Complex Care Final Exam Practice Questions

A patient experienced head trauma in a car crash. There are many steps in the pathophysiology of the progression from injury to severe increased intracranial pressure (ICP) and death. In which order do the listed events occur? (Answer with a letter followed by a comma and a space (e.g. A, B, C, D).) a. Decreased cerebral blood flow b. Increased ICP with brainstem compression c. Increased ICP from increased blood volume d. Compression of ventricles and blood vessels e. Tissue edema from initial insult

After initial insult to the brain, there is tissue edema, which causes an initial increase in ICP, then compression of ventricles and blood vessels, which decreases cerebral blood flow, thus decreasing O2 and causing death of brain cells. Edema occurs around this necrotic tissue, and ICP is increased with compression of the brainstem and respiratory center leading to accumulation of CO2. ICP is further increased from increased blood volume that leads to death.

Assessment of a patient's peripheral IV site reveals that phlebitis has developed over the past several hours. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? a. Remove the patient's IV catheter. b. Apply an ice pack to the affected area. c. Decrease the IV rate to 20 to 30 mL/hr. d. Administer prophylactic anticoagulants.

a. Remove the patient's IV catheter. The priority intervention for superficial phlebitis is removal of the offending IV catheter. Decreasing the IV rate is insufficient. Anticoagulants are not normally required, and warm, moist heat is often therapeutic.

Which person should the nurse identify as having the highest risk for abdominal aortic aneurysm? a. A 70-yr-old man with high cholesterol and hypertension b. A 40-yr-old woman with obesity and metabolic syndrome c. A 60-yr-old man with renal insufficiency who is physically inactive d. A 65-yr-old woman with hyperhomocysteinemia and substance abuse

a. A 70-yr-old man with high cholesterol and hypertension The most common etiology of descending abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) is atherosclerosis. Male gender, age 65 years or older, and tobacco use are the major risk factors for AAAs of atherosclerotic origin. Other risk factors include the presence of coronary or peripheral artery disease, high blood pressure, and high cholesterol.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a nursing diagnosis of hyperthermia related to pneumonia. What assessment data does the nurse obtain that correlates with this nursing diagnosis (select all that apply.)? a. A temperature of 101.4°F b. Heart rate of 120 beats/min c. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min d. A productive cough with yellow sputum e. Reports of unable to have a bowel movement for 2 days

a. A temperature of 101.4°F b. Heart rate of 120 beats/min d. A productive cough with yellow sputum A fever is an inflammatory response related to the infectious process. A productive cough with discolored sputum (which should be clear) is an indication that the patient has pneumonia. A respiratory rate of 20 breaths/min is within normal range. Inability to have a bowel movement is not related to a diagnosis of pneumonia. A heart rate of 120 beats/min indicates that there is increased metabolism due to the fever and is related to the diagnosis of pneumonia.

A patient with a persistent cough is diagnosed with pertussis. What treatment does the nurse anticipate administering to this patient? a. Antibiotic b. Corticosteroid c. Bronchodilator d. Cough suppressant

a. Antibiotic Pertussis, unlike acute bronchitis, is caused by a gram-negative bacillus, Bordetella pertussis, which must be treated with antibiotics. Corticosteroids and bronchodilators are not helpful in reducing symptoms. Cough suppressants and antihistamines are ineffective and may induce coughing episodes with pertussis.

During admission of a patient diagnosed with non-small cell lung carcinoma, the nurse questions the patient related to a history of which risk factors for this type of cancer (select all that apply.)? a. Asbestos exposure b. Exposure to uranium c. Chronic interstitial fibrosis d. History of cigarette smoking e. Geographic area in which he was born

a. Asbestos exposure b. Exposure to uranium d. History of cigarette smoking Non-small cell carcinoma is associated with cigarette smoking and exposure to environmental carcinogens, including asbestos and uranium. Chronic interstitial fibrosis is associated with the development of adenocarcinoma of the lung. Exposure to cancer-causing substances in the geographic area where the patient has lived for some time may be a risk but not necessarily where the patient was born.

Despite a high dosage, a male patient who is taking nifedipine (Procardia XL) for antihypertensive therapy continues to have blood pressures over 140/90 mm Hg. What should the nurse do next? a. Assess his adherence to therapy. b. Ask him to make an exercise plan. c. Instruct him to use the DASH diet. d. Request a prescription for a thiazide diuretic.

a. Assess his adherence to therapy. A long-acting calcium-channel blocker such as nifedipine causes vascular smooth muscle relaxation, resulting in decreased systemic vascular resistance and arterial blood pressure and related side effects. The patient data the nurse has about this patient is very limited, so the nurse needs to begin by assessing adherence to therapy.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment. Which finding best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance? a. Basilar crackles b. Oxygen saturation of 85% c. Presence of greenish sputum d. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min

a. Basilar crackles The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions. The rapid respiratory rate, low oxygen saturation, and presence of greenish sputum may occur with a lower respiratory problem but do not definitely support the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance.

A patient with a gunshot wound to the right side of the chest arrives in the emergency department exhibiting severe shortness of breath with decreased breath sounds on the right side of the chest. Which action should the nurse take immediately? a. Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. b. Pack the chest wound with sterile saline soaked gauze and tape securely. c. Stabilize the chest wall with tape and initiate positive pressure ventilation. d. Apply a pressure dressing over the wound to prevent excessive loss of blood.

a. Cover the chest wound with a nonporous dressing taped on three sides. The patient has a sucking chest wound (open pneumothorax). Air enters the pleural space through the chest wall during inspiration. Emergency treatment consists of covering the wound with an occlusive dressing that is secured on three sides. During inspiration, the dressing pulls against the wound, preventing air from entering the pleural space. During expiration, the dressing is pushed out and air escapes through the wound and from under the dressing.

The patient had myocarditis and is now experiencing fatigue, weakness, palpitations, and dyspnea at rest. The nurse assesses pulmonary crackles, edema, and weak peripheral pulses. Sinoatrial tachycardia is evident on the cardiac monitor. The Doppler echocardiography shows dilated cardiomyopathy. What collaborative and nursing care of this patient should be done to improve cardiac output and the quality of life (select all that apply.)? a. Decrease preload and afterload. b. Relieve left ventricular outflow obstruction. c. Control heart failure by enhancing myocardial contractility. d. Improve diastolic filling and the underlying disease process. e. Improve ventricular filling by reducing ventricular contractility.

a. Decrease preload and afterload. c. Control heart failure by enhancing myocardial contractility. The patient is experiencing dilated cardiomyopathy. To improve cardiac output and quality of life, drug, nutrition, and cardiac rehabilitation will be focused on controlling heart failure by decreasing preload and afterload and improving cardiac output, which will improve the quality of life. Relief of left ventricular outflow obstruction and improving ventricular filling by reducing ventricular contractility is done for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. There are no specific treatments for restrictive cardiomyopathy, but interventions are aimed at improving diastolic filling and the underlying disease process.

When the patient is being examined for venous thromboembolism (VTE) in the calf, what diagnostic test should the nurse expect to teach the patient about first? a. Duplex ultrasound b. Contrast venography c. Magnetic resonance venography d. Computed tomography venography

a. Duplex ultrasound The duplex ultrasound is the most widely used test to diagnose VTE. Contrast venography is rarely used now. Magnetic resonance venography is less accurate for calf veins than pelvic and proximal veins. Computed tomography venography may be used but is invasive and much more expensive than the duplex ultrasound.

Which conditions can lead to the development of a brain abscess (select all that apply.)? a. Endocarditis b. Ear infection c. Tooth abscess d. Skull fracture e. Scalp laceration f. Sinus infection

a. Endocarditis b. Ear infection c. Tooth abscess d. Skull fracture f. Sinus infection Infections in close proximity to the brain can migrate into the brain. A skull fracture impairs the protection of the brain, and infection could occur. Endocarditis can release organisms in the bloodstream that mobilize to the brain. A scalp laceration does not lead to a brain abscess.

