CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide: Exam 220-1001 Fourth Edition

A server in your network has stopped responding to legitimate requests from users due to a malicious influence. Which type of attack has occurred? A. DoS B. Keylogger C. Botnet D. Social engineering

Answer: A. Explanation: A denial-of-service (DoS) attack is used to disrupt legitimate requests from being answered. A keylogger is used to steal credentials by recording keystrokes. A botnet is a group of computers that are under the control of a threat agent. Social engineering is a process in which an attacker attempts to acquire information about your network and system by social means, such as talking to people in the organization.

A technician is configuring a new Windows computer for a home office. Which of the following steps should the technician take to secure the workstation? A. Rename default accounts. B. Configure single sign-on. C. Disable Windows Update. D. Disable Action Center pop-ups.

Answer: A. Explanation: Renaming the default accounts on a new Windows computer is the easiest way to secure the operating system. Configuring single sign-on should only be performed if a resource is required that only uses SSO as authentication. Disabling Windows Update will do the opposite of securing the operating system. Disabling Action Center pop-ups will also do the opposite of securing the operating system.

Which network protocol and port does RDP operate on? A. TCP port 3389 B. TCP port 22 C. TCP port 23 D. TCP port 443

Answer: A. Explanation: The Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) operates on TCP port 3389. The SSH protocol operates on TCP port 22. The Telnet service operates on TCP port 23, and HTTPS operates on TCP port 443.

You have found that several employees are using the organization's email system to solicit personal business. What policy would define the abuse of this system? A. Acceptable use policy (AUP) B. Mobile device management (MDM) C. Data loss prevention (DLP) D. Email filtering

Answer: A. Explanation: The acceptable use policy (AUP) defines the appropriate use of email and other organizational systems and resources. Mobile device management (MDM) helps an administrator control mobile devices so that data is not exposed. Data loss prevention (DLP) is used to prevent personal and confidential information from being emailed outside of the organization. Email filtering filters email coming into the organization.

Which network feature allows a computer to resume operation when it receives a special network signal? A. WoL B. PoE C. QoS D. DNS

Answer: A. Explanation: Wake-on-LAN (WoL) allows a computer to awake from sleep when it receives a special WoL packet over the network. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a standard of running power for a device over the network connection. Quality of Service (QoS) is a mechanism used by network protocols to give certain network protocols priority through the network. Domain Name System (DNS) is a naming system used by the Internet and Microsoft that translates domain names to IP addresses.

Your system log files report an ongoing attempt to gain access to a single account. This attempt has been unsuccessful to this point. What type of attack are you most likely experiencing? A. Dictionary password attack B. Rootkit attack C. Worm attack D. TCP/IP hijacking

Answer: A. Explanation: A dictionary password attack occurs when a user account is repeatedly attacked using a variety of passwords. A rootkit attack would not be immediately seen and would not show as an ongoing effort. A worm attack would not be visible as an ongoing attempt to gain access. TCP/IP hijacking is a form of a man-in-the-middle attack.

Which of the following are good measures to take to help to prevent ESD? (Choose two.) A. Decrease the humidity. B. Tie back long hair. C. Take off your shoes. D. Perform self-grounding.

Answer: B, D. Explanation: Long hair or neckties can very easily hold a static charge and damage computer parts. In addition, if you don't have an ESD strap or mat, you should perform self-grounding before you touch sensitive computer equipment. Lower humidity actually increases the risk of ESD. Taking off your shoes will not limit ESD.

Which of the following will accomplish a specific task for the user? A. Driver B. Application C. Operating system D. File system

Answer: B. Explanation: An application is written to perform a specific task for the user, such as word processing and data analysis. Drivers allow for the operating system to communicate with the hardware. The operating system and the file system assist in running applications.

Your mobile device is suffering from an intermittent wireless connection. What is recommended to alleviate signal drops? A. Shorten the SSID. B. Use the 5 GHz band. C. Reduce power on the WAP. D. Use the 2.4 GHz band.

Answer: B. Explanation: By using the 5 GHz wireless band, you can limit the amount of interference from external devices, such as microwave ovens and Bluetooth devices. Shortening the SSID will have no effect on intermittent signal drops, nor will reducing power on the WAP. Using the 2.4 GHz band will probably make signal drops worse.

