Cisco 1

What does the data link layer add to a Layer 3 packet to create a frame? (Choose two.) A. flags B. sequence number C. header D. trailer

C. header D. trailer

Which topology displays networking device layer IP addresses? A. aerial topology B. IP address topology C. logical topology D. physical topology

C. logical topology

Arianna found a flash drive lying on the pavement of a mall parking lot. She asked around but could not find the owner. She decided to keep it and plugged it into her laptop, only to find a photo folder. Feeling curious, Arianna opened a few photos before formatting the flash drive for her own use. Afterwards, Arianna noticed that her laptop camera was active. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

C. malware attack

Jeremiah was browsing the internet from his personal computer when a random website offered a free program to clean his system. After the executable was downloaded and running, the operating system crashed. Crucial operating system related files had been corrupted and Jeremiah's computer required a full disk format and operating system re-installation. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

C. malware attack

The employees and residents of Ciscoville cannot access the Internet or any remote web-based services. IT workers quickly determine that the city firewall is being flooded with so much traffic that a breakdown of connectivity to the Internet is occurring. Which type of attack is being launched at Ciscoville? A. Trojan Horse B. Reconnaissance C. DoS D. Access

DoS

Which layer is responsible for establishing a temporary communication session between the source and destination host applications? A. application layer B. data link layer C. network layer D. physical layer E. transport layer

E. transport layer

Given network 172.18.109.0, which subnet mask would be used if 6 hosts bits were available? A. 255.255.255.192 B. 255.255.224.0 C. 255.255.255.252 D. 255.255.192.0 E. 255.255.255.248

255.255.255.192

Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum possible throughput between the PC and the server? A. 128 kb/s B. 100 Mb/s C. 10 Mb/s D. 1000 Mb/s

A. 128 kb/s

Which of the following are data link layer protocols? (Choose three) A. 802.11 B. Ethernet C. IP D. PPP E. UDP

A. 802.11 B. Ethernet D. PPP

A small advertising company has a web server that provides critical business service. The company connects to the Internet through a leased line service to an ISP. Which approach best provides cost effective redundancy for the Internet connection? A. Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP. B. Add a second NIC to the web server. C. Add multiple connections between the switches and the edge router. D. Add another web server to prepare failover support.

A. Add a connection to the Internet via a DSL line to another ISP.

Match the terms together. A. CLI B. GUI C. kernel D. shell

A. CLI users interact with the operating system by typing commands. B. GUI enables the user to interact with the operating system by pointing and clicking. C. kernel the part of the OS that interacts directly with the device hardware. D. shell the part of the operating system that interfaces with applications and the user.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame describes the higher-layer protocol that is encapsulated? A. EtherType B. Preamble C. Start of Frame Delimiter D. Frame Check Sequence

A. EtherType

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture? A. Fault tolerance B. Scalability C. Qos D. Security

A. Fault tolerance

Which three are components of message timing? (Choose three.) A. Flow control B. Sequence numbers C. Access method D. Retransmit time E. Response timeout

A. Flow control C. Access method E. Response timeout

Which three options are major issues associated with IPv4? (Choose three.) A. IP address depletion B. increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion C. always on connections D. lack of end-to-end connectivity E. global and political boundaries F. too many IPv4 addresses available

A. IP address depletion B. increased network complexity and Internet routing table expansion D. lack of end-to-end connectivity

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used? A. Logical topology B. Physical topology

A. Logical topology

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on the contents of the RA message for their addressing information? A. Method 1: SLAAC B. Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6 C. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

A. Method 1: SLAAC

Which of the following DNS resource record types resolves authoritative name servers? A. NS B. A C. MX D. AAAA

A. NS

Which two statements are correct about private IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.) A. Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an organization's intranet (internal network). B. Internet routers will typically forward any packet with a destination address that is a private IPv4 address. C. 172.99.1.1 is a private IPv4 address. D. Any organization (home, school, office, company) can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.