The nurse teaches a patient with hypertension that uncontrolled hypertension may damage organs in the body primarily by which mechanism? a. Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries. b. Hypertension causes direct pressure on organs, resulting in necrosis and replacement of cells with scar tissue. c. Hypertension causes thickening of the capillary membranes, leading to hypoxia of organ systems. d. Hypertension increases blood viscosity, which contributes to intravascular coagulation and tissue necrosis distal to occlusions.

a. Hypertension promotes atherosclerosis and damage to the walls of the arteries. Hypertension is a major risk factor for the development of atherosclerosis by mechanisms not yet fully known. However, when atherosclerosis develops, it damages the walls of arteries and reduces circulation to target organs and tissues.

The nurse is caring for a patient with an alteration in airway clearance. What nursing actions would be a priority to promote airway clearance (select all that apply.)? a. Maintain adequate fluid intake. b. Maintain a 30-degree elevation. c. Splint the chest when coughing. d. Maintain a semi-Fowler's position. e. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation.

a. Maintain adequate fluid intake. c. Splint the chest when coughing. e. Instruct patient to cough at end of exhalation. Maintaining adequate fluid intake liquefies secretions, allowing easier expectoration. The nurse should instruct the patient to splint the chest while coughing. This will reduce discomfort and allow for a more effective cough. Coughing at the end of exhalation promotes a more effective cough. The patient should be positioned in an upright sitting position (high Fowler's) with head slightly flexed.

The nurse is admitting a patient with a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism. What risk factors is a priority for the nurse to assess (select all that apply.)? a. Obesity b. Pneumonia c. Malignancy d. Cigarette smoking e. Prolonged air travel

a. Obesity c. Malignancy d. Cigarette smoking e. Prolonged air travel An increased risk of pulmonary embolism is associated with obesity, malignancy, heavy cigarette smoking, and prolonged air travel with reduced mobility. Other risk factors include deep vein thrombosis, immobilization, and surgery within the previous 3 months, oral contraceptives and hormone therapy, heart failure, pregnancy, and clotting disorders.

Which patients are most at risk for developing infective endocarditis (select all that apply.)? a. Older woman with disseminated coccidioidomycosis b. Homeless man with history of intravenous drug abuse c. Patient with end-stage renal disease on peritoneal dialysis d. Man with complaints of chest pain and shortness of breath e. Adolescent with exertional palpitations and clubbing of fingers f. Female with peripheral intravenous site for medication administration

a. Older woman with disseminated coccidioidomycosis b. Homeless man with history of intravenous drug abuse c. Patient with end-stage renal disease on peritoneal dialysis Patients with systemic coccidioidomycosis (valley fever) are at risk of fungal endocarditis. Peritoneal dialysis requires strict sterile technique to prevent peritonitis. Intravenous drug abuse, especially if reusing or sharing needles are at risk of developing sepsis. In addition, risk for infection is increased in the elderly, homeless, and those with chronic illness. Chest pain, shortness of breath, and palpitations may be signs of endocarditis. Clubbing of the fingers indicates long-term hypoxia. Central venous catheters, not peripheral, increase risk to for infective endocarditis.

When caring for a patient with infective endocarditis, the nurse will assess the patient for which vascular manifestations (select all that apply.)? a. Osler's nodes b. Janeway's lesions c. Splinter hemorrhages d. Subcutaneous nodules e. Erythema marginatum lesions

a. Osler's nodes b. Janeway's lesions c. Splinter hemorrhages Osler's nodes, Janeway's lesions, and splinter hemorrhages are all vascular manifestations of infective endocarditis. Subcutaneous nodules and erythema marginatum lesions occur with rheumatic fever.

During discharge teaching for an older adult patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia, which vaccine should the nurse recommend that this patient receive? a. Pneumococcal b. Staphylococcus aureus c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Bacille-Calmette-Guérin (BCG)

a. Pneumococcal The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 years or older, or living in a long-term care facility. A Staphylococcus aureus vaccine has been researched but not yet been effective. The Haemophilus influenzae vaccine would not be recommended as adults do not need it unless they are immunocompromised. The BCG vaccine is for infants in parts of the world where tuberculosis is prevalent.

The nurse is teaching a community group about preventing rheumatic fever. What information should the nurse include? a. Prompt recognition and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis b. Avoidance of respiratory infections in children born with heart defects c. Completion of 4 to 6 weeks of antibiotic therapy for infective endocarditis d. Requesting antibiotics before dental surgery for individuals with rheumatoid arthritis

a. Prompt recognition and treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis The nurse should emphasize the need for prompt and adequate treatment of streptococcal pharyngitis infection, which can lead to the complication of rheumatic fever.

While admitting a patient with pericarditis, the nurse will assess for what manifestations of this disorder? a. Pulsus paradoxus b. Prolonged PR intervals c. Widened pulse pressure d. Clubbing of the fingers

a. Pulsus paradoxus Pericarditis can lead to cardiac tamponade, an emergency situation. Pulsus paradoxus greater than 10 mm Hg is a sign of cardiac tamponade that should be assessed at least every 4 hours in a patient with pericarditis. Prolonged PR intervals occur with first-degree AV block. Widened pulse pressure occurs with valvular heart disease and increased intracranial pressure. Clubbing of fingers may occur in subacute forms of infective endocarditis and valvular heart disease.

What medications should the nurse expect to include in the teaching plan to decrease the risk of cardiovascular events and death for PAD patients (select all that apply.)? a. Ramipril (Altace) b. Cilostazol (Pletal) c. Simvastatin (Zocor) d. Clopidogrel (Plavix) e. Warfarin (Coumadin) f. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid)

a. Ramipril (Altace) c. Simvastatin (Zocor) f. Aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (e.g., ramipril [Altace]) are used to control hypertension. Statins (e.g., simvastatin [Zocor]) are used for lipid management. Aspirin is used as an antiplatelet agent. Cilostazol (Pletal) is used for intermittent claudication, but it does not reduce CVD morbidity and mortality risks. Clopidogrel may be used if the patient cannot tolerate aspirin. Anticoagulants (e.g., warfarin [Coumadin]) are not recommended to prevent cardiovascular disease events in PAD patients.

The nurse conducts a complete physical assessment on a patient admitted with infective endocarditis. Which finding is significant? a. Regurgitant murmur at the mitral valve area b. Point of maximal impulse palpable in fourth intercostal space c. Heart rate of 94 beats/min and capillary refill time of 2 seconds d. Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min and heart rate of 90 beats/min

a. Regurgitant murmur at the mitral valve area A regurgitant murmur of the aortic or mitral valves would indicate valvular disease, which is a complication of endocarditis. All the other findings are within normal limits.

The patient has chronic venous insufficiency and a venous ulcer. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) decides to apply compression stockings because that is what patients 'always' have ordered. Which assessment finding would indicate the application of compression stockings could harm the patient? a. Rest pain b. High blood pressure c. Elevated blood sugar d. Dry, itchy, flaky skin

a. Rest pain Rest pain occurs as peripheral artery disease (PAD) progresses and involves multiple arterial segments. Compression stockings should not be used on patients with PAD. Elevated blood glucose, possibly indicating uncontrolled diabetes mellitus, and hypertension may or may not indicate arterial problems. Dry, itchy, flaky skin indicates venous insufficiency. The RN should be the one to obtain the order and instruct the UAP to apply compression stockings if they are ordered.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted for evaluation and surgical removal of a brain tumor. Which complications will the nurse monitor for (select all that apply.)? a. Seizures b. Vision loss c. Cerebral edema d. Pituitary dysfunction e. Parathyroid dysfunction f. Focal neurologic deficits

a. Seizures b. Vision loss c. Cerebral edema d. Pituitary dysfunction f. Focal neurologic deficits Brain tumors can cause a wide variety of symptoms depending on location such as seizures, vision loss, and focal neurologic deficits. Tumors can put pressure on the pituitary, leading to dysfunction of the gland. As the tumor grows, clinical manifestations of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema appear. The parathyroid gland is not regulated by the cerebral cortex or the pituitary gland.

An older adult patient living alone is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation, observed by the nurse, indicates that the patient is likely to be hypoxic? a. Sudden onset of confusion b. Oral temperature of 102.3oF c. Coarse crackles in lung bases d. Clutching chest on inspiration

a. Sudden onset of confusion Confusion or stupor (related to hypoxia) may be the only clinical manifestation of pneumonia in an older adult patient. An elevated temperature, coarse crackles, and pleuritic chest pain with guarding may occur with pneumonia, but these symptoms do not indicate hypoxia.

