Combo with "Lewis chapter 65" and 10 others

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Metabolic acidosis occurs in the oliguric phase of AKI as a result of impairment of a. ammonia synthesis. b. excretion of sodium. c. excretion of bicarbonate. d. conservation of potassium.

a. Metabolic acidosis occurs in AKI because the kidneys cannot synthesize ammonia or excrete acid products of metabolism, resulting in an increased acid load. Sodium is lost in urine because the kidneys cannot conserve sodium. Impaired excretion of potassium results in hyperkalemia. Bicarbonate is normally generated and reabsorbed by the functioning kidney to maintain acidbase balance.

A 66-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and atrial fibrillation has begun taking glucosamine and chondroitin for osteoarthritis. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask? "Did you have any hypoglycemic reactions?" "Have you noticed any bruising or bleeding?" "Have you had any dizzy spells when standing up?" "Do you have any numbness or tingling in your feet?"

"Have you noticed any bruising or bleeding?" Glucosamine and chondroitin are dietary supplements commonly used to treat osteoarthritis. Both glucosamine and chondroitin may increase the risk of bleeding. Anticoagulant therapy is indicated for patients with atrial fibrillation to reduce the risk of a thromboembolism and a stroke. Use of glucosamine and chondroitin along with an anticoagulant may precipitate excessive bleeding. Glucosamine may decrease the effectiveness of insulin or other drugs used to control blood glucose levels, and hyperglycemia may occur. Peripheral neuropathy symptoms that can develop with prolonged hyperglycemia include numbness and tingling in the feet.

The patient states that she "loses urine" every time she laughs or coughs. The nurse teaches the patient measures to regain urinary control. The nurse recognizes the need for further teaching when the patient states: A) "I will perform my Kegel exercises every day." B) "I joined weight watchers." C) "I drink two glasses of wine with dinner." D) "I have tried urinating every 3 hours."

"I drink two glasses of wine with dinner."

The nurse obtains a history from a 46-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis. It is most important for the nurse to follow up on which patient statement? "I perform range of motion exercises at least twice a day." "I use a heating pad for 20 minutes to reduce morning stiffness." "I take a 20-minute nap in the afternoon even if I sleep 9 hours at night." "I restrict fluids to prevent edema when taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex)."

"I restrict fluids to prevent edema when taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex)." Methotrexate can affect renal function. Patients should be well hydrated to prevent nephropathy. Heat application, range of motion, and rest are appropriate interventions to manage rheumatoid arthritis.

A female patient reports that she is experiencing burning on urination, frequency, and urgency. The nurse notes that a clean-voided urine specimen is markedly cloudy. The probable cause of these symptoms and findings is: A) Cystitis. B) Hematuria. C) Pyelonephritis. D) Dysuria.

A) Cystitis.

A male patient returned from the operating room 6 hours ago with a cast on his right arm. He has not yet voided. Which action would be the most beneficial in assisting the patient to void? A) Suggest he stand at the bedside B) Stay with the patient C) Give him the urinal to use in bed D) Tell him that, if he doesn't urinate, he will be catheterized

A) Suggest he stand at the bedside

Select the results (in italics) that are normal in a urinalysis. A. pH 6 B. Specific gravity 1.015 C. Protein small D. Sugar negative E. Nitrate small F. Leukocyte esterase positive G. Bilirubin negative

A, B, D, G Rationale: The abnormal values are indicative of a urinary tract infection. As a result of protein, nitrates, and leukoesterase in the urine, the nurse can expect the laboratory to analyze microscopic sediment including evaluating the sample for the presence of crystals, casts, WBCs, and RBCs.

A patient recovering from an acute exacerbation of RA tells the nurse she is too tired to bathe. The nurse should a. give the patient a bed bath to conserve her energy b. allow the patient a rest period before showering with the nurses' help c. tell the patient that she can skip bathing if she will walk in the hall later d. inform the patient that it is important for her to maintain self-care activities

B. allow the patient a rest period before showering with the nurses' help

A patient with OA asks the nurse whether he could try glucosamine and chondroitin for control of his symptoms. The best response by the nurse includes the information that a. some patients find these supplements helpful for relieving arthritis knee pain and improving mobility b. although these substances may not help, there is no evidence that they can cause any untoward effects c. these supplements are a fad that has not been shown to reduce pain or increase joint mobility in patients with OA d. only dosages of these supplements available by prescription are high enough to provide any benefit in treatment of OA

A. Some patients find these supplements helpful for relieving arthritis knee pain and improving mobilitiy

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 40-year-old with newly diagnosed ankylosing spondylitis? a. Advise the patient to sleep on the back with a flat pillow. b. Emphasize that application of heat may worsen symptoms. c. Schedule annual laboratory assessment for the HLA-B27 antigen. d. Assist patient to choose physical activities that allow the spine to flex.

ANS: A Because ankylosing spondylitis results in flexion deformity of the spine, postures that extend the spine (such as sleeping on the back and with a flat pillow) are recommended. HLA-B27 antigen levels are used for initial diagnosis, but are not needed annually. To counteract the development of flexion deformities, the patient should choose activities that extend the spine, such as swimming. Heat application is used to decrease localized pain

The patient developed gout while hospitalized for a heart attack. When doing discharge teaching for this patient who takes aspirin for its antiplatelet effect, what should the nurse include about preventing future attacks of gout? Limit fluid intake. Administration of probenecid (Benemid) Administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim) Administration of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Administration of allopurinol (Zyloprim) To prevent future attacks of gout, the urate-lowering drug allopurinol may be administered. Increased fluid will be encouraged to prevent precipitation of uric acid in the renal tubules. This patient will not be able to take the uricosuric drug probenecid because the aspirin the patient must take will inactivate its effect, resulting in urate retention. NSAIDs for pain management will not be used, related to the aspirin, because of the potential for increased side effects.

A patient with newly diagnosed SLE asks the nurse how the disease will affect her life. The best response by the nurse is a. You can plan to have a near-normal life since SLE rarely causes death b. it is difficult to tell because to disease is so variable in its severity and progression c. life span is shortened somewhat in people with SLE, but the disease can be controlled with long-term use of corticosteroids d. most people with SLE have alternating periods of remissions and exacerbations with rapid progression to permanent organ damage

B. it is difficult to tell because the disease is so variable in its severity and progression

24. A diagnosis of hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNC) is made for a patient with type 2 diabetes who is brought to the emergency department in an unresponsive state. The nurse will anticipate the need to a. administer glargine (Lantus) insulin. b. initiate oxygen by nasal cannula. c. insert a large-bore IV catheter. d. give 50% dextrose as a bolus.

C Rationale: HHNC is initially treated with large volumes of IV fluids to correct hypovolemia. Regular insulin is administered, not a long-acting insulin. There is no indication that the patient requires oxygen. Dextrose solutions will increase the patient's blood glucose and would be contraindicated. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1281 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Because the incidence of Lyme disease is very high in Wisconsin, the public health nurse is planning to provide community education to increase the number of people who seek health care promptly after a tick bite. What information should the nurse provide when teaching people who are at risk for a tick bite? The best therapy for the acute illness is an IV antibiotic. Check for an enlarging reddened area with a clear center. Surveillance is necessary during the summer months only. Antibiotics will prevent Lyme disease if taken for 10 days.

Check for an enlarging reddened area with a clear center. Following a tick bite, the expanding "bull's eye rash" is the most characteristic symptom that usually occurs in 3 to 30 days. There may also be flu-like symptoms and migrating joint and muscle pain. Active lesions are treated with oral antibiotics for 2 to 3 weeks, and doxycycline is effective in preventing Lyme disease when given within 3 days after the bite of a deer tick. IV therapy is used with neurologic or cardiac complications. Although ticks are most prevalent during summer months, residents of high-risk areas should check for ticks whenever they are outdoors.

Since removal of the patient's Foley catheter, the patient has voided 50 to 100 mL every 2 to 3 hours. Which action should the nurse take first? A) Check for bladder distention B) Encourage fluid intake C) Obtain an order to recatheterize the patient D) Document the amount of each voiding for 24 hours

Check for bladder distention

The nurse notes that the patient's Foley catheter bag has been empty for 4 hours. The priority action would be to: A) Irrigate the Foley. B) Check for kinks in the tubing. C) Notify the health care provider. D) Assess the patient's intake.

Check for kinks in the tubing.

37. The nurse teaches the diabetic patient who rides a bicycle to work every day to administer morning insulin into the a. thigh. b. buttock. c. arm. d. abdomen.

D Rationale: Patients should be taught not to administer insulin into a site that will be exercised because exercise will increase the rate of absorption. The thigh, buttock, and arm are all exercised by riding a bicycle. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1262 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After teaching a patient with RA to use heat and cold therapy to relieve symptoms, the nurse determines that teaching has been effective when the patient says, a. heat treatments should not be used if muscle spasms are present b. cold applications can be applied for 15-20 minutes to relieve joint stiffness c. I should use heat applications for 20 minutes to relieve the symptoms of an acute flare d. when my joints are painful, I can use a bag of frozen corn for 10 to 15 minutes to relieve the pain

D. when my joints are painful, I can use a bag of frozen corn for 10 to 15 minutes to relive the pain

The nurse teaches a 64-year-old man with gouty arthritis about food that may be consumed on a low-purine diet. Which food item, if selected by the patient, would indicate an understanding of the instructions? Eggs Liver Salmon Chicken

Eggs Gout is caused by an increase in uric acid production, underexcretion of uric acid by the kidneys, or increased intake of foods containing purines, which are metabolized to uric acid by the body. Liver is high in purine, and chicken and salmon are moderately high in purine.

A patient with a Foley catheter carries the collection bag at waist level when ambulating. The nurse tells the patient that he or she is at risk for: (Select all that apply.) A) Infection. B) Retention. C) Stagnant urine. D) Reflux of urine.

Infection. Reflux of urine.

An older male patient states that he is having problems starting and stopping his stream of urine and he feels the urgency to void. The best way to assist this patient is to: A) Help him stand to void. B) Place a condom catheter. C) Have him practice Credé's method. D) Initiate Kegel exercises.

Initiate Kegel exercises.

To minimize the patient experiencing nocturia, the nurse would teach him or her to: A) Perform perineal hygiene after urinating. B) Set up a toileting schedule. C) Double void. D) Limit fluids before bedtime.

Limit fluids before bedtime

The nurse is admitting a patient who is scheduled for knee arthroscopy related to osteoarthritis (OA). Which finding should the nurse expect to be present on examination of the patient's knees? Ulnar drift Pain with joint movement Reddened, swollen affected joints Stiffness that increases with movement

Pain with joint movement OA is characterized predominantly by joint pain upon movement and is a classic feature of the disease. Ulnar drift occurs with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) not osteoarthritis. Not all joints are reddened or swollen. Only Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes may be. Stiffness decreases with movement.

Which complication of chronic kidney disease is treated with erythropoietin (EPO)? a. Anemia b. Hypertension c. Hyperkalemia d. Mineral and bone disorder

a. Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia, as it stimulates the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

A patient received a kidney transplant last month. Because of the effects of immunosuppressive drugs and CKD, what complication of transplantation should the nurse be assessing the patient for to decrease the risk of mortality? a. Infection b. Rejection c. Malignancy d. Cardiovascular disease

a. Infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality after transplantation because the surgery, the immunosuppressive drugs, and the effects of CKD all suppress the body's normal defense mechanisms, thus increasing the risk of infection. The nurse must assess the patient as well as use aseptic technique to prevent infections. Rejection may occur but for other reasons. Malignancy occurrence increases later due to immunosuppressive therapy. Cardiovascular disease is the leading cause of death after renal transplantation but this would not be expected to cause death within the first month after transplantation.

What is the most serious electrolyte disorder associated with kidney disease? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyperkalemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypermagnesemia

b. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening dysrhythmias. Hypocalcemia leads to an accelerated rate of bone remodeling and potentially to tetany. Hyponatremia may lead to confusion. Elevated sodium levels lead to edema, hypertension, and heart failure. Hypermagnesemia may decrease reflexes, mental status, and blood pressure.

*1. In teaching a patient with pyelonephritis about the disorder, the nurse informs the paitent that the organisms that cause pyelonephritis most commonly reach the kidneys through* a. the bloodstream b.the lymphatic system c. a descending infection d. an ascending infection

d. an ascending infection

*11. A patient has has a cystectomy and ileal conduit diversion performed. Four days postoperatively, mucous shred are seen in the drainage bag. The nurse should.* a. notify the physician b.notify the charge nurse c. irrigate the drainage tube d. chart it as a normal observation

d. chart it as a normal observation

When reinforcing health teaching about the management of osteoarthritis (OA), the nurse determines that the patient needs additional instruction after making which statement? "I should take the Naprosyn as prescribed to help control the pain." "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." "I can use a cane if I find it helpful in relieving the pressure on my back and hip." "A warm shower in the morning will help relieve the stiffness I have when I get up."

"I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." It is important to maintain a balance between rest and activity to prevent overstressing the joints with OA. Naproxen (Naprosyn) may be used for moderate to severe OA pain. Using a cane and warm shower to help relieve pain and morning stiffness are helpful.

A female patient's complex symptomatology over the past year has led to a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which statement demonstrates the patient's need for further teaching about the disease? "I'll try my best to stay out of the sun this summer." "I know that I probably have a high chance of getting arthritis." "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." "I understand that I'm going to be vulnerable to getting infections."

"I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." Surgery is not a key treatment modality for SLE, so this indicates a need for further teaching. SLE carries an increased risk of infection, sun damage, and arthritis.

A 24-year-old female patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) tells the nurse she wants to have a baby and is considering getting pregnant. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? "Infertility can result from the medications used to control your disease." "Pregnancy will result in a temporary remission of your signs and symptoms." "Autoantibodies transferred to the baby during pregnancy will cause heart defects." "The baby is at high risk for neonatal lupus erythematosus being diagnosed at birth."

"Infertility can result from the medications used to control your disease." Infertility may be caused by renal involvement and the previous use of high-dose corticosteroid and chemotherapy drugs. Neonatal lupus erythematosus rarely occurs in infants born to women with SLE. Exacerbation is common following pregnancy during the postpartum period. Spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, and intrauterine growth retardation are common problems with pregnancy related to deposits of immune complexes in the placenta and because of inflammatory responses in the placental blood vessels. There is not an increased risk for heart defects.

A 62-year-old woman diagnosed with fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) reports difficulty sleeping at night. Which suggestion should the nurse give to the patient? "Drinking a glass of red wine 30 minutes before bedtime will reduce anxiety and help you fall asleep." "Evening primrose oil is an herbal supplement that can be used as a sleep aid and to relieve anxiety." "Melatonin is a hormone that is often used in supplements to improve sleep and ease fibromyalgia pain." "Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is a nonprescription sleep aid that is effective and does not cause tolerance."

"Melatonin is a hormone that is often used in supplements to improve sleep and ease fibromyalgia pain." Melatonin is a hormone prepared as a supplement. Scientific evidence suggests that melatonin decreases sleep latency and may increase the duration of sleep. In addition, melatonin may decrease fatigue and pain in individuals with fibromyalgia. Alcohol should not be consumed 4 to 6 hours before bedtime. Evening primrose oil is an herbal product used for breast pain (oral form) and skin disorders (topical form). Long-term use of diphenhydramine for sleep causes tolerance.

Which patient statement most clearly suggests a need to assess the patient for ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? "My right elbow has become red and swollen over the last few days." "I wake up stiff every morning, and my knees just don't want to bend." "My husband tells me that my posture has become so stooped this winter." "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time, and nothing seems to help."

"My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time, and nothing seems to help." AS primarily affects the axial skeleton. Based on this, symptoms of inflammatory spine pain are often the first clues to a diagnosis of AS. Knee or elbow involvement is not consistent with the typical course of AS. Back pain is likely to precede the development of kyphosis.

After a transurethral prostatectomy a patient returns to his room with a triple-lumen indwelling catheter and continuous bladder irrigation. The irrigation is normal saline at 150 mL/hr. The nurse empties the drainage bag for a total of 2520 mL after an 8-hour period. How much of the total is urine output?

1320

The nurse directs the NAP to remove a Foley catheter at 1300. The nurse would check if the patient has voided by: A) 1400. B) 1600 C) 1700. D) 2300.

1700.

21. A 63-year-old patient is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. When developing an education plan, the nurse's first action should be to a. assess the patient's perception of what it means to have type 2 diabetes. b. demonstrate how to check glucose using capillary blood glucose monitoring. c. ask the patient's family to participate in the diabetes education program. d. discuss the need for the patient to actively participate in diabetes management.

A Rationale: Before planning education, the nurse should assess the patient's interest in and ability to self-manage the diabetes. After assessing the patient, the other nursing actions may be appropriate, but planning needs to be individualized to each patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p.1264 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

18. A patient with type 2 diabetes that is controlled with diet and metformin (Glucophage) also has severe rheumatoid arthritis (RA). During an acute exacerbation of the patient's arthritis, the health care provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone) to control inflammation. The nurse will anticipate that the patient may a. require administration of insulin while taking prednisone. b. develop acute hypoglycemia during the RA exacerbation. c. have rashes caused by metformin-prednisone interactions. d. need a diet higher in calories while receiving prednisone.

A Rationale: Glucose levels increase when patients are taking corticosteroids, and insulin may be required to control blood glucose. Hypoglycemia is not a complication of RA exacerbation or prednisone use. Rashes are not an adverse effect caused by taking metformin and prednisone simultaneously. The patient is likely to have an increased appetite when taking prednisone, but it will be important to avoid weight gain for the patient with RA. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1258, 1267 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. After the home health nurse has taught a patient and family about how to use glargine and regular insulin safely, which action by the patient indicates that the teaching has been successful? a. The patient disposes of the open insulin vials after 4 weeks. b. The patient draws up the regular insulin in the syringe and then draws up the glargine. c. The patient stores extra vials of both types of insulin in the freezer until needed. d. The patient's family prefills the syringes weekly and stores them in the refrigerator.

A Rationale: Insulin can be stored at room temperature for 4 weeks. Glargine should not be mixed with other insulins or prefilled and stored. Freezing alters the insulin molecule and should not be done. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1261 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. A patient using a split mixed-dose insulin regimen asks the nurse about the use of intensive insulin therapy to achieve tighter glucose control. The nurse should teach the patient that a. intensive insulin therapy requires three or more injections a day in addition to an injection of a basal long-acting insulin. b. intensive insulin therapy is indicated only for newly diagnosed type 1 diabetics who have never experienced ketoacidosis. c. studies have shown that intensive insulin therapy is most effective in preventing the macrovascular complications characteristic of type 2 diabetes. d. an insulin pump provides the best glucose control and requires about the same amount of attention as intensive insulin therapy.

A Rationale: Patients using intensive insulin therapy must check their glucose level four to six times daily and administer insulin accordingly. A previous episode of ketoacidosis is not a contraindication for intensive insulin therapy. Intensive insulin therapy is not confined to type 2 diabetics and would prevent microvascular changes as well as macrovascular changes. Intensive insulin therapy and an insulin pump are comparable in glucose control. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1263 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. Intramuscular glucagon is administered to an unresponsive patient for treatment of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse take after the patient regains consciousness? a. Give the patient a snack of cheese and crackers. b. Have the patient drink a glass of orange juice or nonfat milk. c. Administer a continuous infusion of 5% dextrose for 24 hours. d. Assess the patient for symptoms of hyperglycemia.

A Rationale: Rebound hypoglycemia can occur after glucagon administration, but having a meal containing complex carbohydrates plus protein and fat will help prevent hypoglycemia. Orange juice and nonfat milk will elevate blood sugar rapidly, but the cheese and crackers will stabilize blood sugar. Administration of glucose intravenously might be used in patients who were unable to take in nutrition orally. The patient should be assessed for symptoms of hypoglycemia after glucagon administration. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1282 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. The nurse has been teaching the patient to administer a dose of 10 units of regular insulin and 28 units of NPH insulin. The statement by the patient that indicates a need for additional instruction is, a. "I need to rotate injection sites among my arms, legs, and abdomen each day." b. "I will buy the 0.5-ml syringes because the line markings will be easier to see." c. "I should draw up the regular insulin first after injecting air into the NPH bottle." d. "I do not need to aspirate the plunger to check for blood before I inject the insulin."

A Rationale: Rotating sites is no longer necessary because all insulin is now purified human insulin, and the risk for lipodystrophy is low. The other patient statements are accurate and indicate that no additional instruction is needed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1262 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

22. Cardiac monitoring is initiated for a patient in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse recognizes that this measure is important to identify a. electrocardiographic (ECG) changes and dysrhythmias related to hypokalemia. b. fluid overload resulting from aggressive fluid replacement. c. the presence of hypovolemic shock related to osmotic diuresis. d. cardiovascular collapse resulting from the effects of hyperglycemia.

A Rationale: The hypokalemia associated with metabolic acidosis can lead to potentially fatal dysrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia and ventricular fibrillation, which would be detected with ECG monitoring. Fluid overload, hypovolemia, and cardiovascular collapse are possible complications of DKA, but cardiac monitoring would not detect theses. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1281 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. A patient with type 1 diabetes has been using self-monitoring of blood glucose (SMBG) as part of diabetes management. During evaluation of the patient's technique of SMBG, the nurse identifies a need for additional teaching when the patient a. chooses a puncture site in the center of the finger pad. b. washes the puncture site using soap and water. c. says the result of 130 mg indicates good blood sugar control. d. hangs the arm down for a minute before puncturing the site.

A Rationale: The patient is taught to choose a puncture site at the side of the finger pad. The other patient actions indicate that teaching has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1270 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

17. When teaching a patient with type 2 diabetes about taking glipizide (Glucotrol), the nurse determines that additional teaching about the medication is needed when the patient says, a. "Since I can take oral drugs rather than insulin, my diabetes is not serious and won't cause many complications." b. "If I overeat at a meal, I will still take just the usual dose of medication." c. "If I become ill, I may have to take insulin to control my blood sugar." d. "I should check with my doctor before taking any other medications because there are many that will affect glucose levels."

A Rationale: The patient should understand that type 2 diabetes places the patient at risk for many complications and that good glucose control is as important when taking oral agents as when using insulin. The other statements are accurate and indicate good understanding of the use of glipizide. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1275 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

26. While hospitalized and recovering from an episode of diabetic ketoacidosis, the patient calls the nurse and reports feeling anxious, nervous, and sweaty. Based on the patient's report, the nurse should a. obtain a glucose reading using a finger stick. b. administer 1 mg glucagon subcutaneously. c. have the patient eat a candy bar. d. have the patient drink 4 ounces of orange juice.

A Rationale: The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with hypoglycemia and the initial action should be to check the patient's glucose with a finger stick or order a stat blood glucose. If the glucose is low, the patient should ingest a rapid-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice. Glucagon might be given if the patient's symptoms become worse or if the patient is unconscious. Candy bars contain fat, which would slow down the absorption of sugar and delay the response to treatment. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1282 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. Glyburide (Micronase, DiaBeta, Glynase) is prescribed for a patient whose type 2 diabetes has not been controlled with diet and exercise. When teaching the patient about glyburide, the nurse explains that a. glyburide stimulates insulin production and release from the pancreas. b. the patient should not take glyburide for 48 hours after receiving IV contrast media. c. glyburide should be taken even when the blood glucose level is low in the morning. d. glyburide decreases glucagon secretion.

A Rationale: The sulfonylureas stimulate the production and release of insulin from the pancreas. If the glucose level is low, the patient should contact the health care provider before taking the glyburide, since hypoglycemia can occur with this category of medication. Metformin should be held for 48 hours after administration of IV contract, but this is not necessary for glyburide. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1265-1266 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

32. Amitriptyline (Elavil) is prescribed for a diabetic patient with peripheral neuropathy who has burning foot pain occurring mostly at night. Which information should the nurse include when teaching the patient about the new medication? a. Amitriptyline will help prevent the transmission of pain impulses to the brain. b. Amitriptyline will improve sleep and make you less aware of nighttime pain. c. Amitriptyline will decrease the depression caused by the pain. d. Amitriptyline will correct some of the blood vessel changes that cause pain.

A Rationale: Tricyclic antidepressants decrease the transmission of pain impulses to the spinal cord and brain. Tricyclics also improve sleep quality and are used for depression, but that is not the major purpose for their use in diabetic neuropathy. The blood vessel changes that contribute to neuropathy are not affected by tricyclics. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1285 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. When assessing the patient experiencing the onset of symptoms of type 1 diabetes, which question should the nurse ask? a. "Have you lost any weight lately?" b. "Do you crave fluids containing sugar?" c. "How long have you felt anorexic?" d. "Is your urine unusually dark-colored?"

A Rationale: Weight loss occurs because the body is no longer able to absorb glucose and starts to break down protein and fat for energy. The patient is thirsty but does not necessarily crave sugar- containing fluids. Increased appetite is a classic symptom of type 1 diabetes. With the classic symptom of polyuria, urine will be very dilute. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1255, 1258 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The patient had frostbite on the distal areas of the toes on both feet. The patient is scheduled for amputation of the damaged tissue. Which assessment finding or diagnostic study is the most objective indicator for locating the level of the patient's injury? A Arteriography showing blood vessels B Peripheral pulse assessment bilaterally C Patches of black, indurated, and cold tissue D Bilateral pale and cool skin below the ankles

A Arteriography showing blood vessels Arteriography is the most objective study to determine viable tissue for salvage based on perfusion because actual blood flow through the tissues is observed in real time. It is considered the gold standard for evaluating arterial perfusion. Bilateral peripheral pulse assessment, areas of black, indurated, and cold tissue, and bilateral pale and cool skin all identify the lack of tissue perfusion, but not the specific area where tissue perfusion stops and amputation needs to occur.

The patient had a lumbar spine arthrodesis. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching (select all that apply)? A Do not smoke cigarettes. B You should not walk for 3 weeks. C You must wear your brace at all times. D You may drive as soon as you feel like it. E Do not bend your spine until your follow-up appointment.

A Do not smoke cigarettes. E Do not bend your spine until your follow-up appointment. After a spinal fusion, the patient should not smoke cigarettes as nonunion tends to occur more often with smokers. Preventing pressure by not bending or twisting the spine or lifting more than 10 pounds will facilitate healing. The amount of time that is needed will be determined by the surgeon at follow-up appointments, but healing usually takes 6 to 9 months. An important aspect of healing is progressively increasing walking, which increases circulation of nutrients and oxygen for healing. If a brace is ordered to protect the surgical area, the surgeon will order how often the patient should wear it. Driving is not done until the surgeon allows it and the patient is no longer taking opioids for pain.

The nurse is caring for a 76-year-old man who has undergone left knee arthroplasty with prosthetic replacement of the knee joint to relieve the pain of severe osteoarthritis. Postoperatively the nurse expects what to be included in the care of the affected leg? A Progressive leg exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion B Early ambulation with full weight bearing on the left leg C Bed rest for 3 days with the left leg immobilized in extension D Immobilization of the left knee in 30-degree flexion for 2 weeks to prevent dislocation

A Progressive leg exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion Although early ambulation is not done, the patient is encouraged to engage in progressive leg exercises until 90-degree flexion is possible. Because this is painful after surgery, the patient requires good pain management and often the use of a CPM machine. The patient's knee is unlikely to dislocate.

Elimination changes that result from inability of the bladder to empty properly may cause which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Incontinence B) Frequency C) Urgency D) Urinary retention E) Urinary tract infection

A) Incontinence B) Frequency C) Urgency D) Urinary retention E) Urinary tract infection

Which individuals would be at high risk for low back pain (select all that apply)? a.A 63-year-old man who is a long-distance truck driver b.A 36-year-old 6 ft, 2 in construction worker who weighs 260 lb c.A 28-year-old female yoga instructor who is 5 ft, 6 in and weighs 130 lb d.A 30-year-old male nurse who works on an orthopedic unit and smokes e.A 44-year-old female chef with prior compression fracture of the spine

A, B, D, E Risk factors associated with low back pain include a lack of muscle tone and excess body weight, stress, poor posture, cigarette smoking, pregnancy, prior compression fractures of the spine, spinal problems since birth, and a family history of back pain. Jobs that require repetitive heavy lifting, vibration (such as a jackhammer operator), and prolonged periods of sitting are also associated with low back pain. Low back pain is most often caused by a musculoskeletal problem. The causes of low back pain of musculoskeletal origin include (1) acute lumbosacral strain, (2) instability of the lumbosacral bony mechanism, (3) osteoarthritis of the lumbosacral vertebrae, (4) degenerative disc disease, and (5) herniation of an intervertebral disc. Health care personnel are at high risk for the development of low back pain. Lifting and moving patients, excessive time being stooped over or leaning forward, and frequent twisting can result in low back pain.

The nurse provides instructions to a 30-year-old female office worker who has low back pain. Which statement by the patient requires an intervention by the nurse? A. "Acupuncture to the lower back would cause irreparable nerve damage." B. "Smoking may aggravate back pain by decreasing blood flow to the spine." C. "Sleeping on my side with knees and hips bent reduces stress on my back." D. "Switching between hot and cold packs provides relief of pain and stiffness."

A. "Acupuncture to the lower back would cause irreparable nerve damage." Acupuncture is a safe therapy when the practitioner has been appropriately trained. Very fine needles are inserted into the skin to stimulate specific anatomic points in the body for therapeutic purposes.

A 54-year-old patient with acute osteomyelitis asks the nurse how this problem will be treated. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A. "IV antibiotics are usually required for several weeks." B. "Oral antibiotics are often required for several months." C. "Surgery is almost always necessary to remove the dead tissue that is likely to be present." D. "Drainage of the foot and instillation of antibiotics into the affected area is the usual therapy."

A. "IV antibiotics are usually required for several weeks." The standard treatment for acute osteomyelitis consists of several weeks of IV antibiotic therapy. This is because bone is denser and less vascular than other tissues, and it takes time for the antibiotic therapy to eradicate all of the microorganisms. Surgery may be used for chronic osteomyelitis, which may include debridement of the devitalized and infected tissue and irrigation of the affected bone with antibiotics.