A. Private IPv4 addresses are assigned to devices within an organization's intranet (internal network). D. Any organization (home, school, office, company) can use the 10.0.0.0/8 address.

Which is true of the IPv6 packet header? A. The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field. B. The Source and Destination IPv6 addresses change while travelling from source to destination. C. The Time to Live field replaces the DiffServ field. D. The Version field identifies the next header.

A. The Hop Limit field replaces the IPv4 Time to Live field.

If the default gateway is configured incorrectly on the host, what is the impact on communications? A. The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks. B. The host is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network. C. The host can communicate with other hosts on remote networks, but is unable to communicate with hosts on the local network. D. There is no impact on communications.

A. The host can communicate with other hosts on the local network, but is unable to communicate with hosts on remote networks.

What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field? A. The switch drops the frame. B. The switch places the new CRC value in the FCS field and forwards the frame. C. The switch notifies the source of the bad frame. D. The switch floods the frame to all ports except the port through which the frame arrived to notify the hosts of the error.

A. The switch drops the frame.

Which is a characteristic of static routes? A. They are manually configured. B. They are advertised to directly connected neighbors. C. They are appropriate when there are many redundant links. D. They automatically adjust to a change in network topology.

A. They are manually configured.

What is the function of the last field in a data link layer frame? A. To determine whether the frame experienced transmission errors B. To identify special flow control services such as quality or service (QoS) C. To identify the beginning and end limits of the frame. D. To identify the Layer 3 protocol in the data field

A. To determine whether the frame experienced transmission errors

True or False? A router can be configured with a combination of both static routes and a dynamic routing protocol. A. True B. False

A. True

True or false? In a peer-to-peer network environment every peer can function as both a client and a server. A. True B. False

A. True

Which of the following is the most common network media? A. UTP B. STP C. coaxial

A. UTP

Which of the following is a feature of the Gnutella protocol? A. Users can share whole files with other users. B. Users can share pieces of files with other users. C. Users can access an index server to get the location of resources shared by other users.

A. Users can share whole files with other users.

Two network engineers are discussing the methods used to forward frames through a switch. What is an important concept related to the cut-through method of switching? A. The fragment-free switching offers the lowest level of latency. B. Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is used. C. Fragment-free switching is the typical cut-through method of switching. D. Fast-forward switching can be viewed as a compromise between store-and-forwarding switching and fragment-free switching.

B. Packets can be relayed with errors when fast-forward switching is used.

George needed to share a video with a co-worker. Because of the large size of the video file, he decided to run a simple FTP server on his workstation to serve the video file to his co-worker. To make things easier, George created an account with the simple password of "file" and provided it to his co-worker on Friday. Without the proper security measures or a strong password, the IT staff was not surprised to learn on Monday that George's workstation had been compromised and was trying to upload work related documents to the internet. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

A. access attack

What does the IP address 192.168.1.15/29 represent? A. broadcast address B. subnetwork address C. multicast address D. unicast address

A. broadcast address

What is a function of the MAC sublayer? (Choose three.) A. controls access to the media B. checks for errors in received bits C. uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology D. communicates between software at the upper layers and the device hardware at the lower layers E. allows multiple Layer 3 protocols to use the same network interface and media

A. controls access to the media B. checks for errors in received bits C. uses CSMA/CD or CSMA/CA to support Ethernet technology

Which three are transport layer responsibilities? (Choose three.) A. conversation multiplexing B. identifying frames C. identifying routing information D. segmenting data and reassembling segments E. tracking individual conversations

A. conversation multiplexing D. segmenting data and reassembling segments E. tracking individual conversations

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames? A. data link B. transport C. network D. application

A. data link

Which lists the Layer 2 and Layer 3 address fields in the correct order? A. destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address B. source NIC address, destination NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address C. destination NIC address, source NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address D. source NIC address, destination NIC address, destination IP address, source IP address

A. destination NIC address, source NIC address, source IP address, destination IP address

Which term describes a filed in the iPv4 packet header that contains a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address? A. destination iPv4 address B. protocol C. TTL D. header checksum

A. destination iPv4 address

What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC? A. if there is connectivity with the destination device. B. the path that traffic will take to reach the destination. C. what type of device is at the destination. D. if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire.