The patient's magnetic resonance imaging revealed the presence of a brain tumor. The nurse anticipates which treatment modality? a. Surgery b. Chemotherapy c. Radiation therapy d. Biologic drug therapy

a. Surgery Surgical removal is the preferred treatment for brain tumors. Chemotherapy and biologic drug therapy are limited by the blood-brain barrier, tumor cell heterogeneity, and tumor cell drug resistance. Radiation therapy may be used as a follow-up measure after surgery.

When caring for elderly patients with hypertension, which information should the nurse consider when planning care (select all that apply.)? a. Systolic blood pressure increases with aging. b. Blood pressures should be maintained near 120/80 mm Hg. c. White coat syndrome is prevalent in elderly patients. d. Volume depletion contributes to orthostatic hypotension. e. Blood pressure drops 1 hour postprandially in many older patients. f. Older patients will require higher doses of antihypertensive medications.

a. Systolic blood pressure increases with aging. c. White coat syndrome is prevalent in elderly patients. d. Volume depletion contributes to orthostatic hypotension. e. Blood pressure drops 1 hour postprandially in many older patients. Systolic blood pressure increases with age and patients older than age 60 years should be maintained below 150/90 mm Hg. Older patients have significantly higher blood pressure readings when taken by health care providers (white coat syndrome). Older patients experience orthostatic hypotension related to dehydration, reduced compensatory mechanisms, and medications. One hour after eating, many older patients experience a drop in blood pressure. Lower doses of medications may be needed to control blood pressures in older adults related to decreased absorption rates and excretion ability.

The nurse is admitting a 68-yr-old preoperative patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). The medication history reveals that the patient has been taking warfarin (Coumadin) on a daily basis. Based on this history and the patient's admission diagnosis, the nurse should prepare to administer which medication? a. Vitamin K b. Cobalamin c. Heparin sodium d. Protamine sulfate

a. Vitamin K Coumadin is a vitamin K antagonist anticoagulant that could cause excessive bleeding during surgery if clotting times are not corrected before surgery. For this reason, vitamin K is given as the antidote for warfarin (Coumadin).

The nurse provides discharge instructions for a 40-yr-old woman newly diagnosed with cardiomyopathy. Which statement indicates that further teaching is necessary? a. "I will avoid lifting heavy objects." b. "I can drink alcohol in moderation." c. "My family will need to take a CPR course." d. "I will reduce stress by learning guided imagery."

b. "I can drink alcohol in moderation." Patients with cardiomyopathy should avoid alcohol consumption, especially in patients with alcohol-related dilated cardiomyopathy. Avoiding heavy lifting and stress, as well as family members learning CPR, are recommended teaching points.

The nurse instructs a patient with a pulmonary embolism about administering enoxaparin after discharge. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding about the instructions? a. "I need to take this medicine with meals." b. "The medicine will be prescribed for 10 days." c. "I will inject this medicine into my upper arm." d. "The medicine will dissolve the clot in my lung."

b. "The medicine will be prescribed for 10 days." Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin that is administered for 10 to 14 days and prevents future clotting but does not dissolve existing clots. Fibrinolytic agents (e.g., tissue plasminogen activator or alteplase) dissolve an existing clot. Enoxaparin is administered subcutaneously by injection into the abdomen.

A patient with varicose veins has been prescribed compression stockings. Which nursing instruction would be most appropriate? a. "Try to keep your stockings on 24 hours a day, as much as possible." b. "While you're still lying in bed in the morning, put on your stockings." c. "Dangle your feet at your bedside for 5 minutes before putting on your stockings." d. "Your stockings will be most effective if you can remove them for a few minutes several times a day."

b. "While you're still lying in bed in the morning, put on your stockings." The patient with varicose veins should apply stockings in bed before rising in the morning. Stockings should not be worn continuously and should not be removed several times daily. Dangling at the bedside before application is likely to decrease their effectiveness.

A nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). The patient has an order to receive 30 mg enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which injection site should the nurse use to administer this medication safely? a. Buttock, upper outer quadrant b. Abdomen, anterior-lateral aspect c. Back of the arm, 2 inches away from a mole d. Anterolateral thigh, with no scar tissue nearby

b. Abdomen, anterior-lateral aspect Enoxaparin (Lovenox) is a low-molecular-weight (LMW) heparin that is given as a deep subcutaneous injection in the right and left anterolateral abdomen. All subcutaneous injections should be given away from scars, lesions, or moles.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for a 68-yr-old patient whose warfarin (Coumadin) therapy was terminated during the preoperative period. On postoperative day 2, the international normalized ratio (INR) result is 2.7. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Hold the daily dose of warfarin. b. Administer the daily dose of warfarin. c. Teach the patient signs and symptoms of bleeding. d. Call the physician to request an increased dose of warfarin.

b. Administer the daily dose of warfarin. The therapeutic range for INR is 2.0 to 3.0 for many clinical diagnoses. To maintain therapeutic values, the nurse will administer the medication as ordered. Holding the medication would lower the INR, which would increase the risk of clot formation. Conversely, the higher the INR is, the more prolonged the clotting time. Calling the health care provider is not indicated. Although teaching is important, administering the medication is a higher priority at this time.

The patient had a history of rheumatic fever and has been diagnosed with mitral valve stenosis. The patient is planning to have a biologic valve replacement. What protective mechanisms should the nurse teach the patient about using after the valve replacement? a. Long-term anticoagulation therapy b. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care c. Exercise plan to increase cardiac tolerance d. Take β-adrenergic blockers to control palpitations.

b. Antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care The patient will need to use antibiotic prophylaxis for dental care to prevent endocarditis. Long-term anticoagulation therapy is not used with biologic valve replacement unless the patient has atrial fibrillation. An exercise plan to increase cardiac tolerance is needed for a patient with heart failure. Taking β-adrenergic blockers to control palpitations is prescribed for mitral valve prolapse, not valve replacement.

A 19-yr-old woman is hospitalized for a frontal skull fracture from a blunt force head injury. Thin bloody fluid is draining from the patient's nose. What action by the nurse is most appropriate? a. Test the drainage for the presence of glucose. b. Apply a loose gauze pad under the patient's nose. c. Place the patient in a modified Trendelenburg position. d. Ask the patient to gently blow the nose to clear the drainage.

b. Apply a loose gauze pad under the patient's nose. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhea (clear or bloody drainage from the nose) may occur with a frontal skull fracture. A loose collection pad may be placed under the nose, and if thin bloody fluid is present, the blood will coalesce and a yellow halo will form if CSF is present. If clear drainage is present, testing for glucose would indicate the presence of CSF. Mixed blood and CSF will test positive for glucose because blood contains glucose. If CSF rhinorrhea occurs, the nurse should inform the physician immediately. The head of the bed may be raised to decrease the CSF pressure so that a tear can seal. The nurse should not place a dressing or tube in the nasal cavity, and the patient should not sneeze or blow the nose.

A patient with critical limb ischemia had peripheral artery bypass surgery to improve circulation. What nursing care should be provided on postoperative day 1? a. Keep patient on bed rest. b. Assist patient to walk several times. c. Have patient sit in the chair several times. d. Place patient on their side with knees flexed.

b. Assist patient to walk several times. To avoid blockage of the graft or stent, the patient should walk several times on postoperative day 1 and subsequent days. Having the patient's knees flexed for sitting in a chair or in bed increase the risk of venous thrombosis and may place stress on the suture lines.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a history of hypertension. The patient's medication history includes hydrochlorothiazide daily for the past 10 years. Which parameter would indicate the optimal intended effect of this drug therapy? a. Weight loss of 2 lb b. BP 128/86 mm Hg c. Absence of ankle edema d. Output of 600 mL per 8 hours

b. BP 128/86 mm Hg Hydrochlorothiazide may be used alone as monotherapy to manage hypertension or in combination with other medications if not effective alone. After the first few weeks of therapy, the diuretic effect diminishes, but the antihypertensive effect remains. Because the patient has been taking this medication for 10 years, the most direct measurement of its intended effect would be the blood pressure.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with a subdural hematoma after a motor vehicle accident. What change in vital signs would the nurse interpret as a manifestation of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)? a. Tachypnea b. Bradycardia c. Hypotension d. Narrowing pulse pressure

b. Bradycardia Bradycardia could indicate increased ICP. Changes in vital signs (known as Cushing's triad) occur with increased ICP. They consist of increasing systolic pressure with a widening pulse pressure, bradycardia with a full and bounding pulse, and irregular respirations.

