Chp 11 HW

During 2007, there were 3.6 new cases of pertussis per 100,000 susceptible individuals in the United States, part of a steady increase that has been occurring since the 1980s. Please select the term that is illustrated by this statistic. - Prevalence - Endemic rate - Mortality - Incidence - Epidemic rate

Incidence

Move the terms into the correct empty boxes to complete this concept map about epidemiological statistics. - prevalence - point source - incidence - new cases - common source - agent spread from a single source at once event - recovery - propagated - agent spread from a single source over time

(left side, down & left to right) - prevalence - new cases - recovery (right side, down & left to right) - incidence - point source - common source - propagated - agent spread from a single source over r

Label the images to examine patterns of infectious disease occurrence. - Sporadic Occurence - Pandemic Occurence - Endemic Occurence - Epidemic Occurence

(left to right) 1- Endemic Occurence 2- Epidemic Occurence 3- Sporadic Occurence 4- Pandemic Occurence

The best descriptive term for the resident microbiota is _______. mutualistic pathogenic parasitic commensal

mutualistic

Select characteristics exhibited by endotoxin, but not exhibited by exotoxins. - Composed of lipopolysaccharide - Require very small doses to cause toxic effects - Secreted from a living cell - Heat-stable - Have very specific targets - Fever-inducing

- Composed of lipopolysaccharide - Heat-stable - Fever-inducing

Select the patterns of indirect transmission of infectious disease. - Food, water - Kissing, touching - Fomites - Mother to fetus (vertical) - Droplet - Air

- Food, water - Fomites - Air

Select characteristics exhibited by exotoxins, but not exhibited by endotoxin. - Composed of lipopolysaccharide - Require very small doses to cause toxic effects - Secreted from a living cell - Heat stable - Have very specific targets - Fever inducing

- Require very small doses to cause toxic effects - Secreted from a living cell - Have very specific targets

Order the four stages in the course of an infection. 1) Prodromal stage 2) Incubation period 3) Convalenscent period 4) Actue phase

1- 2 2- 1 3- 4 4- 3

Which of the following are virulence factors? - Enzymes - Toxins - All of the choices are correct - Capsules

All of the choices are correct

Choose the best definition of virulence factors. - Characteristics of a microorganism, such as its Gram stain morphology, type of media it grows on, and colony morphology - The natural habitat of the microorganism or the source from which a host can become infected - Characteristics of a microorganism that enable it to establish infection and cause disease - Factors that enable a microorganism to be resistant to antimicrobial medications - The site within a host in which a microorganism resides and causes disease

Characteristics of a microorganism that enable it to establish infection and cause disease

Which of the following is symptom that Cindy presented with 10 days posttransplant? - Fever - Oxygen saturation - Neutropenia - Chest pain

Chest pain

Move the descriptions or examples to their correct category to review various types of microbial virulence factors.

Exoenzyme: - Mucinase produced in amoebic dysentery - Hyaluronidase produced by streptococci and staphylococci - Coagulase produced by staphylococci - Kinases (streptokinase, staphylokinase) Endotoxin: - Lipopolysaccharide - Systemic effect on many tissues and organs - Fever-inducing Exotoxin: - Hemolysins produced by Streptococcus pyogenes - Action is specific to one cell type

A teacher walking through her first-grade classroom pauses to pick up a used tissue that had ended up on the floor instead of in the waste basket. Unfortunately, after discarding the tissue, she doesn't immediately wash her hands, and acquires a strain of rhinovirus. Several days later she begins to experience symptoms of a cold. Based upon this scenario, please select the mode of disease transmission demonstrated here. - Fomite - Droplet - Air - Direct contact (touching) - Vector

Fomite

Based upon the data presented, which of the following is a valid statement? - The use of the CDC video on hand hygiene prior to patient admission may increase staff compliance with established protocols. - No additional remediation is needed at any of the 5 Moments of Hand Hygiene, as your staff was adequately compliant in all cases. - Staff needs the most education regarding hand hygiene practices after exposure to body fluids. - The transmission of pathogenic microbes actually increased in your hospital during the period of direct observation.

The use of the CDC video on hand hygiene prior to patient admission may increase staff compliance with established protocols.