A. if there is connectivity with the destination device.

Which two OSI model layers have the same functionally as two layers of the TCP/IP model? (Choose two.) A. network B. session C. physical D. data link E. transport

A. network E. transport

What is the PDU associated with the transport layer? A. segment B. packet C. bits D. frame

A. segment

Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model? A. segment B. packet C. frame D. bits

A. segment

Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.) A. session B. application C. transport D. physical E. presentation F. network G. data link

A. session B. application E. presentation

Which of the following is displayed by the nslookup utility? A. the configured default DNS server B. the IP address of the end device C. all cached DNS entries

A. the configured default DNS server

Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary? A. the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches. B. the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds. C. the development of half-duplex switch operation. D. the virtually unlimited availability of iPv6 addresses. E. the use of CSMA/CA

A. the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches.

Network information: -local router LAN interface: 172.19.29.254 / fe80:65ab:dcc1::10 -local router WAN interface: 198.133.219.33 / 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 -remote server: 192.135.250.103 What task might a user be trying to accomplish by using the ping 2001:db8:FACE:39::10 command? A. verifying that there is connectivity to the internet. B. verifying that there is connectivity within the local network. C. creating a network performance benchmark to a server on the company intranet. D. determining the path to reach the remote server.

A. verifying that there is connectivity to the internet.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver? A. Formatting B. Encoding C. Encapsulation

A.Formatting

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation? A. Logical topology B. Physical topology

B. Physical topology

What type of iPv6 address is represented by ::1/128? A. EUI-64 generated link-local B. loopback C. global unicast D. unspecified

C. global unicast

What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission? A. Formatting B. Encoding C. Encapsulation

B. Encoding

True or False. RA messages are sent to all IPv6 routers by hosts requesting addressing information. A. True B. False

B. False

True or false? A DNS server that receives a request for a name resolution that is not within its DNS zone will send a failure message to the requesting client. A. True B. False

B. False

True or false? DHCP clients send a DHCP request message to available DHCP servers. A. True B. False

B. False

True or false? The peer-to-peer networking model requires the implementation of a dedicated server for data access. A. True B. False

B. False

what are two ways to protect a computer from malware? (choose two.) A. Delete unused software. B. Keep software up to date. C. Empty the browser cache. D. Defragment the hard disk. E. Use antivirus sortware.

B. Keep software up to date. E. Use antivirus software.

Which data link sublayer controls the network interface through software drivers? A. MAC B. LLC

B. LLC

Which data link sublayer works with the upper layers to add application information for delivery of data to higher level protocols? A. MAC B. LLC

B. LLC

Which two acronyms represent the data link sublayers that Ethernet relies upon to operate? A. SFD B. LLC C. FCS D. CSMA E. MAC

B. LLC E. MAC

What two functions are provided by ARP? (Choose two.) A. Maintains a table of IPv4 address to domain names B. Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings C. Maintains a table of IPv6 to MAC address mappings D. Resolves IPv4 addresses to domain names E. Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses F. Resolves IPv6 addresses to MAC addresses

B. Maintains a table of IPv4 to MAC address mappings E. Resolves IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices get their IPv6 configuration in a RA message and request DNS information from a DHCPv6 server? A. Method 1: SLAAC B. Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6 C. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

B. Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6

Which delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network? A. Unicast B. Multicast C. Broadcast

B. Multicast

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network? A. Port B. NIC C. Interface

B. NIC

What service is provided by POP3? A. Uses encryption to provide secure remote access to network devices and servers. B. Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client. C. Allows remote access to network devices and servers. D. An application that allows real-time chatting among remote users.