The nurse is admitting a patient to the nursing unit with a history of a herniated lumbar disc and low back pain. In completing a more thorough pain assessment, the nurse should ask the patient if which action aggravates the pain? A. Bending or lifting B. Application of warm moist heat C. Sleeping in a side-lying position D. Sitting in a fully extended recliner

A. Bending or lifting Back pain that is related to a herniated lumbar disc often is aggravated by events and activities that increase the stress and strain on the spine, such as bending or lifting, coughing, sneezing, and lifting the leg with the knee straight (straight leg-raising test). Application of moist heat, sleeping position, and ability to sit in a fully extended recliner do not aggravate the pain of a herniated lumbar disc.

The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with exacerbation of chronic bronchitis and herniated lumbar disc. Which breakfast choice would be most appropriate for the nurse to encourage the patient to check on the breakfast menu? A. Bran muffin B. Scrambled eggs C. Puffed rice cereal D. Buttered white toast

A. Bran muffin Each meal should contain one or more sources of fiber, which will reduce the risk of constipation and straining with defecation, which increases back pain. Bran is typically a high-fiber food choice and is appropriate for selection from the menu. Scrambled eggs, puffed rice cereal, and buttered white toast do not have as much fiber.

A patient taking ibuprofen (Motrin) for treatment of OA has good pain relief but is experiencing increased dyspepsia and nausea with the drug's use. The nurse consults the patient's primary care provider about a. adding misoprostol (Cytotec) to the patient's drug regimen b. substituting naproxen (Naprosyn) for the ibuprofen (Motrin) c. administering the ibuprofen with antacids to decrease the GI irritation d. returning to the use of acetaminophen, but at a dose of 5 g/day instead of 4 g/day

A. adding misoprostol (Cytotec) to the patient's drug regimen

Which nursing intervention is most appropriate when turning a patient following spinal surgery? A. Placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the body as a unit B. Having the patient turn to the side by grasping the side rails to help turn over C. Elevating the head of bed 30 degrees and having the patient extend the legs while turning D. Turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips, keeping the patient's body centered in the bed

A. Placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the body as a unit Placing a pillow between the legs and turning the patient as a unit (logrolling) helps to keep the spine in good alignment and reduces pain and discomfort following spinal surgery. Having the patient turn by grasping the side rail to help, elevating the head of the bed, and turning with extended legs or turning the patient's head and shoulders and then the hips will not maintain proper spine alignment and may cause damage.

The pathophysiology of systemic lupus erthematosus (SLE) is characterized by a. destruction of nucleic acids and other self-proteins by autoantibodies b. overproduction of collagen that disrupts the functioning of internal organs c. formation of abnormal IgG that attaches to cellular antigens, activating complement d. increased activity of T-suppressor cells with B-cell hypoactivity, resulting in an immunodeficiency

A. destruction of nucleic acids and other self-proteins by autoantibodies

Teaching that the nurse will plan for the patient with SLE includes a. ways to avoid exposure to sunlight b. increasing dietary protein and carbohydrate intake c. the necessity of genetic counseling before planning a family d. the use of no pharmacologic pain interventions instead of analgesics

A. ways to avoid exposure to sunlight

In which order will the nurse take these actions when caring for a patient with left leg fractures after a motor vehicle accident? Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) ____________________ a. Obtain x-rays. b. Check pedal pulses. c. Assess lung sounds. d. Take blood pressure. e. Apply splint to the leg. f. Administer tetanus prophylaxis.

ANS: C, D, B, E, A, F The initial actions should be to ensure that airway, breathing, and circulation are intact. This should be followed by checking the neurovascular status of the leg (before and after splint application). Application of a splint to immobilize the leg should be done before sending the patient for x-rays. The tetanus prophylaxis is the least urgent of the actions.

In which order will the nurse take these actions when caring for a patient in the emergency department with a right leg fracture after a motor vehicle accident? (Put a comma and a space between each answer choice [A, B, C, D, E, F].) a. Obtain x-rays. b. Check pedal pulses. c. Assess lung sounds. d. Take blood pressure. e. Apply splint to the leg. f. Administer tetanus prophylaxis.

During treatment of the patient with an acute attack of gout, the nurse would expect to administer a. aspirin b. colchicine c. allopurinol (Zyloprim) d. probenecid (Benemid)

B. Colchicine

When admitting a patient with acute glomerulonephritis, it is most important that the nurse ask the patient about a. recent sore throat and fever. b. history of high blood pressure. c. frequency of bladder infections. d. family history of kidney stones.

ANS: A Acute glomerulonephritis frequently occurs after a streptococcal infection such as strep throat. It is not caused by hypertension, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1131-1132

Following rectal surgery, a patient voids about 50 mL of urine every 30 to 60 minutes. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Use an ultrasound scanner to check the postvoiding residual. b. Monitor the patient's intake and output over the next few hours. c. Have the patient take small amounts of fluid frequently throughout the day. d. Reassure the patient that this is normal after rectal surgery because of anesthesia.

ANS: A An ultrasound scanner can be used to check for residual urine after the patient voids. Because the patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with overflow incontinence, it is not appropriate to have the patient drink small amounts. Although overflow incontinence is not unusual after surgery, the nurse should intervene to correct the physiologic problem, not just reassure the patient. The patient may develop reflux into the renal pelvis as well as discomfort from a full bladder if the nurse waits to address the problem for several hours. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1146-1147 | 1154

A 32-year-old patient is diagnosed with polycystic kidney disease. Which information is most appropriate for the nurse to include in teaching at this time? a. Importance of genetic counseling b. Complications of renal transplantation c. Methods for treating chronic and severe pain d. Differences between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis

ANS: A Because a 32-year-old patient may be considering having children, the nurse should include information about genetic counseling when teaching the patient. The well-managed patient will not need to choose between hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis or know about the effects of transplantation for many years. There is no indication that the patient has chronic pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1143

A 28-year-old with psoriatic arthritis and back pain is receiving etanercept (Enbrel). Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Crackles are heard in both lung bases. b. Red, scaly patches are noted on the arms. c. Hemoglobin level is 11.1g/dL and hematocrit is 35%. d. Patient reports continued back pain after a week of etanercept therapy.

ANS: A Because heart failure is a possible adverse effect of etanercept, the medication may need to be discontinued. The other information will also be reported to the health care provider but does not indicate a need for a change in treatment. Red, scaly patches of skin and mild anemia are commonly seen with psoriatic arthritis. Treatment with biologic therapies requires time to improve symptoms.

The nurse determines that colchicine has been effective for a patient with an acute attack of gout upon finding a. relief of joint pain. b. increased urine output. c. elevated serum uric acid. d. increased white blood cells (WBC).

ANS: A Colchicine produces pain relief in 24 to 48 hours by decreasing inflammation. The recommended increase in fluid intake of 2 to 3 L/day would increase urine output but would not indicate the effectiveness of colchicine. Elevated uric acid levels would result in increased symptoms. The WBC count might decrease with decreased inflammation, but would not increase.

When planning teaching for a patient with benign nephrosclerosis the nurse should include instructions regarding a. monitoring and recording blood pressure. b. obtaining and documenting daily weights. c. measuring daily intake and output amounts. d. preventing bleeding caused by anticoagulants.

ANS: A Hypertension is the major symptom of nephrosclerosis. Measurements of intake and output and daily weights are not necessary unless the patient develops renal insufficiency. Anticoagulants are not used to treat nephrosclerosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1141-1142

A patient arrives in the emergency department with ankle swelling and severe pain after twisting the ankle playing soccer. Which of these prescribed collaborative interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack. b. Administer naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO. c. Give acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3). d. Take the patient to the radiology department for x-rays.

ANS: A Immediate care after a sprain or strain injury includes the application of cold and compression to the injury to minimize swelling. The other actions should be taken after the ankle is wrapped with a compression bandage and ice is applied.

Which finding will the nurse expect when assessing a 58-year-old patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knee? a. Discomfort with joint movement b. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes c. Redness and swelling of the knee joint d. Stiffness that increases with movement

ANS: A Initial symptoms of OA include pain with joint movement. Heberden's nodules occur on the fingers. Redness of the joint is more strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Stiffness in OA is worse right after the patient rests and decreases with joint movement.

A patient in the hospital has a history of functional urinary incontinence. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Place a bedside commode near the patient's bed. b. Demonstrate the use of the Credé maneuver to the patient. c. Use an ultrasound scanner to check postvoiding residuals. d. Teach the use of Kegel exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor.

ANS: A Modifications in the environment make it easier to avoid functional incontinence. Checking for residual urine and performing the Credé maneuver are interventions for overflow incontinence. Kegel exercises are useful for stress incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1148

Which assessment maneuvers should the nurse perform first when assessing the renal system at the same time as the abdomen? A. Abdominal percussion B. Abdominal auscultation C. Abdominal palpation D. Renal palpation

ANS: B Auscultation precedes percussion and palpation because the nurse needs to auscultate for abdominal bruits before palpation or percussion of the abdominal and renal components of a physical assessment.

A 20-year-old baseball pitcher has an arthroscopic repair of a rotator cuff injury performed in same-day surgery. When the nurse plans postoperative teaching for the patient, which information will be included? a. "You have an appointment with a physical therapist for tomorrow." b. "You can still play baseball but you will not be able to return to pitching." c. "The doctor will use the drop-arm test to determine the success of surgery." d. "Leave the shoulder immobilizer on for the first few days to minimize pain."

ANS: A Physical therapy after a rotator cuff repair begins on the first postoperative day to prevent "frozen shoulder." A shoulder immobilizer is used immediately after the surgery, but leaving the arm immobilized for several days would lead to loss of range of motion (ROM). The drop-arm test is used to test for rotator cuff injury, but not after surgery. The patient may be able to return to pitching after rehabilitation.

A patient with lower leg fracture has an external fixation device in place and is scheduled for discharge. Which information will the nurse include in the discharge teaching? a. "You will need to assess and clean the pin insertion sites daily." b. "The external fixator can be removed during the bath or shower." c. "You will need to remain on bed rest until bone healing is complete." d. "Prophylactic antibiotics are used until the external fixator is removed."

ANS: A Pin insertion sites should be cleaned daily to decrease the risk for infection at the site. An external fixator allows the patient to be out of bed and avoid the risks of prolonged immobility. The device is surgically placed and is not removed until the bone is stable. Prophylactic antibiotics are not routinely given when an external fixator is used.

The nurse suggests that a patient recently diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) plan to start each day with a. a warm bath followed by a short rest. b. a short routine of isometric exercises. c. active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises. d. stretching exercises to relieve joint stiffness.

ANS: A Taking a warm shower or bath is recommended to relieve joint stiffness, which is worse in the morning. Isometric exercises would place stress on joints and would not be recommended. Stretching and ROM should be done later in the day, when joint stiffness is decreased.

15. A patient with a right lower leg fracture will be discharged home with an external fixation device in place. Which information will the nurse teach? a. "You will need to check and clean the pin insertion sites daily." b. "The external fixator can be removed for your bath or shower." c. "You will need to remain on bed rest until bone healing is complete." d. "Prophylactic antibiotics are used until the external fixator is removed."

Which finding for a patient who is taking hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil) to treat rheumatoid arthritis is likely to be an adverse effect of the medication? a. Blurred vision b. Joint tenderness c. Abdominal cramping d. Elevated blood pressure

ANS: A Plaquenil can cause retinopathy. The medication should be stopped. The other findings are not related to the medication although they will also be reported.

3. The occupational health nurse will teach the patient whose job involves many hours of typing about the need to a. obtain a keyboard pad to support the wrist. b. do stretching exercises before starting work. c. wrap the wrists with compression bandages every morning. d. avoid using nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain.

ANS: A Repetitive strain injuries caused by prolonged times working at a keyboard can be prevented by the use of a pad that will keep the wrists in a straight position. Stretching exercises during the day may be helpful, but these would not be needed before starting. Use of a compression bandage is not needed, although a splint may be used for carpal tunnel syndrome. NSAIDs are appropriate to use to decrease swelling. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1509 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

30. Which nursing action for a patient who has had right hip replacement surgery can the nurse delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours. b. Assess for skin irritation on the patient's back. c. Teach the patient quadriceps-setting exercises. d. Determine the patient's pain level and tolerance.

ANS: A Repositioning of orthopedic patients is within the scope of practice of UAP (after they have been trained and evaluated in this skill). The other actions should be done by licensed nursing staff members. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1514 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

Which nursing action will be most helpful in decreasing the risk for hospital-acquired infection (HAI) of the urinary tract in patients admitted to the hospital? a. Avoid unnecessary catheterizations. b. Encourage adequate oral fluid intake. c. Test urine with a dipstick daily for nitrites. d. Provide thorough perineal hygiene to patients.

ANS: A Since catheterization bypasses many of the protective mechanisms that prevent urinary tract infection (UTI), avoidance of catheterization is the most effective means of reducing HAI. The other actions will also be helpful, but are not as useful as decreasing urinary catheter use. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1125-1127

A patient with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for an arthroplasty of the hand. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates realistic expectation for the surgery? a. "I will be able to use my fingers to grasp objects better." b. "I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery." c. "This procedure will prevent further deformity in my hands and fingers." d. "My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery."

ANS: A The goal of hand surgery in RA is to restore function, not to correct for cosmetic deformity or treat the underlying process. Hand exercises will be prescribed after the surgery.

A 37-year-old patient with 2 school-age children who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) tells the nurse that home life is very stressful. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "Tell me more about situations that are causing you stress." b. "You need to see a family therapist for some help with stress." c. "Your family should understand the impact of your rheumatoid arthritis." d. "Perhaps it would be helpful for your family to be involved in a support group."

ANS: A The initial action by the nurse should be further assessment. The other three responses might be appropriate based on the information the nurse obtains with further assessment

When doing discharge teaching for a patient who has had a repair of a fractured mandible, the nurse will include information about a. when and how to cut the immobilizing wires. b. self-administration of nasogastric tube feedings. c. the use of sterile technique for dressing changes. d. the importance of including high-fiber foods in the diet.

ANS: A The jaw will be wired for stabilization, and the patient should know what emergency situations require that the wires be cut to protect the airway. There are no dressing changes for this procedure. The diet is liquid, and patients are not able to chew high fiber foods. Initially, the patient may receive nasogastric tube feedings, but by discharge the patient will swallow liquid through a straw.

A patient who had arthroscopic surgery of the right knee 7 days ago is admitted with a red, swollen, and hot knee. Which assessment finding by the nurse should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. The blood pressure is 86/50 mm Hg. b. The white blood cell count is 11,500/µL. c. The patient is taking ibuprofen (Motrin). d. The patient says the knee pain is severe.

ANS: A The low blood pressure suggests that the patient may be developing septicemia as a complication of septic arthritis. Immediate blood cultures and initiation of antibiotic therapy are indicated. The other information is typical of septic arthritis and should also be reported to the health care provider, but it does not indicate any immediately life-threatening problems.

A patient who is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome has 3+ ankle and leg edema and ascites. Which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient? a. Excess fluid volume related to low serum protein levels b. Activity intolerance related to increased weight and fatigue c. Disturbed body image related to peripheral edema and ascites d. Altered nutrition: less than required related to protein restriction

ANS: A The patient has massive edema, so the priority problem at this time is the excess fluid volume. The other nursing diagnoses also are appropriate, but the focus of nursing care should be resolution of the edema and ascites. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1133-1135

Which statement by a patient who has had an above-the-knee amputation indicates that the nurse's discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I should lay on my abdomen for 30 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." b. "I should elevate my residual limb on a pillow 2 or 3 times a day." c. "I should change the limb sock when it becomes soiled or stretched out." d. "I should use lotion on the stump to prevent drying and cracking of the skin."

ANS: A The patient lies in the prone position several times daily to prevent flexion contractures of the hip. The limb sock should be changed daily. Lotion should not be used on the stump. The residual limb should not be elevated because this would encourage flexion contracture.

Before assisting a patient with ambulation on the day after a total hip replacement, which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Administer the ordered oral opioid pain medication. b. Instruct the patient about the benefits of ambulation. c. Ensure that the incisional drain has been discontinued. d. Change the hip dressing and document the wound appearance.

ANS: A The patient should be adequately medicated for pain before any attempt to ambulate. Instructions about the benefits of ambulation may increase the patient's willingness to ambulate, but decreasing pain with ambulation is more important. The presence of an incisional drain or timing of dressing change will not affect ambulation.

A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of left lower leg fractures complains of constant severe pain in the leg, which is unrelieved by the prescribed morphine. Pulses are faintly palpable and the foot is cool. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Assess the incision for redness. c. Reposition the left leg on pillows. d. Check the patient's blood pressure.

ANS: A The patient's clinical manifestations suggest compartment syndrome and delay in diagnosis and treatment may lead to severe functional impairment. The data do not suggest problems with blood pressure or infection. Elevation of the leg will decrease arterial flow and further reduce perfusion.

12. A 32-year-old patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of left lower leg fractures continues to complain of severe pain in the leg 15 minutes after receiving the prescribed IV morphine. Pulses are faintly palpable and the foot is cool. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Assess the incision for redness. c. Reposition the left leg on pillows. d. Check the patient's blood pressure.

An 88-year-old with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) has a markedly distended bladder and is agitated and confused. Which of the following interventions prescribed by the health care provider should the nurse implement first? a. Insert a urinary retention catheter. b. Schedule an intravenous pyelogram. c. Administer lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg PO. d. Draw blood for blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine testing.

ANS: A The patient's history and clinical manifestations are consistent with acute urinary retention, and the priority action is to relieve the retention by catheterization. The BUN and creatinine measurements can be obtained after the catheter is inserted. The patient's agitation may resolve once the bladder distention is corrected, and sedative drugs should be used cautiously in older patients. The IVP is an appropriate test, but does not need to be done urgently. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1135-1136

A 63-year-old patient hospitalized with polymyositis has joint pain, an erythematosus facial rash, eyelid edema, and a weak, hoarse voice. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. risk for aspiration related to dysphagia. b. disturbed visual perception related to swelling. c. acute pain related to generalized inflammation. d. risk for impaired skin integrity related to scratching.

ANS: A The patient's vocal weakness and hoarseness indicate weakness of the pharyngeal muscles and a high risk for aspiration. The other nursing diagnoses also are appropriate but are not as high a priority as the maintenance of the patient's airway

Which assessment information will the nurse obtain to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcitonin (Cibacalcin) and ibandronate (Boniva) for a patient with Paget's disease? a. Pain level b. Oral intake c. Daily weight d. Grip strength

ANS: A Bone pain is one of the common early manifestations of Paget's disease, and the nurse should assess the pain level to determine whether the treatment is effective. The other information will also be collected by the nurse, but will not be used in evaluating the effectiveness of the therapy.

A patient whose work involves lifting has a history of chronic back pain. After the nurse has taught the patient about correct body mechanics, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I plan to start doing exercises to strengthen the muscles of my back." b. "I will try to sleep with my hips and knees extended to prevent back strain." c. "I can tell my boss that I need to change to a job where I can work at a desk." d. "I will keep my back straight when I need to lift anything higher than my waist."

ANS: A Exercises can help to strengthen the muscles that support the back. Flexion of the hips and knees places less strain on the back. Modifications in the way the patient lifts boxes are needed, but sitting for prolonged periods can aggravate back pain. The patient should not lift above the level of the elbows.

A patient is hospitalized for initiation of regional antibiotic irrigation for acute osteomyelitis of the right femur. Which intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Immobilization of the right leg b. Frequent weight-bearing exercise c. Avoiding administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Support of the right leg in a flexed position

ANS: A Immobilization of the affected leg helps decrease pain and reduce the risk for pathologic fractures. Weight-bearing exercise increases the risk for pathologic fractures. NSAIDs are frequently prescribed to treat pain. Flexion of the affected limb is avoided to prevent contractures.

Which statement by a patient who is scheduled for an above-the-knee amputation for treatment of an osteosarcoma of the right tibia indicates that patient teaching is needed? a. "I did not have this bone cancer until my leg broke a week ago." b. "I wish that I did not have to have chemotherapy after this surgery." c. "I know that I will need to participate in physical therapy after surgery." d. "I will use the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) to control postoperative pain."

ANS: A Osteogenic sarcoma may be diagnosed following a fracture, but it is not caused by the injury. The other patient statements indicate that patient teaching has been effective.

An assessment finding that alerts the nurse to the presence of osteoporosis in a middle-aged patient is a. measurable loss of height. b. the presence of bowed legs. c. an aversion to dairy products. d. statements about frequent falls.

ANS: A Osteoporosis occurring in the vertebrae produces a gradual loss of height. Bowed legs are associated with osteomalacia. Low intake of dairy products is a risk factor for osteoporosis, but it does not indicate that osteoporosis is present. Frequent falls increase the risk for fractures but are not an indicator of osteoporosis.

A 20-year-old patient with a history of muscular dystrophy is hospitalized with a respiratory tract infection. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Assist the patient with ambulation. b. Logroll the patient every 1 to 2 hours. c. Discuss the need for genetic testing with the patient. d. Teach the patient about the muscle biopsy procedure.

ANS: A Since the goal for the patient with muscular dystrophy is to keep the patient active for as long as possible, assisting the patient to ambulate will be part of the care plan. The patient will not require logrolling. Muscle biopsies are necessary to confirm the diagnosis but are not necessary for a patient who already has a diagnosis. There is no need for genetic testing since the patient already knows the diagnosis

The client scheduled for intravenous urography informs the nurse of the following allergies. Which one should the nurse report to the physician immediately? A. Seafood B. Penicillin C. Bee stings D. Red food dye

ANS: A Clients with seafood allergies often have severe allergic reactions to the standard dyes used during intravenous urography.

The client scheduled to have an intravenous urogram is a diabetic and taking the antidiabetic agent metformin. What should the nurse tell this client? A. "Call your diabetes doctor and tell him or her that you are having an intravenous urogram performed using dye." B. "Do not take your metformin the morning of the test because you are not going to be eating anything and could become hypoglycemic." C. "You must start on an antibiotic before this test because your risk of infection is greater as a result of your diabetes." D. "You must take your metformin immediately before the test is performed because the IV fluid and the dye contain a significant amount of sugar."

ANS: A Metformin can cause a lactic acidosis and renal impairment as an interaction with the dye. This drug must be discontinued for 48 hours before the procedure and not started again after the procedure until urine output is well established.

What would be the response if a person's nephrons were not able to filter normally due to scarring of the proximal convoluted tubule leading to inhibition of reabsorption? A. Increased urine output, fluid volume deficit B. Decreased urine output, fluid volume deficit C. Increased urine output, fluid volume overload D. Decreased urine output, fluid volume overload

ANS: A The nephrons filter about 120 mL/min. Most of this filtrate is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule. If the tubule were not able to reabsorb the fluid that has been filtered, urine output would greatly increase, leading to rapid and severe dehydration.

A patient is seen at the urgent care center after falling on the right arm and shoulder. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. There is bruising at the shoulder area. b. The right arm appears shorter than the left. c. There is decreased range of motion of the shoulder. d. The patient is complaining of arm and shoulder pain.

ANS: B A shorter limb after a fall indicates a possible dislocation, which is an orthopedic emergency. Bruising, pain, and decreased range of motion also should be reported, but these do not indicate that emergent treatment is needed to preserve function.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a 33-year-old patient with a new diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Instruct the patient to purchase a soft mattress. b. Suggest that the patient take a nap in the afternoon. c. Teach the patient to use lukewarm water when bathing. d. Suggest exercise with light weights several times daily.

ANS: B Adequate rest helps decrease the fatigue and pain that are associated with rheumatoid arthritis. Patients are taught to avoid stressing joints, to use warm baths to relieve stiffness, and to use a firm mattress. When stabilized, a therapeutic exercise program is usually developed by a physical therapist to include exercises that improve the flexibility and strength of the affected joints, and the patient's overall endurance.

A patient with renal calculi is hospitalized with gross hematuria and severe colicky left flank pain. Which nursing action will be of highest priority at this time? a. Encourage oral fluid intake. b. Administer prescribed analgesics. c. Monitor temperature every 4 hours. d. Give antiemetics as needed for nausea.

ANS: B Although all of the nursing actions may be used for patients with renal lithiasis, the patient's presentation indicates that management of pain is the highest priority action. If the patient has urinary obstruction, increasing oral fluids may increase the symptoms. There is no evidence of infection or nausea. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1137-1138 | 1139-1141 | 1140

8. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care after a patient with a right femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied? a. Avoid placing the patient in prone position. b. Ask the patient about abdominal discomfort. c. Discuss remaining on bed rest for several weeks. d. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient.

ANS: B Assessment of bowel sounds, abdominal pain, and nausea and vomiting will detect the development of cast syndrome. To avoid breakage, the support bar should not be used for repositioning. After the cast dries, the patient can begin ambulating with the assistance of physical therapy personnel and may be turned to the prone position. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1516 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when a patient diagnosed with scleroderma says which of the following? a. "Paraffin baths can be used to help my hands." b. "I should lie down for an hour after each meal." c. "Lotions will help if I rub them in for a long time." d. "I should perform range-of-motion exercises daily."

ANS: B Because of the esophageal scarring, patients should sit up for 2 hours after eating. The other patient statements are correct and indicate that the teaching has been effective.

A patient who has a cast in place after fracturing the radius asks when the cast can be removed. The nurse will instruct the patient that the cast will need to remain in place a. for several months. b. for at least 3 weeks. c. until swelling of the wrist has resolved. d. until x-rays show complete bony union.

6. The nurse will instruct the patient with a fractured left radius that the cast will need to remain in place a. for several months. b. for at least 3 weeks. c. until swelling of the wrist has resolved. d. until x-rays show complete bony union.

ANS: B Bone healing starts immediately after the injury, but since ossification does not begin until 3 weeks postinjury, the cast will need to be worn for at least 3 weeks. Complete union may take up to a year. Resolution of swelling does not indicate bone healing. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1513 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. Which action will the nurse take in order to evaluate the effectiveness of Buck's traction for a 62-year-old patient who has an intracapsular fracture of the right femur? a. Check peripheral pulses. b. Ask about hip pain level. c. Assess for hip contractures. d. Monitor for hip dislocation.

ANS: B Buck's traction keeps the leg immobilized and reduces painful muscle spasm. Hip contractures and dislocation are unlikely to occur in this situation. The peripheral pulses will be assessed, but this does not help in evaluating the effectiveness of Buck's traction. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1525 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

42. Which information obtained by the nurse about a 29-year-old patient with a lumbar vertebral compression fracture is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Patient refuses to be turned due to back pain. b. Patient has been incontinent of urine and stool. c. Patient reports lumbar area tenderness to palpation. d. Patient frequently uses oral corticosteroids to treat asthma.

ANS: B Changes in bowel or bladder function indicate possible spinal cord compression and should be reported immediately because surgical intervention may be needed. The other findings are also pertinent but are consistent with the patient's diagnosis and do not require immediate intervention. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1528 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which nursing action should the nurse who is caring for a patient who has had an ileal conduit for several years delegate to nursing assistive personnel (NAP)? a. Assess for symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI). b. Change the ostomy appliance. c. Choose the appropriate ostomy bag. d. Monitor the appearance of the stoma.

ANS: B Changing the ostomy appliance for a stable patient could be done by NAP. Assessments of the site, choosing the appropriate ostomy bag, and assessing for (UTI) symptoms require more education and scope of practice and should be done by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1157 | 1159-1160 | 1158

After obtaining the health history for a 25-year-old who smokes two packs of cigarettes daily, the nurse will plan to do teaching about the increased risk for a. kidney stones. b. bladder cancer. c. bladder infection. d. interstitial cystitis.

ANS: B Cigarette smoking is a risk factor for bladder cancer. The patient's risk for developing interstitial cystitis, urinary tract infection (UTI), or kidney stones will not be reduced by quitting smoking. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1145-1146

A patient who has had a transurethral resection with fulguration for bladder cancer 3 days previously calls the nurse at the urology clinic. Which information given by the patient is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient is using opioids for pain. b. The patient has noticed clots in the urine. c. The patient is very anxious about the cancer. d. The patient is voiding every 4 hours at night.

ANS: B Clots in the urine are not expected and require further follow-up. Voiding every 4 hours, use of opioids for pain, and anxiety are typical after this procedure. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1145-1146

Which information will the nurse include when preparing teaching materials for patients with exacerbations of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Affected joints should not be exercised when pain is present. b. Application of cold packs before exercise may decrease joint pain. c. Exercises should be performed passively by someone other than the patient. d. Walking may substitute for range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on some days.

ANS: B Cold application is helpful in reducing pain during periods of exacerbation of RA. Because the joint pain is chronic, patients are instructed to exercise even when joints are painful. ROM exercises are intended to strengthen joints and improve flexibility, so passive ROM alone is not sufficient. Recreational exercise is encouraged but is not a replacement for ROM exercises.

A 46-year-old male patient with dermatomyositis is receiving long-term prednisone (Deltasone) therapy. Which assessment finding by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The blood glucose is 112 mg/dL. b. The patient has painful hematuria. c. Acne is noted on the patient's face. d. The patient has an increased appetite.

ANS: B Corticosteroid use is associated with an increased risk for infection, so the nurse should report the urinary tract symptoms immediately to the health care provider. The increase in blood glucose, increased appetite, and acne are also adverse effects of corticosteroid use but do not need diagnosis and treatment as rapidly as the probable urinary tract infection.

Which assessment information obtained by the nurse indicates that a patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is experiencing a side effect of prednisone (Deltasone)? a. The patient has joint pain and stiffness. b. The patient's blood glucose is 165 mg/dL. c. The patient has experienced a recent 5-pound weight loss. d. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) has increased.

ANS: B Corticosteroids have the potential to cause diabetes mellitus. The finding of an elevated blood glucose reflects this side effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids increase appetite and lead to weight gain. An elevated ESR and no improvement in symptoms would indicate that the prednisone was not effective but would not be side effects of the medication

Which assessment finding about a patient who has been using naproxen (Naprosyn) for 6 weeks to treat osteoarthritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. The patient has gained 3 pounds. b. The patient has dark-colored stools. c. The patient's pain has become more severe. d. The patient is using capsaicin cream (Zostrix).

ANS: B Dark-colored stools may indicate that the patient is experiencing gastrointestinal bleeding caused by the naproxen. The information about the patient's ongoing pain and weight gain also will be reported and may indicate a need for a different treatment and/or counseling about avoiding weight gain, but these are not as large a concern as the possibility of gastrointestinal bleeding. Use of capsaicin cream with oral medications is appropriate.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a 38-year-old male patient with newly diagnosed ankylosing spondylitis (AS) about the management of the condition? a. Exercise by taking long walks. b. Do daily deep-breathing exercises. c. Sleep on the side with hips flexed. d. Take frequent naps during the day.