The bone marrow transplant affected Cindy causing __________. - cancer - an immunocompromised state - anemia - respiratory distress

an immunocompromised state

Epidemiology is the study of disease in the ________. - environment - community - individual - immunocompromised

community

Aspergillus is a(n) ______ pathogen. - bacterial - eukaryotic - archaeal - protozoal

eukaryotic

An infection that is acquired or develops during a person's stay in a hospital or other health facility is called a(n) _______ or nosocomial infection - admission-associated - healthcare-associated - polymicrobial - secondary

healthcare-associated

The ______ is the time between an encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms. 1- convelescence 2- acute stage 3- prodrome 4- incubation period

incubation period

Aspergillus was most likely transmitted to Cindy through _____ transmission. - indirect Correct - direct - vertical - biological vector

indirect

Candida or Pseudomonas are ______ pathogens, meaning they are not usually pathogenic to healthy persons with normal immune system functions because these microbes do not have well-developed virulence factors. - opportunistic - true - virulent - temperate

opportunistic

During a recent survey, 0.014% of the population showed evidence of a particular respiratory infection.Please select the term that is illustrated by this statistic. - prevalence - Epidemic rate - Incidence - Endemic rate - Mortality

prevalence

Move the descriptions to the correct category below to show your understanding of true and opportunistic pathogens.

Opportunistic Pathogens: - Causes infection in immunocompromised host - Examples include Pseudomonas species and the yeast Candida - Can cause infection when they become established in a body area that they do not naturally inhabit - Common cause of infections in AIDS patients True Pathogens: - Can cause infection even in otherwise healthy persons - Examples include influenza virus, malaria, and Salmonella - Possess virulence factors to allow organisms to establish and damage host

1) The RN advises the employee that she is at risk for which of the following diseases? - Hepatitis B - Hepatitis C - HIV infection - All of the choices are correct 2) All of the following are important topics to teach the employee, except _______. - needles should never be removed from a syringe - a patient's infectious status must be known when reporting to employee health so immediate treatment may be initiated - a needle should never be recapped - needles should be immediately disposed of in a puncture-proof container 3) If the employee is found to test positive for HIV, hepatitis B, or hepatitis C, which of the following actions is legally required by the hospital facility? - Reporting the employee's positive test result to public health authorities - Reporting the employee's positive test result to hospital administration - Reporting the employee's positive test result to her direct supervisor - No action is legally mandated

1) All of the choices are correct 2) a patient's infectious status must be known when reporting to employee health so immediate treatment may be initiated 3) Reporting the employee's positive test result to public health authorities

1) What mode of transmission would fit disease pattern D? - Droplet - Biological vector - Parenteral - Water 2) A serious case of norovirus was reported on a cruise ship, with over a thousand passengers treated for acute diarrhea. Which disease pattern illustrates this scenario? - B - A - D - C - E 3) Give an example of a disease that would fit pattern A. - Lyme disease - Rabies - MRSA - Gonorrhea - Influenza 4) Which of the following could serve as a reservoir of infection for disease pattern B? - Human - Soil - Arthropod - Hospital 5) Give an example of a disease that would fit pattern E. - Pertussis (whooping cough) - Influenza - Tetanus - Zika - Genital herpes

1) Biological vector 2) C 3) Influenza 4) Soil 5) Genital Herpes

1) Infections that are transmitted by ticks and other biting arthropods use which of the following portals of exit? - Respiratory droplets - Fecal exit - Blood removal - Skin shedding 2) What portal of exit is used by the varicella-zoster virus (agent that causes chickenpox)? - Skin shedding - Urogenital tract - Respiratory droplets - Fecal exit 3) True or false: All pathogens that leave via the urogenital tract are considered agents of sexually transmitted infections. 4) Pathogens that leave through feces are usually transmitted through _______ contact. - vector - indirect Correct - direct 5) Pathogens that leave through the respiratory portal by sneezing or coughing are usually transmitted through _______. - parenteral transmission - vectors - droplets - vehicles

1) Blood removal 2) Respiratory droplets 3) False 4) indirect 5) droplets

Please complete these sentences by dragging the correct terms into the blanks to demonstrate your understanding of the use of fecal transplants. - Fecal transplants have been approved for use in patients with hard-to-treat . infection. - This organism is a gram- . bacterium and causes pseudomembranous colitis, infection of the . - Typical treatments for this infection include the use of potent antibiotics such as . however, the use of this drug only results in a cure rate. - Fecal transplants involve administration of an enema containing donor feces in an effort to replace the normal of the gastrointestinal tract. - In 2013, a study was published that indicated a cure rate in patients treated with these transplants.