B. Retrieves email from the server by downloading the email to the local mail application of the client.

Which of the following counters EMI and RFI by using shielding techniques and special connectors? A. UTP B. STP C. coaxial

B. STP

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved? A. Fault tolerance B. Scalability C. Qos D. Security

B. Scalability

Which two statements are correct about public IPv4 addresses? (Choose two.) A. Public IPv4 addresses are allowed to be assigned to devices within an organization's intranet (internal network). B. To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must be a public address. C. 192.168.1.10 is a public IPv4 address. D. Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why there are private IPv4 address and why organizations are transitioning to IPv6.

B. To access a device over the internet, the destination IPv4 address must be a public address. D. Public IPv4 address exhaustion is a reason why there are private IPv4 address and why organizations are transitioning to IPv6.

Which delivery method does not guarantee that the packet will be delivered fully without errors? A. connectionless B. best effort C. media independent

B. best effort

Which switching method can be implemented using fast-forward switching or fragment-free switching? A. cut-off switching B. cut-through switching C. store-and-forward switching D. store-and-restore switching

B. cut-through switching

What are two methods for switching data between ports on a switch? (Choose two.) A. cut-off switching B. cut-through switching C. store-and-forward switching D. store-and-supply switching E. store-and-restore switching

B. cut-through switching C. store-and-forward switching

A computer is used as a print server for ACME Inc. The IT staff failed to apply security updates to this computer for over 60 days. Now the print server is operating slowly, and sending a high number of malicious packets to its NIC. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

B. denial of service (DoS) attack

Angela, an IT staff member at ACME Inc., notices that communication with the company's web server is very slow. After investigating, she determines that the cause of the slow response is a computer on the internet sending a very large number of malformed web requests to ACME'S web server. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

B. denial of service (DoS) attack

A network team is comparing topologies for connecting on a shared media. Which physical topology is an example of a hybrid topology for a LAN? A. partial mesh B. extended star C. ring D. bus

B. extended star

Which LAN topology is a hybrid topology? A. bus B. extended star C. ring D. star

B. extended star

What is the term for splitting up an IP packet when forwarding it from one medium to another medium with a smaller MTU? A. encapsulation B. fragmentation C. segmentation D. serialization

B. fragmentation

Which duplex communication method is used in WLANs? A. full-duplex B. half-duplex C. simplex

B. half-duplex

Which two options are improvements provided by IPv6 as compared to IPv4? (Choose two.) A. header supports additional fields for complex packets B. increased the IP address space C. standardizes the use of NAT D. supports class-based networks E. uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling

B. increased the IP address space E. uses a simpler header to provide improved packet handling

Which is true of the IPv6 header? A. it consists of 20 octets. B. it consists of 40 octets. C. it contains 8 header fields. D. it contains 12 header fields.

B. it consists of 40 octets. C. it contains 8 header fields.

A network technician types the command ping 127.0.0.1 at the command prompt on a computer. What is the technician trying to accomplish? A. tracing the path to a host computer on the network and the network has the IP address 127.0.0.1 B. pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network. C. checking the IP address on the network card D. testing the integrity of the TCP/IP stack on the local machine.

B. pinging a host computer that has the IP address 127.0.0.1 on the network

Which two types of memory buffering techniques are used by switches? (Choose two.) A. long-term memory buffering B. port-based memory buffering C. shared memory buffering D. short-term memory buffering

B. port-based memory buffering C. shared memory buffering

To which TCP port group does the port 414 belong? A. private or dynamic B. well-known C. public D. registered

B. well-known

Assume a host with IP address 10.1.1.10 wants to request web services from a server at 10.1.1.254. Which of the following would display the correct socket pair? A. 1099:10.1.1.10, 80:10.1.1.254 B. 10.1.1.10:80, 10.1.1.254:1099 C. 10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80 D. 80:10.1.1.10, 1099:10.1.1.254

C. 10.1.1.10:1099, 10.1.1.254:80

What does a router do when it receives a Layer 2 frame over the network medium? A. re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame B. de-encapsulates the frame. C. determines the best path. D. forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network.