The nurse admits a 73-yr-old male patient with dementia for treatment of uncontrolled hypertension. The nurse will closely monitor for hypokalemia if the patient receives which medication? a. Clonidine (Catapres) b. Bumetanide (Bumex) c. Amiloride (Midamor) d. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

b. Bumetanide (Bumex) Bumetanide is a loop diuretic. Hypokalemia is a common adverse effect of this medication. Amiloride is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone is an aldosterone-receptor blocker. Hyperkalemia is an adverse effect of both amiloride and spironolactone. Clonidine is a central-acting α-adrenergic antagonist and does not cause electrolyte abnormalities.

Which assessment findings of the left lower extremity will the nurse identify as consistent with arterial occlusion (select all that apply.)? a. Edematous b. Cold and mottled c. Complaints of paresthesia d. Pulse not palpable with Doppler e. Capillary refill less than three seconds f. Erythema and warmer than right lower extremity

b. Cold and mottled c. Complaints of paresthesia d. Pulse not palpable with Doppler Arterial occlusion may result in loss of limb if not timely revascularized. When an artery is occluded, perfusion to the extremity is impaired or absent. On assessment, the nurse would note a cold, mottled extremity with impaired sensation or numbness. The pulse would not be identified, even with a Doppler. In contrast, the nurse would find edema, erythema, and increased warmth in the presence of a venous occlusion (deep vein thrombosis). Capillary refill would be greater than 3 seconds in an arterial occlusion and less than 3 seconds with a venous occlusion.

The nurse supervises an unlicensed assistant personnel (UAP) who is taking the blood pressure of 58-yr-old obese female patient admitted with heart failure. Which action by the UAP will require the nurse to intervene? a. Waiting 2 minutes after position changes to take orthostatic pressures b. Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg per second c. Taking the blood pressure with the patient's arm at the level of the heart d. Taking a forearm blood pressure because the largest cuff will not fit the patient's upper arm

b. Deflating the blood pressure cuff at a rate of 8 to 10 mm Hg per second The cuff should be deflated at a rate of 2 to 3 mm Hg per second. The arm should be supported at the level of the heart for accurate blood pressure measurements. Using a cuff that is too small causes a falsely high reading and too large causes a falsely low reading. If the maximum size blood pressure cuff does not fit the upper arm, the forearm may be used. Orthostatic blood pressures should be taken within 1 to 2 minutes of repositioning the patient.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with a head injury who requires frequent neurologic assessment. Which components are assessed using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) (select all that apply.)? a. Judgment b. Eye opening c. Abstract reasoning d. Best verbal response e. Best motor response f. Cranial nerve function

b. Eye opening d. Best verbal response e. Best motor response The three dimensions of the GCS are eye opening, best verbal response, and best motor response. Judgment, abstract reasoning, and cranial nerve function are not components of the GCS.

A 73-yr-old man with dementia has a venous ulcer related to chronic venous insufficiency. The nurse should provide teaching on which type of diet for this patient and his caregiver? a. Low-fat diet b. High-protein diet c. Calorie-restricted diet d. High-carbohydrate diet

b. High-protein diet A patient with a venous ulcer should have a balanced diet with adequate protein, calories, and micronutrients; this type of diet is essential for healing. Nutrients most important for healing include protein, vitamins A and C, and zinc. Foods high in protein (e.g., meat, beans, cheese, tofu), vitamin A (green leafy vegetables), vitamin C (citrus fruits, tomatoes, cantaloupe), and zinc (meat, seafood) must be provided. Restricting fat or calories is not helpful for wound healing or in patients of normal weight. For overweight individuals with no active venous ulcer, a weight-loss diet should be considered.

The nurse is caring for a patient with a recent history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) who is scheduled for an emergency appendectomy. Vitamin K is ordered for immediate administration. The international normalized ratio (INR) value is 1.0. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Administer the medication as ordered. b. Hold the medication and record in the electronic medical record. c. Hold the medication until the lab result is repeated to verify results. d. Administer the medication and seek an increased dose from the health care provider.

b. Hold the medication and record in the electronic medical record. Vitamin K is the antidote to warfarin (Coumadin), which the patient has most likely been taking before admission for treatment of DVT. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that impairs the ability of the blood to clot. Therefore, it may be necessary to give vitamin K before surgery to reduce the risk of hemorrhage. However, the INR value is normal, and vitamin K is not required, so the medication would be held and recorded in the electronic medical record.

The nurse is caring for a newly admitted patient with vascular insufficiency. The patient has a new order for enoxaparin (Lovenox) 30 mg subcutaneously. What should the nurse do to correctly administer this medication? a. Spread the skin before inserting the needle. b. Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. c. Use the back of the arm as the preferred site. d. Sit the patient at a 30-degree angle before administration.

b. Leave the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. The nurse should not expel the air bubble from the prefilled syringe because it should be injected to clear the needle of medication and avoid leaving medication in the needle track in the tissue.

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient with metastatic lung cancer and a 60-pack-year history of cigarette smoking. For what should the nurse monitor this patient? a. Cough reflex b. Mucociliary clearance c. Reflex bronchoconstriction d. Ability to filter particles from the air

b. Mucociliary clearance Smoking decreases the ciliary action in the tracheobronchial tree, resulting in impaired clearance of respiratory secretions and particles, chronic cough, and frequent respiratory infections.

Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that a postoperative patient is not receiving the beneficial effects of enoxaparin (Lovenox)? a. Crackles bilaterally in the lung bases b. Pain and swelling in a lower extremity c. Absence of arterial pulse in a lower extremity d. Abdominal pain with decreased bowel sounds

b. Pain and swelling in a lower extremity Enoxaparin is a low-molecular-weight heparin used to prevent the development of deep vein thromboses (DVTs) in the postoperative period. Pain and swelling in a lower extremity can indicate development of DVT and therefore may signal ineffective medication therapy.

A patient was just diagnosed with acute arterial ischemia in the left leg secondary to atrial fibrillation. Which early clinical manifestation must be reported to the physician immediately to save the patient's limb? a. Paralysis b. Paresthesia c. Cramping d. Referred pain

b. Paresthesia The physician must be notified immediately if any of the six Ps of acute arterial ischemia occur to prevent ischemia from quickly progressing to tissue necrosis and gangrene. The six Ps are paresthesia, pain, pallor, pulselessness, and poikilothermia, with paralysis being a very late sign indicating the death of nerves to the extremity. Crampy leg sensation is more common with varicose veins. The pain is not referred.

A 67-yr-old man with peripheral artery disease is seen in the primary care clinic. Which symptom reported by the patient would indicate to the nurse that the patient is experiencing intermittent claudication? a. Patient complains of chest pain with strenuous activity. b. Patient says muscle leg pain occurs with continued exercise. c. Patient has numbness and tingling of all his toes and both feet. d. Patient states the feet become red if he puts them in a dependent position.

b. Patient says muscle leg pain occurs with continued exercise. Intermittent claudication is an ischemic muscle ache or pain that is precipitated by a consistent level of exercise, resolves within 10 minutes or less with rest, and is reproducible. Angina is the term used to describe chest pain with exertion. Paresthesia is the term used to describe numbness or tingling in the toes or feet. Reactive hyperemia is the term used to describe redness of the foot; if the limb is in a dependent position the term is dependent rubor.

The nurse is caring for a patient with hypertension who is scheduled to receive a dose of metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should withhold the dose and consult the prescribing physician for which vital sign taken just before administration? a. O2 saturation 93% b. Pulse 48 beats/min c. Respirations 24 breaths/min d. Blood pressure 118/74 mm Hg

b. Pulse 48 beats/min Because metoprolol is a β1-adrenergic blocking agent, it can cause hypotension and bradycardia as adverse effects. The nurse should withhold the dose and consult with the health care provider for parameters regarding pulse rate limits.