- CLostridium difficile - positive, colon - vancomycin, 31% - microbiota - 94%

Drag the images to their corresponding type of epidemic to review how the frequency and distribution of disease are depicted graphically through epidemic curves. - Point-source epidemic - Common-source epidemic - Propagated epidemic

(left to right) 1- Point-source epidemic 2- Propagated epidemic 3- Common-source epidemic

Assess the following statements, and select those that correctly apply to the properties of exotoxins and endotoxins. - Exotoxins typically cause systemic effects, whereas endotoxins precisely target a specific tissue type; e.g., neurological tissue. - Exotoxins are made of protein that are synthesized and secreted by a living cell, whereas endotoxins are comprised of lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. - Endotoxins demonstrate potent toxicity; their lethal dose is low compared to exotoxins, which require a high dose to cause disease manifestations. - Hemolysins are examples of endotoxin. They may exhibit β-hemolysis, complete lysis of erythrocytes; or α-hemolysis, partial lysis which manifests as a greenish tinge on blood agar. - Endotoxin is a pyrogen that routinely causes a fever whereas exotoxins do not usually cause a fever.

- Exotoxins are made of protein that are synthesized and secreted by a living cell, whereas endotoxins are comprised of lipopolysaccharide found in the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria. - Endotoxin is a pyrogen that routinely causes a fever whereas exotoxins do not usually cause a fever.

Select the basic ways in which microbes cause damage to the host. - Microbes release toxins that cause tissue damage. - Microbes block host cell respiration pathways. - Microbes alter host blood glucose levels. - Microbes release enzymes that break down host tissue. - Microbes activate a host response that is itself destructive to host tissue. - Microbes disrupt the host's endocrine system. - Microbes induce epigenetic changes in host cells.

- Microbes release toxins that cause tissue damage. - Microbes release toxins that cause tissue damage. - Microbes activate a host response that is itself destructive to host tissue. - Microbes induce epigenetic changes in host cells.

Select all of the sites where it was previously known that normal microbiota existed in large populations in/on the human body. Brain Mouth Liver Throat Large intestine Skin Vagina Lungs

- Mouth - Throat - Large intestines - Skin - Vagina

Select the four most prevalent types of healthcare-associated infections - Septicemia - Surgical site infections - Skin infections - Urinary tract infections - Respiratory infections - Reproductive tract infections - Gastrointestinal infections

- Surgical site infections - Urinary tract infections - Respiratory infections - Gastrointestinal infections

Select all of the statements that correctly describe the infectious dose. - The infectious dose is the minimum number of organisms that must be present for an infection to proceed. - The infectious dose is the maximum number of organisms that a host can harbor without resulting in a fatal infection. - Microbes with low infectious doses are usually highly virulent. - Microbes with high infectious doses are usually the most virulent. - Certain infections, like tuberculosis and giardiasis, may proceed even if only a small number of microbial cells are present.

- The infectious dose is the maximum number of organisms that a host can harbor without resulting in a fatal infection. - Microbes with low infectious doses are usually highly virulent. - Microbes with high infectious doses are usually the most virulent.

Select those circumstances in which Koch's postulates cannot be readily applied or would beinappropriate to establish the cause of a disease. - The suspected pathogen infects animals but not humans. - The suspected pathogen cannot be cultured in the laboratory. - There is not a suitable experimental host for the suspected pathogen. - The suspected pathogen produces disease both in humans and a suitable test animal. - The disease is polymicrobial, caused by more than one pathogen.

- The suspected pathogen cannot be cultured in the laboratory. - There is not a suitable experimental host for the suspected pathogen. - The disease is polymicrobial, caused by more than one pathogen.