A user wants to ensure that all contacts from her mobile device are copied onto her computer before migrating to a new device. Which of the following processes can accomplish this? A. Mirroring B. Synchronization C. Calling each contact D. Attaching the contacts to an email

Answer: B. Explanation: Synchronization can copy all contacts, programs, email messages, pictures, music, and videos between a mobile device and a computer. Mirroring is a term reserved for when devices replicate themselves to similar devices. Calling the contacts won't achieve the desired result, and emailing contacts is inefficient and does not immediately result in placing the contacts on the computer.

Which mobile operating system is typically associated with the .ipa extension? A. Android B. iOS C. Windows Phone D. BlackBerry OS

Answer: B. Explanation: The .ipa file extension is for iOS App Store package files. Android apps have an extension of .apk. The Windows Phone OS is typically associated with the .xap extension. Blackberry OS uses .jad. The latter of the two phone types were not discussed in detail in this book.

You need to configure an IP address for Windows 7 to use in the event that the DHCP server is down. Which of the following will allow you to perform this task? A. The Configuration tab for the network adapter properties B. The Alternate Configuration tab of the IPv4 Properties dialog box C. The Set Up a New Connection or Network wizard D. The Remote tab of the System Properties dialog box

Answer: B. Explanation: You can use the Alternate Configuration tab of the IPv4 Properties dialog box to configure an IP address for Windows 7 to use in the event the DHCP server is down. The Configuration tab for the network adapter properties will allow you to change the driver and settings for the adapter itself. The Set Up a New Connection or Network wizard is used for the initial setup of the network. The Remote tab of the System Properties dialog box allows you to select Remote Assistance and Remote Desktop settings.

Which Windows 10 feature replaces Internet Explorer? A. Spotlight B. Edge C. Cortana D. UWP

Answer: B. Explanation: Although Internet Explorer is still installed in Windows 10, the Edge browser has largely replaced it's functionality in Windows 10. The Spotlight feature will display a random wallpaper on the login screen from Bing.com. Cortana is a digital person assistant. The Universal Windows Platform (UWP) is a development platform.

Which type of software licensing agreement usually provides free trial software, with the expectation that you will pay for it if you decide to keep it? A. Freeware B. Shareware C. Open-source D. Single-user

Answer: B. Explanation: Shareware often provides a free trial of a program, with the expectation that you will pay for it if you keep it. Freeware and open-source applications are generally totally free, although the developers may ask for donations. Single-user software is licensed for one user.

You need to check the status of your User Account Control (UAC) and Windows Activation on Windows 8/8.1. Which tool will display both of these? A. User Settings B. Action Center C. Firewall with Advanced Security D. Windows Update

Answer: B. Explanation: The Action Center will allow you to see the status of both the UAC and Windows Activation. User Settings will show only the UAC status. Firewall with Advanced Security and Windows Update will not show either of these.

Where can you find updates for Apple operating systems? A. iTunes B. App Store C. Keychain D. Mission Control

Answer: B. Explanation: The App Store is where you can find updates for the Apple operating system. iTunes is used to purchase and download music, videos, and other content. The Keychain is used to store credentials on behalf of the user. Mission Control is used to view all the currently running applications.

You need to manage a remote Windows operating system. Which tool can you use to perform this task? A. msinfo32 B. mstsc C. msconfig D. telnet

Answer: B. Explanation: The Microsoft Terminal Services Client (mstsc) is used to allow remote connections to Window operating systems. Msinfo32 is used to collect information from the Windows operating system. Msconfig is used to configure startup and services. Telnet is not used to connect to Windows; it is normally used with Linux/UNIX.

Which edition of Microsoft Windows 10 does not include Cortana? A. Home B. Pro C. Education D. Enterprise

Answer: C. Explanation: For privacy issues, Windows 10 Education does not include Cortana, since this edition is used for academic organizations. Windows 10 Home, Pro, and Enterprise all contain Cortana.

Which critical system generally requires third-party tools to troubleshoot performance problems? A. RAM B. CPU C. Graphics D. Network

Answer: C. Explanation: Graphics cards usually require third-party tools to diagnose performance problems. RAM problems, CPU problems, and network problems can be diagnosed inside the operating system from Task Manager.