When teaching a patient about dietary management of stage 1 hypertension, which instruction is most appropriate? a. Increase water intake. b. Restrict sodium intake. c. Increase protein intake. d. Use calcium supplements.

b. Restrict sodium intake. The patient should decrease intake of sodium. This will help to control hypertension, which can be aggravated by excessive salt intake, which in turn leads to fluid retention. Protein intake does not affect hypertension. Calcium supplements are not recommended to lower blood pressure.

When providing dietary instruction to a patient with hypertension, the nurse would advise the patient to restrict intake of which meat? a. Broiled fish b. Roasted duck c. Roasted turkey d. Baked chicken breast

b. Roasted duck Roasted duck is high in fat, which should be avoided by the patient with hypertension. Weight loss may slow the progress of atherosclerosis and overall cardiovascular disease risk. The other meats are lower in fat and are therefore acceptable in the diet.

In caring for a patient admitted with poorly controlled hypertension, which laboratory test result should the nurse understand as indicating the presence of target organ damage? a. Serum uric acid of 3.8 mg/dL b. Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL c. Serum potassium of 3.5 mEq/L b. Blood urea nitrogen of 15 mg/dL

b. Serum creatinine of 2.6 mg/dL The normal serum creatinine level is 0.6 to 1.3 mg/dL. This elevated level indicates target organ damage to the kidneys. The other laboratory results are within normal limits.

A 62-yr-old Hispanic male patient with diabetes mellitus has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD). The patient is a smoker with a history of gout. To prevent complications, which factor is priority in patient teaching? a. Gender b. Smoking c. Ethnicity d. Comorbidities

b. Smoking Smoking is the most significant factor for this patient. PAD is a marker of advanced systemic atherosclerosis. Therefore, tobacco cessation is essential to reduce PAD progression, CVD events, and mortality. Diabetes mellitus and hyperuricemia are also risk factors. Being male or Hispanic are not risk factors for PAD.

After admitting a patient from home to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia, which physician orders will the nurse verify have been completed before administering a dose of cefuroxime to the patient? a. Orthostatic blood pressures b. Sputum culture and sensitivity c. Pulmonary function evaluation d. Serum laboratory studies ordered for AM

b. Sputum culture and sensitivity The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering the cefuroxime because this is community-acquired pneumonia. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before the antibiotic takes effect. The test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, orthostatic blood pressures, pulmonary function evaluation, and serum laboratory tests will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics.

The patient had aortic aneurysm repair 6 hours ago. What priority nursing action will maintain graft patency? a. Assess output for renal dysfunction. b. Use IV fluids to maintain adequate BP. c. Use oral antihypertensives to maintain cardiac output. d. Maintain a low BP to prevent pressure on surgical site.

b. Use IV fluids to maintain adequate BP. The priority is to maintain an adequate blood pressure (BP) (determined by the surgeon) to maintain graft patency. A prolonged low BP may result in graft thrombosis, and hypertension may cause undue stress on arterial anastomoses resulting in leakage of blood or rupture at the suture lines, which is when IV antihypertensives may be used. Renal output will be assessed when the aneurysm repair is above the renal arteries to assess graft patency, not maintain it.

A 68-yr-old man with suspected bacterial meningitis just had a lumbar puncture in which cerebrospinal fluid was obtained for culture. Which medication should the nurse administer first? a. Codeine b. Phenytoin (Dilantin) c. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) d. Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

c. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency. When meningitis is suspected, antibiotic therapy (e.g., ceftriaxone) is instituted immediately after the collection of specimens for cultures and even before the diagnosis is confirmed. Dexamethasone may also be prescribed before or with the first dose of antibiotics. The nurse should collaborate with the health care provider to manage the headache (with codeine), fever (with acetaminophen), and seizures (with phenytoin).

The nurse teaches a 28-yr-old man newly diagnosed with hypertension about lifestyle modifications to reduce his blood pressure. Which patient statement requires reinforcement of teaching? a. "I will avoid adding salt to my food during or after cooking." b. "If I lose weight, I might not need to continue taking medications." c. "I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco." d. "Diet changes can be as effective as taking blood pressure medications."

c. "I can lower my blood pressure by switching to smokeless tobacco." Nicotine contained in tobacco products (smoking and chew) cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Persons with hypertension should restrict sodium to 1500 mg/day by avoiding foods high in sodium and not adding salt in preparation of food or at meals. Weight loss can decrease blood pressure between 5 to 20 mm Hg. Following dietary recommendations (e.g., the DASH diet) lowers blood pressure, and these decreases compare with those achieved with blood pressure-lowering medication.

The nurse is teaching the patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) about the diagnosis of Candida albicans. What statement made by the patient indicates to the nurse that further teaching is required? a. "I will be given amphotericin B to treat the fungus." b. "I got this fungus because I am immunocompromised." c. "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." d. "The effectiveness of my therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers."

c. "I need to be isolated from my family and friends so they won't get it." The patient with an opportunistic fungal infection does not need to be isolated because it is not transmitted from person to person. This immunocompromised patient will be likely to have a serious infection so it will be treated with IV amphotericin B. The effectiveness of the therapy can be monitored with fungal serology titers.

A postoperative patient asks the nurse why the physician ordered daily administration of enoxaparin (Lovenox). Which reply by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "This medication will help prevent breathing problems after surgery, such as pneumonia." b. "This medication will help lower your blood pressure to a safer level, which is very important after surgery." c. "This medication will help prevent blood clots from forming in your legs until your level of activity, such as walking, returns to normal." d. "This medication is a narcotic pain medication that will help take away any muscle aches caused by positioning on the operating room table."

c. "This medication will help prevent blood clots from forming in your legs until your level of activity, such as walking, returns to normal." Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent DVTs postoperatively. All other options do not describe the action or purpose of enoxaparin.

A 25-yr-old patient with a group A streptococcal pharyngitis does not want to take the antibiotics prescribed. What should the nurse tell the patient to encourage the patient to take the medications and avoid complications of the infection? a. "The complications of this infection will affect the skin, hair, and balance." b. "You will not feel well if you do not take the medicine and get over this infection." c. "Without treatment, you could get rheumatic fever, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease." d. "You may not want to take the antibiotics for this infection, but you will be sorry if you do not."

c. "Without treatment, you could get rheumatic fever, which can lead to rheumatic heart disease." Rheumatic fever (RF) is not common because of effective use of antibiotics to treat streptococcal infections. Without treatment, RF can occur and lead to rheumatic heart disease, especially in young adults. The complications do not include hair or balance. Saying that the patient will not feel well or that the patient will be sorry if the antibiotics are not taken is threatening to the patient and inappropriate for the nurse to say.

The nurse is caring for a group of patients. Which patient is at risk of aspiration? a. A 58-yr-old patient with absent bowel sounds 12 hours after abdominal surgery b. A 67-yr-old patient who had a cerebrovascular accident with expressive dysphasia c. A 26-yr-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube d. A 92-yr-old patient with viral pneumonia and coarse crackles throughout the lung fields

c. A 26-yr-old patient with continuous enteral tube feedings through a nasogastric tube Conditions that increase the risk of aspiration include decreased level of consciousness, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and nasogastric intubation with or without tube feeding. With loss of consciousness, the gag and cough reflexes are depressed, and aspiration is more likely to occur. Dysphasia is difficulty with speech. Absent bowel sounds and coarse crackles do not increase the risk for aspiration.

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), angina, and hypertension. Before administering the prescribed daily dose of atenolol 100 mg PO, the nurse assesses the patient carefully. Which adverse effect is this patient at risk for given the patient's health history? a. Hypocapnia b. Tachycardia c. Bronchospasm d. Nausea and vomiting

c. Bronchospasm Atenolol is a cardioselective β1-adrenergic blocker that reduces blood pressure and could affect the β2-receptors in the lungs with larger doses or with drug accumulation. Although the risk of bronchospasm is less with cardioselective β-blockers than nonselective β-blockers, atenolol should be used cautiously in patients with COPD.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and digoxin (Lanoxin) as treatment for atrial fibrillation. Because the warfarin has been discontinued before surgery, the nurse should diligently assess the patient for which complication early in the postoperative period until the medication is resumed? a. Decreased cardiac output b. Increased blood pressure c. Cerebral or pulmonary emboli d. Excessive bleeding from incision or IV sites

c. Cerebral or pulmonary emboli Warfarin is an anticoagulant that is used to prevent thrombi from forming on the walls of the atria during atrial fibrillation. When the medication is terminated, thrombi could again form. If one or more thrombi detach from the atrial wall, they could travel as cerebral emboli from the left atrium or pulmonary emboli from the right atrium.