Select the two major goals of the Human Microbiome Project. - To determine antibiotic susceptibility of the most prevalent microorganisms among human microbiota - To enumerate all of the members of the human microbiota, both those that can be cultured and those that are nonculturable - To eradicate those members of the normal microbiota that may potentially cause disease - To determine the role the human microbiota plays in health and disease

- To enumerate all of the members of the human microbiota, both those that can be cultured and those that are nonculturable - To determine the role the human microbiota plays in health and disease

1) The RN has administered a dose of antibiotics to the mother as ordered. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates understanding of the rationale for antibiotics? - I need antibiotics to treat an active infection that caused my premature rupture of membranes. - I need antibiotics because my child is at risk of infection due to premature rupture of membranes. - Antibiotics are given to all women during delivery to prevent infection in the infant. - I need antibiotics in case I develop an infection from the rupture of membranes. 2) Which of the following is the first exposure of the infant to environmental microbes? - Contact with health care workers - Passage through vaginal canal - Breastfeeding - In utero 3) The mother displays no evidence of active Hepatitis B disease and her carrier status was discovered with routine prenatal screening. Which term best describes her carrier state? - Asymptomatic carrier - Incubating carrier - Convalescent carrier - Passive carrier 4) If an infant is exposed to Hepatitis B during delivery, which term best describes the pattern of transmission? - Horizontal transmission - Vertical transmission - Vector transmission - Indirect transmission

1) I need antibiotics because my child is at risk of infection due to premature rupture of membranes. 2) Passage through vaginal canal 3)Asymptomatic carrier 4) Vertical transmission

1) According to the case, Jaelyn's urine cultures showed Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If a Gram stain was conducted on the bacterial cells in her urine, what color would the cells appear under the microscope? - Purple - GreenIncorrect - Red/pinkCorrect - Blue - Clear 2) What was the portal of entry for Pseudomonas in Jaelyn's current infection? - Gastrointestinal tract - Respiratory tract - Urinary tractCorrectCorrect - Skin - Blood 3) Why is Pseudomonas a current health concern? - It is a rare cause of hospital-acquired infections. - Many strains are highly resistant to antibiotics. - It is not a concern because it is only an opportunistic pathogen.

1) Red/Pink 2) Urinary Tract 3) Many strains are highly resistant to antibiotics

1) Infections transmitted by arthropod biological vectors use which of the following portals of entry? - Skin - Respiratory tract - Urogenital tract - GI tract 2) Which portal is used by the greatest number of pathogens? - Urogenital tract - GI tract - Respiratory tract - Skin 3) True or False: All agents that use a portal of entry to initiate an infection are called exogenous agents. 4) True or False: Nervous system diseases must always use the respiratory tract as a portal of entry because of its proximity to the brain.

1) Skin 2) Respiratory tract 3) False 4) False

1) As the emergency department RN, you document the care and assessment of the patient in the chart prior to transfer to an inpatient unit. What is the most appropriate term for the clinical manifestations of disease as reported by the patient? - Symptoms - Signs - Syndromes - Signs and symptoms 2) As the RN, you document the care and assessment of the patient in the chart prior to transfer to an inpatient unit. What is the most appropriate term for the clinical manifestations of disease as noted in your assessment? - Signs - Signs and symptoms - Symptoms - Syndromes 3) Upon admission to the inpatient unit, a respiratory sputum culture and blood culture are sent. Prior to obtaining the blood culture, you provide education to the patient. Which of the following statements, by the patient, best demonstrates understanding of the rationale for the blood culture? - "The blood culture will be able to determine which virus is causing the infection in my lungs." - "The blood culture will be able to determine which bacterium is causing the infection in my lungs." - "The blood culture will be able to determine if the infection has infected other body tissues." - "The blood culture will be able to determine if the microbe causing the infection is present and multiplying in my blood, putting me at risk for septicemia." 4) The patient's sputum culture returns a positive result for Streptococcus pneumoniae. As the RN, you are aware this capsule-forming bacterium possesses virulence factors to make it difficult to treat. In providing education to the patient regarding the disease process, which of the following statements is most appropriate? - "Fluid is building up in your lungs because white blood cells are effectively lysing the encapsulated bacteria." - "This bacterium secretes toxins that directly damage your lungs." - "Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe." - "Fragments of this bacterium's cell wall directly harm your lungs."

1) Symptoms 2) Signs 3) "The blood culture will be able to determine if the microbe causing the infection is present and multiplying in my blood, putting me at risk for septicemia." 4) "Fluid is building up in your lungs because of the body's persistent inflammatory response to the microbe."