C. determines the best path.

which statement describes the characteristics of packet-filtering and stateful firewalls as they relate to the osi model? A. A stateful firewall can filter application layer information, whereas a packet-filtering firewall cannot filter beyond the network layer. B. A packet-filtering firewall uses session layer information to track the state of a connection, whereas a stateful firewall uses application layer information to track the state of a connection. C. A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer. D. Both stateful and packet-filtering firewalls can filter at the application layer.

C. A packet-filtering firewall typically can filter up to the transport layer, whereas a stateful firewall can filter up to the session layer.

Which of the following DNS record types is used to resolve IPv6 addresses? A. A B. NS C. AAAA D. MX

C. AAAA

Which statement is true about ARP? A. An ARP cache cannot be manually deleted. B. ARP entries are cached permanently. C. ARP entries are cached temporarily.

C. ARP entries are cached temporarily.

What is an attack using ARP? A. ARP broadcasts B. ARP hopping attacks C. ARP poisoning D. ARP starvation

C. ARP poisoning

Why is NAT not needed in iPv6? A. The problems that are induced by NAT applications are solved because the iPv6 header improves packet handling by intermediate routers. B. Because iPv6 has integrated security, there is no need to hide the iPv6 addresses of internal networks. C. Any host or user can get a public iPv6 network address because the number of available iPv6 addresses is extremely large. D. The end-t0-end connectivity problems that are caused by NAT are solved because the number of routes increases with the number of nodes that are connected to the internet.

C. Any host or user can get a public iPv6 network address because the number of available iPv6 addresses is extremely large.

Which peer-to-peer application allows users to share pieces of many files with each other at the same time? A. Hybrid B. Gnutella C. BitTorrent

C. BitTorrent

Which two statements describe the characteristics of fiber-optic cabling? (Choose two.) A. Fiber-optic cabling uses LEDs for single-mode cables and laser technology for multimode cables. B. Multimode fiber-optic cabling carriers signals from multiple sending devices. C. Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity. D. Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.

C. Fiber-optic cabling does not conduct electricity. D. Fiber-optic cabling is primarily used as backbone cabling.

Which part of an Ethernet frame detects errors in the frame? A. Preamble B. Start of Frame Delimiter C. Frame Check Sequence

C. Frame Check Sequence

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks? A. Port B. NIC C. Interface

C. Interface

Which dynamic addressing method for GUAs is the one where devices rely solely on a DHCPv6 server for their addressing information? A. Method 1: SLAAC B. Method 2: SLAAC and Stateless DHCPv6 C. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

C. Method 3: Stateful DHCPv6

Which part of an Ethernet Frame notifies the receiver to get ready for a new frame? A. Start of Frame Delimiter B. Frame Check Sequence C. Preamble D. Data Field

C. Preamble

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion? A. Fault tolerance B. Scalability C. Qos D. Security

C. Qos

Which organization or group of organizations receives IP addresses from IANA and is responsible for allocating these addresses to ISPs and some organizations? A. IETF B. IEEE C. RIRs D. Tier 1 ISPs

C. RIRs

A client packet is received by a server. The packet has a destination port number of 22. What service is the client requesting? A. DHCP B. TFTP C. SSH D. DNS

C. SSH

Switch1> config t % Invalid input detected at ''' marker. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem? A. The administrator must connect via the console port to access global configuration mode. B. The administrator is already in global configuration mode. C. The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command. D. The entire command, configure terminal, must be used.

C. The administrator must first enter privileged EXEC mode before issuing the command.

Which transport layer protocol statement is true? A. TCP has fewer fields than UDP. B. TCP is faster than UDP. C. UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol. D. UDP provides reliability.