One week after a thoracotomy, a patient with chest tubes (CTs) to water-seal drainage has an air leak into the closed chest drainage system (CDS). Which patient assessment warrants follow-up nursing actions? a. Water-seal chamber has 5 cm of water. b. No new drainage in collection chamber c. Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing d. Small pneumothorax at CT insertion site

c. Chest tube with a loose-fitting dressing If the dressing at the CT insertion site is loose, an air leak will occur and will need to be sealed. The water-seal chamber usually has 2 cm of water, but having more water will not contribute to an air leak, and it should not be drained from the CDS. No new drainage does not indicate an air leak but may indicate the CT is no longer needed. If there is a pneumothorax, the chest tube should remove the air.

A patient with a history of chronic hypertension is being evaluated in the emergency department for a blood pressure of 200/140 mm Hg. Which patient assessment question is the priority? a. Is the patient pregnant? b. Does the patient need to urinate? c. Does the patient have a headache or confusion? d. Is the patient taking antiseizure medications as prescribed?

c. Does the patient have a headache or confusion? The nurse's priority assessments include neurologic deficits, retinal damage, heart failure, pulmonary edema, and renal failure. The headache or confusion could be seen with hypertensive encephalopathy from increased cerebral capillary permeability leading to cerebral edema. In addition, headache or confusion could represent signs and symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke. Pregnancy can lead to secondary hypertension. Needing to urinate and taking antiseizure medication do not support a hypertensive emergency.

A patient has a systemic blood pressure of 120/60 mm Hg and an ICP of 24 mm Hg. After calculating the patient's cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP), how does the nurse interpret the results? a. High blood flow to the brain b. Normal intracranial pressure c. Impaired blood flow to the brain d. Adequate autoregulation of blood flow

c. Impaired blood flow to the brain Normal CPP is 60 to 100 mm Hg. The CPP is calculated with mean arterial pressure (MAP) minus ICP. MAP = SBP + 2 (DBP)/ 3: 120 mm Hg + 2 (60 mm Hg)/3 = 80 mm Hg. MAP - ICP: 80 mm Hg - 24 mm Hg = 56 mm Hg CPP. The decreased CPP indicates that there is impaired cerebral blood flow and that autoregulation is impaired. Because the ICP is 24 mm Hg, treatment is required.

A 32-yr-old woman is prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) for Raynaud's phenomenon. To evaluate the effectiveness of the medication, which assessment will the nurse perform? a. Improved skin turgor b. Decreased cardiac rate c. Improved finger perfusion d. Decreased mean arterial pressure

c. Improved finger perfusion Raynaud's phenomenon is an episodic vasospastic disorder of small cutaneous arteries, most frequently involving the fingers and toes. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is a calcium channel blocker that relaxes smooth muscles of the arterioles by blocking the influx of calcium into the cells, thus reducing the frequency and severity of vasospastic attacks. Perfusion to the fingertips is improved, and vasospastic attacks are reduced. Diltiazem may decrease heart rate and blood pressure, but that is not the purpose in Raynaud's phenomenon. Skin turgor is most often a reflection of hydration status.

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient admitted with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to find? a. Hyperresonance on percussion b. Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes c. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation d. Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation

c. Increased vocal fremitus on palpation A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased vocal fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include bronchial breath sounds, egophony, and crackles in the affected area. With pleural effusion, there may be dullness to percussion over the affected area.

When teaching how lisinopril (Zestril) will help lower the patient's blood pressure, which mechanism of action should the nurse explain? a. Blocks β-adrenergic effects b. Relaxes arterial and venous smooth muscle c. Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II d. Reduces sympathetic outflow from central nervous system

c. Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II Lisinopril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor that inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which reduces angiotensin II-mediated vasoconstriction and sodium and water retention. β blockers result in vasodilation and decreased heart rate. Direct vasodilators relax arterial and venous smooth muscle. Central acting α-adrenergic antagonists reduce sympathetic outflow from the central nervous system to produce vasodilation and decreased systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.

The nurse is teaching a women's group about prevention of hypertension. What information should be included in the teaching for all the women (select all that apply.)? a. Lose weight. b. Limit nuts and seeds. c. Limit sodium and fat intake. d. Increase fruits and vegetables. e. Exercise 30 minutes most days.

c. Limit sodium and fat intake. d. Increase fruits and vegetables. e. Exercise 30 minutes most days. Primary prevention of hypertension is to make lifestyle modifications that prevent or delay the increase in BP. Along with exercise for 30 minutes on most days, the DASH eating plan is a healthy way to lower BP by limiting sodium and fat intake, increasing fruits and vegetables, and increasing nutrients that are associated with lowering BP. Nuts and seeds and dried beans are used for protein intake. Weight loss may or may not be necessary for the individual.

A 72-yr-old man with a history of aortic stenosis is admitted to the emergency department. He reports severe left-sided chest pressure radiating to the jaw. Which medication, if ordered by the health care provider, should the nurse question? a. Aspirin b. Oxygen c. Nitroglycerin d. Morphine sulfate

c. Nitroglycerin Aspirin, oxygen, nitroglycerin, and morphine sulfate are all commonly used to treat acute chest pain suspected to be caused by myocardial ischemia. However, nitroglycerin should be used cautiously or avoided in patients with aortic stenosis as a significant reduction in blood pressure may occur. Chest pain can worsen because of a drop in blood pressure.

While ambulating a patient with metastatic lung cancer, the nurse observes a drop in oxygen saturation from 93% to 86%. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Continue with ambulation. b. Obtain a physician's order for arterial blood gas. c. Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen. d. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe

c. Obtain a physician's order for supplemental oxygen. An oxygen saturation level that drops below 90% with activity indicates that the patient is not tolerating the exercise and needs to use supplemental oxygen. The patient will need to rest to resaturate. ABGs or moving the probe will not be needed as the pulse oximeter was working at the beginning of the walk.

The nurse is caring for a patient with pneumonia unresponsive to two different antibiotics. Which action is most important for the nurse to complete before administering a newly prescribed antibiotic? a. Teach the patient to cough and deep breathe. b. Take the temperature, pulse, and respiratory rate. c. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. d. Check the patient's oxygen saturation by pulse oximetry.

c. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain. A sputum specimen for culture and Gram stain to identify the organism should be obtained before beginning antibiotic therapy. However, antibiotic administration should not be delayed if a specimen cannot be readily obtained because delays in antibiotic therapy can increase morbidity and mortality risks.

A patient is diagnosed with a lung abscess. What should the nurse include when teaching the patient about this diagnosis? a. Lobectomy surgery is usually needed to drain the abscess. b. IV antibiotic therapy will be used for a 6-month period of time. c. Oral antibiotics will be used until there is evidence of improvement. d. Culture and sensitivity tests are needed for 1 year after resolving the abscess

c. Oral antibiotics will be used until there is evidence of improvement. IV antibiotics are used until the patient and radiographs show evidence of improvement. Then oral antibiotics are used for a prolonged period of time. Culture and sensitivity testing is done during the course of antibiotic therapy to ensure that the infecting organism is not becoming resistant to the antibiotic as well as at the completion of the antibiotic therapy. Lobectomy surgery is only needed when reinfection of a large cavitary lesion occurs or to establish a diagnosis when there is evidence of a neoplasm or other underlying problem.

The nurse is caring for a patient with unilateral malignant lung disease. What is the priority nursing action to enhance oxygenation in this patient? a. Positioning patient on right side b. Maintaining adequate fluid intake c. Positioning patient with "good lung" down d. Performing postural drainage every 4 hours

c. Positioning patient with "good lung" down Therapeutic positioning identifies the best position for the patient, thus assuring stable oxygenation status. Research indicates that positioning the patient with the unaffected lung (good lung) dependent best promotes oxygenation in patients with unilateral lung disease. For bilateral lung disease, the right lung down has best ventilation and perfusion. Increasing fluid intake and performing postural drainage will facilitate airway clearance, but positioning is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation.