ANS: B Deep-breathing exercises are used to decrease the risk for pulmonary complications that may occur with the reduced chest expansion that can occur with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Patients should sleep on the back and avoid flexed positions. Prolonged standing and walking should be avoided. There is no need for frequent naps

After the nurse has taught a 28-year-old with fibromyalgia, which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of effective self-management? a. "I am going to join a soccer team to get more exercise." b. "I will need to stop drinking so much coffee and soda." c. "I will call the doctor every time my symptoms get worse." d. "I should avoid using over-the-counter medications for pain."

ANS: B Dietitians frequently suggest that patients with fibromyalgia limit their intake of caffeine and sugar because these substances are muscle irritants. Mild exercise such as walking is recommended for patients with fibromyalgia, but vigorous exercise is likely to make symptoms worse. Because symptoms may fluctuate from day to day, the patient should be able to adapt the regimen independently, rather than calling the provider whenever symptoms get worse. Over-the-counter medications such as ibuprofen and acetaminophen are frequently used for symptom management

A patient with nephrotic syndrome develops flank pain. The nurse will anticipate teaching the patient about treatment with a. antibiotics. b. anticoagulants. c. corticosteroids. d. antihypertensives.

ANS: B Flank pain in a patient with nephrosis suggests a renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is needed. Antibiotics are used to treat a patient with flank pain caused by pyelonephritis. Antihypertensives are used if the patient has high blood pressure. Corticosteroids may be used to treat nephrotic syndrome but will not resolve a thrombosis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1133-1134

After teaching a patient with interstitial cystitis about management of the condition, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I will have to stop having coffee and orange juice for breakfast." b. "I should start taking a high potency multiple vitamin every morning." c. "I will buy some calcium glycerophosphate (Prelief) at the pharmacy." d. "I should call the doctor about increased bladder pain or odorous urine."

ANS: B High-potency multiple vitamins may irritate the bladder and increase symptoms. The other patient statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

29. A young man arrives in the emergency department with ankle swelling and severe pain after twisting his ankle playing basketball. Which of these prescribed collaborative interventions will the nurse implement first? a. Take the patient to have x-rays. b. Wrap the ankle and apply an ice pack. c. Administer naproxen (Naprosyn) 500 mg PO. d. Give acetaminophen with codeine (Tylenol #3).

ANS: B Immediate care after a sprain or strain injury includes the application of cold and compression to the injury to minimize swelling. The other actions should be taken after the ankle is wrapped with a compression bandage and ice is applied. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1507 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 40-year-old African American patient has scleroderma manifested by CREST (calcinosis, Raynaud's phenomenon, esophageal dysfunction, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia) syndrome. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care? a. Avoid use of capsaicin cream on hands. b. Keep environment warm and draft free. c. Obtain capillary blood glucose before meals. d. Assist to bathroom every 2 hours while awake.

ANS: B Keeping the room warm will decrease the incidence of Raynaud's phenomenon, one aspect of the CREST syndrome. Capsaicin cream may be used to improve circulation and decrease pain. There is no need to obtain blood glucose levels or to assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours.

A patient has hip replacement surgery using the posterior approach. Which patient action requires rapid intervention by the nurse? a. The patient uses crutches with a swing-to gait. b. The patient leans over to pull shoes and socks on. c. The patient sits straight up on the edge of the bed. d. The patient bends over the sink while brushing the teeth.

26. A patient is being discharged 4 days after hip replacement surgery using the posterior approach. Which patient action requires immediate intervention by the nurse? a. The patient uses crutches with a swing-to gait. b. The patient leans over to pull shoes and socks on. c. The patient sits straight up on the edge of the bed. d. The patient bends over the sink while brushing teeth.

ANS: B Leaning over would flex the hip at greater than 90 degrees and predispose the patient to hip dislocation. The other patient actions are appropriate and do not require any immediate action by the nurse to protect the patient. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1526 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The health care provider has prescribed the following collaborative interventions for a patient who is taking azathioprine (Imuran) for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which order will the nurse question? a. Draw anti-DNA blood titer. b. Administer varicella vaccine. c. Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg BID. d. Famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg daily.

ANS: B Live virus vaccines, such as varicella, are contraindicated in a patient taking immunosuppressive drugs. The other orders are appropriate for the patient

A patient with gout has a new prescription for losartan (Cozaar) to control the condition. The nurse will plan to monitor a. blood glucose. b. blood pressure. c. erythrocyte count. d. lymphocyte count.

ANS: B Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, will lower blood pressure. It does not affect blood glucose, red blood cell (RBC) count, or lymphocytes.

A 31-year-old woman is taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to treat rheumatoid arthritis. Which information from the patient's health history is important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about the methotrexate? a. The patient had a history of infectious mononucleosis as a teenager. b. The patient is trying to get pregnant before her disease becomes more severe. c. The patient has a family history of age-related macular degeneration of the retina. d. The patient has been using large doses of vitamins and health foods to treat the RA.

ANS: B Methotrexate is teratogenic, and the patient should be taking contraceptives during methotrexate therapy. The other information will not impact the choice of methotrexate as therapy.

Which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are assisting with the care of a patient with scleroderma? a. Monitor for difficulty in breathing. b. Document the patient's oral intake. c. Check finger strength and movement. d. Apply capsaicin (Zostrix) cream to hands.

ANS: B Monitoring and documenting patients' oral intake is included in UAP education and scope of practice. Assessments for changes in physical status and administration of medications require more education and scope of practice, and should be done by licensed nurses

After the nurse has finished teaching a 68-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the right hip about how to manage the OA, which patient statement indicates a need for more teaching? a. "I can take glucosamine to help decrease my knee pain." b. "I will take 1 g of acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours." c. "I will take a shower in the morning to help relieve stiffness." d. "I can use a cane to decrease the pressure and pain in my hip."

ANS: B No more than 4 g of acetaminophen should be taken daily to avoid liver damage. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of OA management.

11. A patient who is to have no weight bearing on the left leg is learning to walk using crutches. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the patient can safely ambulate independently? a. The patient moves the right crutch with the right leg and then the left crutch with the left leg. b. The patient advances the left leg and both crutches together and then advances the right leg. c. The patient uses the bedside chair to assist in balance as needed when ambulating in the room. d. The patient keeps the padded area of the crutch firmly in the axillary area when ambulating.

ANS: B Patients are usually taught to move the crutches and the injured leg forward at the same time and then to move the unaffected leg. Patients are discouraged from using furniture to assist with ambulation. The patient is taught to place weight on the hands, not in the axilla, to avoid nerve damage. If the 2- or 4-point gaits are to be used, the crutch and leg on opposite sides move forward, not the crutch and same-side leg. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1521 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

After the home health nurse teaches a patient with a neurogenic bladder how to use intermittent catheterization for bladder emptying, which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a. "I will use a sterile catheter and gloves for each time I self-catheterize." b. "I will clean the catheter carefully before and after each catheterization." c. "I will need to buy seven new catheters weekly and use a new one every day." d. "I will need to take prophylactic antibiotics to prevent any urinary tract infections."

ANS: B Patients who are at home can use a clean technique for intermittent self-catheterization and change the catheter every 7 days. There is no need to use a new catheter every day, to use sterile catheters, or to take prophylactic antibiotics. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1154

On the first postoperative day, a patient with a below-the-knee amputation complains of pain in the amputated limb. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Explain the reasons for the phantom limb pain. b. Administer prescribed analgesics to relieve the pain. c. Loosen the compression bandage to decrease incisional pressure. d. Remind the patient that this phantom pain will diminish over time.

ANS: B Phantom limb pain is treated like any other type of postoperative pain would be treated. Explanations of the reason for the pain may be given, but the nurse should still medicate the patient. The compression bandage is left in place except during physical therapy or bathing. Although the pain may decrease over time, it still requires treatment now.

19. The day after a having a right below-the-knee amputation, a patient complains of pain in the right foot. Which action is best for the nurse to take? a. Explain the reasons for the phantom limb pain. b. Administer prescribed analgesics to relieve the pain. c. Loosen the compression bandage to decrease incisional pressure. d. Inform the patient that this phantom pain will diminish over time.

ANS: B Phantom limb sensation is treated like any other type of postoperative pain would be treated. Explanations of the reason for the pain may be given, but the nurse should still medicate the patient. The compression bandage is left in place except during physical therapy or bathing. Although the pain may decrease over time, it still requires treatment now. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1532 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A 22-year-old tennis player has an arthroscopic repair of a rotator cuff injury performed in same-day surgery. When the nurse plans postoperative teaching for the patient, which information will be included? a. "You will not be able to serve a tennis ball again." b. "You will work with a physical therapist tomorrow." c. "The doctor will use the drop-arm test to determine the success of surgery." d. "Leave the shoulder immobilizer on for the first 4 days to minimize pain."

ANS: B Physical therapy after a rotator cuff repair begins on the first postoperative day to prevent "frozen shoulder." A shoulder immobilizer is used immediately after the surgery, but leaving the arm immobilized for several days would lead to loss of range of motion (ROM). The drop-arm test is used to test for rotator cuff injury, but not after surgery. The patient may be able to return to pitching after rehabilitation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1510 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When planning care for a patient who has had hip replacement surgery, which nursing action can the nurse delegate to experienced nursing assistive personnel (NAP)? a. Teach quadriceps-setting exercises. b. Reposition the patient every 1 to 2 hours. c. Assess for skin irritation on the patient's back. d. Determine the patient's pain level and tolerance.

ANS: B Repositioning of patients is within the scope of practice of NAP (after they have been trained and evaluated in this skill). The other actions should be done by licensed nursing staff members.

Which statement by a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) indicates that the patient has understood the nurse's teaching about the condition? a. "I will exercise even if I am tired." b. "I will use sunscreen when I am outside." c. "I should take birth control pills to keep from getting pregnant." d. "I should avoid aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs."

ANS: B Severe skin reactions can occur in patients with SLE who are exposed to the sun. Patients should avoid fatigue by balancing exercise with rest periods as needed. Oral contraceptives can exacerbate lupus. Aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs are used to treat the musculoskeletal manifestations of SLE.

A patient returns to the clinic with recurrent dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take? a. Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily. b. Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing. c. Teach the patient to take the prescribed Bactrim for at least 3 more days. d. Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to treat the symptoms.

ANS: B Since uncomplicated urinary tract infections (UTIs) are usually successfully treated with 3 days of antibiotic therapy, this patient will need a urine culture and sensitivity to determine appropriate antibiotic therapy. Tylenol would not be as effective as other over-the-counter (OTC) medications such as phenazopyridine (Pyridium) in treating dysuria. The fluid intake should be increased to at least 1800 mL/day. Since the UTI has persisted after treatment with Bactrim, the patient is likely to need a different antibiotic. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1123-1125

Following an open loop resection and fulguration of the bladder, a patient is unable to void. Which nursing action should be implemented first? a. Insert a straight catheter and drain the bladder. b. Assist the patient to take a 15-minute sitz bath. c. Encourage the patient to drink several glasses of water. d. Teach the patient how to do isometric perineal exercises.

ANS: B Sitz baths will relax the perineal muscles and promote voiding. Although the patient should be encouraged to drink fluids and Kegel exercises are helpful in the prevention of incontinence, these activities would not be helpful for a patient experiencing retention. Catheter insertion increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and should be avoided when possible DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1146

The female client's urinalysis shows all the following characteristics. Which should the nurse document as abnormal? A. pH 5.6 B. Ketone bodies present C. Specific gravity is 1.030 D. Two white blood cells per high-power field

ANS: B Ketone bodies are byproducts of incomplete metabolism of fatty acids. Normally, there are no ketones in urine. Ketone bodies are produced when fat sources are used instead of glucose to provide cellular energy.

39. When assessing for Tinel's sign in a patient with possible right-sided carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse will ask the patient about a. weakness in the right little finger. b. tingling in the right thumb and fingers. c. burning in the right elbow and forearm. d. tremor when gripping with the right hand.

ANS: B Testing for Tinel's sign will cause tingling in the thumb and first three fingers of the affected hand in patients who have carpal tunnel syndrome. The median nerve does not innervate the right little finger or elbow and forearm. Tremor is not associated with carpal tunnel syndrome. DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (comprehension) REF: 1509 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has bladder cancer had a cystectomy with creation of an Indiana pouch. Which topic will be included in patient teaching? a. Application of ostomy appliances b. Catheterization technique and schedule c. Analgesic use before emptying the pouch d. Use of barrier products for skin protection

ANS: B The Indiana pouch enables the patient to self-catheterize every 4 to 6 hours. There is no need for an ostomy device or barrier products. Catheterization of the pouch is not painful. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1155-1156

13. A patient with a complex pelvic fracture from a motor vehicle crash is on bed rest. Which nursing assessment finding is important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient states that the pelvis feels unstable. b. Abdomen is distended and bowel sounds are absent. c. There are ecchymoses across the abdomen and hips. d. The patient complains of pelvic pain with palpation.

ANS: B The abdominal distention and absent bowel sounds may be due to complications of pelvic fractures such as paralytic ileus or hemorrhage or trauma to the bladder, urethra, or colon. Pelvic instability, abdominal pain with palpation, and abdominal bruising would be expected with this type of injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1524 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When the nurse is caring for a patient who is on bed rest after having a complex pelvic fracture, which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. The patient states that the pelvis feels unstable. b. Abdominal distention is present and bowel tones are absent. c. There are ecchymoses on the abdomen and hips. d. The patient complains of pelvic pain with palpation.

ANS: B The abdominal distention and absent bowel tones may be due to complications of pelvic fractures such as paralytic ileus or hemorrhage or trauma to the bladder, urethra, or colon. Pelvic instability, abdominal pain with palpation, and abdominal bruising would be expected with this type of injury.

Which result for a 30-year-old patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP) b. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) c. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) d. Positive lupus erythematosus cell prep

ANS: B The elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicate possible lupus nephritis and a need for a change in therapy to avoid further renal damage. The positive lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep and ANA would be expected in a patient with SLE. A drop in CRP shows an improvement in the inflammatory process.

A new clinic patient with joint swelling and pain is being tested for systemic lupus erythematosus. Which test will provide the most specific findings for the nurse to review? a. Rheumatoid factor (RF) b. Antinuclear antibody (ANA) c. Anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm) d. Lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep

ANS: C The anti-Sm is antibody found almost exclusively in SLE. The other blood tests are also used in screening but are not as specific to SLE

17. When doing discharge teaching for a 19-year-old patient who has had a repair of a fractured mandible, the nurse will include information about a. administration of nasogastric tube feedings. b. how and when to cut the immobilizing wires. c. the importance of high-fiber foods in the diet. d. the use of sterile technique for dressing changes.

ANS: B The jaw will be wired for stabilization, and the patient should know what emergency situations require that the wires be cut to protect the airway. There are no dressing changes for this procedure. The diet is liquid, and patients are not able to chew high-fiber foods. Initially, the patient may receive nasogastric tube feedings, but by discharge, the patient will swallow liquid through a straw. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1529-1530 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. A patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture tells the nurse that he is ready to get out of bed for the first time. Which action should the nurse take? a. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the patient from the bed to the chair. b. Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status. c. Avoid administration of pain medications before getting the patient up. d. Delegate the transfer of the patient to nursing assistive personnel (NAP).

ANS: B The nurse should be familiar with the weight-bearing orders for the patient before attempting the transfer. Mechanical lifts are not typically needed after this surgery. Pain medications should be given because the movement is likely to be painful for the patient. The registered nurse (RN) should supervise the patient during the initial transfer to evaluate how well the patient is able to accomplish this skill. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1528 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is preparing to assist a patient who has had an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a hip fracture out of bed for the first time. Which action should the nurse take? a. Use a mechanical lift to transfer the patient from the bed to the chair. b. Check the postoperative orders for the patient's weight-bearing status. c. Avoid administration of pain medications before getting the patient up. d. Delegate the transfer of the patient out of bed to nursing assistive personnel (NAP).

ANS: B The nurse should be familiar with the weight-bearing orders for the patient before attempting the transfer. Mechanical lifts are not typically needed after this surgery. Pain medications should be given, since the movement is likely to be painful for the patient. The RN should supervise the patient during the initial transfer to evaluate how well the patient is able to accomplish this skill.

A patient undergoes a right above-the-knee amputation with an immediate prosthetic fitting. When the patient first arrives on the orthopedic unit after surgery, the nurse should a. place the patient in a prone position. b. check the surgical site for hemorrhage. c. remove the prosthesis and wrap the site. d. keep the residual leg elevated on a pillow.

ANS: B The nurse should monitor for hemorrhage after the surgery. The prosthesis will not be removed. To avoid flexion contracture of the hip, the leg will not be elevated on a pillow. The patient is placed in a prone position after amputation to prevent hip flexion, but this would not be done during the immediate postoperative period.

37. A patient undergoes a left above-the-knee amputation with an immediate prosthetic fitting. When the patient arrives on the orthopedic unit after surgery, the nurse should a. place the patient in a prone position. b. check the surgical site for hemorrhage. c. remove the prosthesis and wrap the site. d. keep the residual leg elevated on a pillow.

20. Which statement by a 62-year-old patient who has had an above-the-knee amputation indicates that the nurse's discharge teaching has been effective? a. "I should elevate my residual limb on a pillow 2 or 3 times a day." b. "I should lay flat on my abdomen for 30 minutes 3 or 4 times a day." c. "I should change the limb sock when it becomes soiled or each week." d. "I should use lotion on the stump to prevent skin drying and cracking."

ANS: B The patient lies in the prone position several times daily to prevent flexion contractures of the hip. The limb sock should be changed daily. Lotion should not be used on the stump. The residual limb should not be elevated because this would encourage flexion contracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1532 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

38. Before assisting a patient with ambulation 2 days after a total hip replacement, which action is most important for the nurse to take? a. Observe the status of the incisional drain device. b. Administer the ordered oral opioid pain medication. c. Instruct the patient about the benefits of ambulation. d. Change the hip dressing and document the wound appearance.

ANS: B The patient should be adequately medicated for pain before any attempt to ambulate. Instructions about the benefits of ambulation may increase the patient's willingness to ambulate, but decreasing pain with ambulation is more important. The presence of an incisional drain or timing of dressing change will not affect ambulation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1526 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient who has been hospitalized for 3 days with a hip fracture has sudden onset shortness of breath and tachypnea. The patient tells the nurse, "I feel like I am going to die!" Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay with the patient and offer reassurance. b. Administer the prescribed PRN oxygen at 4 L/min. c. Check the patient's legs for swelling or tenderness. d. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms.

ANS: B The patient's clinical manifestations and history are consistent with a pulmonary embolus, and the nurse's first action should be to ensure adequate oxygenation. The nurse should offer reassurance to the patient, but meeting the physiologic need for oxygen is a higher priority. The health care provider should be notified after the oxygen is started and pulse oximetry and assessment for fat embolus or venous thromboembolism (VTE) are obtained.

Which condition would trigger the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? A. Plasma osmolarity decreased secondary to overhydration. B. Plasma osmolarity increased secondary to dehydration. C. Plasma volume decreased secondary to hemorrhage. D. Plasma volume increased with edema formation.

ANS: B Antidiuretic hormone is triggered by a rising ECF osmolarity, especially hypernatremia.

27. After being hospitalized for 3 days with a right femur fracture, a 32-year-old patient suddenly develops shortness of breath and tachypnea. The patient tells the nurse, "I feel like I am going to die!" Which action should the nurse take first? a. Stay with the patient and offer reassurance. b. Administer the prescribed PRN oxygen at 4 L/min. c. Check the patient's legs for swelling or tenderness. d. Notify the health care provider about the symptoms.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complains to the clinic nurse about having chronically dry eyes. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Teach the patient about adverse effects of the RA medications. b. Suggest that the patient use over-the-counter (OTC) artificial tears. c. Reassure the patient that dry eyes are a common problem with RA. d. Ask the health care provider about discontinuing methotrexate (Rheumatrex) .

ANS: B The patient's dry eyes are consistent with Sjögren's syndrome, a common extraarticular manifestation of RA. Symptomatic therapy such as OTC eye drops is recommended. Dry eyes are not a side effect of methotrexate. Although dry eyes are common in RA, it is more helpful to offer a suggestion to relieve these symptoms than to offer reassurance. The dry eyes are not caused by RA treatment, but by the disease itself

Two days after surgery for an ileal conduit, the patient will not look at the stoma or participate in care. The patient insists that no one but the ostomy nurse specialist care for the stoma. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of a. anxiety related to effects of procedure on lifestyle. b. disturbed body image related to change in body function. c. readiness for enhanced coping related to need for information. d. self-care deficit, toileting, related to denial of altered body function.

ANS: B The patient's unwillingness to look at the stoma or participate in care indicates that disturbed body image is the best diagnosis. No data suggest that the impact on lifestyle is a concern for the patient. The patient does not appear to be ready for enhanced coping. The patient's insistence that only the ostomy nurse care for the stoma indicates that denial is not present. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1157 | 1159-1160 | 1158-1159

45. When caring for a patient who is using Buck's traction after a hip fracture, which action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Monitor the skin under the traction boot for redness. b. Ensure that the weight for the traction is off the floor. c. Check for intact sensation and movement in the affected leg. d. Offer reassurance that hip and leg pain are normal after hip fracture.

ANS: B UAP can be responsible for maintaining the integrity of the traction once it has been established. Assessment of skin integrity and circulation should be done by the registered nurse (RN). UAP should notify the RN if the patient experiences hip and leg pain because pain and effectiveness of pain relief measures should be assessed by the RN. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1514 OBJ: Special Questions: Delegation TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

A patient has a long-arm plaster cast applied for immobilization of a fractured left radius. Until the cast has completely dried, the nurse should a. keep the left arm in a dependent position. b. handle the cast with the palms of the hands. c. place gauze around the cast edge to pad any roughness. d. cover the cast with a small blanket to absorb the dampness.

ANS: B Until a plaster cast has dried, placing pressure on the cast should be avoided to prevent creating areas inside the cast that could place pressure on the arm. The left arm should be elevated to prevent swelling. The edges of the cast may be petaled once the cast is dry, but padding the edges before that may cause the cast to be misshapen. The cast should not be covered until it is dry because heat builds up during drying.

9. A patient has a long-arm plaster cast applied for immobilization of a fractured left radius. Until the cast has completely dried, the nurse should a. keep the left arm in dependent position. b. avoid handling the cast using fingertips. c. place gauze around the cast edge to pad any roughness. d. cover the cast with a small blanket to absorb the dampness.

ANS: B Until a plaster cast has dried, using the palms rather than the fingertips to handle the cast helps prevent creating protrusions inside the cast that could place pressure on the skin. The left arm should be elevated to prevent swelling. The edges of the cast may be petaled once the cast is dry, but padding the edges before that may cause the cast to be misshapen. The cast should not be covered until it is dry because heat builds up during drying. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1515 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which of the following observations made by the nurse who is evaluating the crutch-walking technique of a patient who is to have no weight bearing on the right leg indicates that the patient can safely ambulate independently? a. The patient keeps the padded area of the crutch firmly in the axillary area when ambulating. b. The patient advances the right leg and both crutches together and then advances the left leg. c. The patient moves the left crutch with the left leg and then the right crutch with the right leg. d. The patient uses the bedside chair to assist in balance as needed when ambulating in the room.

ANS: B When using crutches, patients are usually taught to move the assistive device and the injured leg forward at the same time and then to move the unaffected leg. Patients are discouraged from using furniture to assist with ambulation. The patient is taught to place weight on the hands, not in the axilla, to avoid nerve damage. If the 2- or 4-point gaits are to be used, the crutch and leg on opposite sides move forward, not the crutch and same-side leg.

A patient has chronic osteomyelitis of the left femur, which is being managed at home with administration of IV antibiotics. The nurse chooses a nursing diagnosis of ineffective health maintenance when the nurse finds that the patient a. takes and records the oral temperature twice a day. b. is unable to plantar flex the foot on the affected side. c. uses crutches to avoid weight bearing on the affected leg. d. is irritable and frustrated with the length of treatment required.

ANS: B Foot drop is an indication that the foot is not being supported in a neutral position by a splint. Using crutches and monitoring the oral temperature are appropriate self-care activities. Frustration with the length of treatment is not an indicator of ineffective health maintenance of the osteomyelitis.

A patient is being discharged after 2 weeks of IV antibiotic therapy for acute osteomyelitis in the left leg. Which information will be included in the discharge teaching? a. How to apply warm packs safely to the leg to reduce pain b. How to monitor and care for the long-term IV catheter site c. The need for daily aerobic exercise to help maintain muscle strength d. The reason for taking oral antibiotics for 7 to 10 days after discharge

ANS: B The patient will be on IV antibiotics for several months, and the patient will need to recognize signs of infection at the IV site and how to care for the catheter during daily activities such as bathing. IV antibiotics rather than oral antibiotics are used for acute osteomyelitis. Patients are instructed to avoid exercise and heat application because these will increase swelling and the risk for spreading infection.

The client is taking a medication for an endocrine problem that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. To what complications of this therapy should the nurse be alert? A. Dehydration, hypokalemia B. Dehydration, hyperkalemia C. Overhydration, hyponatremia D. Overhydration, hypernatremia

ANS: B Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid that increases the reabsorption of water and sodium in the kidney at the same time that it promotes excretion of potassium. Any drug or condition that disrupts aldosterone secretion or release increases the client's risk for excessive water loss and potassium reabsorption.

Which of the following conditions are associated with oversecretion of rennin? A. Alzheimer's disease B. Hypertension C. Diabetes mellitus D. Diabetes insipidus

ANS: B Renin is secreted when special cells in the DCT, called the macula densa, sense changes in blood volume and pressure. When the macula densa cells sense that blood volume is low, blood pressure is low, or blood sodium levels are low, renin is secreted. Renin then converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin I. This leads to a series of reactions that cause the secretion of the hormone aldosterone. This hormone increases kidney reabsorption of sodium and water, increasing blood pressure, blood volume, and blood sodium levels. Inappropriate or excessive renin secretion is a major cause of persistent hypertension.

The client's urine specific gravity is 1.018. What is the nurse's best action? A. Ask the client for a 24-hour recall of liquid intake. B. Document the finding as the only action. C. Obtain a specimen for culture. D. Notify the physician.

ANS: B This specific gravity is within the normal range for urine.

Which of the following muscle actions results in voluntary urination? A. Detrusor contraction, external sphincter contraction B. Detrusor contraction, external sphincter relaxation C. Detrusor relaxation, external sphincter contraction D. Detrusor relaxation, external sphincter relaxation

ANS: B Voiding becomes a voluntary act as a result of learned responses controlled by the cerebral cortex that cause contraction of the bladder detrusor muscle and simultaneous relaxation of the external urethral sphincter muscle.

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient with newly diagnosed chronic fatigue syndrome about self-management? a. Avoid use of over-the-counter antihistamines or decongestants. b. A low-residue, low-fiber diet will reduce any abdominal distention. c. A gradual increase in your daily exercise may help decrease fatigue. d. Chronic fatigue syndrome usually progresses as patients become older.

ANS: C A graduated exercise program is recommended to avoid fatigue while encouraging ongoing activity. Because many patients with chronic fatigue syndrome have allergies, antihistamines and decongestants are used to treat allergy symptoms. A high-fiber diet is recommended. Chronic fatigue syndrome usually does not progress

40. Which action will the urgent care nurse take when caring for a patient who has a possible knee meniscus injury? a. Encourage bed rest for 24 to 48 hours. b. Avoid palpation or movement of the knee. c. Apply a knee immobilizer to the affected leg. d. Administer intravenous narcotics for pain relief.

ANS: C A knee immobilizer may be used for several days after a meniscus injury to stabilize the knee and minimize pain. Patients are encouraged to ambulate with crutches. The knee is assessed by flexing, internally rotating, and extending the knee (McMurray's test). The pain associated with a meniscus injury will not typically require IV opioid administration; nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are usually recommended for pain relief. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1510 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. A patient arrived at the emergency department after tripping over a rug and falling at home. Which finding is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. There is bruising at the shoulder area. b. The patient reports arm and shoulder pain. c. The right arm appears shorter than the left. d. There is decreased shoulder range of motion.

ANS: C A shorter limb after a fall indicates a possible dislocation, which is an orthopedic emergency. Bruising, pain, and decreased range of motion also should be reported, but these do not indicate that emergent treatment is needed to preserve function. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1508 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which nursing action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has had a total knee arthroplasty? a. Avoid extension of the knee beyond 120 degrees. b. Use a compression bandage to keep the knee flexed. c. Start progressive knee exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion. d. Teach about the need to avoid weight bearing for 4 weeks.

ANS: C After knee arthroplasty, active or passive flexion exercises are used to obtain a 90-degree flexion of the knee. The goal for extension of the knee will be 180 degrees. A compression bandage is used to hold the knee in an extended position after surgery. Full weight bearing is expected before discharge

46. Based on the information shown in the accompanying figure and obtained for a patient in the emergency room, which action will the nurse take first? a. Administer the prescribed morphine 4 mg IV. b. Contact the operating room to schedule surgery. c. Check the patient's oxygen saturation using pulse oximetry. d. Ask the patient about the date of the last tetanus immunization.

ANS: C Because fat embolism can occur with tibial fracture, the nurse's first action should be to check the patient's oxygen saturation. The other actions are also appropriate, but not as important at this time as obtaining the patient's oxygen saturation. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1523 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Anakinra (Kineret) is prescribed for a 49-year-old patient who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse will include information about a. avoiding concurrently taking aspirin. b. symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. c. self-administration of subcutaneous injections. d. taking the medication with at least 8 oz of fluid.

ANS: C Anakinra is administered by subcutaneous injection. GI bleeding is not a side effect of this medication. Because the medication is injected, instructions to take it with 8 oz of fluid would not be appropriate. The patient is likely to be concurrently taking aspirin or nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and these should not be discontinued

A patient with an acute attack of gout in the right great toe has a new prescription for probenecid (Benemid). Which information about the patient's home routine indicates a need for teaching regarding gout management? a. The patient sleeps about 8 to 10 hours every night. b. The patient usually eats beef once or twice a week. c. The patient takes one aspirin a day to prevent angina. d. The patient usually drinks about 3 quarts water daily.