1) The staff at your hospital were most compliant with established handwashing protocols - after treating a patient - before touching a patient - after exposure to something in the patient's environment - after exposure to body fluid 2) You observe one of your staff adhering to hand hygiene practices prior to touching a patient. Immediately before he touches the patient, he pulls out his cell phone to respond to an urgent text message. He puts the phone away and continues on his task of repositioning the patient. True or False: You note in iScrub Lite that the staff member is adhering to acceptable hand hygiene practices in this case. - true - false

1) after exposure to body fluid 2) false

1) The staff at your hospital were most compliant with established hand washing protocols _______. - after exposure to body fluid - before touching a patient - after treating a patient - after exposure to something in the patient's environment 2) You observe one of your staff adhering to hand hygiene practices prior to touching a patient. Immediately before he touches the patient, he pulls out his cell phone to respond to an urgent text message. He puts the phone away and continues on his task of repositioning the patient. True or False: You note that the staff member is adhering to acceptable hand hygiene practices in this case. - true - false 3) Based upon the data presented, which of the following is a valid statement? - No additional remediation is needed at any of the 5 Moments of Hand Hygiene, as your staff was adequately compliant in all cases. - Staff needs the most education regarding hand hygiene practices after exposure to body fluids. - The transmission of pathogenic microbes actually increased in your hospital during the period of direct observation. - The use of a CDC video on hand hygiene prior to patient admission may increase staff compliance with established protocols.

1) after exposure to body fluid 2) false 3) The use of a CDC video on hand hygiene prior to patient admission may increase staff compliance with established protocols

1) In the case, the patient was on continual antibiotic therapy for prevention of urinary tract infections, indicating that most urinary tract infections are caused by ________. - bacteria - fungi - viruses - protozoans 2) True or false: Urine is normally a sterile fluid. 3) Which of the following is a symptom of urinary tract infections? - Painful urination - Bacterial cells present in the urine - Fever of 104 degrees Fahrenheit - Blood-tinged urine sample

1) bacteria 2) False 3) Painful urination

1) In the case, the patient was started on antibiotic therapy for treatment indicating that the physicians believed his infection was caused by a ______. - bacterium - fungus - virus - protozoan 2) What factors may have played a role in the patient's development of pneumonia after surgery? - His caregiver at the hospital did not use proper handwashing technique - His immune system was depleted by excessive IV fluids - His caregiver maintained his bed in an upright position after his surgery - His visitors wore gowns and masks when entering his room 3) Which of the following is a symptom of pneumonia? - Lung consolidation on X-ray films - Difficulty breathing - Elevated white blood cell count - Body temperature of 104 degrees Fahrenheit

1) bacterium 2) His caregiver at the hospital did not use proper 3) Difficulty breathing

1) Rabies is an example of this type of infection, which is indigenous to animals but naturally transmissible to humans ________. - zoonotic infection - mixed infection - latent infection - focal infection 2) Which of the following terms most appropriately describes the role of the raccoon in the patient's exposure to infection? - Carrier - Living reservoir - Nonliving reservoir - Biological vector 3) If the patient develops rabies infection, the time from the bite to the appearance of symptoms is referred to as the ________. - period of invasion -prodromal stage - convalescent period - incubation period 4) If the patient develops rabies infection, you know that it must be reported to local and state public health officials. Which of the following diseases is also reportable in the United States? - Fifth disease - Cholera - EBV infection - Pinworm infection

1) zoonotic infection 2) living reservoir 3) incubation period 4) Cholera

Order the four steps of Koch's postulates as they would normally be applied. 1- Isolate the suspected microbe from an infected host and cultivate it in pure culture in the laboratory 2- Find evidence of a particular microbe in every case of a particular disease 3- Inoculate a susceptible healthy subject with the laboratory isolate of the potential pathogen and observe the resultant disease 4- Reisolate the disease agent from the test subject, which now shows signs of disease

1- 2 2- 1 3- 3 4- 4

Drag the images to their corresponding statement to test your knowledge of statistical information related to healthcare-associated infections. 1) Percentage of healthcare-associated infections involving the urinary tract patients 2) Percentage of shifts where nurse scrubs are contaminated with dangerous pathogens 3) Percentage of healthcare-associated infections involving surgical sites 4) Average rate of healthcare-associated infections in all admitted patients

