemia.
A patient presents to the emergency room with complaints of having an "exploding headache" for the last 2 hours. The patient is immediately seen by a triage nurse who suspects the patient is experiencing a stroke. Which of the following is a possible cause based on the characteristic symptom?
Cerebral aneurysm rationale: A cerebral aneurysm is a type of hemorrhagic stroke that is characterized by an exploding headache.
Which insult or abnormality can cause an ischemic stroke?
Cocaine use rationale: Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor and may result in a life-threatening reaction, even with the individual's first use of the drug. Arteriovenous malformations, trauma, and intracerebral aneurysm rupture are associated with hemorrhagic stroke.
After the patient has received tPA, the nurse knows to check vital signs every 30 minutes for 6 hours. Which of the following readings would require calling the provider?
Diastolic pressure of 110 mm Hg rationale: A diastolic pressure reading of over 105 mm Hg warrants notifying the health care provider. The other choices are within normal range.
After a stroke, a client is admitted to the facility. The client has left-sided weakness and an absent gag reflex. He's incontinent and has a tarry stool. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg, and his hemoglobin is 10 g. Which nursing intervention is a priority for this client?
Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees rationale: Because the client's gag reflex is absent, elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees helps minimize the client's risk of aspiration. Checking the stools, performing ROM exercises, and keeping the skin clean and dry are important, but preventing aspiration through positioning is the priority.
Which of the following statements reflects nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia?
Encourage the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. rationale: Nursing management of the patient with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the patient to repeat sounds of the alphabet. Nursing management of the patient with global aphasia includes speaking clearly and in simple sentences and using gestures or pictures when able. Nursing management of the patient with receptive aphasia includes speaking slowing and clearly to assist the patient in forming the sounds. Nursing management of the patient with cognitive deficits, such as memory loss, includes frequently reorienting the patient to time, place, and situation.
The nurse is caring for a client with aphasia. Which strategy will the nurse use to facilitate communication with the client?
Establishing eye contact rationale: The following strategies should be used by the nurse to encourage communication with a client with aphasia: face the client and establish eye contact, speak in your usual manner and tone, use short phrases, and pause between phrases to allow the client time to understand what is being said; limit conversation to practical and concrete matters; use gestures, pictures, objects, and writing; and as the client uses and handles an object, say what the object is. It helps to match the words with the object or action. Be consistent in using the same words and gestures each time you give instructions or ask a question, and keep extraneous noises and sounds to a minimum. Too much background noise can distract the client or make it difficult to sort out the message being spoken.
A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to perform which action?
Form words that are understandable or comprehend spoken words rationale: Global aphasia is a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia and presents a tremendous challenge to the nurse to effectively communicate with the client. In receptive and expressive aphasia, the client is unable to form words that are understandable. The client who is unable to speak at all is referred to as mute.
A healthcare provider orders several drugs for a client with hemorrhagic stroke. Which drug order should the nurse question?
Heparin sodium rationale: Administering heparin, an anticoagulant, could increase the bleeding associated with hemorrhagic stroke. Therefore, the nurse should question this order to prevent additional hemorrhage in the brain. In a client with hemorrhagic stroke, the healthcare provider may use dexamethasone (Decadron) to decrease cerebral edema and pressure, methyldopa (Aldomet) to reduce blood pressure, and phenytoin (Dilantin) to prevent seizures.
A diagnostic test has determined that the appropriate diet for the client with a left cerebrovascular accident (CVA) should include thickened liquids. Which of the following is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
Impaired Swallowing rationale: Impaired Swallowing was evident on the video fluoroscopy. Aspiration, Malnutrition, and Decreased Fluid Volume Risk can occur but are not the primary diagnosis at this point in time.
A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To confirm that this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?
Increased urine output rationale: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.
A nurse practitioner provides health teaching to a patient who has difficulty managing hypertension. This patient is at an increased risk of which type of stroke?
Intracerebral hemorrhage rationale: About 80% of hemorrhagic strokes are intracerebral, and they are caused primarily by uncontrolled hypertension.
Which is a contraindication for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)?
Intracranial hemorrhage rationale: Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, and aneurysm are contraindications for t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, age 18 years or older, and a systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria.
The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a stroke. Imaging studies indicate an embolus partially obstructing the right carotid artery. What type of stroke does the nurse know this client has?
Ischemic rationale: Ischemic strokes occur when a thrombus or embolus obstructs an artery carrying blood to the brain; about 80% of strokes are the ischemic variety. The other options are incorrect.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the lower motor neurons of the brain. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment?
Lack of deep tendon reflexes rationale: Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia. If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and lack of motivation. Damage to the lower motor neurons may cause decreased muscle tone, flaccid muscle paralysis, and a decrease in or loss of reflexes.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the frontal lobe of his brain. Which of the following deficits does the nurse expect to observe during assessment?
Limited attention span and forgetfulness rationale: Damage to the frontal lobe may impair learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and a lack of motivation. Damage to the motor neurons may cause hemiparesis, hemiplegia, and a change in reflexes. Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia.