ANS: C Aspirin interferes with the effectiveness of probenecid and should not be taken when the patient is taking probenecid. The patient's sleep pattern will not affect gout management. Drinking 3 quarts of water and eating beef only once or twice a week are appropriate for the patient with gout.

After a patient with a left femur fracture has a hip spica cast applied, which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Avoid placing the patient in the prone position. b. Use the cast support bar to reposition the patient. c. Ask the patient about any abdominal discomfort or nausea. d. Discuss the reasons for remaining on bed rest for several weeks.

ANS: C Assessment of bowel tones, abdominal pain, and nausea and vomiting will detect the development of cast syndrome. To avoid breakage, the support bar should not be used for repositioning. After the cast dries, the patient can begin ambulating with the assistance of physical therapy personnel and may be turned to the prone position.

The nurse is planning care for a patient with hypertension and gout who has a red and painful right great toe. Which nursing action will be included in the plan of care? a. Gently palpate the toe to assess swelling. b. Use pillows to keep the right foot elevated. c. Use a footboard to hold bedding away from the toe. d. Teach patient to avoid use of acetaminophen (Tylenol).

ANS: C Because any touch on the area of inflammation may increase pain, bedding should be held away from the toe and touching the toe will be avoided. Elevation of the foot will not reduce the pain, which is caused by urate crystals. Acetaminophen can be used for pain relief.

A patient undergoes a nephrectomy after having massive trauma to the kidney. Which assessment finding obtained postoperatively is most important to communicate to the surgeon? a. Blood pressure is 102/58. b. Incisional pain level is 8/10. c. Urine output is 20 mL/hr for 2 hours. d. Crackles are heard at both lung bases.

ANS: C Because the urine output should be at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr, a 40 mL output for 2 hours indicates that the patient may have decreased renal perfusion because of bleeding, inadequate fluid intake, or obstruction at the suture site. The blood pressure requires ongoing monitoring but does not indicate inadequate perfusion at this time. The patient should cough and deep breathe, but the crackles do not indicate a need for an immediate change in therapy. The incisional pain should be addressed, but this is not as potentially life threatening as decreased renal perfusion. In addition, the nurse can medicate the patient for pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1154-1155

Which laboratory data is important to communicate to the health care provider for a patient who is taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to treat rheumatoid arthritis? a. The blood glucose is 90 mg/dL. b. The rheumatoid factor is positive. c. The white blood cell (WBC) count is 1500/µL. d. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is elevated.

ANS: C Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect of methotrexate, and the patient's low WBC count places the patient at high risk for infection. The elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate and positive rheumatoid factor are expected in rheumatoid arthritis. The blood glucose is normal.

Which laboratory result will the nurse monitor to determine whether prednisone (Deltasone) has been effective for a 30-year-old patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis? a. Blood glucose test b. Liver function tests c. C-reactive protein level d. Serum electrolyte levels

ANS: C C-reactive protein is a marker for inflammation, and a decrease would indicate that the corticosteroid therapy was effective. Blood glucose and serum electrolyte levels will also be monitored to check for side effects of prednisone. Liver function is not routinely monitored in patients receiving corticosteroids.

The nurse will anticipate the need to teach a 57-year-old patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) about which medication? a. Adalimumab (Humira) b. Prednisone (Deltasone) c. Capsaicin cream (Zostrix) d. Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

ANS: C Capsaicin cream blocks the transmission of pain impulses and is helpful for some patients in treating OA. The other medications would be used for patients with RA.

When counseling an older patient about ways to prevent fractures, which information will the nurse include? a. Tack down scatter rugs in the home. b. Most falls happen outside the home. c. Buy shoes that provide good support and are comfortable to wear. d. Range-of-motion exercises should be taught by a physical therapist.

1. When teaching seniors at a community recreation center, which information will the nurse include about ways to prevent fractures? a. Tack down scatter rugs in the home. b. Most falls happen outside the home. c. Buy shoes that provide good support and are comfortable to wear. d. Range-of-motion exercises should be taught by a physical therapist.

ANS: C Comfortable shoes with good support will help decrease the risk for falls. Scatter rugs should be eliminated, not just tacked down. Activities of daily living provide range of motion exercise; these do not need to be taught by a physical therapist. Falls inside the home are responsible for many injuries. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1506 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

When the nurse brings medications to a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the patient refuses the prescribed methotrexate (Rheumatrex). The patient tells the nurse, "My arthritis isn't that bad yet. The side effects of methotrexate are worse than the arthritis." The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "You have the right to refuse to take the methotrexate." b. "Methotrexate is less expensive than some of the newer drugs." c. "It is important to start methotrexate early to decrease the extent of joint damage." d. "Methotrexate is effective and has fewer side effects than some of the other drugs."

ANS: C Disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are prescribed early to prevent the joint degeneration that occurs as soon as the first year with RA. The other statements are accurate, but the most important point for the patient to understand is that it is important to start DMARDs as quickly as possible.

Which information will the nurse include when discharging a patient with a sprained wrist from the emergency department? a. Keep the wrist loosely wrapped with gauze. b. Apply a heating pad to reduce muscle spasms. c. Use pillows to elevate the arm above the heart. d. Gently move the wrist through the range of motion.

ANS: C Elevation of the arm will reduce the amount of swelling and pain. Compression bandages are used to decrease swelling. For the first 24 to 48 hours, cold packs are used to reduce swelling. The wrist should be rested and kept immobile to prevent further swelling or injury.

4. Which discharge instruction will the emergency department nurse include for a patient with a sprained ankle? a. Keep the ankle loosely wrapped with gauze. b. Apply a heating pad to reduce muscle spasms. c. Use pillows to elevate the ankle above the heart. d. Gently move the ankle through the range of motion.

ANS: C Elevation of the leg will reduce the amount of swelling and pain. Compression bandages are used to decrease swelling. For the first 24 to 48 hours, cold packs are used to reduce swelling. The ankle should be rested and kept immobile to prevent further swelling or injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1508 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Which information noted by the nurse when caring for a patient with a bladder infection is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Dysuria b. Hematuria c. Left-sided flank pain d. Temperature 100.1° F

ANS: C Flank pain indicates that the patient may have developed pyelonephritis as a complication of the bladder infection. The other clinical manifestations are consistent with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI). DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1132-1133

After a patient has a short-arm plaster cast applied in the emergency department, which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of the nurse's discharge teaching? a. "I can get the cast wet as long as I dry it right away with a hair dryer." b. "I should avoid moving my fingers and elbow until the cast is removed." c. "I will apply an ice pack to the cast over the fracture site for the next 24 hours." d. "I can use a cotton-tipped applicator to rub lotion on any dry areas under the cast."

ANS: C Ice application for the first 24 hours after a fracture will help reduce swelling and can be placed over the cast. Plaster casts should not get wet. The patient should be encouraged to move the joints above and below the cast. Patients should not insert objects inside the cast.

10. Which statement by the patient indicates a good understanding of the nurse's teaching about a new short-arm plaster cast? a. "I can get the cast wet as long as I dry it right away with a hair dryer." b. "I should avoid moving my fingers and elbow until the cast is removed." c. "I will apply an ice pack to the cast over the fracture site off and on for 24 hours." d. "I can use a cotton-tipped applicator to rub lotion on any dry areas under the cast.

24. When giving home care instructions to a patient who has comminuted forearm fractures and a long-arm cast on the left arm, which information should the nurse include? a. Keep the left shoulder elevated on a pillow or cushion. b. Keep the hand immobile to prevent soft tissue swelling. c. Call the health care provider for increased swelling or numbness of the hand. d. Avoid nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for 24 hours after the injury.

ANS: C Increased swelling or numbness may indicate increased pressure at the injury, and the health care provider should be notified immediately to avoid damage to nerves and other tissues. The patient should be encouraged to move the joints above and below the cast to avoid stiffness. There is no need to elevate the shoulder, although the forearm should be elevated to reduce swelling. NSAIDs are appropriate to treat pain after a fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1520 TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 26-year-old patient with a history of polycystic kidney disease is admitted to the surgical unit after having knee surgery. Which of the routine postoperative orders is most important for the nurse to discuss with the health care provider? a. Infuse 5% dextrose in normal saline at 75 mL/hr. b. Order regular diet after patient is awake and alert. c. Give ketorolac (Toradol) 10 mg PO PRN for pain. d. Obtain blood urea nitrogen (BUN), creatinine, and electrolytes in 2 hours.

ANS: C The NSAIDs should be avoided in patients with decreased renal function because nephrotoxicity is a potential adverse effect. The other orders do not need any clarification or change. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1142-1143

A 19-year-old patient hospitalized with a fever and red, hot, and painful knees is suspected of having septic arthritis. Information obtained during the nursing history that indicates a risk factor for septic arthritis is that the patient a. had several knee injuries as a teenager. b. recently returned from South America. c. is sexually active with multiple partners. d. has a parent who has rheumatoid arthritis.

ANS: C Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause for septic arthritis in sexually active young adults. The other information does not point to any risk for septic arthritis.

Which patient seen by the nurse in the outpatient clinic is most likely to require teaching about ways to reduce risk for osteoarthritis (OA)? a. A 38-year-old man who plays on a summer softball team b. A 56-year-old man who is a member of a construction crew c. A 56-year-old woman who works on an automotive assembly line d. A 49-year-old woman who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus

ANS: C OA is more likely to occur in women as a result of estrogen reduction at menopause and in individuals whose work involves repetitive movements and lifting. Moderate exercise, such as softball, reduces risk for OA. Diabetes is not a risk factor for OA. Working on a construction crew would involve nonrepetitive work and thus would not be as risky.

A patient's renal calculus is analyzed as being very high in uric acid. To prevent recurrence of stones, the nurse teaches the patient to avoid eating a. milk and dairy products. b. legumes and dried fruits. c. organ meats and sardines. d. spinach, chocolate, and tea.

ANS: C Organ meats and fish such as sardines increase purine levels and uric acid. Spinach, chocolate, and tomatoes should be avoided in patients who have oxalate stones. Milk, dairy products, legumes, and dried fruits may increase the incidence of calcium-containing stones. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1139

Which information will the nurse include when teaching the patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI) about the use of phenazopyridine (Pyridium)? a. Take the medication for at least 7 days. b. Use sunscreen while taking the Pyridium. c. The urine may turn a reddish-orange color. d. Use the Pyridium before sexual intercourse.

ANS: C Patients should be taught that Pyridium will color the urine deep orange. Urinary analgesics should only be needed for a few days until the prescribed antibiotics decrease the bacterial count. Taking Pyridium before intercourse will not be helpful in reducing the risk for UTI. Pyridium does not cause photosensitivity.

43. When a patient arrives in the emergency department with a facial fracture, which action will the nurse take first? a. Assess for nasal bleeding and pain. b. Apply ice to the face to reduce swelling. c. Use a cervical collar to stabilize the spine. d. Check the patient's alertness and orientation.

ANS: C Patients who have facial fractures are at risk for cervical spine injury and should be treated as if they have a cervical spine injury until this is ruled out. The other actions are also necessary, but the most important action is to prevent cervical spine injury. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1529 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. A 42-year-old patient is admitted to the emergency department with a left femur fracture. Which information obtained by the nurse is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Ecchymosis of the left thigh b. Complaints of severe thigh pain c. Slow capillary refill of the left foot d. Outward pointing toes on the left foot

ANS: C Prolonged capillary refill may indicate complications such as arterial damage or compartment syndrome. The other findings are typical with a left femur fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1517-1518 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 29-year-old patient reporting painful urination and knee pain is diagnosed with reactive arthritis. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about the need for several months of therapy with a. anakinra (Kineret). b. etanercept (Enbrel). c. doxycycline (Vibramycin). d. methotrexate (Rheumatrex).

ANS: C Reactive arthritis associated with urethritis is usually caused by infection with Chlamydia trachomatis and requires 3 months of treatment with doxycycline. The other medications are used for chronic inflammatory problems such as rheumatoid arthritis.

A patient with rheumatoid arthritis being seen in the clinic has rheumatoid nodules on the elbows. Which action will the nurse take? a. Draw blood for rheumatoid factor analysis. b. Teach the patient about injections for the nodules. c. Assess the nodules for skin breakdown or infection. d. Discuss the need for surgical removal of the nodules.

ANS: C Rheumatoid nodules can break down or become infected. They are not associated with changes in rheumatoid factor, and injection is not needed. Rheumatoid nodules are usually not removed surgically because of a high probability of recurrence.

Which finding by the nurse for a patient admitted with glomerulonephritis indicates that treatment has been effective? a. The patient denies pain with voiding. b. The urine dipstick is negative for nitrites. c. Peripheral and periorbital edema is resolved. d. The antistreptolysin-O (ASO) titer is decreased.

ANS: C Since edema is a common clinical manifestation of glomerulonephritis, resolution of the edema indicates that the prescribed therapies have been effective. Antibodies to streptococcus will persist after a streptococcal infection. Nitrites will be negative and the patient will not experience dysuria since the patient does not have a urinary tract infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1131-1133

Which assessment finding for a patient who has had a cystectomy with an ileal conduit the previous day is most important for the nurse to communicate to the physician? a. Cloudy appearing urine b. Hypotonic bowel sounds c. Heart rate 102 beats/minute d. Continuous drainage from stoma

ANS: C Tachycardia may indicate infection, hemorrhage, or hypovolemia, which are all serious complications of this surgery. The urine from an ileal conduit normally contains mucus and is cloudy. Hypotonic bowel sounds are expected after bowel surgery. Continuous drainage of urine from the stoma is normal. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1157 | 1159-1160 | 1158-1159

A patient who has a proximal humerus fracture that is immobilized with a left-sided long-arm cast and a sling is admitted to the medical-surgical unit. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Use surgical net dressing to hang the arm from an IV pole. b. Immobilize the fingers on the left hand with gauze dressings. c. Assess the left axilla and change absorbent dressings as needed. d. Assist the patient in passive range of motion (ROM) for the right arm.

ANS: C The axilla can become excoriated when a sling is used to support the arm, and the nurse should check the axilla and apply absorbent dressings to prevent this. A patient with a sling would not have traction applied by hanging. The patient will be encouraged to move the fingers on the injured arm to maintain function and to help decrease swelling. The patient will do active ROM on the uninjured side.

25. A patient who slipped and fell in the shower at home has a proximal humerus fracture immobilized with a left-sided long-arm cast and a sling. Which nursing intervention will be included in the plan of care? a. Use surgical net dressing to hang the arm from an IV pole. b. Immobilize the fingers of the left hand with gauze dressings. c. Assess the left axilla and change absorbent dressings as needed. d. Assist the patient in passive range of motion (ROM) for the right arm.

31. A patient who arrives at the emergency department experiencing severe left knee pain is diagnosed with a patellar dislocation. The initial patient teaching by the nurse will focus on the need for a. a knee immobilizer. b. gentle knee flexion. c. monitored anesthesia care. d. physical activity restrictions.

ANS: C The first goal of collaborative management is realignment of the knee to its original anatomic position, which will require anesthesia or monitored anesthesia care (MAC), formerly called conscious sedation. Immobilization, gentle range-of-motion (ROM) exercises, and discussion about activity restrictions will be implemented after the knee is realigned. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1508 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. A high school teacher with ulnar drift caused by rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is scheduled for a left hand arthroplasty. Which patient statement to the nurse indicates a realistic expectation for the surgery? a. "This procedure will correct the deformities in my fingers." b. "I will not have to do as many hand exercises after the surgery." c. "I will be able to use my fingers with more flexibility to grasp things." d. "My fingers will appear more normal in size and shape after this surgery."

ANS: C The goal of hand surgery in RA is to restore function, not to correct for cosmetic deformity or treat the underlying process. Hand exercises will be prescribed after the surgery. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1535 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

Following a motor vehicle accident, a patient arrives in the emergency department with massive right lower leg swelling. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Elevate the leg on pillows. b. Apply a compression bandage. c. Check leg pulses and sensation. d. Place ice packs on the lower leg.

32. Following a motorcycle accident, a 58-year-old patient arrives in the emergency department with massive left lower leg swelling. Which action will the nurse take first? a. Elevate the leg on 2 pillows. b. Apply a compression bandage. c. Check leg pulses and sensation. d. Place ice packs on the lower leg.

ANS: C The initial action by the nurse will be to assess the circulation to the leg and to observe for any evidence of injury such as fractures or dislocations. After the initial assessment, the other actions may be appropriate, based on what is observed during the assessment. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1518 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

33. A pedestrian who was hit by a car is admitted to the emergency department with possible right lower leg fractures. The initial action by the nurse should be to a. elevate the right leg. b. splint the lower leg. c. check the pedal pulses. d. verify tetanus immunizations.

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be assessment of the neurovascular status of the injured leg. After assessment, the nurse may need to splint and elevate the leg, based on the assessment data. Information about tetanus immunizations should be done if there is an open wound. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1518 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Implementation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

After the health care provider has recommended an amputation for a patient who has ischemic foot ulcers, the patient tells the nurse, "If they want to cut off my foot, they should just shoot me instead." Which response by the nurse is best? a. "Many people are able to function normally with a foot prosthesis." b. "I understand that you are upset, but you may lose the foot anyway." c. "Tell me what you know about what your options for treatment are." d. "If you do not want the surgery, you do not have to have an amputation."

ANS: C The initial nursing action should be to assess the patient's knowledge level and feelings about the options available. Discussion about the patient's option to not have the procedure, the seriousness of the condition, or rehabilitation after the procedure may be appropriate after the nurse knows more about the patient's current level of knowledge and emotional state.

18. After the health care provider has recommended amputation for a patient who has nonhealing ischemic foot ulcers, the patient tells the nurse that he would rather die than have an amputation. Which response by the nurse is best? a. "You are upset, but you may lose the foot anyway." b. "Many people are able to function with a foot prosthesis." c. "Tell me what you know about your options for treatment." d. "If you do not want an amputation, you do not have to have it."

Which assessment finding for a patient who has just been admitted with acute pyelonephritis is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider? a. Foul-smelling urine b. Complaint of flank pain c. Blood pressure 88/45 mm Hg d. Temperature 100.1° F (57.8° C)

ANS: C The low blood pressure indicates that urosepsis and septic shock may be occurring and should be immediately reported. The other findings are typical of pyelonephritis. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1126

A patient is admitted to the hospital with new onset nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment data will the nurse expect to find related to this illness? a. Poor skin turgor b. High urine ketones c. Recent weight gain d. Low blood pressure

ANS: C The patient with a nephrotic syndrome will have weight gain associated with edema. Hypertension is a clinical manifestation of nephrotic syndrome. Skin turgor is normal because of the edema. Urine protein is high. DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension REF: 1132-1134

When assessing a 30-year-old man who complains of a feeling of incomplete bladder emptying and a split, spraying urine stream, the nurse asks about a history of a. bladder infection. b. recent kidney trauma. c. gonococcal urethritis. d. benign prostatic hyperplasia.

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations are consistent with urethral strictures, a possible complication of gonococcal urethritis. These symptoms are not consistent with benign prostatic hyperplasia, kidney trauma, or bladder infection. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1141

The nurse notices a circular lesion with a red border and clear center on the arm of an 18-year-old summer camp counselor who is in the camp clinic complaining of chills and muscle aches. Which action should the nurse take next? a. Palpate the abdomen. b. Auscultate the heart sounds. c. Ask the patient about recent outdoor activities. d. Question the patient about immunization history.

ANS: C The patient's clinical manifestations suggest possible Lyme disease. A history of recent outdoor activities such as hikes will help confirm the diagnosis. The patient's symptoms do not suggest cardiac or abdominal problems or lack of immunization.

35. The second day after admission with a fractured pelvis, a 64-year-old patient suddenly develops confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Take the blood pressure. b. Assess patient orientation. c. Check the oxygen saturation. d. Observe for facial asymmetry.

ANS: C The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest a fat embolus. The most important assessment is oxygenation. The other actions are also appropriate but will be done after the nurse assesses gas exchange. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1523 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient has muscle spasms and acute low back pain. An appropriate nursing intervention for this problem is to teach the patient to a. avoid the use of cold because it will exacerbate the muscle spasms. b. keep both feet flat on the floor when prolonged standing is required. c. keep the head elevated slightly and flex the knees when resting in bed. d. twist gently from side to side to maintain range of motion in the spine.

ANS: C Resting with the head elevated and knees flexed will reduce the strain on the back and decrease muscle spasms. Twisting from side to side will increase tension on the lumbar area. A pillow placed under the upper back will cause strain on the lumbar spine. Alternate application of cold and heat should be used to decrease pain.

After teaching a patient with a bunion about how to prevent further problems, the nurse will determine that more teaching is needed if the patient says, a. "I will throw away my high heel shoes." b. "I will use the bunion pad to relieve the pain." c. "I will need to wear open sandals at all times." d. "I will take ibuprofen (Motrin) when I need it."

ANS: C The patient can wear shoes that have a wide forefoot. The other patient statements indicate that the teaching has been effective.

A patient with a herniated intravertebral disk undergoes a laminectomy and discectomy. Following the surgery, the nurse should position the patient on the side by a. instructing the patient to move the legs before turning the rest of the body. b. having the patient turn by grasping the side rails and pulling the shoulders over. c. placing a pillow between the patient's legs and turning the entire body as a unit. d. turning the patient's head and shoulders first, followed by the hips, legs, and feet.

ANS: C The spine should be kept in correct alignment after laminectomy. The other positions will create misalignment of the spine.

When administering alendronate (Fosamax) to a patient, the nurse will first a. be sure the patient has recently eaten. b. ask about any leg cramps or hot flashes. c. assist the patient to sit up at the bedside. d. administer the ordered calcium carbonate.

ANS: C To avoid esophageal erosions, the patient taking bisphosphonates should be upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Fosamax should be taken on an empty stomach, not after taking other medications or eating. Leg cramps and hot flashes are not side effects of bisphosphonates.

Two hours after a closed percutaneous kidney biopsy, the client reports a dramatic increase in pain. What is the nurse's best first action? A. Reposition the client on the operative side. B. Administer prescribed opioid analgesic. C. Assess pulse rate and blood pressure. D. Check the Foley catheter for kinks.

ANS: C An increase in the intensity of pain after a percutaneous kidney biopsy is a symptom of internal hemorrhage.

With a renal threshold for glucose of 220 mg/dL, what is the expected response when a client has a blood glucose level of 400 mg/dL? A. 400 mg/dL of excreted glucose in the urine B. 220 mg/dL of excreted glucose in the urine C. 180 mg/dL of glucose is excreted in the urine D. No excreted glucose in the urine

ANS: C Blood glucose is freely filtered at the glomerulus. Therefore, if a client has a blood sugar level of 400 mg/dl, the filtrate in the proximal convoluted tubule will have a glucose concentration of 400 mg/dL. With a renal threshold of 220 mg/dl, a total of 220 mg/dL of the 400 mg/dL will be reabsorbed back into the systemic circulation, and the final urine will have a glucose concentration of 180 mg/dL.

The client is going home after urography. Which instruction or precaution should the nurse teach this client? A. "Avoid direct contact with the urine for 24 hours until the radioisotope clears." B. "You are likely to experience some dribbling of urine for several weeks after this procedure." C. "Be sure to drink at least 3 L of fluids today to help eliminate the dye faster." D. "Your skin may become slightly yellow-tinged from the dye used in this procedure."

ANS: C Dyes used in urography are potentially nephrotoxic.

6. What is the result of stimulation of erythropoietin production in the kidney tissue? A. Increased blood flow to the kidney B. Inhibition of vitamin D and loss of bone density C. Increased bone marrow production of red blood cells D. Inhibition of the active transport of sodium, leading to hyponatremi

ANS: C Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell (RBC) production in the bone marrow.

Confirmed by palpation and x-ray study, the client's right kidney is lower than the left kidney. What is the nurse's interpretation of this finding? A. The client has a problem involving the right kidney. B. The client has a problem involving the left kidney. C. The client has both kidneys in the normal position. D. The client is at increased risk for kidney impairment.

ANS: C Normally, the right kidney is positioned somewhat lower than the left kidney. This anatomic difference in otherwise symmetric organs is caused by liver displacement. The significance of this difference is that the right kidney is easier to palpate in an adult than is the left kidney.

The client has an elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level and an increased ratio of blood urea nitrogen to creatinine. What is the nurse's interpretation of these laboratory results? A. The client probably has a urinary tract infection. B. The client may be overhydrated. C. The kidney may be hypoperfused. D. The kidney may be damaged.

ANS: C When dehydration or renal hypoperfusion exist, the BUN level rises more rapidly than the serum creatinine level, causing the ratio to be increased, even when no renal dysfunction is present.

To prevent the recurrence of renal calculi, the nurse teaches the patient to: a. use a filter to strain all urine. b. avoid dietary sources of calcium. c. drink diuretic fluids such as coffee. d. have 2000 to 3000 mL of fluid a day.

ANS: D A fluid intake of 2000 to 3000 mL daily is recommended to help flush out minerals before stones can form. Avoidance of calcium is not usually recommended for patients with renal calculi. Coffee tends to increase stone recurrence. There is no need for a patient to strain all urine routinely after a stone has passed, and this will not prevent stones.

In developing a care plan for a patient with an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of an open, displaced fracture of the tibia, the priority nursing diagnosis is a. activity intolerance related to deconditioning. b. risk for constipation related to prolonged bed rest. c. risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility. d. risk for infection related to disruption of skin integrity.

34. The day after a 60-year-old patient has an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) for an open, displaced tibial fracture, the priority nursing diagnosis is a. activity intolerance related to deconditioning. b. risk for constipation related to prolonged bed rest. c. risk for impaired skin integrity related to immobility. d. risk for infection related to disruption of skin integrity.

ANS: D A patient having an ORIF is at risk for problems such as wound infection and osteomyelitis. After an ORIF, patients typically are mobilized starting the first postoperative day, so problems caused by immobility are not as likely. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1514 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

22. Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has had a total right knee arthroplasty? a. Avoid extension of the right knee beyond 120 degrees. b. Use a compression bandage to keep the right knee flexed. c. Teach about the need to avoid weight bearing for 4 weeks. d. Start progressive knee exercises to obtain 90-degree flexion.

ANS: D After knee arthroplasty, active or passive flexion exercises are used to obtain a 90-degree flexion of the knee. The goal for extension of the knee will be 180 degrees. A compression bandage is used to hold the knee in an extended position after surgery. Full weight bearing is expected before discharge. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1535 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

When the nurse is caring for a patient who has had left-sided extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy, which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Blood in urine b. Left flank pain c. Left flank bruising d. Drop in urine output

ANS: D Because lithotripsy breaks the stone into small sand, which could cause obstruction, it is important to report a drop in urine output. Left flank pain, bruising, and hematuria are common after lithotripsy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1138-1139

Which action will the nurse take in order to evaluate the effectiveness of Buck's traction for a patient who has an intracapsular fracture of the left femur? a. Assess for hip contractures. b. Monitor for hip dislocation. c. Check the peripheral pulses. d. Ask about left hip pain level.

ANS: D Buck's traction keeps the leg immobilized and reduces painful muscle spasm. Hip contractures and dislocation are unlikely to occur in this situation. The peripheral pulses will be assessed, but this does not help in evaluating the effectiveness of Buck's traction.

A 72-year-old who has benign prostatic hyperplasia is admitted to the hospital with chills, fever, and vomiting. Which finding by the nurse will be most helpful in determining whether the patient has an upper urinary tract infection (UTI)? a. Suprapubic pain b. Bladder distention c. Foul-smelling urine d. Costovertebral tenderness

ANS: D Costovertebral tenderness is characteristic of pyelonephritis. The other symptoms are characteristic of lower UTI and are likely to be present if the patient also has an upper UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1128

A 71-year-old patient who takes multiple medications develops acute gouty arthritis. The nurse will consult with the health care provider before giving the prescribed dose of a. sertraline (Zoloft). b. famotidine (Pepcid). c. oxycodone (Roxicodone). d. hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL).

ANS: D Diuretic use increases uric acid levels and can precipitate gout attacks. The other medications are safe to administer

A 62-year-old asks the nurse for a perineal pad, stating that laughing or coughing causes leakage of urine. Which intervention is most appropriate to include in the care plan? a. Assist the patient to the bathroom q3hr. b. Place a commode at the patient's bedside. c. Demonstrate how to perform the Credé maneuver. d. Teach the patient how to perform Kegel exercises.

ANS: D Exercises to strengthen the pelvic floor muscles will help reduce stress incontinence. The Credé maneuver is used to help empty the bladder for patients with overflow incontinence. Placing the commode close to the bedside and assisting the patient to the bathroom are helpful for functional incontinence. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1148

A 78-year-old who has been admitted to the hospital with dehydration is confused and incontinent of urine. Which nursing action will be best to include in the plan of care? a. Apply absorbent incontinent pads. b. Restrict fluids after the evening meal. c. Insert an indwelling catheter until the symptoms have resolved. d. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours during the day.

ANS: D In older or confused patients, incontinence may be avoided by using scheduled toileting times. Indwelling catheters increase the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). Incontinent pads increase the risk for skin breakdown. Restricting fluids is not appropriate in a patient with dehydration. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1151-1152

When giving home care instructions to a patient who has multiple forearm fractures and a long-arm cast on the right arm, which information should the nurse include? a. Keep the hand immobile to prevent soft tissue swelling. b. Keep the right shoulder elevated on a pillow or cushion. c. Avoid the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for the first 48 hours after the injury. d. Call the health care provider for increased swelling or numbness.

ANS: D Increased swelling or numbness may indicate increased pressure at the injury, and the health care provider should be notified immediately to avoid damage to nerves and other tissues. The patient should be encouraged to move the joints above and below the cast to avoid stiffness. There is no need to elevate the shoulder, although the forearm should be elevated to reduce swelling. NSAIDs are appropriate to treat pain after a fracture.

After the nurse assesses a 78-year-old who uses naproxen (Aleve) daily for hand and knee osteoarthritis management, which information is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Knee crepitation is noted with normal knee range of motion. b. Patient reports embarrassment about having Heberden's nodes. c. Patient's knee pain while golfing has increased over the last year. d. Laboratory results indicate blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is elevated.