C. UDP is a best-effort delivery protocol.

Which transport layer protocol would be used for VoIP applications? A. Session Information Protocol (SIP) B. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) D. VoIP Transfer Protocol

C. User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

Which two issues can cause both runts and giants in Ethernet networks? (Choose two.) A. CRC errors B. half-duplex operations C. a malfunctioning NIC D. electrical interference on serial interfaces E. using the incorrect cable type

C. a malfunctioning NIC D. electrical interference on serial interfaces

What feature automatically negotiates the best speed and duplex setting between interconnecting devices? A. auto-MDIX B. autobots C. autonegotiation D. autotune

C. autonegotiation

Which of the following attaches antennas to wireless devices? It can also be bundled with fiber-optic cabling for two-way data transmission. A. UTP B. STP C. coaxial

C. coaxial

Which of the following terminates with BNC, N type and F type connectors? A. UTP B. STP C. coaxial

C. coaxial

Which layer is responsible for taking an IP packet and preparing it for transmission over the communications medium? A. physical layer B. network layer C. data link layer D. transport layer

C. data link layer

This type of route is also known as a gateway of last resort. A. static route B. remote route C. default route D. directly connected route

C. default route

Which Windows command would display the protocols in use, the local address and port numbers, the foreign address and port numbers, and the connection state? A. ipconfig /all B. ping C. netstat D. traceroute

C. netstat

Which command is used to manually query a DNS server to resolve a specific host name? A. tracert B. ipconfig /displaydns C. nslookup D. net

C. nslookup

Two students are working on a network design project. One student is doing the drawing, while the other student is writing the proposal. The drawing is finished and the student wants to share the folder that contains the drawing so that the other student can access the file and copy it to USB drive. Which networking model is being used? A. point-to-point B. master-slave C. peer-to-peer D. client-based

C. peer-to-peer

Which two commands could be used to check if DNS name resolution is working properly on a Windows PC? (Choose Two.) A. nbstat cisco.com B. net cisco.com C. ping cisco.com D. ipconfig /flushdns E. nslookup cisco.com

C. ping cisco.com E. nslookup cisco.com

Which two functions are performed at the LLC sublayer of the OSI Data Link Layer to facilitate Ethernet communication? (Choose two.) A. applies source and destination MAC addresses to Ethernet frame. B. implements CSMA/CD over legacy shared half-duplex media. C. places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame. D. adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data. E. integrates Layer 2 flows between 10 Gigabit Ethernet over fiber and 1 Gigabit Ethernet over copper.

C. places information in the Ethernet frame that identifies which network layer protocol is being encapsulated by the frame. D. adds Ethernet control information to network protocol data.

Which two ICMP messages are used by both iPv4 and iPv6 protocols? (Choose two.) A. router advertisement B. neighbor solicitation C. route redirection D. router solicitation E. protocol unreachable

C. route redirection E. protocol unreachable

What is the command used on a Cisco IOS router to view the routing table? A. netstart -r B. route print C. show ip route D. show routing table

C. show ip route

Only employees connected to iPv6 interfaces are having difficulty connecting to remote networks. The analyst wants to verify that iPv6 routing has been enabled. What is the best command to use to accomplish the task? A. show interfaces B. copy running-config startup-config C. show running-config D. show ip nat translations

C. show running-config

What characteristic describes spyware? A. an attack that slows or crashes a device or network service. B. the use of stolen credentials to access private data C. software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user D. a network device that filters access and traffic coming into a network.

C. software that is installed on a user device and collects information about the user.

What OSI physical layer term describes the measure of the transfer of bits across a medium over a given period of time? A. latency B. bandwidth C. throughput D. goodput

C. throughput

Which OSI layer sends segments to be encapsulated in an IPv4 or IPv6 packet? A. data link layer B. network layer C. transport layer D. session layer

C. transport layer

Which is the compressed format of the iPv6 address fe80:0000:0000:0000:0220:0b3f:f0e0:0029? A. fe80:9ea0:2020::bf:e0:9290 B. fe80:9ea0::2020:0:bf:e0:9290 C. fe80:9ea:0:2200::fe0:290 D. fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29

D. fe80::220:b3f:f0e0:29

What is a characteristic of a switch virtual interface (SVI)? A. SVI's do not require the no shutdown command to become enabled. B. SVI's come preconfigured on Cisco switches. C. An SVI is created in software and requires a configured IP address and a subnet mask in order to provide remote access to the switch. D. Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device associated with it.