1- 22% 2- 10% 3- 13% 4- 4%

Move the terms to their correct descriptions to review the definitions of infection types. 1- Infection that persists over a long period of time (e.g., HIV) 2- An example is influenza complicated by pneumonia 3- Infection spreads to several sites and tissue fluids, and may travel via nerves and CSF 4- Several microbes establish themselves simultaneously at the infection site 5- Microbes enter the body and remain confined to a specific tissue 6- The infectious agent spreads to other tissues from a local site 7- infection comes on rapidly, with severe but short-lived effects 8- The initial infection

1- Chronic infection 2- Secondary infection 3- Systemic infection 4- Mixed infection 5- Localized infection 6- Focal infection 7- Acute infection 8 Primary infection

Match the terms to their descriptions to test your understanding of colonization, infection, and disease. 1) Presence of organisms living in or on the body, but not causing any pathology 2) Pathogenic microorganisms penetrate the host defenses, enter the tissues, and multiply 3) Disruption of a tissue or organ caused by microbes or their products

1- Colonization 2- Infection 3- Infectious Disease

Move the microbes and descriptions to their correct category to review portals of entry and the organisms typically involved in these areas of the human body. 1- Skin 2- Gastrointestinal tract 3- Respriratory tract 4 - Urogenital tract

1- Microbes enter via insect bites, conjunctiva, or oral mucous membranes & Staphylococcus aureus, Herpes simplex (type 1), West Nile virus 2- Microbes enter via food, water, or fomites & Salmonella, Shigella, Hepatitis A 3- Microbes enter via inhalation & Influenza, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Cryptococcus 4- Microbes enter through mucosa of penis or vagina & Hepatisis B, HIV, Trichomonas

Move the terms to their correct description to review the types of carrier states. 1- Health care workers who accidentally transfer pathogens to patients 2- Infected, but shows no symptoms of disease 3- symptoms Recuperating patients without symptoms; may shed viable microbes 4- Shelters the infectious agent in a latent form for a long period after recovery 5- Spreads the infectious agent before the appearance of the first symptoms

1- Passive carrier 2- Asymptomatic carrier 3- Convalescent carrier 4- Chronic carrier 5- Incubating carrier

Match the description of the epidemic curve to the type of epidemic. Epidemic curves are prepared by plotting the number of cases of disease on the y-axis and dates on the x-axis. 1- Graph would show a single prominent spike, restricted to a few days. 2- Graph would show a sustained increase in cases over a period of time until source is identified and removed. 3- Graph would show a steady increase in number of cases over time, followed by a slow tapering.

1- Point-source epidemic 2- Common-source epidemic 3- Propagated epidemic

Match the outbreak type to its corresponding example to test your understanding of point-source, common-source, and propagated epidemics. 1) An outbreak of staphylococcal food poisoning among individuals who attended a family reunion and ate the potato salad. 2) The persistent cholera epidemic studied by John Snow in London during the mid-1050s, during which he traced the source to a sewage-contaminated community pump. 3) An outbreak of chickenpox among unvaccinated children in a large Amish community

1- Point-source epidemic 2- Common-source epidemic 3- Propagated epidemic

Match the term to its corresponding description to examine different types of epidemics. 1- Epidemic in which the infectious agent came from a single source and all victims were exposed to that source, at approximately the same time. 2- An outbreak resulting from common exposure to a single source of an infection that occurred over a period of time. 3- An epidemic that is sustained over time by its spread from person to person.

1- Point-source epidemic 2- Common-source epidemic 3- propagated epidemic

1) All of the following factors increase the patient's risk for Clostridium difficile infection, except _______. - old age - post-surgery - genetic defect - immune compromise 2) The patient developed the infection since hospitalization. Which of the following terms best describes this type of infection? - Community-acquired infection - Secondary infection - Healthcare-associated infection - Acute infection 3) In order to prevent the spread of disease to other patients, the RN observes all of the following precautions, except _______. - washing hands with germicidal soap - disinfection of needles following injections - wearing gloves and a gown - enacting isolation precautions 4) The patient is experiencing severe diarrhea every 6 hours. Which phase of infection is she most likely experiencing? - Period of invasion - Convalescent period - Prodromal stage - Incubation period