ANS: D Older patients are at increased risk for renal toxicity caused by nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as naproxen. The other information will also be reported to the health care provider but is consistent with the patient's diagnosis of osteoarthritis and will not require an immediate change in the patient's treatment plan

When assessing the patient who has a lower urinary tract infection (UTI), the nurse will initially ask about a. nausea. b. flank pain. c. poor urine output. d. pain with urination.

ANS: D Pain with urination is a common symptom of a lower UTI. Urine output does not decrease, but frequency may be experienced. Flank pain and nausea are associated with an upper UTI. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1123-1124

The nurse teaching a support group of women with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) about how to manage activities of daily living suggests that they a. stand rather than sit when performing household and yard chores. b. strengthen small hand muscles by wringing sponges or washcloths. c. protect the knee joints by sleeping with a small pillow under the knees. d. avoid activities that require repetitive use of the same muscles and joints.

ANS: D Patients are advised to avoid repetitious movements. Sitting during household chores is recommended to decrease stress on joints. Wringing water out of sponges would increase the joint stress. Patients are encouraged to position joints in the extended position, and sleeping with a pillow behind the knees would decrease the ability of the knee to extend and also decrease knee range of motion (ROM).

Which information obtained by the emergency department nurse when admitting a patient with a left femur fracture is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Bruising of the left thigh b. Complaints of left thigh pain c. Outward pointing toes on the left foot d. Prolonged capillary refill of the left foot

ANS: D Prolonged capillary refill may indicate complications such as arterial damage or compartment syndrome. The other findings are typical with a left femur fracture.

When working with a patient whose job involves many hours of word processing, the nurse will teach the patient about the need to a. do stretching and warm-up exercises before starting work. b. wrap the wrists with a compression bandage every morning. c. use acetaminophen (Tylenol) instead of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for wrist pain. d. obtain a keyboard pad to support the wrist while word processing.

ANS: D Repetitive strain injuries caused by prolonged times working at a keyboard can be prevented by the use of a pad that will keep the wrists in a straight position. Stretching exercises during the day may be helpful, but these would not be needed before starting. Use of a compression bandage is not needed, although a splint may be used for carpal tunnel syndrome. NSAIDs are appropriate to use to decrease swelling.

44. After change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first? a. Patient with a Colles' fracture who has right wrist swelling and deformity b. Patient with a intracapsular left hip fracture whose leg is externally rotated c. Patient with a repaired mandibular fracture who is complaining of facial pain d. Patient with right femoral shaft fracture whose thigh is swollen and ecchymotic

ANS: D Swelling and bruising after a femoral shaft fracture suggest hemorrhage and risk for compartment syndrome. The nurse should assess the patient rapidly and then notify the health care provider. The other patients have symptoms that are typical for their injuries, but do not require immediate intervention. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (analysis) REF: 1512 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization; Multiple Patients TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environment

41. Which finding in a patient with a Colles' fracture of the left wrist is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Swelling is noted around the wrist. b. The patient is reporting severe pain. c. The wrist has a deformed appearance. d. Capillary refill to the fingers is prolonged.

ANS: D Swelling, pain, and deformity are common findings with a Colles' fracture. Prolonged capillary refill indicates decreased circulation and risk for ischemia. This is not an expected finding and should be immediately reported. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1523-1524 OBJ: Special Questions: Prioritization TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient is admitted to the emergency department with possible left lower leg fractures. The initial action by the nurse should be to a. elevate the left leg. b. splint the lower leg. c. obtain information about the tetanus immunization status. d. check the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses.

ANS: D The initial nursing action should be assessment of the neurovascular status of the injured leg. After assessment, the nurse may need to splint and elevate the leg, based on the assessment data. Information about tetanus immunizations should be done if there is an open wound.

The nurse observes nursing assistive personnel (NAP) taking the following actions when caring for a patient with a retention catheter. Which action requires that the nurse intervene? a. Taping the catheter to the skin on the patient's upper inner thigh b. Cleaning around the patient's urinary meatus with soap and water c. Using an alcohol-based hand cleaner before performing catheter care d. Disconnecting the catheter from the drainage tube to obtain a specimen

ANS: D The catheter should not be disconnected from the drainage tube because this increases the risk for urinary tract infection (UTI). The other actions are appropriate and do not require any intervention. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1152-1154

A patient in the emergency department who is experiencing severe pain is diagnosed with a patellar dislocation. The initial patient teaching by the nurse will focus on the need for a. a knee immobilizer. b. gentle knee flexion. c. activity restrictions. d. monitored anesthesia care (conscious sedation).

ANS: D The first goal of collaborative management is realignment of the knee to its original anatomic position, which will require anesthesia or monitored anesthesia care (MAC), formerly called conscious sedation. Immobilization, gentle range of motion (ROM) exercises, and discussion about activity restrictions will be implemented after the knee is realigned.

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has had a ureterolithotomy and has a left ureteral catheter and a urethral catheter in place? a. Provide education about home care for both catheters. b. Apply continuous steady tension to the ureteral catheter. c. Clamp the ureteral catheter unless output from the urethral catheter stops. d. Call the health care provider if the ureteral catheter output drops suddenly.

ANS: D The health care provider should be notified if the ureteral catheter output decreases since obstruction of this catheter may result in an increase in pressure in the renal pelvis. Tension on the ureteral catheter should be avoided in order to prevent catheter displacement. To avoid pressure in the renal pelvis, the catheter is not clamped. Since the patient is not usually discharged with a ureteral catheter in place, patient teaching about both catheters is not needed. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1153-1154

The home health nurse is doing a follow-up visit to a 41-year-old patient with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which assessment made by the nurse indicates that more patient teaching is needed? a. The patient takes a 2-hour nap each day. b. The patient has been taking 16 aspirins daily. c. The patient sits on a stool while preparing meals. d. The patient sleeps with two pillows under the head.

ANS: D The joints should be maintained in an extended position to avoid contractures, so patients should use a small, flat pillow for sleeping. The other information is appropriate for a patient with RA and indicates that teaching has been effective

A patient with a comminuted fracture of the right femur has Buck's traction in place while waiting for surgery. To assess for pressure areas on the patient's back and sacral area and to provide skin care, the nurse should a. loosen the traction and have the patient turn onto the unaffected side. b. place a pillow between the patient's legs and turn gently to each side. c. turn the patient partially to each side with the assistance of another nurse. d. have the patient lift the buttocks by bending and pushing with the left leg.

7. A 48-year-old patient with a comminuted fracture of the left femur has Buck's traction in place while waiting for surgery. To assess for pressure areas on the patient's back and sacral area and to provide skin care, the nurse should a. loosen the traction and help the patient turn onto the unaffected side. b. place a pillow between the patient's legs and turn gently to each side. c. turn the patient partially to each side with the assistance of another nurse. d. have the patient lift the buttocks by bending and pushing with the right leg.

ANS: D The patient can lift the buttocks off the bed by using the left leg without changing the right-leg alignment. Turning the patient will tend to move the leg out of alignment. Disconnecting the traction will interrupt the weight needed to immobilize and align the fracture. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1514 | 1520 TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: NCLEX: Safe and Effective Care Environmen

A patient is to be discharged from the hospital 4 days after insertion of a femoral head prosthesis using a posterior approach. A statement by the patient that indicates a need for additional discharge instructions is a. "I should not cross my legs while sitting." b. "I will use a toilet elevator on the toilet seat." c. "I will have someone else put on my shoes and socks." d. "I can sleep in any position that is comfortable for me."

ANS: D The patient needs to sleep in a position that prevents excessive internal rotation or flexion of the hip. The other patient statements indicate that the patient has understood the teaching.

21. The nurse is caring for a patient who is to be discharged from the hospital 5 days after insertion of a femoral head prosthesis using a posterior approach. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for additional instruction? a. "I should not cross my legs while sitting." b. "I will use a toilet elevator on the toilet seat." c. "I will have someone else put on my shoes and socks." d. "I can sleep in any position that is comfortable for me."

ANS: D The patient needs to sleep in a position that prevents excessive internal rotation or flexion of the hip. The other patient statements indicate that the patient has understood the teaching. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1526 TOP: Nursing Process: Evaluation MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A patient with bladder cancer is scheduled for intravesical chemotherapy. In preparation for the treatment the nurse will teach the patient about a. premedicating to prevent nausea. b. where to obtain wigs and scarves. c. the importance of oral care during treatment. d. the need to empty the bladder before treatment.

ANS: D The patient will be asked to empty the bladder before instillation of the chemotherapy. Systemic side effects are not experienced with intravesical chemotherapy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Application REF: 1146

The second day after admission with a fractured pelvis, a patient develops acute onset confusion. Which action should the nurse take first? a. Take the blood pressure. b. Assess patient orientation. c. Check pupil reaction to light. d. Assess the oxygen saturation.

ANS: D The patient's history and clinical manifestations suggest a fat embolus. The most important assessment is oxygenation. The other actions also are appropriate but will be done after the nurse assesses gas exchange.

A 25-year-old female patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has a facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I never leave my house because I hate the way I look." An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. activity intolerance related to fatigue and inactivity. b. impaired social interaction related to lack of social skills. c. impaired skin integrity related to itching and skin sloughing. d. social isolation related to embarrassment about the effects of SLE.

ANS: D The patient's statement about not going anywhere because of hating the way he or she looks supports the diagnosis of social isolation because of embarrassment about the effects of the SLE. Activity intolerance is a possible problem for patients with SLE, but the information about this patient does not support this as a diagnosis. The rash with SLE is nonpruritic. There is no evidence of lack of social skills for this patient.

A checkout clerk in a grocery store has repetitive strain syndrome in the left elbow. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. surgical options. b. elbow injections. c. utilization of a left wrist splint. d. modifications in arm movement.

2. A factory line worker has repetitive strain syndrome in the left elbow. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. surgical options. b. elbow injections. c. wearing a left wrist splint. d. modifying arm movements.

ANS: D Treatment for repetitive strain syndrome includes changing the ergonomics of the activity. Elbow injections and surgery are not initial options for this type of injury. A wrist splint might be used for hand or wrist pain. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (application) REF: 1509 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse determines that instruction regarding prevention of future urinary tract infections (UTIs) for a patient with cystitis has been effective when the patient states, a. "I can use vaginal sprays to reduce bacteria." b. "I will drink a quart of water or other fluids every day." c. "I will wash with soap and water before sexual intercourse." d. "I will empty my bladder every 3 to 4 hours during the day."

ANS: D Voiding every 3 to 4 hours is recommended to prevent UTIs. Use of vaginal sprays is dis- couraged. The bladder should be emptied before and after intercourse, but cleaning with soap and water is not necessary. A quart of fluids is insufficient to provide adequate urine output to decrease risk for UTI.

The client is scheduled to have a renogram (kidney scan). She is concerned about discomfort during the procedure. What is the nurse's best response? A. "Before the test you will be given a sedative to reduce any pain." B. "A local anesthetic agent will be used, so you might feel a little pressure but no pain." C. "Although this test is very sensitive, there is no more discomfort than you would have with an ordinary x-ray." D. "The only pain associated with this procedure is a small needle stick when you are given the radioisotope

ANS: D The test involves an intravenous injection of the radioisotope and the subsequent recording of the emission by a scintillator.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has had a surgical reduction of an open fracture of the left tibia. Which assessment finding is most important to report to the health care provider? a. Left leg muscle spasms b. Serous wound drainage c. Left leg pain with movement d. Temperature 101.4° F (38.6° C)

ANS: D An elevated temperature is suggestive of possible osteomyelitis. The other clinical manifestations are typical after a repair of an open fracture.

A patient is receiving gentamicin (Garamycin) 80 mg IV twice daily for acute osteomyelitis. Which action should the nurse take before administering the gentamicin? a. Ask the patient about any nausea. b. Obtain the patient's oral temperature. c. Change the prescribed wet-to-dry dressing. d. Review the patient's blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels.

ANS: D Gentamicin is nephrotoxic and can cause renal failure. Monitoring the patient's temperature before gentamicin administration is not necessary. Nausea is not a common side effect of IV gentamicin. There is no need to change the dressing before gentamicin administration.

A 58-year-old woman who has a family history of osteoporosis is diagnosed with osteopenia following densitometry testing. In teaching the woman about her osteoporosis, the nurse explains that a. estrogen replacement therapy must be started to prevent rapid progression to osteoporosis. b. continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. c. with a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow gradual bone resorption. d. calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise.

ANS: D Progression of osteoporosis can be slowed by increasing calcium intake and weight-bearing exercise. Estrogen replacement therapy does help prevent osteoporosis, but it is not the only treatment and is not appropriate for some patients. Corticosteroid therapy increases the risk for osteoporosis.

Which of these nursing actions included in the care of a patient after laminectomy can the nurse delegate to experienced nursing assistive personnel (NAP)? a. Ask about pain control with the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). b. Determine the patient's readiness to ambulate. c. Check ability to plantar and dorsiflex the foot. d. Turn the patient from side to side every 2 hours.

ANS: D Repositioning a patient is included in the education and scope of practice of NAP, and experienced NAP will be familiar with how to maintain alignment in the postoperative patient. Evaluation of the effectiveness of pain medications, assessment of neurologic function, and evaluation of a patient's readiness to ambulate after surgery require higher level nursing education and scope of practice.

Which menu choice by a patient with osteoporosis indicates that the nurse's teaching about appropriate diet has been effective? a. Pancakes with syrup and bacon b. Whole wheat toast and fruit jelly c. Two-egg omelet and a half grapefruit d. Oatmeal with skim milk and fruit yogurt

ANS: D Skim milk and yogurt are high in calcium. The other choices do not contain any high calcium foods.

Following a laminectomy with a spinal fusion, a patient reports numbness and tingling of the right lower leg. The first action indicated by the nurse is to a. report the patient's complaint to the surgeon. b. check the vital signs for indications of hemorrhage. c. turn the patient to the side to relieve pressure on the right leg. d. check the chart for preoperative neuromuscular assessment data.

ANS: D The postoperative movement and sensation of the extremities should be unchanged (or improved) from the preoperative assessment. If the numbness and tingling are new, this information should be immediately reported to the surgeon. Numbness and tingling are not symptoms associated with hemorrhage at the site. Turning the patient will not relieve the numbness.

A nurse observes that the client's left flank region is larger than the right flank region. What is the nurse's best action? A. Ask the client if he or she participates in contact sports and has been recently injured. B. Document the finding as the only action on the appropriate flowsheet. C. Apply a heating pad to the left flank after inspecting the site for signs of infection. D. Anticipate further diagnostic testing after sharing informing the physician of this finding

ANS: D Asymmetry of the flank or a unilateral protrusion may indicate an enlargement of a kidney. The enlargement may be benign or may be associated with a hydronephrosis or mass on the kidney.

Which change in renal or urinary functioning as a result of the normal aging process increases the older client's risk for infection? A. Decreased glomerular filtration B. Decreased filtrate reabsorption C. Weakened sphincter muscles D. Urinary retention

ANS: D Incomplete bladder emptying for whatever reason increases the client's risk for urinary tract infections as a result of urine stasis providing an excellent culture medium that promotes the growth of microorganisms.

The client reports the regular use of all the following medications. Which one alerts the nurse to the possibility of renal impairment when used consistently? A. Antacids B. Penicillin C. Antihistamine nasal sprays D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

ANS: D NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin production and decrease blood flow to the nephrons. They can cause an interstitial nephritis and renal impairment.

33. A patient hospitalized for IV corticosteroid therapy to treat polymyositis has joint pain, an erythematosus facial rash with eyelid edema, and a weak, hoarse voice. The priority nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. risk for aspiration related to dysphagia. b. acute pain related to inflammation. c. risk for impaired skin integrity related to scratching. d. disturbed visual perception related to eyelid swelling.

Answer: A Rationale: The patient's vocal weakness and hoarseness indicate weakness of the pharyngeal muscles and a high risk for aspiration. The other nursing diagnoses are also appropriate but are not as high a priority as the maintenance of the patient's airway. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1725 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

40. A patient with an acute attack of gout in the left great toe has a new prescription for probenecid (Benemid). Which information about the patient's home routine indicates a need for teaching regarding gout management? a. The patient takes one aspirin a day prophylactically to prevent angina. b. The patient sleeps about 8 to 10 hours every night. c. The patient generally drinks about 3 quarts of juice and water daily. d. The patient usually eats beef once or twice a week.

Answer: A Rationale: Aspirin interferes with the effectiveness of probenecid and should not be taken when the patient is taking probenecid. The patient's sleep pattern will not affect gout management. Drinking 3 quarts of water and eating beef only once or twice a week are appropriate for the patient with gout. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1716 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

3. The health care provider has prescribed naproxen (Naprosyn) twice daily for a patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hands. The patient tells the nurse after 3 weeks of use that the drug does not seem to be effective in controlling the pain. The nurse should teach the patient that a. another type of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) may be indicated because of variations in individual response to the drugs. b. it may take up to 4 to 6 weeks for NSAIDs to reach therapeutic levels in the blood. c. if NSAIDs are not effective in controlling symptoms, corticosteroids are the next drug of choice. d. adding a twice-daily aspirin to the naproxen may improve the effectiveness of the drug.

Answer: A Rationale: Individual responses to NSAIDs can vary, so the health care provider may prescribe a different NSAID. Full effectiveness of NSAIDs occurs in 2 to 3 weeks. Corticosteroids are usually reserved for use in RA. Patients are instructed to avoid aspirin when taking NSAIDs because of the increased risk for bleeding and gastrointestinal irritation. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1697 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

24. A patient with gout tells the nurse that he takes losartan (Cozaar) for control of the condition. The nurse will need to monitor a. blood pressure. b. blood glucose. c. erythrocyte count. d. lymphocyte count.

Answer: A Rationale: Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor antagonist, will lower blood pressure. It does not affect blood glucose, red blood cell count (RBC), or lymphocytes. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1716 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. When helping a patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) plan a daily routine, the nurse informs the patient that it is most helpful to start the day with a. a warm bath followed by a short rest. b. a 10-minute routine of isometric exercises. c. stretching exercises to relieve joint stiffness. d. active range-of-motion (ROM) exercises.

Answer: A Rationale: Taking a warm shower or bath is recommended to relieve joint stiffness, which is worse in the morning. Isometric exercises would place stress on joints and would not be recommended. Stretching and ROM should be done later in the day, when joint stiffness is decreased. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1708 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

41. When the nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which result is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine b. Positive lupus erythematosus cell prep c. Positive antinuclear antibodies (ANA) d. Decreased C-reactive protein (CRP)

Answer: A Rationale: The elevated BUN and creatinine levels indicate possible lupus nephritis and a need for a change in therapy to avoid further renal damage. The positive LE cell prep and ANA would be expected in a patient with SLE. A drop in CRP shows an improvement in the inflammatory process. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1718 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

39. The home health nurse is doing a follow-up visit to a patient with recently diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Which assessment made by the nurse indicates that more patient teaching is needed? a. The patient sleeps with two pillows under the head. b. The patient has been taking 16 aspirins daily. c. The patient requires a 2 hour midday nap. d. The patient sits on a stool when preparing meals.

Answer: A Rationale: The joints should be maintained in an extended position to avoid contractures, so patients should use a small, flat pillow for sleeping. The other information is appropriate for a patient with RA and indicates that teaching has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1708-1709 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

MULTIPLE RESPONSE 1. During assessment of the patient with fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS), the nurse would expect the patient to report (Select all that apply.) a. sleep disturbances. b. multiple tender points. c. urinary frequency and urgency. d. cardiac palpitations and dizziness. e. multijoint pain with inflammation and swelling. f. widespread bilateral, burning musculoskeletal pain.

Answer: A, B, C, F Rationale: These symptoms are commonly described by patients with FMS. Cardiac involvement and joint inflammation are not typical of FMS. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1727 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

16. The biologic agent anakinra (Kineret) is prescribed for a patient who has moderately severe rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When teaching the patient about this drug, the nurse will include information about a. symptoms of gastrointestinal (GI) irritation or bleeding. b. self-administration of subcutaneous injections. c. taking the medication with at least 8 oz of fluid. d. avoiding concurrently taking aspirin or NSAIDs.

Answer: B Rationale: Anakinra is administered by subcutaneous injection. GI bleeding is not a side effect of this medication. Because the medication is injected, instructions to take it with 8 oz of fluid would not be appropriate. The patient is likely to be concurrently taking aspirin or NSAIDs and these should not be discontinued. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1700, 1705-1706 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

14. When the nurse is reviewing laboratory data for a patient who is taking methotrexate (Rheumatrex), which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider? a. The platelet count is 130,000/μl. b. The white blood cell count (WBC) is 1500/μl. c. The blood glucose is 130 mg/dl. d. The potassium is 5.2 mEq/L.

Answer: B Rationale: Bone marrow suppression is a possible side effect of methotrexate, and the patient's low WBC count places the patient at high risk for infection. The other laboratory values are also abnormal but are not far from normal values and would not have any immediate serious consequences. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1699 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. A patient with hip pain is diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse may need to teach the patient about the use of a. prednisone (Deltasone). b. capsaicin cream (Zostrix). c. sulfasalazine (Azulfidine). d. doxycycline (Vibramycin).

Answer: B Rationale: Capsaicin cream blocks the transmission of pain impulses and is helpful for some patients in treating OA. The other medications would be used for patients with RA. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1696 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

11. When teaching range-of-motion exercises to a patient who is having an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) with joint pain and swelling in both hands, the nurse teaches the patient that a. affected joints should not be exercised when pain is present. b. cold applications before exercise will decrease joint pain. c. exercises should be performed passively by someone other than the patient. d. regular walking may substitute for range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on some days.

Answer: B Rationale: Cold application is helpful in reducing pain during periods of exacerbation of RA. Because the joint pain is chronic, patients are instructed to exercise even when joints are painful. ROM exercises are intended to strengthen joints as well as improve flexibility, so passive ROM alone is not sufficient. Recreational exercise is encouraged but is not a replacement for ROM exercises. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1707, 1710 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

37. The health care provider plans to prescribe methotrexate (Rheumatrex) to a patient with newly diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis (RA). The patient tells the nurse, "That drug has too many side effects; I would rather wait until my joint problems are worse before beginning any drugs." The most appropriate response by the nurse is a. "You should tell the doctor how you feel so the two of you can make a decision together." b. "It is important to start methotrexate early in order to decrease the joint damage." c. "Methotrexate is not expensive and will be cheaper to take than other possible drugs." d. "Methotrexate is very effective and has no more side effects than the other available drugs."

Answer: B Rationale: Disease-modifying anti-rheumatic drugs (DMARDs) are prescribed early to prevent the joint degeneration that occurs as soon as the first year with RA. The other statements are accurate, but the most important point for the patient to understand is that it is important to start DMARDs as quickly as possible. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1699, 1705 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. A patient with fibromyalgia syndrome (FMS) tells the nurse, "I don't know why the doctor has prescribed amitriptyline (Elavil) for me. I don't feel depressed, just tired and achy." The most appropriate response by the nurse is, "The Elavil a. is ordered to prevent depression from occurring." b. will improve the quality of your sleep at night." c. relaxes your muscles and helps prevent spasm." d. has antiinflammatory actions to reduce joint pain."

Answer: B Rationale: Elavil is ordered to improve sleep, to decrease stress and fatigue, and as an adjuvant medication for pain control. It would not be ordered to prevent depression, although it might be ordered to treat depression in a patient with FMS. Elavil is not a muscle relaxant or an antiinflammatory drug, although medications from these categories are used in treating FMS. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1728 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. A 19-year-old patient who is taking azathioprine (Imuran) for systemic lupus erythematosus has a check-up before leaving home for college. The health care provider writes all of these orders. Which one should the nurse question? a. Naproxen (Aleve) 200 mg BID b. Give measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) immunization c. Draw anti-DNA titer d. Famotidine (Pepcid) 20 mg daily

Answer: B Rationale: Live virus vaccines, such as rubella, are contraindicated in a patient taking immunosuppressive drugs. The other orders are appropriate for the patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1718 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

13. When teaching a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis (RA) about how to manage activities of daily living, the nurse instructs the patient to a. stand rather than sit when performing household chores. b. avoid activities that require continuous use of the same muscles. c. strengthen small hand muscles by wringing sponges or washcloths. d. protect the knee joints by sleeping with a small pillow under the knees.

Answer: B Rationale: Patients are advised to avoid repetitious movements. Sitting during household chores is recommended to decrease stress on joints. Wringing water out of sponges would increase the joint stress. Patients are encouraged to position joints in the extended position, and sleeping with a pillow behind the knees would decrease the ability of the knee to extend and also decrease knee ROM. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1710 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

29. Following instruction for a patient with newly diagnosed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse determines that teaching about the disease has been effective when the patient says, a. "I should expect to have a low fever all the time with this disease." b. "I need to restrict my exposure to sunlight to prevent an acute onset of symptoms." c. "I should try to ignore my symptoms as much as possible and have a positive outlook." d. "I can expect a temporary improvement in my symptoms if I become pregnant."

Answer: B Rationale: Sun exposure is associated with SLE exacerbation, and patients should use sunscreen with an SPF of at least 15 and stay out of the sun between 11:00 AM and 3:00 PM. Low-grade fever may occur with an exacerbation but should not be expected all the time. A positive attitude may decrease the incidence of SLE exacerbations, but patients are taught to self-monitor for symptoms that might indicate changes in the disease process. Symptoms may worsen during pregnancy and especially during the postpartum period. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1717, 1720 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

28. A patient with polyarthralgia with joint swelling and pain is being evaluated for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). The nurse knows that the serum test result that is the most specific for SLE is the presence of a. rheumatoid factor. b. anti-Smith antibody (Anti-Sm). c. antinuclear antibody (ANA). d. lupus erythematosus (LE) cell prep.

Answer: B Rationale: The anti-Sm is antibody found almost exclusively in SLE. The other blood tests are also used in screening but are not as specific to SLE. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 1718-1719 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

36. A patient who has had fatigue and muscle weakness for several years is diagnosed with chronic fatigue syndrome. The patient expresses anger at the health care professional for not offering relief of the symptoms and also anger at family members for saying "snap out of it and get busy." Based on the patient's statements, the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of a. activity intolerance related to fatigue. b. powerlessness related to lack of control over illness. c. altered family process related to illness of family member. d. situational low self-esteem related to inability to meet role expectation.

Answer: B Rationale: The patient's statements support the problem and etiology of powerlessness related to lack of control. The patient does not complain about activity intolerance. Although the patient may have risk for altered family process, but there are not enough data to support this diagnosis. The patient is not expressing low self-esteem or feelings of inadequacy regarding meeting role expectations. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1729 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

18. In teaching a patient with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) about the management of the condition, the nurse instructs the patient to a. sleep on the side with hips flexed. b. take slow, long walks as a form of exercise. c. perform daily deep-breathing exercises. d. take frequent naps during the day.

Answer: C Rationale: Deep-breathing exercises are used to decrease the risk for pulmonary complications that may occur with the reduced chest expansion that can occur with ankylosing spondylitis (AS). Patients should sleep on the back and avoid flexed positions. Prolonged standing and walking should be avoided. There is no need for frequent naps. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1712 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

38. A patient with an exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is taking prednisone (Deltasone) 40 mg daily. Which of these assessment data obtained by the nurse indicate that the patient is experiencing a side effect of the medication? a. The patient has experienced a recent 5-pound weight loss. b. The patient's erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) has increased. c. The patient's blood glucose is 166 mg/dl. d. The patient has no improvement in symptoms.

Answer: C Rationale: Hyperglycemia is a side effect of prednisone. Corticosteroids increase appetite and lead to weight gain. An elevated ESR and no improvement in symptoms would indicate that the prednisone was not effective but would not be side effects of the medication. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1699 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A 60-year-old patient has osteoarthritis (OA) of the left knee. A finding that the nurse would expect to be present on examination of the patient's knee is a. Heberden's nodules. b. redness and swelling of the knee joint. c. pain upon joint movement. d. stiffness that increases with movement.

Answer: C Rationale: Initial symptoms of OA include pain with joint movement. Heberden's nodules occur on the fingers. Redness of the joint is more strongly associated with rheumatoid arthritis (RA), and stiffness in OA is worse right after the patient rests and decreases with joint movement. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1694 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

26. A patient with an acute exacerbation of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is hospitalized with incapacitating fatigue, acute hand and wrist pain, and proteinuria. The health care provider prescribes prednisone (Deltasone) 40 mg twice daily. Which nursing action should be included in the plan of care? a. Institute seizure precautions. b. Reorient to time and place PRN. c. Monitor intake and output. d. Place on cardiac monitor.

Answer: C Rationale: Lupus nephritis is a common complication of SLE, and when the patient is taking corticosteroids, it is especially important to monitor renal function. There is no indication that the patient is experiencing any nervous system or cardiac problems with the SLE. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1718, 1720 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. The health care provider prescribes methotrexate (Rheumatrex) for a 28-year-old woman with stage II moderate rheumatoid arthritis (RA). When obtaining a health history from the patient, the most important information for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider is that the patient has a. a history of infectious mononucleosis as a teenager. b. a family history of age-related macular degeneration of the retina. c. been trying to have a baby before her disease becomes more severe. d. been using large doses of vitamins and health foods to treat the RA.

Answer: C Rationale: Methotrexate is teratogenic, and the patient should be taking contraceptives during methotrexate therapy. The other information will not impact the choice of methotrexate as therapy. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1699 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

20. A 22-year-old patient hospitalized with severe pain in the knees and a fever and shaking chills is suspected of having septic arthritis. Information obtained during the nursing history that indicates a risk factor for septic arthritis is that the patient a. has a parent who has reactive arthritis. b. recently returned from a trip to South America. c. is sexually active and has multiple partners. d. had several sports-related knee injuries as a teenager.

Answer: C Rationale: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is the most common cause for septic arthritis in sexually active young adults. The other information does not point to any risk for septic arthritis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1713 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. When screening patients at a community center, the nurse will plan to teach ways to reduce risk factors for osteoarthritis to a a. 24-year-old man who participates in a summer softball team. b. 36-year-old woman who is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. c. 49-year-old woman who works on an automotive assembly line. d. 56-year-old man who is a member of a construction crew.