A patient who has suffered a stroke begins having complications regarding spasticity in the lower extremity. What ordered medication does the nurse administer to help alleviate this problem?
Lioresal (Baclofen) rationale: Spasticity, particularly in the hand, can be a disabling complication after stroke. Botulinum toxin type A injected intramuscularly into wrist and finger muscles has been shown to be effective in reducing this spasticity (although the effect is temporary, typically lasting 2 to 4 months) (Teasell, Foley, Pereira, et al., 2012). Other treatments for spasticity may include stretching, splinting, and oral medications such as baclofen (Lioresal).
Which of the following is accurate regarding a hemorrhagic stroke?
Main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache."
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important?
Maintaining a patent airway rationale: Maintaining the airway is the most important nursing intervention. Immediate complications of a hemorrhagic stroke include cerebral hypoxia, decreased cerebral blood flow, and extension of the area of injury. Providing adequate oxygenation of blood to the brain minimizes cerebral hypoxia. Brain function depends on delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Administering supplemental oxygen and maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit at acceptable levels will assist in maintaining tissue oxygenation. All other interventions are appropriate, but the airway takes priority. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees, monitoring the client because of the risk for seizures, and stool softeners are recommended to prevent constipation and straining, but these are not the most important interventions.
A female client who reports recurring headaches, accompanied by increased irritability, photophobia, and fatigue is asked to track the headache symptoms and occurrence on a calendar log. Which is the best nursing rationale for this action?
Migraines often coincide with menstrual cycle. rationale: Changes in reproductive hormones as found during menstrual cycle can be a trigger for migraine headaches and may assist in the management of the symptoms. Cluster headaches can cause severe pain but are not the reason for tracking. Tension headaches can be managed but is not associated with a monthly calendar. Headaches are common but not the reason for tracking.
A nurse is teaching about ischemic stroke prevention to a community group and emphasizes that control of hypertension, which is the major risk factor for stroke, is key to prevention. Ways to control hypertension include the Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet. This diet includes which of the following?
Moderate amounts of low-fat dairy products rationale: The DASH diet is high in fruits and vegetables, moderate in low-fat dairy products, and low in animal protein.
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke, usually performed in the emergency department, would the nurse prepare the patient for?
Noncontrast computed tomogram rationale: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is usually a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan. This should be performed within 25 minutes or less from the time the patient presents to the emergency department (ED) to determine if the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic (the category of stroke determines treatment).
Which of the following is the initial diagnostic in suspected stroke?
Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) rationale: An initial head CT scan will determine whether or not the patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. An ischemic infarction will not be readily visible on initial CT scan if it is performed within the first few hours after symptoms onset; however, evidence of bleeding will almost always be visible.
The nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which intervention would be contraindicated while caring for this client?
Placing food on the affected side of the mouth rationale: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids.
The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient?
Semi-Fowler's rationale: The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure.
While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:
Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness rationale: The main presenting symptoms for ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body, confusion or change in mental status, and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Foot drop and external hip rotation can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly.
Which is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes?
Smoking rationale: Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke.
The nurse is participating in a health fair for stroke prevention. Which will the nurse say is a modifiable risk factor for ischemic stroke?
Smoking rationale: Modifiable risk factors for transient ischemic attack (TIA) and ischemic stroke include hypertension, type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and chronic alcoholism. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke.
Which is indicative of a right hemisphere stroke?
Spatial-perceptual deficits rationale: Clients with right hemisphere stroke exhibit partial perceptual deficits, left visual field deficit, and paralysis with weakness on the left side of the body. Left hemisphere damage causes aphasia; slow, cautious behavior; and altered intellectual ability.
The nurse has just received report on a client in the ED being transferred to the acute stroke unit with a diagnosis of a right hemispheric stroke. Which findings does the nurse understand is indicative of a right hemispheric stroke?
Spatial-perceptual deficits rationale: Clients with right hemispheric stroke exhibit partial perceptual deficits, left visual field deficit, and paralysis with weakness on the left side of the body. Left hemispheric damage causes aphasia, slow, cautious behavior, and altered intellectual ability.
What nursing intervention is appropriate for a client with receptive aphasia?
Speak slowly and clearly. rationale: Nursing management of the client with receptive aphasia includes speaking slowing and clearly to assist the client in forming the sounds. Nursing management of the client with expressive aphasia includes encouraging the client to repeat sounds of the alphabet or to explore the client's ability to write. Nursing management of the client with cognitive deficits, such as memory loss, includes frequently reorienting the client to time, place, and situation.
When should the nurse plan the rehabilitation of a patient who is having an ischemic stroke?
The day the patient has the stroke rationale: Although rehabilitation begins on the day the patient has the stroke, the process is intensified during convalescence and requires a coordinated team effort.
A patient having an acute stroke with no other significant medical disorders has a blood glucose level of 420 mg/dL. What significance does the hyperglycemia have for this patient?