The nurse is caring for a preoperative patient who has an order for vitamin K by subcutaneous injection. The nurse should verify that which laboratory study is abnormal before administering the dose? a. Hematocrit (Hct) b. Hemoglobin (Hgb) c. Prothrombin time (PT) d. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

c. Prothrombin time (PT) Vitamin K counteracts hypoprothrombinemia and/or reverses the effects of warfarin (Coumadin) and thus decreases the risk of bleeding. High values for either the PT or the international normalized ratio demonstrate the need for this medication.

The UAP is taking orthostatic vital signs. In the supine position, the blood pressure (BP) is 130/80 mm Hg, and the heart rate (HR) is 80 beats/min. In the sitting position, the BP is 140/80, and the HR is 90 beats/min. Which action should the nurse instruct the UAP to take next? a. Repeat BP and HR in this position. b. Record the BP and HR measurements. c. Take BP and HR with patient standing. d. Return the patient to the supine position

c. Take BP and HR with patient standing. The vital signs taken do not reflect orthostatic changes, so the UAP will continue with the measurements while the patient is standing. There is no need to repeat or delay the readings. The patient does not need to return to the supine positon. When assessing for orthostatic changes, the UAP will take the BP and pulse in the supine position, then place the patient in a sitting position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings, and then reposition to the standing position for 1 to 2 minutes and repeat the readings. Results consistent with orthostatic changes would have a decrease of 20 mm Hg or more in systolic BP, a decrease of 10 mm Hg or more in diastolic BP, and/or an increase in HR of greater than or equal to 20 beats/min with position changes.

In planning long-term care for a patient after craniotomy, what must the nurse include in family and caregiver education? a. Seizure disorders may occur in weeks or months. b. The family will be unable to cope with role reversals. c. There are often residual changes in personality and cognition. d. Referrals will be made to eliminate residual deficits from the damage.

c. There are often residual changes in personality and cognition. In long-term care planning, the nurse must include the family and caregiver when teaching about potential residual changes in personality, emotions, and cognition as these changes are most difficult for the patient and family to accept. Seizures may or may not develop. The family and patient may or may not be able to cope with role reversals. Although residual deficits will not be eliminated with referrals, they may be improved.

A 55-yr-old female patient develops acute pericarditis after a myocardial infarction. Which assessment finding indicates a possible complication? a. Presence of a pericardial friction rub b. Distant and muffled apical heart sounds c. Increased chest pain with deep breathing d. Decreased blood pressure with tachycardia

d. Decreased blood pressure with tachycardia Cardiac tamponade is a serious complication of acute pericarditis. Signs and symptoms include narrowed pulse pressure, tachypnea, tachycardia, a decreased cardiac output, and decreased blood pressure. The other symptoms are consistent with acute pericarditis.

The nurse evaluates that discharge teaching for a patient hospitalized with pneumonia has been effective when the patient makes which statement about measures to prevent a relapse? a. "I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections." b. "I should continue to do deep breathing and coughing exercises for at least 12 weeks." c. "I will increase my food intake to 2400 calories a day to keep my immune system well." d. "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution."

d. "I must have a follow-up chest x-ray in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate the pneumonia's resolution." The follow-up chest x-ray examination will be done in 6 to 8 weeks to evaluate pneumonia resolution. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. It may be important for the patient to continue with coughing and deep breathing exercises for 6 to 8 weeks, not 12 weeks, until all of the infection has cleared from the lungs. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions.

A 44-yr-old man is diagnosed with hypertension and receives a prescription for benazepril (Lotensin). After providing instruction, which statement by the patient indicates correct understanding? a. "If I take this medication, I will not need to follow a special diet." b. "It is normal to have some swelling in my face while taking this medication." c. "I will need to eat foods such as bananas and potatoes that are high in potassium." d. "If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor."

d. "If I develop a dry cough while taking this medication, I should notify my doctor." Benazepril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. The medication inhibits breakdown of bradykinin, which may cause a dry, hacking cough. Other adverse effects include hyperkalemia. Swelling in the face could indicate angioedema and should be reported immediately to the prescriber. Patients taking drug therapy for hypertension should also attempt lifestyle modifications to lower blood pressure such as a reduced-sodium diet.

A 39-yr-old woman with a history of smoking and oral contraceptive use is admitted with a venous thromboembolism (VTE) and prescribed unfractionated heparin. What laboratory test should the nurse review to evaluate the expected effect of the heparin? a. Platelet count b. Activated clotting time (ACT) c. International normalized ratio (INR) d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

d. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) Unfractionated heparin can be given by continuous IV for VTE treatment. When given IV, heparin requires frequent laboratory monitoring of clotting status as measured by activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts can decrease as an adverse reaction to heparin.

A patient was admitted for possible ruptured aortic aneurysm. No back pain was reported. Ten minutes later, the nurse notes sinus tachycardia 138 beats/min, blood pressure is palpable at 65 mm Hg, increasing waist circumference, and no urine output. How should the nurse interpret the findings? a. Tamponade will soon occur. b. The renal arteries are involved. c. Perfusion to the legs is impaired. d. Bleeding into the abdomen is likely.

d. Bleeding into the abdomen is likely. The lack of back pain indicates the patient is most likely exsanguinating into the abdominal space, and the bleeding is likely to continue without surgical repair. A blockade of the blood flow will not occur in the abdominal space as it would in the retroperitoneal space, where surrounding anatomic structures may control the bleeding. The lack of urine output does not indicate renal artery involvement but that the bleeding is occurring above the renal arteries, which decreases the blood flow to the kidneys. There are no assessment data indicating decreased perfusion to the legs.

A patient with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis had bilateral lung transplantation and is now experiencing exertional dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and wheezing. What does the nurse determine is most likely occurring in this patient? a. Pulmonary infarction b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) d. Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS)

d. Bronchiolitis obliterans (BOS) BOS is a manifestation of chronic rejection and is characterized by airflow obstruction progressing over time with a gradual onset of exertional dyspnea, nonproductive cough, wheezing, and/or low-grade fever. Pulmonary infarction occurs with lack of blood flow to the bronchial tissue or preexisting lung disease. With pulmonary hypertension, the pulmonary pressures are elevated and can be idiopathic or secondarily due to parenchymal lung disease that causes anatomic or vascular changes leading to pulmonary hypertension. CMV pneumonia is the most common opportunistic infection 1 to 4 months after lung transplant.

On admission to the emergency department, a patient with cardiomyopathy has an ejection fraction of 10%. On assessment, the nurse notes bilateral crackles and shortness of breath. Which additional assessment finding would most indicate patient decline? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased blood pressure c. Decreased respiratory rate d. Decreased level of consciousness

d. Decreased level of consciousness Decreased level of consciousness indicates a lack of perfusion, hypoxia, or both. A patient with an ejection fraction of 10% indicates very low cardiac output. Bilateral crackles and shortness of breath are consistent with decompensating heart failure. The nurse would expect an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate in response to the low ejection fraction. When blood pressure drops, the nurse would be aware of potential shock.

The nurse is caring for a patient with ineffective airway clearance. What is the priority nursing action to assist this patient expectorate thick lung secretions? a. Humidify the oxygen as able. b. Administer cough suppressant q4hr. c. Teach patient to splint the affected area. d. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated.

d. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated. Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful in decreasing discomfort but does not assist in expectoration of thick secretions.

The patient had video-assisted thoracic surgery (VATS) to perform a lobectomy. What does the nurse know is the reason for using this type of surgery? a. The patient has lung cancer. b. The incision will be medial sternal or lateral. c. Chest tubes will not be needed postoperatively. d. Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity

d. Less discomfort and faster return to normal activity The VATS procedure uses minimally invasive incisions that cause less discomfort and allow faster healing and return to normal activity as well as lower morbidity risk and fewer complications. Many surgeries can be done for lung cancer, but pneumonectomy via thoracotomy is the most common surgery for lung cancer. The incision for a thoracotomy is commonly a medial sternotomy or a lateral approach. A chest tube will be needed postoperatively for VATS.