Answer: C Rationale: OA is more likely to occur in women as a result of estrogen reduction at menopause and in individuals whose work involves repetitive movements and lifting. Moderate exercise, such as softball, reduces risk for OA. Diabetes is not a risk factor for OA. Working on a construction crew would involve nonrepetitive work and thus would not be as risky. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1694 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

4. When teaching a patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the left hip and lower lumbar vertebrae about management of the condition, the nurse determines that additional instruction is needed when the patient says, a. "I can use a cane if I find it helpful in relieving the pressure on my back and hip." b. "A warm shower in the morning will help relieve the stiffness I have when I get up." c. "I should try to stay active throughout the day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." d. "I should take no more than 1 g of acetaminophen four times a day to control the pain."

Answer: C Rationale: Protection and avoidance of joint stressors are recommended for patients with OA, so this patient should alternate periods of rest with necessary activity. The other patient statements indicate that teaching has been effective. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1696, 1701 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

25. A 26-year-old woman has been diagnosed with early systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) involving her joints. In teaching the patient about the disease, the nurse includes the information that SLE is a(n) a. hereditary disorder of women but usually does not show clinical symptoms unless a woman becomes pregnant. b. autoimmune disease of women in which antibodies are formed that destroy all nucleated cells in the body. c. disorder of immune function, but it is extremely variable in its course, and there is no way to predict its progression. d. disease that causes production of antibodies that bind with cellular estrogen receptors, causing an inflammatory response.

Answer: C Rationale: SLE has an unpredictable course, even with appropriate treatment. Women are more at risk for SLE, but it is not confined exclusively to women. Clinical symptoms may worsen during pregnancy but are not confined to pregnancy or the perinatal period. All nucleated cells are not destroyed by the antinuclear antibodies. The inflammation in SLE is not caused by antibody binding to cellular estrogen receptors. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: pp. 1717, 1719 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. A patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) has localized pain and inflammation of the fingers, wrists, and feet with swelling, redness, and limited movement of the joints. When developing the plan of care, the nurse recognizes that the most appropriate patient outcome at this time is to a. maintain a positive self-image. b. perform activities of daily living independently. c. achieve satisfactory control of pain. d. make a successful adjustment to disease progression.

Answer: C Rationale: The focus during an acute exacerbation of RA is to manage pain effectively. The other outcomes are appropriate long-term outcomes. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1707 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

27. A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) who has a facial rash and alopecia tells the nurse, "I hate the way I look! I never go anyplace except here to the health clinic." An appropriate nursing diagnosis for the patient is a. activity intolerance related to fatigue and inactivity. b. impaired skin integrity related to itching and skin sloughing. c. social isolation related to embarrassment about the effects of SLE. d. impaired social interaction related to lack of social skills.

Answer: C Rationale: The patient's statement about not going anyplace because of hating the way he or she looks supports the diagnosis of social isolation because of embarrassment about the effects of the SLE. Activity intolerance is a possible problem for patients with SLE, but the information about this patient does not support this as a diagnosis. The rash with SLE is nonpruritic. There is no evidence of lack of social skills for this patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1722 Nursing Process: Diagnosis NCLEX: Psychosocial Integrity

7. A 71-year-old obese patient has bilateral osteoarthritis (OA) of the hips. The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect the joints is to a. use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible. b. sit in chairs that do not cause the hips to be lower than the knees. c. use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on the hips. d. eat according to a weight-reduction diet to obtain a healthy body weight.

Answer: D Rationale: Because the patient's major risk factor is obesity, the nurse should teach the patient that weight loss is the best way to reduce stress on the hips. Avoiding activity by sitting in a wheelchair would likely increase the patient's weight; moderate activity is recommended for patients with OA. Sitting with the hips higher than the knees and using a walker would be recommended but are not as helpful as weight loss for this obese patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1701 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. Prednisone (Deltasone) is prescribed for a patient with an acute exacerbation of rheumatoid arthritis. When the patient has a follow-up visit 1 month later, the nurse recognizes that the patient's response to the treatment may be best evaluated by a. blood glucose testing. b. liver function tests. c. serum electrolyte levels. d. C-reactive protein level.

Answer: D Rationale: C-reactive protein is a marker for inflammation, and a decrease would indicate that the corticosteroid therapy was effective. Blood glucose and serum electrolyte levels will also be monitored to check for side effects of prednisone. Liver function is not routinely monitored for patients receiving steroids. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1698-1699 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

5. A 58-year-old patient has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hands and feet. The patient tells the nurse, "I am afraid that I will be hopelessly crippled in just a few years!" The best response by the nurse is that a. progression of OA can be prevented with a regimen of exercise, diet, and drugs. b. OA is an inflammatory process with periods of exacerbation and remission. c. joint degeneration with pain and deformity occurs with OA by age 60 to 70. d. OA is common with aging, but usually it is localized and does not cause deformity.

Answer: D Rationale: OA is localized to joints that have been injured or have high use. Although exercise, diet, and drugs can help to decrease symptoms and slow disease progression, they will not prevent progression of the disease. OA is progressive and does not have exacerbations and remissions, which are typical of RA. Joint degeneration and pain occur later in OA; joint deformity is not a common symptom. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1701, 1704 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

31. A patient has systemic sclerosis manifested by the CREST syndrome. During assessment of the patient, the nurse would expect to find a. bony ankylosis of the small joints in the feet. b. a recent history of significant weight gain. c. burning, itching, and photosensitivity of the eyes. d. a history of numbness and tingling in the fingers.

Answer: D Rationale: Raynaud's phenomenon is one aspect of the CREST syndrome. Bony ankylosis is not a symptom of systemic sclerosis, which does not affect bone. Weight loss occurs with CREST syndrome as a result of esophageal scarring. Burning, itching, and photosensitivity of the eyes are not associated with systemic sclerosis. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1723 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

19. A patient who had arthroscopic surgery of the left knee 5 days previously is admitted with a red, swollen, and hot-to-touch knee. Which of these assessment data obtained by the nurse should be reported to the health care provider immediately? a. The white blood cell count is 14,200/μl. b. The patient rates the knee pain at 9 on a 10-point pain scale. c. The patient has recently taken ibuprofen (Motrin). d. The oral temperature is 104.1° F degrees.

Answer: D Rationale: The elevated temperature suggests that the patient may have an infection and be in danger of developing septicemia as a complication of septic arthritis. Immediate blood cultures and initiation of antibiotic therapy are indicated. The other information is typical of septic arthritis and should also be reported to the health care provider, but it does not indicate any immediately life-threatening problems. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1713 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

17. A 35-year-old patient with three school-age children who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) tells the nurse that the inability to be involved in many family activities is causing stress at home. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?" a. "Your family may need some help to understand the impact of your rheumatoid arthritis." b. "You may need to see a family therapist for some help." c. "Perhaps it would be helpful for you and your family to get involved in a support group." d. "Tell me more about the situations that are causing stress."

Answer: D Rationale: The initial action by the nurse should be further assessment. The other three responses might be appropriate based on the information the nurse obtains with further assessment. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1711 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

10. A home health patient with rheumatoid arthritis (RA) complains to the nurse about having chronically dry eyes and a dry mouth. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Have the patient withhold the daily methotrexate (Rheumatrex) until talking with the health care provider. b. Reassure the patient that dry eyes and mouth are very common with RA. c. Teach the patient to use an antiseptic mouth wash tid. d. Suggest that the patient start using over-the-counter (OTC) artificial tears.

Answer: D Rationale: The patient's dry eyes and oral mucous membranes are consistent with Sjögren's syndrome, a common extraarticular manifestation of RA. Symptomatic therapy such as OTC eye drops is recommended. Dry eyes and mouth are not side effects of methotrexate. Although dry eyes and mouth are common in RA, it is more helpful to offer a suggestion to relieve these symptoms than to offer reassurance. Rinsing the mouth to decrease oral dryness is appropriate, but the frequent use of antiseptic mouthwashes is not appropriate unless the patient has oral symptoms that require this. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1726 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The patient is incontinent, and a condom catheter is placed. The nurse should take which action? A) Secure the condom with adhesive tape B) Change the condom every 48 hours C) Assess the patient for skin irritation D) Use sterile technique for placement

Assess the patient for skin irritation

31. A newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic patient likes to run 3 miles several mornings a week. Which teaching will the nurse implement about exercise for this patient? a. "You should not take the morning NPH insulin before you run." b. "Plan to eat breakfast about an hour before your run." c. "Afternoon running is less likely to cause hypoglycemia." d. "You may want to run a little farther if your glucose is very high."

B Rationale: Blood sugar increases after meals, so this will be the best time to exercise. NPH insulin will not peak until mid-afternoon and is safe to take before a morning run. Running can be done in either the morning or afternoon. If the glucose is very elevated, the patient should postpone the run. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1269 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

10. A 1200-calorie diet and exercise are prescribed for a patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes. The patient tells the nurse, "I hate to exercise! Can't I just follow the diet to keep my glucose under control?" The nurse teaches the patient that the major purpose of exercise for diabetics is to a. increase energy and sense of well-being, which will help with body image. b. facilitate weight loss, which will decrease peripheral insulin resistance. c. improve cardiovascular endurance, which is important for diabetics. d. set a successful pattern, which will help in making other needed changes.

B Rationale: Exercise is essential to decrease insulin resistance and improve blood glucose control. Increased energy, improved cardiovascular endurance, and setting a pattern of success are secondary benefits of exercise, but they are not the major reason. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1269 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

12. A patient with type 1 diabetes has an unusually high morning glucose measurement, and the health care provider wants the patient evaluated for possible Somogyi effect. The nurse will plan to a. administer an increased dose of NPH insulin in the evening. b. obtain the patient's blood glucose at 3:00 in the morning. c. withhold the nighttime snack and check the glucose at 6:00 AM. d. check the patient for symptoms of hypoglycemia at 2:00 to 4:00 AM.

B Rationale: In the Somogyi effect, the patient's blood glucose drops in the early morning hours (in response to excess insulin administration), which causes the release of hormones that result in a rebound hyperglycemia. It is important to check the blood glucose in the early morning hours to detect the initial hypoglycemia. An increased evening NPH dose or holding the nighttime snack will further increase the risk for early morning hypoglycemia. Information about symptoms of hypoglycemia will not be as accurate as checking the patient's blood glucose in determining whether the patient has the Somogyi effect. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1263-1264 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

1. A patient with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus asks the nurse what "type 2" means in relation to diabetes. The nurse explains to the patient that type 2 diabetes differs from type 1 diabetes primarily in that with type 2 diabetes a. the patient is totally dependent on an outside source of insulin. b. there is decreased insulin secretion and cellular resistance to insulin that is produced. c. the immune system destroys the pancreatic insulin-producing cells. d. the insulin precursor that is secreted by the pancreas is not activated by the liver.

B Rationale: In type 2 diabetes, the pancreas produces insulin, but the insulin is insufficient for the body's needs or the cells do not respond to the insulin appropriately. The other information describes the physiology of type 1 diabetes. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1255 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

25. A patient with type 1 diabetes who uses glargine (Lantus) and lispro (Humalog) insulin develops a sore throat, cough, and fever. When the patient calls the clinic to report the symptoms and a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dl, the nurse advises the patient to a. use only the lispro insulin until the symptoms of infection are resolved. b. monitor blood glucose every 4 hours and notify the clinic if it continues to rise. c. decrease intake of carbohydrates until glycosylated hemoglobin is less than 7%. d. limit intake to non-calorie-containing liquids until the glucose is within the usual range.

B Rationale: Infection and other stressors increase blood glucose levels and the patient will need to test blood glucose frequently, treat elevations appropriately with insulin, and call the health care provider if glucose levels continue to be elevated. Discontinuing the glargine will contribute to hyperglycemia and may lead to DKA. Decreasing carbohydrate or caloric intake is not appropriate as the patient will need more calories when ill. Glycosylated hemoglobins are not used to test for short-term alterations in blood glucose. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1272 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

3. During a diabetes screening program, a patient tells the nurse, "My mother died of complications of type 2 diabetes. Can I inherit diabetes?" The nurse explains that a. as long as the patient maintains normal weight and exercises, type 2 diabetes can be prevented. b. the patient is at a higher than normal risk for type 2 diabetes and should have periodic blood glucose level testing. c. there is a greater risk for children developing type 2 diabetes when the father has type 2 diabetes. d. although there is a tendency for children of people with type 2 diabetes to develop diabetes, the risk is higher for those with type 1 diabetes.

B Rationale: Offspring of people with type 2 diabetes are at higher risk for developing type 2 diabetes. The risk can be decreased, but not prevented, by maintenance of normal weight and exercising. The risk for children of a person with type 1 diabetes to develop diabetes is higher when it is the father who has the disease. Offspring of people with type 2 diabetes are more likely to develop diabetes than offspring of those with type 1 diabetes. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1256 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

34. The health care provider orders oral glucose tolerance testing for a patient seen in the clinic. Which information from the patient's health history is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider? a. The patient had a viral illness 2 months ago. b. The patient uses oral contraceptives. c. The patient runs several days a week. d. The patient has a family history of diabetes.

B Rationale: Oral contraceptive use may falsely elevate oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) values. A viral 2 months previously illness may be associated with the onset of type 1 diabetes but will not falsely impact the OGTT. Exercise and a family history of diabetes both can affect blood glucose but will not lead to misleading information from the OGTT. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1267 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

15. A diabetic patient is started on intensive insulin therapy. The nurse will plan to teach the patient about mealtime coverage using _____ insulin. a. NPH b. lispro c. detemir d. glargine

B Rationale: Rapid or short acting insulin is used for mealtime coverage for patients receiving intensive insulin therapy. NPH, glargine, or detemir will be used as the basal insulin. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1260 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

13. A patient receives a daily injection of 70/30 NPH/regular insulin premix at 7:00 AM. The nurse expects that a hypoglycemic reaction is most likely to occur between a. 8:00 and 10:00 AM. b. 4:00 and 6:00 PM. c. 7:00 and 9:00 PM. d. 10:00 PM and 12:00 AM.

B Rationale: The greatest insulin effect with this combination occurs mid afternoon. The patient is not at a high risk at the other listed times, although hypoglycemia may occur. Cognitive Level: Comprehension Text Reference: p. 1260 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

35. Which of these laboratory values noted by the nurse when reviewing the chart of a diabetic patient indicates the need for further assessment of the patient? a. Fasting blood glucose of 130 mg/dl b. Noon blood glucose of 52 mg/dl c. Glycosylated hemoglobin of 6.9% d. Hemoglobin A1C of 5.8%

B Rationale: The nurse should assess the patient with a blood glucose level of 52 mg/dl for symptoms of hypoglycemia, and give the patient some carbohydrate-containing beverage such as orange juice. The other values are within an acceptable range for a diabetic patient. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1281-1282 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

30. A patient with type 2 diabetes has sensory neuropathy of the feet and legs and peripheral vascular disease evidenced by decreased peripheral pulses and dependent rubor. The nurse teaches the patient that a. the feet should be soaked in warm water on a daily basis. b. flat-soled leather shoes are the best choice to protect the feet from injury. c. heating pads should always be set at a very low temperature. d. over-the-counter (OTC) callus remover may be used to remove callus and prevent pressure.

B Rationale: The patient is taught to avoid high heels and that leather shoes are preferred. The feet should be washed, but not soaked, in warm water daily. Heating pad use should be avoided. Commercial callus and corn removers should be avoided; the patient should see a specialist to treat these problems. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1287 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

33. A patient with type 2 diabetes is scheduled for an outpatient coronary arteriogram. Which information obtained by the nurse when admitting the patient indicates a need for a change in the patient's regimen? a. The patient's most recent hemoglobin A1C was 6%. b. The patient takes metformin (Glucophage) every morning. c. The patient uses captopril (Capoten) for hypertension. d. The patient's admission blood glucose is 128 mg/dl.

B Rationale: To avoid lactic acidosis, metformin should not be used for 48 hours after IV contrast media are administered. The other patient data indicate that the patient is managing the diabetes appropriately. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1266 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

While completing an admission history for a 73-year-old man with osteoarthritis admitted for knee arthroplasty, the nurse asks about the patient's perception of the reason for admission. The nurse expects the patient to relate which response to this question? A Recent knee trauma B Debilitating joint pain C Repeated knee infections D Onset of "frozen" knee joint

B Debilitating joint pain The most common reason for knee arthroplasty is debilitating joint pain despite attempts to manage it with exercise and drug therapy. Recent knee trauma, repeated knee infections, and onset of "frozen" knee joint are not primary indicators for a knee arthroplasty.

During a health screening event which assessment finding would alert the nurse to the possible presence of osteoporosis in a white 61-year-old female? A. The presence of bowed legs B. A measurable loss of height C. Poor appetite and aversion to dairy products D. Development of unstable, wide-gait ambulation

B. A measurable loss of height A gradual but measurable loss of height and the development of kyphosis or "dowager's hump" are indicative of the presence of osteoporosis in which the rate of bone resorption is greater than bone deposition. Bowed legs may be caused by abnormal bone development or rickets but is not indicative of osteoporosis. Lack of calcium and Vitamin D intake may cause osteoporosis but are not indicative it is present. A wide gait is used to support balance and does not indicate osteoporosis.

The 24-year-old male patient who was successfully treated for Paget's disease has come to the clinic with a gradual onset of pain and swelling around the left knee. The patient is diagnosed with osteosarcoma without metastasis. The patient wants to know why he will be given chemotherapy before the surgery. What is the best rationale the nurse should tell the patient? A. The chemotherapy is being used to save your left leg. B. Chemotherapy is being used to decrease the tumor size. C. The chemotherapy will increase your 5-year survival rate. D. Chemotherapy will help decrease the pain before and after surgery.

B. Chemotherapy is being used to decrease the tumor size. Preoperative chemotherapy is used to decrease tumor size before surgery. The chemotherapy will not save his leg if the lesion is too big or there is neurovascular or muscle involvement. Adjunct chemotherapy after amputation or limb salvage has increased 5-year survival rate in people without metastasis. Chemotherapy is not used to decrease pain before or after surgery.

The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of pain related to muscle spasms for a 45-year-old patient who has low back pain from a herniated lumbar disc. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention to treat this problem? A. Provide gentle ROM to the lower extremities. B. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees. C. Place the bed in reverse Trendelenburg with the feet firmly against the footboard. D. Place a small pillow under the patient's upper back to gently flex the lumbar spine.

B. Elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees. The nurse should elevate the head of the bed 20 degrees and flex the knees to avoid extension of the spine and increasing the pain. The slight flexion provided by this position often is comfortable for a patient with a herniated lumbar disc. ROM to the lower extremities will be limited to prevent extremes of spinal movement. Reverse Trendelenburg and a pillow under the patient's upper back will more likely increase pain.

After teaching a patient with RA about the prescribed therapeutic regimen, the nurse determines that further instruction is needed when the patient says, a. it is important for me to perform my prescribed exercises every day b. I should perform most of my daily chores in the morning when my energy level is highest c. an ice pack to a joint for 10 minutes may help relieve pain and inflammation when I have an acute flare d. I can use assistive devices such as padded utensils, electric can openers, and elevated toilet seats to protect my joints

B. I should perform most of my daily chores in the morning when my energy level is highest

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the nursing unit with osteomyelitis of the tibia. Which symptom will the nurse most likely find on physical examination of the patient? A. Nausea and vomiting B. Localized pain and warmth C. Paresthesia in the affected extremity D. Generalized bone pain throughout the leg

B. Localized pain and warmth Osteomyelitis is an infection of bone and bone marrow that can occur with trauma, surgery, or spread from another part of the body. Because it is an infection, the patient will exhibit typical signs of inflammation and infection, including localized pain and warmth. Nausea and vomiting and paresthesia of the extremity are not expected to occur. Pain occurs, but it is localized, not generalized throughout the leg.

The nurse is planning health promotion teaching for a 45-year-old patient with asthma, low back pain from herniated lumbar disc, and schizophrenia. What does the nurse determine would be the best exercise to include in an individualized exercise plan for the patient? A. Yoga B. Walking C. Calisthenics D. Weight lifting

B. Walking The patient would benefit from an aerobic exercise that takes into account the patient's health status and fits the patient's lifestyle. The best exercise is walking, which builds strength in the back and leg muscles without putting undue pressure or strain on the spine. Yoga, calisthenics, and weight lifting would all put pressure on or strain the spine.

A patient with gout is treated with drug therapy to prevent future attacks. The nurse teaches the patient that is is the most important to a. avoid all foods high in purine, such as organ meats b. have periodic determination of serum uric acid levels c. perform active ROM of all joints that have been affected by gout d. increase the dosage of medication with the onset of an acute attack

B. have periodic determination of serum uric acid levels

To preserve function and the ability to perform activities of daily living, the nurse teaches the patient with OA to a. avoid exercise that involves the affected joints b. plan and organize less stressful ways to perform tasks c. maintain normal activities during an acute episode to prevent loss of function d. use mild analgesics to control symptoms when performing tasks that cause pain

B. plan and organize less stressful ways to perform tasks

38. A diabetic patient has a new order for inhaled insulin (Exubera). Which information about the patient indicates that the nurse should contact the patient before administering the Exubera? a. The patient has a history of a recent myocardial infarction. b. The patient's blood glucose is 224 mg/dl. c. The patient uses a bronchodilator to treat emphysema. d. The patient's temperature is 101.4° F.

C Rationale: Exubera is not recommended for patients with emphysema. The other data do not indicate any contraindication to using Exubera. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1263 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

29. A type 1 diabetic patient who was admitted with severe hypoglycemia and treated tells the nurse, "I did not have any of the usual symptoms of hypoglycemia." Which question by the nurse will help identify a possible reason for the patient's hypoglycemic unawareness? a. "Do you use any calcium-channel blocking drugs for blood pressure?" b. "Have you observed any recent skin changes?" c. "Do you notice any bloating feeling after eating?" d. "Have you noticed any painful new ulcerations or sores on your feet?"

C Rationale: Hypoglycemic unawareness is caused by autonomic neuropathy, which would also cause delayed gastric emptying. Calcium-channel blockers are not associated with hypoglycemic unawareness, although -adrenergic blockers can prevent patients from having symptoms of hypoglycemia. Skin changes can occur with diabetes, but these are not associated with autonomic neuropathy. If the patient can feel painful areas on the feet, neuropathy has not occurred. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1281 Nursing Process: Assessment NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

7. A patient who has just been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes is 5 ft 4 in (160 cm) tall and weighs 182 pounds (82 kg). A nursing diagnosis of imbalanced nutrition: more than body requirements is developed. Which patient outcome is most important for this patient? a. The patient will have a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss. b. The patient will state the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet. c. The patient will have a glycosylated hemoglobin level of less than 7%. d. The patient will choose a diet that distributes calories throughout the day.

C Rationale: The complications of diabetes are related to elevated blood glucose, and the most important patient outcome is the reduction of glucose to near-normal levels. The other outcomes are also appropriate but are not as high in priority. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1273 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

6. During a clinic visit 3 months following a diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, the patient reports following a reduced-calorie diet. The patient has not lost any weight and did not bring the glucose-monitoring record. The nurse will plan to obtain a(n) a. fasting blood glucose level. b. urine dipstick for glucose. c. glycosylated hemoglobin level. d. oral glucose tolerance test.

C Rationale: The glycosylated hemoglobin (Hb A1C) test shows the overall control of glucose over 90 to 120 days. A fasting blood level indicates only the glucose level at one time. Urine glucose testing is not an accurate reflection of blood glucose level and does not reflect the glucose over a prolonged time. Oral glucose tolerance testing is done to diagnose diabetes, but is not used for monitoring glucose control once diabetes has been diagnosed. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1258-1259 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

23. A diabetic patient is admitted with ketoacidosis and the health care provider writes all of the following orders. Which order should the nurse implement first? a. Start an infusion of regular insulin at 50 U/hr. b. Give sodium bicarbonate 50 mEq IV push. c. Infuse 1 liter of normal saline per hour. d. Administer regular IV insulin 30 U.

C Rationale: The most urgent patient problem is the hypovolemia associated with DKA, and the priority is to infuse IV fluids. The other actions can be accomplished after the infusion of normal saline is initiated. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1280 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

A 21-year-old female soccer player has injured her anterior crucial ligament (ACL) and is having reconstructive surgery. The nurse knows that the patient will need more teaching when the patient makes which statement? A "I probably won't be able to play soccer for 6 to 8 months." B "They will have me do range of motion with my knee soon after surgery." C "I can't wait to get this done now so I can play soccer for the next tournament." D "I will need to wear an immobilizer and progressively bear weight on my knee."

C "I can't wait to get this done now so I can play soccer for the next tournament." When the athlete has ACL reconstructive surgery, the patient does not understand the severity when planning to be back to playing soccer soon, as safe return will not occur for 6 to 8 months after initial range of motion, immobilization, and progressive weight bearing with physical therapy occurs.

The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility related to decreased muscle strength for a 78-year-old patient following left total knee replacement. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for this patient? A Promote vitamin C and calcium intake in the diet. B Provide passive range of motion to all of the joints q4hr. C Encourage isometric quadriceps-setting exercises at least qid. D Keep the left leg in extension and abduction to prevent contractures.

C Encourage isometric quadriceps-setting exercises at least qid. Emphasis is placed on postoperative exercise of the affected leg, with isometric quadriceps setting beginning on the first day after surgery along with a continuous passive motion (CPM) machine. Vitamin C and calcium do not improve muscle strength, but they will facilitate healing. The patient should be able to do active range of motion to all joints. Keeping the leg in one position (extension and abduction) potentially will result in contractures.

The nurse is caring for a patient with osteoarthritis who is about to undergo total left knee arthroplasty. The nurse assesses the patient carefully to be sure that there is no evidence of what in the preoperative period? A Pain B Left knee stiffness C Left knee infection D Left knee instability

C Left knee infection It is critical that the patient be free of infection before a total knee arthroplasty. An infection in the joint could lead to even greater pain and joint instability, requiring extensive surgery. For this reason, the nurse monitors the patient for signs of infection, such as redness, swelling, fever, and elevated white blood cell count. Pain, knee stiffness, or instability may be present with osteoarthritis.

The nurse is admitting a patient who complains of a new onset of lower back pain. To differentiate between the pain of a lumbar herniated disc and lower back pain from other causes, what would be the best question for the nurse to ask the patient? A. "Is the pain worse in the morning or in the evening?" B. "Is the pain sharp or stabbing or burning or aching?" C. "Does the pain radiate down the buttock or into the leg?" D. "Is the pain totally relieved by analgesics, such as acetaminophen (Tylenol)?"

C. "Does the pain radiate down the buttock or into the leg?" Lower back pain associated with a herniated lumbar disc is accompanied by radiation along the sciatic nerve and can be commonly described as traveling through the buttock, to the posterior thigh, or down the leg. This is because the herniated disc causes compression on spinal nerves as they exit the spinal column. Time of occurrence, type of pain, and pain relief questions do not elicit differentiating data.

The nurse has reviewed proper body mechanics with a patient with a history of low back pain caused by a herniated lumbar disc. Which statement made by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I should sleep on my side or back with my hips and knees bent." B. "I should exercise at least 15 minutes every morning and evening." C. "I should pick up items by leaning forward without bending my knees." D. "I should try to keep one foot on a stool whenever I have to stand for a period of time."

C. "I should pick up items by leaning forward without bending my knees." The patient should avoid leaning forward without bending the knees. Bending the knees helps to prevent lower back strain and is part of proper body mechanics when lifting. Sleeping on the side or back with hips and knees bent and standing with a foot on a stool will decrease lower back strain. Back strengthening exercises are done twice a day once symptoms subside.

A patient with OA uses NSAIDs to decrease pain and inflammation. The nurse teaches the patient that common side effects of these drugs include a. allergic reactions, fever, and oral lesions b. fluid retention, hypertension, and bruising c. skin rashes, gastric irritation, and headache d. prolonged bleeding time, blood dyscrasias, and hepatic damage

C. skin rashes, gastric irritation, and headacche

The nurse receives report from the licensed practical nurse about care provided to patients on the orthopedic surgical unit. It is most important for the nurse to follow up on which statement? A. "The patient who had a spinal fusion 12 hours ago has hypoactive bowel sounds and is not passing flatus." B. "The patient who had cervical spine surgery 2 days ago wants to wear her soft cervical collar when out of bed." C. "The patient who had spinal surgery 3 hours ago is complaining of a headache and has clear drainage on the dressing." D. "The patient who had a laminectomy 24 hours ago is using patient-controlled analgesia with morphine for pain management."

C. "The patient who had spinal surgery 3 hours ago is complaining of a headache and has clear drainage on the dressing." After spinal surgery there is potential for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage. Severe headache or leakage of CSF (clear or slightly yellow) on the dressing should be reported immediately. The drainage is CSF if a dipstick test is positive for glucose. Patients after spinal surgery may experience paralytic ileus and interference with bowel function for several days. Postoperatively most patients require opioids such as morphine IV for 24 to 48 hours. Patient-controlled analgesia is the preferred method for pain management during this time. After cervical spine surgery patients often wear a soft or hard cervical collar to immobilize the neck.

During the physical assessment of the patient with moderate RA, the nurse would expect to find a. hepatomegaly b. Heberden's nodes c. spindle-shaped fingers d. crepitus on joint movement

C. spindle-shaped fingers

The nurse is caring for patients in a primary care clinic. Which individual is most at risk to develop osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus? A. 22-year-old female with gonorrhea who is an IV drug user B. 48-year-old male with muscular dystrophy and acute bronchitis C. 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a stage IV pressure ulcer D. 68-year-old female with hypertension who had a knee arthroplasty 3 years ago

C. 32-year-old male with type 1 diabetes mellitus and a stage IV pressure ulcer Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus aureus is usually associated with a pressure ulcer or vascular insufficiency related to diabetes mellitus. Osteomyelitis caused by Staphylococcus epidermidis is usually associated with indwelling prosthetic devices such as joint replacements. Osteomyelitis caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae is usually associated with gonorrhea. Osteomyelitis caused by Pseudomonas is usually associated with IV drug use. Muscular dystrophy is not associated with osteomyelitis.