D. Although it is a virtual interface, it needs to have physical hardware on the device associated with it.

Which part of an Ethernet Frame uses a pad to increase the frame field to at least 64 bytes? A. EtherType B. Preamble C. Start of Frame Delimiter D. Data field

D. Data field

What are the two methods a device can use to generate its own IPv6 interface ID? A. SLAAC B. stateless DHCPv6 C. stateful DHCPv6 D. EUI-64 E. randomly generated

D. EUI-64 E. randomly generated

Where is the ARP table stored on a device? A. ROM B. flash C. NVRAM D. RAM

D. RAM

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture? A. Fault tolerance B. Scalability C. Qos D. Security

D. Security

What kind of network would use point-to-point, hub and spoke, or mesh topologies? A. PAN B. LAN C. WLAN D. WAN

D. WAN

What does a code of "O" indicate next to a route in the routing table? A. a directly connected route B. a route with an administrative distance of 0 C. a gateway of last resort D. a route learned dynamically from OSPF

D. a route learned dynamically from OSPF

Which media access control method is used in legacy Ethernet LANs? A. carrier sense multiple access/collision annoyance B. carrier sense multiple access/collision avoidance C. carrier sense multiple access/collision destruction D. carrier sense multiple access/collision detection

D. carrier sense multiple access/collision detection

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack? A. de-encapsulation B. sequencing C. segmentation D. encapsulation

D. encapsulation

Which statement describes network security? A. it prioritizes data flow in order to give priority to delay-sensitive traffic. B. it synchronizes traffic flows using timestamps. C. It supports growth over time in accordance with approved network design procedures. D. it ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.

D. it ensures sensitive corporate data is available for authorized users.

What type of address is 198.133.219.162? A. link-local B. multicast C. loopback D. public

D. public

Sharon, an IT intern at ACME Inc., noticed some strange packets while revising the security logs generated by the firewall. A handful of IP addresses on the internet were sending malformed packets to several different IP addresses, at several different random port numbers inside ACME Inc. What type of attack is described in this scenario? A. access attack B. denial of service (DoS) attack C. malware attack D. reconnaissance attack

D. reconnaissance attack

What routing table entry has a next hop address associated with a destination network? A. C and L source routes B. directly-connected routes C. local routes D. remote routes

D. remote routes

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission? A. sequencing B. duplexing C. multiplexing D. segmentation

D. segmentation

Which command could be used on a Cisco router to view its ARP table? A. arp -a B. arp -d C. show arp table D. show ip arp

D. show ip arp

Refer to the exhibit. What does the value of the window size specify? A. a random number that is used in establishing a connection with the 3-way handshake. B. the total number of bits received during this TCP session. C. the amount of data that can be sent at one time. D. the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required.

D. the amount of data that can be sent before an acknowledgment is required.

Which port group includes port numbers for FTP, HTTP, and TFTP applications? A. dynamic ports B. private ports C. registered ports D. well-known ports

D. well-known ports

Which two devices would be described as intermediary devices? (Choose two.) A. assembly line robots B. retail scanner C. gaming console D. wireless LAN controller E. server F. IPS

D. wireless LAN controller F. IPS

A network administrator is issuing the login block-for 180 attempts 2 within 30 command on a router. Which threat is the network administrator trying to prevent? A. a device that is trying to inspect the traffic on a link. B. a worm that is attempting to access another part of the network. C. a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router. D. an unidentified individual who is trying to access the network equipment room.

a user who is trying to guess a password to access the router.