1- genetic defect 2- Healthcare-associated infection 3- disinfection of needles following injections 4- Period of invasion

1) Which iPhone application has been developed to assist hospitals with data collection on hand hygiene practices? - iScrub Lite - iSanitize Lite - iWash Lite - iTouch Lite 2) Which of the following organizations have played a major role in the development of new hand hygiene practices? multiple choice 2 - Centers for Disease Control - World Health Organization - Food and Drug Administration - Centers for Disease Control and the World Health Organization 3) True or False: As a healthcare worker prepares to check on the IV of a patient, he picks up the TV remote to turn off the television since the patient is asleep. He does not need to wash his hands again before touching the patient since he did not come in contact with the patient's body or body fluids

1- iScrub Lite 2- Centers for Disease Control and the World Health Organization 3- false

Review the phases of infection and disease by completing each sentence. Then, arrange the sentences in chronological order. 1) One must note that of a microbe during these five stages varies for every pathogen. 2) The earliest notable symptoms of most infections appear during a short period known as the stage 3) Some infections have a phase where the organism itself or the symptoms linger indefinitely. 4) As the symptoms of the infection decline, the patient enters a period of recovery called the period. 5) The period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms. 6) There are possible phases of infection and disease. 7) During the phase, the infectious agent multiplies at high levels and becomes well established in its target tissue.

1- transmissibility 2- prodromal 3- continuation 4- convalescent 5- incubation 6- five 7- acute

1) Permanent impairments in the patient can arise due to healthcare-associated infections. - true - false 2) Which of the following is thought to be most effective in reducing healthcare-associated infections? - Proper handwashing - Elimination of hospital visitors - Increased medical premiums - Antibiotic use 3) Hand hygiene adherence among healthcare workers in the United States is estimated to be ______. - below 50% - 85% - 100% 4) The introduction of alcohol-based hand gels in a hospital setting is beneficial because - it increases the time needed for proper hand hygiene. - it often makes hand hygiene possible immediately before patient contact takes place. - it creates more irritation to the skin. - it prevents the readherence of microbes to hands for a longer period of time. 5) The WHO's 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene establishes the need for hand cleansing _______. - only when body fluids are contacted - upon entering the hospital facility for the workday - only when exiting the patient's room - before an aseptic procedure 6) True or False: Patient education prior to hospital admission is important to hand hygiene adherence - true - false

1- true 2- Proper handwashing 3- below 50% 4- it often makes hand hygiene possible immediately before patient contact takes place 5- before an aseptic procedure 6- true

Cindy was diagnosed with an opportunistic fungal infection. Drag the descriptions to their correct categories to contrast "true" and opportunistic pathogens.

Opportunistic Pathogens: - Causes infectionin immunocompromised host - Examples include Pseudomonas species and the yeast Candida - Can cause infection when they become established in a body area that they do not naturally inhabit - Commoncause of infection in AIDS and BMT patients True Pathogens: - Can cause infection even in otherwise healthy persons - Examples include influenza virus, malaria, and Salmonella - Posses virulence factors to allow organisms to establish and damage host

Please choose the answer that best completes the blanks of this sentence in the correct order. ______ is the ability of a microbe to cause disease, whereas ______ refers to the relative severity of a disease caused by a particular microorganism. - Pathogenicity; virulence - Virulence; pathogenicity - Virulence; opportunistic - Pathogenicity; opportunistic

Pathogenicity; virulence

Which of the following statements is true regarding reportable diseases? - Most of the reportable diseases are from tropical areas carried to the United States by foreign travel. - Only virally-caused diseases are reportable due to their acute nature. - Most of the reportable diseases are difficult to treat and have high mortality rates. - There are over 75 reportable diseases caused by a large variety of microorganisms.

There are over 75 reportable diseases caused by a large variety of microorganisms.

The number of cases, including new cases as well as already existing cases, in a defined period of time is the _______. - prevalence - Could be either; not enough information is given. - incidence

prevalence

By law, certain _________ diseases must be recorded with the public health authorities in order to maintain proper surveillance at the local, state, national, and international levels. - propagated - reportable - hypersensitive - chronic

reportable