The nurse determines that dietary teaching for a 75-year-old patient with osteoporosis has been successful when the patient selects which highest-calcium meal? A. Chicken stir-fry with 1 cup each onions and green peas, and 1 cup of steamed rice B. Ham and Swiss cheese sandwich on whole wheat bread, steamed broccoli, and an apple C. A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk D. A two-egg omelet with 2 oz of American cheese, one slice of whole wheat toast, and a half grapefruit

C. A sardine (3 oz) sandwich on whole wheat bread, 1 cup of fruit yogurt, and 1 cup of skim milk The highest calcium content is present in the lunch containing milk and milk products (yogurt) and small fish with bones (sardines). Chicken, onions, green peas, rice, ham, whole wheat bread, broccoli, apple, eggs, and grapefruit each have less than 75 mg of calcium per 100 g of food. Swiss cheese and American cheese have more calcium, but not as much as the sardines, yogurt, and milk.

The nurse prepares to administer IV ibandronate (Boniva) to a 67-year-old woman with osteoporosis. What is a priority laboratory assessment to make before the administration of ibandronate? A. Serum calcium B. Serum creatinine C. Serum phosphate D. Serum alkaline phosphatase

C. Serum phosphate Ibandronate is a bisphosphonate that is administered IV every 3 months and is administered slowly over 15 to 30 seconds to prevent renal damage. Ibandronate should not be used by patients taking other nephrotoxic drugs or by those with severe renal impairment (defined as serum creatinine above 2.3 mg/dL or creatinine clearance less than 30 mL/min).

The nurse teaches the patient with RA that one of the most effective methods of aerobic exercise is a. ballet dancing b. casual walking c. aquatic exercises d. low-impact aerobic exercises

C. aquatic exercises

During an acute exacerbation, a patient with SLE is treated with corticosteroids. The nurse would expect the steroids to begin to be tapered when serum laboratory results indicate a. increased RBCs b. decreased ESR c. decreased anti-DNA d. increased complement

C. decreased anti-DNA

A 70-year old patient is being evaluated for symptoms of RA. The nurse recognizes that a major problem in the management of RA in the older adult is that a. RA is usually more severe in older adults b. older patients are not as likely to comply with treatment regimens c. drug interactions and toxicity are more likely to occur with multidrug therapy d. laboratory and other diagnostic tests are not effective in identifying RA in older adults

C. drug interactions and toxicity are more likely to occur with multidrug therapy

The 40-year-old African American woman has had Raynaud's phenomenon for some time. She is now reporting red spots on the hands, forearms, palms, face, and lips. What other manifestations should the nurse assess for when she is assessing for scleroderma (select all that apply)? Calcinosis Weight loss Sclerodactyly Difficulty swallowing Weakened leg muscles

Calcinoshs Sclerodactyly Difficulty swallowing This 40-year-old African American woman is at risk for scleroderma. The acronym CREST represents the clinical manifestations. C: calcinosis, painful calcium deposits in the skin; R: Raynaud's phenomenon; E: Esophageal dysfunction, difficulty swallowing; S: sclerodactyly, tightening of skin on fingers and toes; T: telangiectasia. Weight loss and weakened leg muscles are associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis not scleroderma.

The nurse is assessing the recent health history of a 63-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse determines that the patient is trying to manage the condition appropriately when the patient describes which of the following activity patterns? A. Bed rest with bathroom privileges B. Daily high-impact aerobic exercise C.A regular exercise program of walking D. Frequent rest periods with minimal exercise

Correct answer: C. A regular exercise program of walking Rationale: A regular low-impact exercise, such as walking, is important in helping to maintain joint mobility in the patient with osteoarthritis.

When reinforcing health teaching about the management of osteoarthritis (OA), the nurse determines that the patient needs additional instruction after making which of the following statements? A. "I should take the Celebrex as prescribed to help control the pain." B. "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." C. "I can use a cane if I find it helpful in relieving the pressure on my back and hip." D. "A warm shower in the morning will help relieve the stiffness I have when I get up."

Correct answer: B. "I should try to stay standing all day to keep my joints from becoming stiff." Rationale: It is important to maintain a balance between rest and activity to prevent overstressing the joints with OA.

The nurse is working with a 73-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). In assessing the patient's understanding of this disorder, the nurse concludes teaching has been effective when the patient describes the condition as which of the following? A. Joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process B. Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints C. Overproduction of synovial fluid resulting in joint destruction D. Breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints by enzymes

Correct answer: B. Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints Rationale: OA is a degeneration or breakdown of the articular cartilage in synovial joints. The condition has also been referred to as degenerative joint disease.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knees. The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect the joints is to do which of the following? A. Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible. B. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. C. Incorrect Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on her hips. D. Sit in chairs that do not cause her hips to be lower than her knees.

Correct answer: B. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. Rationale: Because maintaining an appropriate load on the joints is essential to the preservation of articular cartilage integrity, the patient should maintain an optimal overall body weight or lose weight if overweight.

The nurse is admitting a patient who is scheduled for knee arthroscopy related to osteoarthritis (OA). Which of the following findings would the nurse expect to be present on examination of the patient's knees? A. Ulnar drift B. Pain with joint movement C. Reddened, swollen affected joints D. Stiffness that increases with movement

Correct answer: B. Pain with joint movement Rationale: OA is characterized predominantly by joint pain upon movement and is a classic feature of the disease.

A female patient's complex symptomatology over the past year has culminated in a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the patient's following statements demonstrates the need for further teaching about the disease? A. "I'll try my best to stay out of the sun this summer." B. "I know that I probably have a high chance of getting arthritis." C. "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." D. "I understand that I'm going to be vulnerable to getting infections."

Correct answer: C. "I'm hoping that surgery will be an option for me in the future." Rationale: SLE carries an increased risk of infection, sun damage, and arthritis. Surgery is not a key treatment modality for SLE.

Which of the following patient statements most clearly suggests a need to assess the patient for ankylosing spondylitis (AS)? A. "My right elbow has become red and swollen over the last few days." B. "I wake up stiff every morning and my knees just don't want to bend." C. "My husband tells me that my posture has become so stooped this winter." D. "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time and nothing seems to help."

Correct answer: D. "My lower back pain seems to be getting worse all the time and nothing seems to help." Rationale: AS primarily affects the axial skeleton. Based on this, symptoms of inflammatory spine pain are often the first clues to a diagnosis of AS. Knee or elbow involvement is not consistent with the typical course of AS. Back pain is likely to precede the development of kyphosis.

The nurse is reinforcing general health teaching with a 64-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA) of the hip. Which of the following points would the nurse include in this review of the disorder (select all that apply)? A. OA cannot be successfully treated with any current therapy options. B. OA is an inflammatory disease of the joints that may present symptoms at any age. C.Joint degeneration with pain and disability occurs in the majority of people by the age of 60. D. OA is more common with aging, but usually it remains confined to a few joints and does not cause crippling. E.OA can be prevented from progressing when well controlled with a regimen of exercise, diet, and medication.

Correct answer: D. OA is more common with aging, but usually it remains confined to a few joints and does not cause crippling. E.OA can be prevented from progressing when well controlled with a regimen of exercise, diet, and medication. Rationale: OA occurs with greater frequency with increasing age, but it usually remains confined to a few joints and can be managed with a combination of exercise, diet, and medication. OA can lead to significant disability.

Teach the patient with ankylosing spondylitis the importance of a. regular exercise and maintaining proper posture b. continuing with physical activity during flare-ups c. avoiding extremes in environmental temperatures d. applying cool compresses for relief of local symptoms

Correct answer: a Rationale: Patients with ankylosing spondylitis (AS) should exercise after pain and stiffness are managed. Postural control is important to minimize spinal deformity. The exercise regimen should include back, neck, and chest stretches. The nurse should educate the patient with AS about regular exercise and attention to posture, local moist-heat applications, and knowledgeable use of drugs. The nurse should discourage excessive physical exertion during periods of active flare-up of the disease. Proper positioning at rest is essential. The mattress should be firm, and the patient should sleep on the back with a flat pillow, avoiding positions that encourage flexion deformity. Postural training emphasizes avoiding spinal flexion (e.g., leaning over a desk), heavy lifting, and prolonged walking, standing, or sitting.

When administering medications to the patient with gout, the nurse would recognize which of the following as a treatment for chronic disease? a. Colchicine b. Febuxostat c. Sulfasalazine d. Cyclosporine

Correct answer: b Rationale: Febuxostat (Uloric), a selective inhibitor of xanthine oxidase, is given for long-term management of hyperuricemia in persons with chronic gout. Acute gouty arthritis is treated with colchicine and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).

In teaching a patient with chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) about this disorder, the nurse understands that a. palpating tender points is an indicator of CFS severity b. many symptoms are similar to fibromyalgia syndrome c. definitive treatment includes low-dose hydrocortisone d. CFS is characterized by progressive memory impairment

Correct answer: b Rationale: Fibromyalgia syndrome (FS) and chronic fatigue syndrome (CFS) have several commonalities. Both occur in previously healthy, young, and middle-aged women; the cause of both includes an infectious trigger, dysfunction of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis or an alteration in central nervous system; and common clinical manifestations are malaise and fatigue, cognitive dysfunction, headaches, sleep disturbances, depression, anxiety, fever, and generalized musculoskeletal pain. Both diseases have symptoms that fluctuate over time, and both disorders have no definitive laboratory tests or joint and muscle examinations. They remain diagnoses of exclusion. Treatment for both disorders is symptomatic and may include antidepressant drugs. Other measures are heat, massage, regular stretching, biofeedback, stress management, and relaxation training.

Assessment data in the patient with osteoarthritis commonly include a. gradual weight loss b. elevated WBC count c. joint pain that worsens with use d. straw-colored synovial fluid

Correct answer: c Rationale: Osteoarthritis pain ranges from mild discomfort to significant disability. Joint pain is the predominant symptom, and the pain generally worsens with joint use.

In teaching a patient with SLE about the disorder, the nurse knows that the pathophysiology of SLE includes a. circulating immune complexes formed from IgG autoantibodies reacting with IgG b. an autoimmune T-cell reaction that results in destruction of the deep dermal skin layer c. immunologic dysfunction leading to chronic inflammation in the cartilage and muscles d. the production of a variety of autoantibodies directed against components of the cell nucleus

Correct answer: d Rationale: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is characterized by the production of many autoantibodies against nucleic acids (e.g., single-and double-stranded DNA), erythrocytes, coagulation proteins, lymphocytes, platelets, and many other self-proteins. Autoimmune reactions characteristically are directed against constituents of the cell nucleus (e.g., antinuclear antibodies [ANAs]), particularly DNA. Circulating immune complexes containing antibody against DNA are deposited in the basement membranes of capillaries in the kidneys, heart, skin, brain, and joints. Complement is activated, and inflammation occurs. The overaggressive antibody response is also related to activation of B and T cells. The specific manifestations of SLE depend on which cell types or organs are involved. SLE is a type III hypersensitivity response.

In assessing the joints of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis, the nurse understands that the joints are damaged by (select all that apply) a. bony ankylosis following inflammation of the joints b. the deterioration of cartilage by proteolytic enzymes c. the development of Heberden's nodes in the joint capsule d.. increased cartilage and bony growth at the joint margins e. invasion of pannus into the joint causing a loss of cartilage

Correct answers: a, e Rationale: Bony ankylosis is the union of the bones of a joint by proliferation of bone cells, resulting in complete immobility. Bony ankylosis occurs with advanced rheumatoid arthritis. Joint changes from chronic inflammation begin when the hypertrophied synovial membrane invades the surrounding cartilage, ligaments, tendons, and joint capsule. Pannus (i.e., highly vascular granulation tissue) forms within the joint. It eventually covers and erodes the entire surface of the articular cartilage. The production of inflammatory cytokines at the pannus-cartilage junction further contributes to cartilage destruction. The pannus scars and shortens supporting structures such as tendons and ligaments, ultimately causing joint laxity, subluxation, and contracture.

When caring for a patient with systemic sclerosis, the nurse knows it is important to instruct the patient related to (select all that apply) a. avoiding the consumption of high-purine foods b. strategies for good dental hygiene and mouth care c. protecting the extremities from hot and cold temperatures d. maintaining joint function and preserving muscle strength e. performing mouth excursion (yawning) exercises on a daily basis

Correct answers: b, c, d, e Rationale: Systemic sclerosis (SS), or scleroderma, is a disorder of connective tissue characterized by fibrotic, degenerative, and occasionally inflammatory changes in the skin, blood vessels, synovium, skeletal muscle, and internal organs. The nurse should include the following in the teaching plan for a patient with SS: daily oral hygiene (neglect may increase tooth and gingival problems); protection of hands and feet from cold exposure and possible burns or cuts (wounds heal slowly); avoidance of emotional stress and cold ambient temperatures (they aggravate Raynaud's phenomenon); isometric exercises for arthropathy (no joint movement occurs); use of assistive devices as appropriate and organization of activities to preserve strength and reduce disability; and mouth excursion (i.e., yawning with an open mouth) (helps maintain temporomandibular joint function).

19. A hospitalized diabetic patient receives 12 U of regular insulin mixed with 34 U of NPH insulin at 7:00 AM. The patient is away from the nursing unit for diagnostic testing at noon, when lunch trays are distributed. The most appropriate action by the nurse is to a. save the lunch tray to be provided upon the patient's return to the unit. b. call the diagnostic testing area and ask that a 5% dextrose IV be started. c. ensure that the patient drinks a glass of milk or orange juice at noon in the diagnostic testing area. d. request that the patient be returned to the unit to eat lunch if testing will not be completed promptly.

D Rationale: Consistency for mealtimes assists with regulation of blood glucose, so the best option is for the patient to have lunch at the usual time. Waiting to eat until after the procedure is likely to cause hypoglycemia. Administration of an IV solution is unnecessarily invasive for the patient. A glass of milk or juice will keep the patient from becoming hypoglycemic but will cause a rapid rise in blood glucose because of the rapid absorption of the simple carbohydrate in these items. Cognitive Level: Analysis Text Reference: p. 1268 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

27. A patient recovering from DKA asks the nurse how acidosis occurs. The best response by the nurse is that a. insufficient insulin leads to cellular starvation, and as cells rupture they release organic acids into the blood. b. when an insulin deficit causes hyperglycemia, then proteins are deaminated by the liver, causing acidic by-products. c. excess glucose in the blood is metabolized by the liver into acetone, which is acidic. d. an insulin deficit promotes metabolism of fat stores, which produces large amounts of acidic ketones.

D Rationale: Ketoacidosis is caused by the breakdown of fat stores when glucose is not available for intracellular metabolism. The other responses are inaccurate. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: pp. 1278-1279 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

9. A patient with type 1 diabetes has received diet instruction as part of the treatment plan. The nurse determines a need for additional instruction when the patient says, a. "I may have an occasional alcoholic drink if I include it in my meal plan." b. "I will need a bedtime snack because I take an evening dose of NPH insulin." c. "I will eat meals as scheduled, even if I am not hungry, to prevent hypoglycemia." d. "I may eat whatever I want, as long as I use enough insulin to cover the calories."

D Rationale: Most patients with type 1 diabetes need to plan diet choices very carefully. Patients who are using intensified insulin therapy have considerable flexibility in diet choices but still should restrict dietary intake of items such as fat, protein, and alcohol. The other patient statements are correct and indicate good understanding of the diet instruction. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1268 Nursing Process: Evaluation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

8. A college student who has type 1 diabetes normally walks each evening as part of an exercise regimen. The student now plans to take a swimming class every day at 1:00 PM. The clinic nurse teaches the patient to a. delay eating the noon meal until after the swimming class. b. increase the morning dose of neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin on days of the swimming class. c. time the morning insulin injection so that the peak occurs while swimming. d. check glucose level before, during, and after swimming.

D Rationale: The change in exercise will affect blood glucose, and the patient will need to monitor glucose carefully to determine the need for changes in diet and insulin administration. Because exercise tends to decrease blood glucose, patients are advised to eat before exercising. Increasing the morning NPH or timing the insulin to peak during exercise may lead to hypoglycemia, especially with the increased exercise. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1269 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance

4. A program of weight loss and exercise is recommended for a patient with impaired fasting glucose (IFG). When teaching the patient about the reason for these lifestyle changes, the nurse will tell the patient that a. the high insulin levels associated with this syndrome damage the lining of blood vessels, leading to vascular disease. b. although the fasting plasma glucose levels do not currently indicate diabetes, the glycosylated hemoglobin will be elevated. c. the liver is producing excessive glucose, which will eventually exhaust the ability of the pancreas to produce insulin, and exercise will normalize glucose production. d. the onset of diabetes and the associated cardiovascular risks can be delayed or prevented by weight loss and exercise.

D Rationale: The patient with IFG is at risk for developing type 2 diabetes, but this risk can be decreased with lifestyle changes. Glycosylated hemoglobin levels will not be elevated in IFG and the Hb A1C test is not included in prediabetes testing. Elevated insulin levels do not cause the damage to blood vessels that can occur with IFG. The liver does not produce increased levels of glucose in IFG. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1255 Nursing Process: Implementation NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

2. A patient screened for diabetes at a clinic has a fasting plasma glucose level of 120 mg/dl (6.7 mmol/L). The nurse will plan to teach the patient about a. use of low doses of regular insulin. b. self-monitoring of blood glucose. c. oral hypoglycemic medications. d. maintenance of a healthy weight.

D Rationale: The patient's impaired fasting glucose indicates prediabetes and the patient should be counseled about lifestyle changes to prevent the development of type 2 diabetes. The patient with prediabetes does not require insulin or the oral hypoglycemics for glucose control and does not need to self-monitor blood glucose. Cognitive Level: Application Text Reference: p. 1255 Nursing Process: Planning NCLEX: Physiological Integrity

The nurse is completing a neurovascular assessment on the patient with a tibial fracture and a cast. The feet are pulseless, pale, and cool. The patient says they are numb. What should the nurse suspect is occurring? A Paresthesia B Pitting edema C Poor venous return D Compartment syndrome

D Compartment syndrome The nurse should suspect compartment syndrome with one or more of the following six Ps: paresthesia, pallor, pulselessness, pain distal to the injury and unrelieved with opioids, pressure increases in the compartment, and paralysis. Although paresthesia and poor venous return are evident, these are just some of the manifestations of compartment syndrome.

This morning a 21-year-old male patient had a long leg cast applied and wants to get up and try out his crutches before dinner. The nurse will not allow this. What is the best rationale that the nurse should give the patient for this decision? A The cast is not dry yet, and it may be damaged while using crutches. B The nurse does not have anyone available to accompany the patient. C Rest, ice, compression, and elevation are in process to decrease pain. D Excess edema and other problems are prevented when the leg is elevated for 24 hours

D Excess edema and other problems are prevented when the leg is elevated for 24 hours For the first 24 hours after a lower extremity cast is applied, the leg will be elevated on pillows above the heart level to avoid excessive edema and compartment syndrome. The cast will also be drying during this 24-hour period. RICE is used for soft tissue injuries, not with long leg casts.

The nurse is caring for a 75-year-old woman who underwent left total knee arthroplasty and has a new order to be "up in chair today before noon." What action should the nurse take to protect the knee joint while carrying out the order? A Administer a dose of prescribed analgesic before completing the order. B Ask the physical therapist for a walker to limit weight bearing while getting out of bed. C Keep the continuous passive motion machine in place while lifting the patient from bed to chair. D Put on a knee immobilizer before moving the patient out of bed and keep the surgical leg elevated while sitting.

D Put on a knee immobilizer before moving the patient out of bed and keep the surgical leg elevated while sitting. The nurse should apply a knee immobilizer for stability before assisting the patient to get out of bed. This is a standard measure to protect the knee during movement following surgery. Although an analgesic should be given before the patient gets up in the chair for the first time, it will not protect the knee joint. Full weight bearing is begun before discharge, so a walker will not be used if the patient did not need one before the surgery. The CPM machine is not kept in place while the patient is getting up to the chair.

The nurse is completing discharge teaching with an 80-year-old male patient who underwent right total hip arthroplasty. The nurse identifies a need for further instruction if the patient states the need to A avoid crossing his legs. B use a toilet elevator on toilet seat. C notify future caregivers about the prosthesis. D maintain hip in adduction and internal rotation.

D maintain hip in adduction and internal rotation. The patient should not force hip into adduction or force hip into internal rotation as these movements could displace the hip replacement. Avoiding crossing the legs, using a toilet elevator on a toilet seat, and notifying future caregivers about the prosthesis indicate understanding of discharge teaching.

The basic pathophysiologic process of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a. destruction of joint cartilage and bones by an autoimmune process b. initiated by a viral infection that destroys the synovial membranes of joints c. the presence of HLA-DR4 antigen that causes inflammatory responses throughout the body d. an immune response that activates complement and produces inflammation of joints and other organ systems

D. an immune response that activates complement and produces inflammation of joints and other organ systems

The nurse is reinforcing health teaching about osteoporosis with a 72-year-old patient admitted to the hospital. In reviewing this disorder, what should the nurse explain to the patient? A. With a family history of osteoporosis, there is no way to prevent or slow bone resorption. B. Continuous, low-dose corticosteroid treatment is effective in stopping the course of osteoporosis. C. Estrogen therapy must be maintained to prevent rapid progression of the osteoporosis. D. Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise.

D. Even with a family history of osteoporosis, the calcium loss from bones can be slowed by increased calcium intake and exercise. The rate of progression of osteoporosis can be slowed if the patient takes calcium supplements and/or foods high in calcium and engages in regular weight-bearing exercise. Corticosteroids interfere with bone metabolism. Estrogen therapy is no longer used to prevent osteoporosis because of the associated increased risk of heart disease and breast and uterine cancer.

The nurse cares for a 58-year-old woman with breast cancer who is admitted for severe back pain related to a compression fracture. The patient's laboratory values include serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L, serum sodium of 144 mEq/L, and serum calcium of 14.3 mg/dL. Which signs and symptoms will the nurse expect the patient to exhibit? A. Anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness B. Muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea C. Hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures D. Nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status

D. Nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status Breast cancer can metastasize to the bone. Vertebrae are a common site. Pathologic fractures at the site of metastasis are common because of a weakening of the involved bone. High serum calcium levels result as calcium is released from damaged bones. Normal serum calcium is between 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL. Clinical manifestations of hypercalcemia include nausea, vomiting, and altered mental status (e.g., lethargy, decreased memory, confusion, personality changes, psychosis, stupor, coma). Other manifestations include weakness, depressed reflexes, anorexia, bone pain, fractures, polyuria, dehydration, and nephrolithiasis. Manifestations of hypomagnesemia include hyperactive reflexes, tremors, and seizures. Symptoms of hyperkalemia include anxiety, irregular pulse, and weakness. Symptoms of hypocalcemia include muscle stiffness, dysphagia, and dyspnea.

A 67-year-old patient hospitalized with osteomyelitis has an order for bed rest with bathroom privileges with the affected foot elevated on two pillows. The nurse would place highest priority on which intervention? A. Ambulate the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours. B. Ask the patient about preferred activities to relieve boredom. C. Allow the patient to dangle legs at the bedside every 2 to 4 hours. D. Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises.

D. Perform frequent position changes and range-of-motion exercises. The patient is at risk for atelectasis of the lungs and for contractures because of prescribed bed rest. For this reason, the nurse should place the priority on changing the patient's position frequently to promote lung expansion and performing range-of-motion (ROM) exercises to prevent contractures. Assisting the patient to the bathroom will keep the patient safe as the patient is in pain, but it may not be needed every 2 hours. Providing activities to relieve boredom will assist the patient to cope with the bed rest, and dangling the legs every 2 to 4 hours may be too painful. The priority is position changes and ROM exercises.

When the patient is diagnosed with muscular dystrophy, what information should the nurse include in the teaching about this disorder? A. Prolonged bed rest will be used to decrease fatigue. B. An orthotic jacket will limit mobility and may contribute to deformity. C. Continuous positive airway pressure will be used to facilitate sleeping. D. Remain active to prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications.

D. Remain active to prevent skin breakdown and respiratory complications. With muscular dystrophy, it is important for the patient to remain active for as long as possible. Prolonged bed rest should be avoided because immobility leads to further muscle wasting. An orthotic jacket may be used to provide stability and prevent further deformity. Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is used as respiratory function decreases, before mechanical ventilation is needed to sustain respiratory function.

A 60-year-old woman has pain on motion in her fingers and asks the nurse whether this is just a result of aging. The best response by the nurse includes the information that a. joint pain with functional limitation is a normal change that affects all people to some extent b. joint pain that develops with age is usually related to previous trauma or infection of the joints c. this is a symptom of a systemic arthritis that eventually affects all joints as the disease progresses d. changes in the cartilage and bones of joints may cause symptoms of pain and loss of function in some people as they age

D. changes in the cartilage and bones of joints may cause symptoms of pain and loss of function in some people as they age.

Characteristics of spondyloarthritides associated with HLA-B27 antigen include a. symmetric polyarticular arthritis b. an absence of extraarticular disease c. presence of rheumatoid factor and autoantibodies d. high level of involvement of sacroiliac joints and the spine

D. high level of involvement is sacroiliac joints and the spine

Laboratory findings that the nurse would expect to be present in the patient with RA include a. polycythemia b. increased IgG c. decreased WBC d. increased C-reactive protein (CRP)

D. increased C-reactive protein (CRP)

An important nursing intervention for the patient with ankylosing spondylitis is to teach the patient to a. wear roomy shoes with good orthotic support b. sleep on the side with the knees and hips flexed c. keep the spine slightly flexed while sitting, standing, or walking d. perform back, neck, and chest stretches and deep breathing exercises

D. perform back, neck and chest stretches and deep breathing exercises

A patient is seen at the outpatient clinic for a sudden onset of inflammation and severe pain in the great toe. A diagnosis of gout is made on the basis of a. a family history of gout b. elevated urine uric acid levels c. elevated serum uric acid levels d. the presence of sodium urate crystals in synovial fluid

D. the presence of sodium urate cystals in synovial fluid

A nurse is working with a 73-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). In assessing the patient's understanding of this disorder, the nurse concludes teaching has been effective when the patient uses which description of the condition? Joint destruction caused by an autoimmune process Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints Overproduction of synovial fluid resulting in joint destruction Breakdown of tissue in non-weight-bearing joints by enzymes

Degeneration of articular cartilage in synovial joints OA is a degeneration of the articular cartilage in diarthrodial (synovial) joints from damage to the cartilage. The condition has also been referred to as degenerative joint disease. OA is not an autoimmune disease. There is no overproduction of synovial fluid causing destruction or breakdown of tissue by enzymes.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has osteoarthritis (OA) of the knees. The nurse teaches the patient that the most beneficial measure to protect the joints is to do what? Use a wheelchair to avoid walking as much as possible. Sit in chairs that cause the hips to be lower than the knees. Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. Use a walker for ambulation to relieve the pressure on the hips.

Eat a well-balanced diet to maintain a healthy body weight. Because maintaining an appropriate load on the joints is essential to the preservation of articular cartilage integrity, the patient should maintain an optimal overall body weight or lose weight if overweight. Walking is encouraged. The chairs that would be best for this patient have a higher seat and armrests to facilitate sitting and rising from the chair. Relieving pressure on the hips is not important for OA of the knees.

The patient with fibromyalgia is suffering with pain at 12 of the 18 identification sites, including the neck and upper back and the knees. The patient also reports nonrefreshing sleep, depression, and being anxious when dealing with multiple tasks. The nurse should teach this patient about what treatments (select all that apply)? Low-impact aerobic exercise Relaxation strategy (biofeedback) Antiseizure drug pregabalin (Lyrica) Morphine sulfate extended-release tablets Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (e.g., sertraline [Zoloft])

Low-impact aerobic exercise Relaxation strategy (biofeedback) Antiseizure drug pregabalin (Lyrica) Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (e.g., sertraline [Zoloft]) Because the treatment of fibromyalgia is symptomatic, this patient will be prescribed something for pain, such as pregabalin, and a serotonin reuptake inhibitor for depression. Low- impact aerobic exercise will prevent muscle atrophy without increasing pain at the knees. Relaxation can help decrease the patient's stress and anxiety. Long-acting opioids are generally avoided unless pain cannot be relieved by other medications.

A nurse assesses a 38-year-old patient with joint pain and stiffness who was diagnosed with Stage III rheumatoid arthritis (RA). What characteristics should the nurse expect to observe (select all that apply)? Nodules present Consistent muscle strength Localized disease symptoms Incorrect No destructive changes on x-ray Subluxation of joints without fibrous ankylosis

Nodules present Subluxation of joints without fibrous ankylosis In Stage III severe RA, there may be extraarticular soft tissue lesions or nodules present, and there is subluxation without fibrous or bony ankylosis. The muscle strength is decreased because there is extensive muscle atrophy. The manifestations are systemic not localized. There is x-ray evidence of cartilage and bone destruction in addition to osteoporosis. Awarded 1.0 points out of 2.0 possible points.

The patient is to have an intravenous pyelogram (IVP). Which of the following apply to this procedure? (Select all that apply.) A) Note any allergies. B) Monitor intake and output. C) Provide for perineal hygiene. D) Assess vital signs. E) Encourage fluids after the procedure.

Note any allergies. Encourage fluids after the procedure.

The nurse is caring for four newly diagnosed patients with various connective tissue disorders. The nurse should be most aware of safety issues and interstitial lung involvement in the patient with which diagnosis? Polymyositis Reactive arthritis Sjögren's syndrome Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Polymyositis Polymyositis is an inflammatory disease affecting striated muscle and resulting in muscle weakness that increases the patient's risk of falls and injury. Weakened pharyngeal muscles increase the risk for aspiration with interstitial lung disease in up to 65% of patients. The treatment of polymyositis starts with high-dose corticosteroids that cause immunosuppression. If this does not work, other immunosuppressive drugs may be used. Reactive arthritis (Reiter's syndrome) occurs with urethritis, conjunctivitis, and mucocutaneous lesions with the asymmetric arthritis involving large joints of the lower extremities and toes. This patient is not at increased risk for safety problems. Sjögren's syndrome decreases moisture produced by exocrine glands, especially in the mouth and eyes and is without increased risk of injury or interstitial lung involvement. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a multisystem inflammatory autoimmune disorder treated with NSAIDs, antimalarial agents. Safety would not be an important issue early in the disease.