A patient sustained a diffuse axonal injury from a traumatic brain injury (TBI). Why are IV fluids being decreased and enteral feedings started? a. Free water should be avoided. b. Sodium restrictions can be managed. c. Dehydration can be better avoided with feedings. d. Malnutrition promotes continued cerebral edema.

d. Malnutrition promotes continued cerebral edema. A patient with diffuse axonal injury is unconscious and, with increased intracranial pressure, is in a hypermetabolic, hypercatabolic state that increases the need for energy to heal. Malnutrition promotes continued cerebral edema, and early feeding may improve outcomes when begun within 3 days after injury. Fluid and electrolytes will be monitored to maintain balance with the enteral feedings. Excess intravenous fluid administration will also increase cerebral edema.

The patient with pericarditis is complaining of chest pain. After assessment, which intervention should the nurse expect to implement to provide pain relief? a. Corticosteroids b. Morphine sulfate c. Proton pump inhibitor d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs

d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) control pain and inflammation. Corticosteroids are reserved for patients already taking corticosteroids for autoimmune conditions and those who do not respond to NSAIDs. Morphine is not necessary. Proton pump inhibitors are used to decrease stomach acid to avoid the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding from the NSAIDs.

An 80-yr-old patient with uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus is diagnosed with aortic stenosis. When conservative therapy is no longer effective, the nurse knows that the patient will need to do or have what done? a. Aortic valve replacement b. Take nitroglycerin for chest pain. c. Open commissurotomy (valvulotomy) procedure d. Percutaneous transluminal balloon valvuloplasty (PTBV) procedure

d. Percutaneous transluminal balloon valvuloplasty (PTBV) procedure The PTBV procedure is best for this older adult patient who is a poor surgery candidate related to the uncontrolled type 1 diabetes mellitus. Aortic valve replacement would probably not be tolerated well by this patient, although it may be done if the PTBV fails and the diabetes is controlled in the future. Nitroglycerin is used cautiously for chest pain because it can reduce blood pressure and worsen chest pain in patients with aortic stenosis. Open commissurotomy procedure is used for mitral stenosis.

An older adult patient is admitted with acute respiratory distress related to cor pulmonale. Which nursing action is most appropriate during admission of this patient? a. Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to review prior respiratory problems. b. Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions. c. Delay any physical assessment of the patient and review with the family the patient's history of respiratory problems. d. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.

d. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress. Because the patient is having respiratory difficulty, the nurse should ask specific questions about this episode and perform a physical assessment of this system. Further history taking and physical examination of other body systems can proceed when the patient's acute respiratory distress is being managed.

The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enoxaparin (Lovenox) 30 mg subcutaneously. What should the nurse do to administer this medication correctly? a. Remove the air bubble in the prefilled syringe. b. Aspirate before injection to prevent IV administration. c. Rub the injection site after administration to enhance absorption. d. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger before inserting the needle.

d. Pinch the skin between the thumb and forefinger before inserting the needle. The nurse should gather together or "bunch up" the skin between the thumb and the forefinger before inserting the needle into the subcutaneous tissue. The nurse should not remove the air bubble in the prefilled syringe, aspirate, nor rub the site after injection.

The nurse is caring for a patient who received a mechanical aortic valve replacement two years ago. Current lab values include an international normalized ratio (INR) of 1.5, platelet count of 150,000/μL, and hemoglobin of 8.6g/dL. Which nursing action is most appropriate? a. Assess the vital signs. b. Start intravenous fluids. c. Monitor for signs of bleeding. d. Report laboratory values to the health care provider.

d. Report laboratory values to the health care provider. Patients with mechanical valve replacement are placed on anticoagulants and should be in a therapeutic INR range of 2.5 to 3.5. Administration of Coumadin (Warfarin) prolongs clotting time and prevents clot formation on the valve. The low INR would require a call to the healthcare provider for an order increase the medication dose. Vital signs would be unchanged related to the low INR. Intravenous fluids are not indicated. The patient is at risk of forming clots, not bleeding.

The nurse assesses a patient for signs of meningeal irritation. Which finding indicates nuchal rigidity is present? a. Tonic spasms of the legs b. Curling in a fetal position c. Arching of the neck and back d. Resistance to flexion of the neck

d. Resistance to flexion of the neck Nuchal rigidity is a clinical manifestation of meningitis. During assessment, the patient will resist passive flexion of the neck by the health care provider. Tonic spasms of the legs, curling in a fetal position, and arching of the neck and back are not related to meningeal irritation.

A 32-yr-old female patient is diagnosed with diabetes insipidus after transsphenoidal resection of a pituitary adenoma. What should the nurse consider as a sign of improvement? a. Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L b. Urine specific gravity of 1.001 c. Fasting blood glucose of 80 mg/dL d. Serum osmolality of 290 mOsm/kg

d. Serum osmolality of 290 mOsm/kg Laboratory findings in diabetes insipidus include an elevation in serum osmolality and serum sodium and a decrease in urine specific gravity. Normal serum osmolality is 275 to 295 mOsm/kg, normal serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L, and normal specific gravity is 1.003 to 1.030. Elevated blood glucose levels occur with diabetes mellitus.

The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient reports shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and that "something is wrong." Temperature is 98.4°F, blood pressure is 130/88 mm Hg, respirations are 36 breaths/min, and oxygen saturation is 91% on room air. What is the priority nursing action? a. Notify the health care provider. b. Administer a nitroglycerin tablet sublingually. c. Conduct a thorough assessment of the chest pain. d. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen.

d. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen. The patient's clinical picture is most likely pulmonary embolus, and the first action the nurse takes should be to assist with the patient's respirations. For this reason, the nurse should sit the patient up as tolerated and apply oxygen before notifying the physician. The nitroglycerin tablet would not be helpful, and the oxygenation status is a bigger problem than the slight chest pain at this time.

A 67-yr-old woman with hypertension is admitted to the emergency department with a blood pressure of 234/148 mm Hg and was started on nitroprusside (Nitropress). After one hour of treatment, the mean arterial blood pressure (MAP) is 55 mm Hg. Which nursing action is a priority? a. Start an infusion of 0.9% normal saline at 100 mL/hr. b. Maintain the current administration rate of the nitroprusside. c. Request insertion of an arterial line for accurate blood pressure monitoring. d. Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications.

d. Stop the nitroprusside infusion and assess the patient for potential complications. Nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator medication. A blood pressure of 234/118 mm Hg would have a calculated MAP of 177 mm Hg. Subtracting 25% (or 44 mm Hg) = 133 mm Hg. The initial treatment goal is to decrease MAP by no more than 25% within minutes to 1 hour. For this patient, the goal MAP would be approximately 133 mm Hg. Minimal MAP required to perfuse organs is around 60 to 65 mm Hg. Lowering the blood pressure too rapidly may decrease cerebral, coronary, or renal perfusion and could precipitate a stroke, myocardial infarction, or renal failure. The priority is to stop the nitroprusside infusion and then use fluids only if necessary to support restoration of MAP.

What is a priority nursing intervention in the care of a patient with a diagnosis of chronic venous insufficiency (CVI)? a. Application of topical antibiotics to venous ulcers b. Maintaining the patient's legs in a dependent position c. Administration of oral and/or subcutaneous anticoagulants d. Teaching the patient the correct use of compression stockings

d. Teaching the patient the correct use of compression stockings CVI requires conscientious and consistent application of compression stockings. Anticoagulants are not necessarily indicated and antibiotics, if required, are typically oral or IV, not topical. The patient should avoid prolonged positioning with the limb in a dependent position.

The patient reports tenderness when she touches her leg over a vein. The nurse assesses warmth and a palpable cord in the area. The nurse knows the patient needs treatment to prevent which sequela? a. Pulmonary embolism b. Pulmonary hypertension c. Post-thrombotic syndrome d. Venous thromboembolism

d. Venous thromboembolism The clinical manifestations are characteristic of a superficial vein thrombosis. If untreated, the clot may extend to deeper veins, and venous thromboembolism may occur. Pulmonary embolism, pulmonary hypertension, and postthrombotic syndrome are the sequelae of venous thromboembolism.