This is significant for poor neurologic outcomes. rationale: Hyperglycemia has been associated with poor neurologic outcomes in acute stroke and should be treated if the blood glucose is above 140 mg/dL (Summers et al., 2009).
An emergency department nurse is awaiting the arrival of a client with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 1 hour ago, as reported by emergency medical personnel. The treatment window for thrombolytic therapy is which of the following?
Three hours rationale: Rapid diagnosis of stroke and initiation of thrombolytic therapy (within 3 hours) in clients with ischemic stroke leads to a decrease in the size of the stroke and an overall improvement in functional outcome after 3 months.
A nurse is teaching a community class that those experiencing symptoms of ischemic stroke need to enter the medical system early. The primary reason for this is which of the following?
Thrombolytic therapy has a time window of only 3 hours.
A patient diagnosed with an ischemic stroke should be treated within the first 3 hours of symptom onset with which of the following?
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) rationale: In 1996, the FDA approved the use of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke within the first 3 hours of symptom onset.
Which of the following is the chief cause of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?
Uncontrolled hypertension rationale: Primary intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) from a spontaneous rupture of small arteries or arterioles accounts for approximately 80% of hemorrhagic strokes and is caused chiefly by uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and migraine headaches are not a chief cause of ICH.
The nurse is providing information about strokes to a community group. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary initial symptoms of an ischemic stroke?
Weakness on one side of the body and difficulty with speech rationale: The main presenting symptoms for an ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body; confusion or change in mental status; and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Foot drop and external hip rotation are things that can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly.
If warfarin is contraindicated as a treatment for stroke, which medication is the best option?
aspirin rationale: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
A client diagnosed with a stroke is ordered to receive warfarin. Later, the nurse learns that the warfarin is contraindicated and the order is canceled. The nurse knows that the best alternative medication to give is
aspirin. rationale: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
A client reports light-headedness, speech disturbance, and left-sided weakness that have lasted for several hours. In the examination, an abnormal sound is auscultated in an artery leading to the brain. What is the term for the auscultated discovery?
bruit rationale: A neurologic examination during an attack reveals neurologic deficits. Auscultation of the artery may reveal a bruit (abnormal sound caused by blood flowing over a rough surface within one or both carotid arteries). The term for the auscultated discovery is "bruit."
A nurse is reading a journal article about stroke and the underlying causes associated with this condition. The nurse demonstrates understanding of the information when identifying which subtype of stroke as being due to atrial fibrillation?
cardio embolic rationale: Ischemic strokes are further divided into five subtypes, according to a mechanism-based classification system: large-artery thrombotic strokes (representing 20% of ischemic strokes); small, penetrating artery thrombotic strokes (25%); cardio embolic strokes (20%); cryptogenic strokes (strokes that cannot be attributed to any specific cause) (30%); and "other" (5%). Large-artery thrombotic strokes are caused by atherosclerotic plaques in the large blood vessels of the brain. Thrombus formation and occlusion can occur at the site of the atherosclerosis and result in ischemia and infarction (tissue death). Small, penetrating artery thrombotic strokes that affect one or more vessels and cause reduced blood flow are the most common type of ischemic stroke, typically caused by longstanding hypertension, hyperlipidemia, or diabetes. Cardio embolic strokes are associated with cardiac dysrhythmias, such as atrial fibrillation, but can also be associated with valvular heart disease or left ventricular thrombus. The last two classifications of ischemic strokes are cryptogenic strokes, which have no identified cause, and strokes from other causes, such as illicit drug use (cocaine), coagulopathies, migraine, or spontaneous dissection of the carotid or vertebral arteries.
While caring for clients who have suffered neurologic deficits from causes such as cerebrovascular accident and closed head injury, an important nursing goal that motivates nurses to offer the best care possible is preventing:
complications. rationale: Measures such as position changes and prevention of skin breakdown and contractures are essential aspects of care during the early phase of rehabilitation. The nursing goal is to prevent complications that may interfere with the client's potential to recover function.
A 64-year-old client reports symptoms consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) to the health care provider in the emergency department. Which is the origin of the client's symptoms?
impaired cerebral circulation rationale: TIAs involve the same mechanism as in the ischemic cascade, but symptoms are transient (< 24 hours) and there is no evidence of cerebral tissue infarction. The ischemic cascade begins when cerebral blood flow decreases to less than 25 mL/100 g/min and neurons are no longer able to maintain aerobic respiration. Thus, a TIA results directly from impaired blood circulation in the brain. Atherosclerosis, cardiac disease, hypertension, or diabetes can be risk factors for a TIA but do not cause it.
A client admitted to the emergency department is being evaluated for the possibility of a stroke. Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect that the client is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke?
severe exploding HA rationale: A hemorrhagic stroke is often characterized by a severe headache (commonly described as the "worst headache ever") or as "exploding." Weakness and speech issues are more commonly associated with an ischemic stroke.