A nurse is assessing the recent health history of a 63-year-old patient with osteoarthritis (OA). The nurse determines that the patient is trying to manage the condition appropriately when the patient describes which activity pattern? Bed rest with bathroom privileges Daily high-impact aerobic exercise Regular exercise program of walking Frequent rest periods with minimal exercise

Regular exercise program of walking A regular low-impact exercise, such as walking, is important in helping to maintain joint mobility in the patient with osteoarthritis. A balance of rest and activity is needed. High-impact aerobic exercises would cause stress to affected joints and further damage.

The postoperative patient has difficulty voiding after surgery and is feeling "uncomfortable" in the lower abdomen. Which action should the nurse implement first? A) Encourage fluid intake B) Administer pain medication C) Catheterize the patient D) Turn on the bathroom faucet as he tries to void

Turn on the bathroom faucet as he tries to void

The nurse assesses that the patient has a full bladder, and the patient states that he or she is having difficulty voiding. The nurse would teach the patient to: A) Use the double-voiding technique. B) Perform Kegel exercises. C) Use Credé's method. D) Keep a voiding diary.

Use Credé's method.

Prevention of AKI is important because of the high mortality rate. Which patients are at increased risk for AKI (select all that apply)? a. An 86-year-old woman scheduled for a cardiac catheterization b. A 48-year-old man with multiple injuries from a motor vehicle accident c. A 32-year-old woman following a C-section delivery for abruptio placentae d. A 64-year-old woman with chronic heart failure admitted with bloody stools e. A 58-year-old man with prostate cancer undergoing preoperative workup for prostatectomy

a, b, c, d, e. High-risk patients include those exposed to nephrotoxic agents and advanced age (a), massive trauma (b), prolonged hypovolemia or hypotension (possibly b and c), obstetric complications (c), cardiac failure (d), preexisting chronic kidney disease, extensive burns, or sepsis. Patients with prostate cancer may have obstruction of the outflow tract, which increases risk of postrenal AKI (e).

Which drugs will be used to treat the patient with CKD for mineral and bone disorder (select all that apply)? a. Cinacalcet (Sensipar) b. Sevelamer (Renagel) c. IV glucose and insulin d. Calcium acetate (PhosLo) e. IV 10% calcium gluconate

a, b, d. Cinacalcet (Sensipar), a calcimimetic agent to control secondary hyperparathyroidism; sevelamer (Renagel), a noncalcium phosphate binder; and calcium acetate (PhosLo), a calcium-based phosphate binder are used to treat mineral and bone disorder in CKD. IV glucose and insulin and IV 10% calcium gluconate along with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) are used to treat the hyperkalemia of CKD.

The patient with CKD is receiving dialysis, and the nurse observes excoriations on the patient's skin. What pathophysiologic changes in CKD can contribute to this finding (select all that apply)? a. Dry skin b. Sensory neuropathy c. Vascular calcifications d. Calcium-phosphate skin deposits e. Uremic crystallization from high BUN

a, b, d. Pruritus is common in patients receiving dialysis. It causes scratching from dry skin, sensory neuropathy, and calcium-phosphate deposition in the skin. Vascular calcifications contribute to cardiovascular disease, not to itching skin. Uremic frost rarely occurs without BUN levels greater than 200 mg/dL, which should not occur in a patient on dialysis; urea crystallizes on the skin and also causes pruritis.

Number the following in the order of the phases of exchange in PD. Begin with 1 and end with 3. a. Drain b. Dwell c. Inflow

a. 3; b. 2; c. 1

Priority Decision: A patient on a medical unit has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What is the priority action that the nurse should take? a. Place the patient on a cardiac monitor. b. Check the patient's blood pressure (BP). c. Instruct the patient to avoid high-potassium foods. d. Call the lab and request a redraw of the lab to verify results.

a. Dysrhythmias may occur with an elevated potassium level and are potentially lethal. Monitor the rhythm while contacting the physician or calling the rapid response team. Vital signs should be checked. Depending on the patient's history and cause of increased potassium, instruct the patient about dietary sources of potassium; however, this would not help at this point. The nurse may want to recheck the value but until then the heart rhythm needs to be monitored.

Priority Decision: During the immediate postoperative care of a recipient of a kidney transplant, what should the nurse expect to do? a. Regulate fluid intake hourly based on urine output. b. Monitor urine-tinged drainage on abdominal dressing. c. Medicate the patient frequently for incisional flank pain. d. Remove the urinary catheter to evaluate the ureteral implant.

a. Fluid and electrolyte balance is critical in the transplant recipient patient, especially because diuresis often begins soon after surgery. Fluid replacement is adjusted hourly based on kidney function and urine output. Urine-tinged drainage on the abdominal dressing may indicate leakage from the ureter implanted into the bladder and the health care provider should be notified. The donor patient may have a flank or laparoscopic incision(s) where the kidney was removed. The recipient has an abdominal incision where the kidney was placed in the iliac fossa. The urinary catheter is usually used for 2 to 3 days to monitor urine output and kidney function.

*9. In planning nursing interventions to increase bladder control in the patient with urinary incontinence, the nurse includes:* a. teaching the patient to use Kegel exercises b.clamping and releasing a catheter to increase bladder tone c.teaching the patient biofeedback mechanisms to suppress the urge to void d.counseling the patient concerning choices of incontinence containment devices

a. teaching the patient to use Kegel exercises

A man with end-stage kidney disease is scheduled for hemodialysis following healing of an arteriovenous fistula (AVF). What should the nurse explain to him that will occur during dialysis? a. He will be able to visit, read, sleep, or watch TV while reclining in a chair. b. He will be placed on a cardiac monitor to detect any adverse effects that might occur. c. The dialyzer will remove and hold part of his blood for 20 to 30 minutes to remove the waste products. d. A large catheter with two lumens will be inserted into the fistula to send blood to and return it from the dialyzer.

a. While patients are undergoing hemodialysis, they can perform quiet activities that do not require the limb that has the vascular access. Blood pressure is monitored frequently and the dialyzer monitors dialysis function but cardiac monitoring is not usually indicated. The hemodialysis machine continuously circulates both the blood and the dialysate past the semipermeable membrane in the machine. Graft and fistula access involve the insertion of two needles into the site: one to remove blood from and the other to return blood to the dialyzer.

*6. A patient is admitted to the hospital with severe renal colic. The nurse's first priority in management of the patient is to* a. administer opioids as prescribed. b. obtain supplies for straining all urine c. encourage fluid intake of 3-4L/day d. keep the patient NPO in preparation for surgery

a. administer opioids as prescribed.

*4.One of the nruse's most important roles in relation to acute poststreptococcal golmerulonephritis is to* a. promote early diagnosis and treatment of sore throats and skin lesions b.encourage patients to obtain antibiotic therapy for upper respiratory tract infections c.teach patients with APSGN that long term prophylactic antibiotic therapy is necessary to prevent recurrence d.monitor patients for respiratory symptoms that indicate the disease is affecting the alveolar basement membrane

a. promote early diagnosis and treatment of sore throats and skin lesions

A patient with osteomyelitis is treated with surgical debridement with implantation of antibiotic beads. When the patient asks why the beads are used, the nurse answers (select all that apply) a."The beads are used to directly deliver antibiotics to the site of the infection." b."There are no effective oral or IV antibiotics to treat most cases of bone infection." c."This is the safest method of delivering long-term antibiotic therapy for a bone infection." d."The beads are an adjunct to debridement and oral and IV antibiotics for deep infections." e."The ischemia and bone death that occur with osteomyelitis are impenetrable to IV antibiotics."

a."The beads are used to directly deliver antibiotics to the site of the infection." d."The beads are an adjunct to debridement and oral and IV antibiotics for deep infections." Treatment of chronic osteomyelitis includes surgical removal of the poorly vascularized tissue and dead bone and the extended use of IV and oral antibiotics. Antibiotic-impregnated polymethylmethacrylate bead chains may be implanted during surgery to aid in combating the infection.

Before discharge from the same-day surgery unit, instruct the patient who has had a surgical correction of bilateral hallux valgus to a.rest frequently with the feet elevated. b.soak the feet in warm water several times a day. c.expect the feet to be numb for the next few days. d.expect continued pain in the feet, since this is not uncommon.

a.rest frequently with the feet elevated. After surgical correction of bilateral hallux valgus, the feet should be elevated with the heel off the bed to help reduce discomfort and prevent edema.

What is the primary way that a nurse will evaluate the patency of an AVF? a. Palpate for pulses distal to the graft site. b. Auscultate for the presence of a bruit at the site. c. Evaluate the color and temperature of the extremity. d. Assess for the presence of numbness and tingling distal to the site.

b. A patent arteriovenous fistula (AVF) creates turbulent blood flow that can be assessed by listening for a bruit or palpated for a thrill as the blood passes through the graft. Assessment of neurovascular status in the extremity distal to the graft site is important to determine that the graft does not impair circulation to the extremity but the neurovascular status does not indicate whether the graft is open.

In a patient with AKI, which laboratory urinalysis result indicates tubular damage? a. Hematuria b. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010 c. Urine sodium of 12 mEq/L (12 mmol/L) d. Osmolality of 1000 mOsm/kg (1000 mmol/kg)

b. A urine specific gravity that is consistently 1.010 and a urine osmolality of about 300 mOsm/kg is the same specific gravity and osmolality as plasma. This indicates that tubules are damaged and unable to concentrate urine. Hematuria is more common with postrenal damage. Tubular damage is associated with a high sodium concentration (greater than 40 mEq/L).

In which type of dialysis does the patient dialyze during sleep and leave the fluid in the abdomen during the day? a. Long nocturnal hemodialysis b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) c. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) d. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

b. Automated peritoneal dialysis (APD) is the type of dialysis in which the patient dialyzes during sleep and leaves the fluid in the abdomen during the day. Long nocturnal hemodialysis occurs while the patient is sleeping and is done up to six times per week. Continuous venovenous hemofiltration (CVVH) is a type of continuous renal replacement therapy used to treat AKI. Continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD) is dialysis that is done with exchanges of 1.5 to 3 L of dialysate at least four times daily.

A patient with AKI has a serum potassium level of 6.7 mEq/L (6.7 mmol/L) and the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.28, PaCO2 30 mm Hg, PaO2 86 mm Hg, HCO3 − 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L). The nurse recognizes that treatment of the acid-base problem with sodium bicarbonate would cause a decrease in which value? a. pH b. Potassium level c. Bicarbonate level d. Carbon dioxide level

b. During acidosis, potassium moves out of the cell in exchange for H+ ions, increasing the serum potassium level. Correction of the acidosis with sodium bicarbonate will help to shift the potassium back into the cells. A decrease in pH and the bicarbonate and PaCO2 levels would indicate worsening acidosis.

Priority Decision: A dehydrated patient is in the Injury stage of the RIFLE staging of AKI. What would the nurse first anticipate in the treatment of this patient? a. Assess daily weight b. IV administration of fluid and furosemide (Lasix) c. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Urinalysis to check for sediment, osmolality, sodium, and specific gravity

b. Injury is the stage of RIFLE classification when urine output is less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 12 hours, the serum creatinine is increased times two or the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is decreased by 50%. This stage may be reversible by treating the cause or, in this patient, the dehydration by administering IV fluid and a low dose of a loop diuretic, furosemide (Lasix). Assessing the daily weight will be done to monitor fluid changes but it is not the first treatment the nurse should anticipate. IV administration of insulin and sodium bicarbonate would be used for hyperkalemia. Checking the urinalysis will help to determine if the AKI has a prerenal, intrarenal, or postrenal cause by what is seen in the urine but with this patient's dehydration, it is thought to be prerenal to begin treatment.

The patient with CKD asks why she is receiving nifedipine (Procardia) and furosemide (Lasix). The nurse understands that these drugs are being used to treat the patient's a. anemia. b. hypertension. c. hyperkalemia. d. mineral and bone disorder.

b. Nifedipine (Procardia) is a calcium channel blocker and furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic. Both are used to treat hypertension.

To prevent the most common serious complication of PD, what is important for the nurse to do? a. Infuse the dialysate slowly. b. Use strict aseptic technique in the dialysis procedures. c. Have the patient empty the bowel before the inflow phase. d. Reposition the patient frequently and promote deep breathing.

b. Peritonitis is a common complication of peritoneal dialysis (PD) and may require catheter removal and termination of dialysis. Infection occurs from contamination of the dialysate or tubing or from progression of exit-site or tunnel infections and strict sterile technique must be used by health professionals as well as the patient to prevent contamination. Too-rapid infusion may cause shoulder pain and pain may be caused if the catheter tip touches the bowel. Difficulty breathing, atelectasis, and pneumonia may occur from pressure of the fluid on the diaphragm, which may be prevented by elevating the head of the bed and promoting repositioning and deep breathing.

In replying to a patient's questions about the seriousness of her chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse knows that the stage of CKD is based on what? a. Total daily urine output b. Glomerular filtration rate c. Degree of altered mental status d. Serum creatinine and urea levels

b. Stages of chronic kidney disease are based on the GFR. No specific markers of urinary output, mental status, or azotemia classify the degree of chronic kidney disease (CKD).

A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure resulting from hypertension has AKI as a result of the effects of nephrotoxic diuretics. Currently his serum potassium is 6.2 mEq/L (6.2 mmol/L) with cardiac changes, his BUN is 108 mg/dL (38.6 mmol/L), his serum creatinine is 4.1 mg/dL (362 mmol/L), and his serum HCO3 − is 14 mEq/L (14 mmol/L). He is somnolent and disoriented. Which treatment should the nurse expect to be used for him? a. Loop diuretics b. Renal replacement therapy c. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate d. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)

b. This patient has at least three of the six common indications for renal replacement therapy (RRT), including (1) high potassium level, (2) metabolic acidosis, and (3) changed mental status. The other indications are (4) volume overload, resulting in compromised cardiac status (this patient has a history of hypertension), (5) BUN greater than 120 mg/dL, and (6) pericarditis, pericardial effusion, or cardiac tamponade. Although the other treatments may be used, they will not be as effective as RRT for this older patient. Loop diuretics and increased fluid are used if the patient is dehydrated. Insulin and sodium bicarbonate can be used to temporarily drive the potassium into the cells. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to actually decrease the amount of potassium in the body.

*3. The immunologic mechanisms involved in acute poststreptococal glomerulonephritis include:* a. tubular blocking by precipitates of bacteria and antibody reactions b. deposition of immune complexes and complement along the GBM c. thickening of the GBM from autoimmune microangiopathic changes d. destruction of glomeruli by proteolytic enzymes contained in the GBM

b. deposition of immune complexes and complement along the GBM

A patient has been diagnosed with osteosarcoma of the humerus. He shows an understanding of his treatment options when he states a."I accept that I have to lose my arm with surgery." b."The chemotherapy before surgery will shrink the tumor." c."This tumor is related to the melanoma I had 3 years ago." d."I'm glad they can take out the cancer with such a small scar."

b."The chemotherapy before surgery will shrink the tumor." A patient with osteosarcoma usually has preoperative chemotherapy to decrease tumor size before surgery. As a result, limb-salvage procedures, including a wide surgical resection of the tumor, are being used more often. Osteosarcoma is a primary bone tumor that is extremely aggressive and rapidly metastasizes to distant sites.

You are teaching a patient with osteopenia. What is important to include in the teaching plan? a.Lose weight. b.Stop smoking. c.Eat a high-protein diet. d.Start swimming for exercise

b.Stop smoking. Patients with osteopenia should be instructed to quit smoking in order to decrease loss of bone mass.

In caring for a patient after a spinal fusion, the nurse would immediately report to the physician which patient symptom? a.The patient experiences a single episode of emesis. b.The patient is unable to move the lower extremities. c. The patient is nauseated and has not voided in 4 hours. d. The patient complains of pain at the bone graft donor site.

b.The patient is unable to move the lower extremities. After spinal fusion surgery, the nurse should frequently monitor peripheral neurologic signs. Movement of the arms and legs and assessment of sensation should be unchanged in comparison with the preoperative status. These assessments are usually repeated every 2 to 4 hours during the first 48 hours after surgery, and findings are compared with those of the preoperative assessment. Paresthesias, such as numbness and tingling sensation, may not be relieved immediately after surgery. The nurse should document any new muscle weakness or paresthesias and report this to the surgeon immediately.

*10. A patient with ureterolithotomy returns from surgery with a nephrostomy tube in place. Postoperative nursing care of the patient includes:* a.encourage the patient to drink fruit juices and milk b.encouraging fluids of at least 2-3 L/day after nausea has subsided c. irrigating the nephrostomy tube with 10ml of NS solution as needed d. notifying the physician if nephrostomy tube drainage is more than 30ml/hr

b.encouraging fluids of at least 2-3 L/day after nausea has subsided

*8. The nurse identifies a risk factor for kidney and bladder cancer in a patient who relates a history of* a.aspirin use b.tobacco use c.chronic alcohol abuse d.use of artificial sweeteners

b.tobacco use

*2. The nurse teaches the female paitent who has frequent UTIs that she should* a. take tub baths with bubble bath b.urinate before and after sexual intercourse c.take prophylactic sufonamides for the rest of her life d. restrict fluid intake to prevent the need for frequent voiding

b.urinate before and after sexual intercourse

An 83-year-old female patient was found lying on the bathroom floor. She said she fell 2 days ago and has not been able to take her heart medicine or eat or drink anything since then. What conditions could be causing prerenal AKI in this patient (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal calculi c. Hypovolemia d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Decreased cardiac output

c, e. Because the patient has had nothing to eat or drink for 2 days, she is probably dehydrated and hypovolemic. Decreased cardiac output (CO) is most likely because she is older and takes heart medicine, which is probably for heart failure or hypertension. Both hypovolemia and decreased CO cause prerenal AKI. Anaphylaxis is also a cause of prerenal AKI but is not likely in this situation. Nephrotoxic drugs would contribute to intrarenal causes of AKI and renal calculi would be a postrenal cause of AKI.

The patient with chronic kidney disease is considering whether to use peritoneal dialysis (PD) or hemodialysis (HD). What are advantages of PD when compared to HD (select all that apply)? a. Less protein loss b. Rapid fluid removal c. Less cardiovascular stress d. Decreased hyperlipidemia e. Requires fewer dietary restrictions

c, e. Peritoneal dialysis is less stressful for the cardiovascular system and requires fewer dietary restrictions. Peritoneal dialysis actually contributes to more protein loss and increased hyperlipidemia. The fluid and creatinine removal are slower with peritoneal dialysis than hemodialysis.

A patient on hemodialysis develops a thrombus of a subcutaneous arteriovenous (AV) graft, requiring its removal. While waiting for a replacement graft or fistula, the patient is most likely to have what done for treatment? a. Peritoneal dialysis b. Peripheral vascular access using radial artery c. Silastic catheter tunneled subcutaneously to the jugular vein d. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line inserted into subclavian vein

c. A more permanent, soft, flexible Silastic double-lumen catheter is used for long-term access when other forms of vascular access have failed. These catheters are tunneled subcutaneously and have Dacron cuffs that prevent infection from tracking along the catheter.

A patient with AKI is a candidate for continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). What is the most common indication for use of CRRT? a. Azotemia b. Pericarditis c. Fluid overload d. Hyperkalemia

c. Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) is indicated for the patient with AKI as an alternative or adjunct to hemodialysis to slowly remove solutes and fluid in the hemodynamically unstable patient. It is especially useful for treatment of fluid overload, but hemodialysis is indicated for treatment of hyperkalemia, pericarditis, or other serious effects of uremia.

What does the dialysate for PD routinely contain? a. Calcium in a lower concentration than in the blood b. Sodium in a higher concentration than in the blood c. Dextrose in a higher concentration than in the blood d. Electrolytes in an equal concentration to that of the blood

c. Dextrose or icodextrin or amino acid is added to dialysate fluid to create an osmotic gradient across the membrane to remove excess fluid from the blood. The dialysate fluid has no potassium so that potassium will diffuse into the dialysate from the blood. Dialysate also usually contains higher calcium to promote its movement into the blood. Dialysate sodium is usually less than or equal to that of blood to prevent sodium and fluid retention.

The patient with CKD is brought to the emergency department with Kussmaul respirations. What does the nurse know about CKD that could cause this patient's Kussmaul respirations? a. Uremic pleuritis is occurring. b. There is decreased pulmonary macrophage activity. c. They are caused by respiratory compensation for metabolic acidosis. d. Pulmonary edema from heart failure and fluid overload is occurring.

c. Kussmaul respirations occur with severe metabolic acidosis when the respiratory system is attempting to compensate by removing carbon dioxide with exhalations. Uremic pleuritis would cause a pleural friction rub. Decreased pulmonary macrophage activity increases the risk of pulmonary infection. Dyspnea would occur with pulmonary edema.

For a patient with CKD the nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of risk for injury: fracture related to alterations in calcium and phosphorus metabolism. What is the pathologic process directly related to the increased risk for fractures? a. Loss of aluminum through the impaired kidneys b. Deposition of calcium phosphate in soft tissues of the body c. Impaired vitamin D activation resulting in decreased GI absorption of calcium d. Increased release of parathyroid hormone in response to decreased calcium levels

c. The calcium-phosphorus imbalances that occur in CKD result in hypocalcemia, from a deficiency of active vitamin D and increased phosphorus levels. This leads to an increased rate of bone remodeling with a weakened bone matrix. Aluminum accumulation is also believed to contribute to the osteomalacia. Osteitis fibrosa involves replacement of calcium in the bone with fibrous tissue and is primarily a result of elevated levels of parathyroid hormone resulting from hypocalcemia.

During the nursing assessment of the patient with renal insufficiency, the nurse asks the patient specifically about a history of a. angina. b. asthma. c. hypertension. d. rheumatoid arthritis.

c. The most common causes of CKD in the United States are diabetes mellitus and hypertension. The nurse should obtain information on long-term health problems that are related to kidney disease. The other disorders are not closely associated with renal disease.

What causes the gastrointestinal (GI) manifestation of stomatitis in the patient with CKD? a. High serum sodium levels b. Irritation of the GI tract from creatinine c. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea d. Iron salts, calcium-containing phosphate binders, and limited fluid intake

c. Uremic fetor, or the urine odor of the breath, is caused by high urea content in the blood. Increased ammonia from bacterial breakdown of urea leads to stomatitis and mucosal ulcerations. Irritation of the gastrointestinal (GI) tract from urea in CKD contributes to anorexia, nausea, and vomiting. Ingestion of iron salts and calcium-containing phosphate binders, limited fluid intake, and limited activity cause constipation.

What are intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply)? a. Anaphylaxis b. Renal stones c. Bladder cancer d. Nephrotoxic drugs e. Acute glomerulonephritis f. Tubular obstruction by myoglobin

d, e, f. Intrarenal causes of acute kidney injury (AKI) include conditions that cause direct damage to the kidney tissue, including nephrotoxic drugs, acute glomerulonephritis, and tubular obstruction by myoglobin, or prolonged ischemia. Anaphylaxis and other prerenal problems are frequently the initial cause of AKI. Renal stones and bladder cancer are among the postrenal causes of AKI.

Priority Decision: What is the most appropriate snack for the nurse to offer a patient with stage 4 CKD? a. Raisins b. Ice cream c. Dill pickles d. Hard candy

d. A patient with CKD may have unlimited intake of sugars and starches (unless the patient is diabetic) and hard candy is an appropriate snack and may help to relieve the metallic and urine taste that is common in the mouth. Raisins are a high-potassium food. Ice cream contains protein and phosphate and counts as fluid. Pickled foods have high sodium content. Lewis, Sharon L.; Dirksen, Shannon Ruff; Bucher, Linda (2014-03-14). Study Guide for Medical-Surgical Nursing: Assessment and Management of Clinical Problems (Study Guide for Medical-Surgical Nursing: Assessment & Management of Clinical Problem) (Page 413). Elsevier Health Sciences. Kindle Edition.

Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is the most common cause of intrarenal AKI. Which patient is most likely to develop ATN? a. Patient with diabetes mellitus b. Patient with hypertensive crisis c. Patient who tried to overdose on acetaminophen d. Patient with major surgery who required a blood transfusion

d. Acute tubular necrosis (ATN) is primarily the result of ischemia, nephrotoxins, or sepsis. Major surgery is most likely to cause severe kidney ischemia in the patient requiring a blood transfusion. A blood transfusion hemolytic reaction produces nephrotoxic injury if it occurs. Diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and acetaminophen overdose will not contribute to ATN.

Which serum laboratory value indicates to the nurse that the patient's CKD is getting worse? a. Decreased BUN b. Decreased sodium c. Decreased creatinine d. Decreased calculated glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

d. As GFR decreases, BUN and serum creatinine levels increase. Although elevated BUN and creatinine indicate that waste products are accumulating, the calculated GFR is considered a more accurate indicator of kidney function than BUN or serum creatinine.

A patient rapidly progressing toward end-stage kidney disease asks about the possibility of a kidney transplant. In responding to the patient, the nurse knows that what is a contraindication to kidney transplantation? a. Hepatitis C infection b. Coronary artery disease c. Refractory hypertension d. Extensive vascular disease

d. Extensive vascular disease is a contraindication for renal transplantation, primarily because adequate blood supply is essential for the health of the new kidney. Other contraindications include disseminated malignancies, refractory or untreated cardiac disease, chronic respiratory failure, chronic infection, or unresolved psychosocial disorders. Coronary artery disease (CAD) may be treated with bypass surgery before transplantation and transplantation can relieve hypertension. Hepatitis B or C infection is not a contraindication.

While caring for the patient in the oliguric phase of AKI, the nurse monitors the patient for associated collaborative problems. When should the nurse notify the health care provider? a. Urine output is 300 mL/day. b. Edema occurs in the feet, legs, and sacral area. c. Cardiac monitor reveals a depressed T wave and elevated ST segment. d. The patient experiences increasing muscle weakness and abdominal cramping.

d. Hyperkalemia is a potentially life-threatening complication of AKI in the oliguric phase. Muscle weakness and abdominal cramping are signs of the neuromuscular impairment that occurs with hyperkalemia. In addition, hyperkalemia can cause the cardiac conduction abnormalities of peaked T wave, prolonged PR interval, prolonged QRS interval, and depressed ST segment. Urine output of 300 mL/day is expected during the oliguric phase, as is the development of peripheral edema.

What indicates to the nurse that a patient with oliguria has prerenal oliguria? a. Urine testing reveals a low specific gravity. b. Causative factor is malignant hypertension. c. Urine testing reveals a high sodium concentration. d. Reversal of oliguria occurs with fluid replacement.

d. In prerenal oliguria, the oliguria is caused by a decrease in circulating blood volume and there is no damage yet to the renal tissue. It can be reversed by correcting the precipitating factor, such as fluid replacement for hypovolemia. Prerenal oliguria is characterized by urine with a high specific gravity and a low sodium concentration, whereas oliguria of intrarenal failure is characterized by urine with a low specific gravity and a high sodium concentration. Malignant hypertension causes damage to renal tissue and intrarenal oliguria.

What accurately describes the care of the patient with CKD? a. A nutrient that is commonly supplemented for the patient on dialysis because it is dialyzable is iron. b. The syndrome that includes all of the signs and symptoms seen in the various body systems in CKD is azotemia. c. The use of morphine is contraindicated in the patient with CKD because accumulation of its metabolites may cause seizures. d. The use of calcium-based phosphate binders in the patient with CKD is contraindicated when serum calcium levels are increased.

d. In the patient with CKD, when serum calcium levels are increased, calcium-based phosphate binders are not used. The nutrient supplemented for patients on dialysis is folic acid. The various body system manifestations occur with uremia, which includes azotemia. Meperidine is contraindicated in patients with CKD related to possible seizures.

In caring for the patient with AKI, what should the nurse be aware of? a. The most common cause of death in AKI is irreversible metabolic acidosis. b. During the oliguric phase of AKI, daily fluid intake is limited to 1000 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. c. Dietary sodium and potassium during the oliguric phase of AKI are managed according to the patient's urinary output. d. One of the most important nursing measures in managing fluid balance in the patient with AKI is taking accurate daily weights.

d. Measuring daily weights with the same scale at the same time each day allows for the evaluation and detection of excessive body fluid gains or losses. Infection is the leading cause of death in AKI, so meticulous aseptic technique is critical. The fluid limitation in the oliguric phase is 600 mL plus the prior day's measured fluid loss. Dietary sodium and potassium intake are managed according to the plasma levels.

What indicates to the nurse that a patient with AKI is in the recovery phase? a. A return to normal weight b. A urine output of 3700 mL/day c. Decreasing sodium and potassium levels d. Decreasing blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels

d. The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels remain high during the oliguric and diuretic phases of AKI. The recovery phase begins when the glomerular filtration returns to a rate at which BUN and creatinine stabilize and then decrease. Urinary output of 3 to 5 L/ day, decreasing sodium and potassium levels, and fluid weight loss are characteristic of the diuretic phase of AKI.

*7. The nurse recommends genetic counseling for the children of a patient with* a.nephrotic syndrome b.chronic pyelonephritis c. malignant nephrosclerosis d.adult onset polycystic kidney disease

d.adult onset polycystic kidney disease

*5.The edema that occurs in nephrotic syndrome is due to* a. increased hydrostatic pressure caused by sodium retention. b. decreased aldosterone secretion from adrenal insufficiency. c. increased fluid retention caused by decreased glomerular filtration d.decreased colloidal osmotic pressure caused by loss of serum albumin

d.decreased colloidal osmotic pressure caused by loss of serum albumin

4. The nurse's responsibility for a patient with a suspected disc herniation who is experiencing acute pain and muscle spasms is a.encouraging total bed rest for several days. b.teaching the principles of back strengthening exercises. c.stressing the importance of straight-leg raises to decrease pain. d.promoting the use of cold and hot compresses and pain medication.

d.promoting the use of cold and hot compresses and pain medication. If the acute muscle spasms and accompanying pain are not severe and debilitating, the patient may be treated on an outpatient basis with nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs; e.g., acetaminophen) and muscle relaxants (e.g., cyclobenzaprine [Flexeril]). Massage and back manipulation, acupuncture, and the application of cold and hot compresses may help some patients. Severe pain may necessitate a brief course of opioid analgesics. A brief period (1 to 2 days) of rest at home may be necessary for some people; most patients do better with a continuation of their regular activities. Prolonged bed rest should be avoided. All patients during this time should refrain from activities that aggravate the pain, including lifting, bending, twisting, and prolonged sitting.

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