You need to change a computer's name and join it to a domain. Which tool should you use? A. Device Manager B. User Accounts C. System Properties D. Credential Manager

Answer: C. Explanation: The System Properties applet (sysdm.cpl) allows you to change a computer's name and join the system to a domain. Device Manager is used to manage hardware resources. The User Accounts applet is used to manage user accounts. Credential Manager is used to manage stored credentials.

What is the last step that should be performed when removing malware? A. Identify the malware. B. Enable System Protection. C. Educate the end user. D. Schedule a scan.

Answer: C. Explanation: The last step in the malware-removal process is the education of the end user to prevent future occurrences of infection. Identifying the malware is the first step in the malware-removal process. Enabling System Protection is one of the last steps, but it is not the last step. Scheduling a scan should be performed after you have remediated the malware.

Which line would be used to comment Windows batch script code? A. //comment B. 'comment C. REM comment D. # comment

Answer: C. Explanation: The line REM comment is used to comment Windows batch script code. The line //comment is used to comment JavaScript code. The line 'comment is used to comment VBScript code. The line # comment is used to comment Bash script code and PowerShell code.

Which tool will allow you to ready the operating system for imaging? A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit B. Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit C. sysprep.exe D. Windows Imaging

Answer: C. Explanation: The sysprep.exe utility will allow you to ready the operating system for imaging, by resetting specific information, such as the computer name. The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit can assist in creating the steps, but it calls on the sysprep tool. The Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit allows you to customize the Windows operating system for imaging, but it does not ready the operating system for imaging. Windows Imaging (WIM) is a file format to contain the image.

While installing a new network card, you accidentally broke a component off of the card. What should you do? A. Explain that the card was broken out of the box. B. Install the card anyway. C. Inform the customer of the situation. D. Leave everything as-is until you can locate a new card.

Answer: C. Explanation: You should be honest and inform the customer of the situation. Explaining that the card was broken out of the box is untruthful and deceptive. Installing the card anyway will cause new problems. Leaving everything as-is until you can locate a new card does not help the customer, since you've created a new dilemma.

While working on a user's system, you discover a sticky note attached to the bottom of the keyboard that has their username and password written on it. The user is not around, and you need to verify that the network connection is working. What should you do? A. Log in, verify access, and then log out. B. Log in and stay logged in when you are finished. C. Text the user. D. Log in and change the user's password.

Answer: C. Explanation: You should text the user and let them know that you need to verify their network connection. You should not log in as another person, with their username and password. You should not log in and stay logged in when you are finished. You should definitely not log in and change the user's password.

Which regulation is enforced by Health & Human Services (HHS) to regulate the privacy of patient information related to health services? A. SOX B. FERPA C. HIPAA D. GLBA

Answer: C. Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) affects health-care providers and providers that process health records. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) is enforced by the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC) and regulates sensitive financial information and financial records. The Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) affects education providers and organizations that process student records. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) affects providers of financial services and safeguards customer information.

Which filesystem performs on-the-fly defragmentation? A. FAT B. NTFS C. ext4 D. FAT32

Answer: C. Explanation: The ext4 filesystem does not suffer from fragmentation, because it performs on-the-fly defragmentation. FAT is a 16-bit filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. NTFS is a journaled filesystem that suffers from fragmentation. FAT32 is a 32-bit filesystem that suffers from fragmentation.

Which macOS feature is similar to Windows File Explorer? A. Keychain B. iCloud C. Spotlight D. Finder

Answer: D. Explanation: The macOS Finder is the equivalent to Windows File Explorer. The Keychain is a password-management system for the operating system. iCloud is a cloud-based storage and backup service. Spotlight helps you find applications, documents, and other files.

Which of the following screwdrivers has a splined head? A. Flat-tipped B. Phillips C. Axial D. Torx

Answer: D. Explanation: A Torx screwdriver has a splined head, which is used for greater gripping of the screw. A flat-tipped screwdriver, as the name suggests, has a flat tip. A Phillips screwdriver has a cross, which is used for better gripping over a normal flat-tip screwdriver. An axial screwdriver is not a type of screwdriver.

Which feature allows you to create a simple local network, secured by a single password, to share files and printers with other Windows 7 clients? A. Domain B. Workgroup C. Libraries D. HomeGroup

Answer: D. Explanation: HomeGroup allows sharing of files and printers with other Windows 7 clients, secured with a single password. Domains require domain controllers and individual accounts. Workgroups require user accounts to be set up on each workstation in the network. Libraries are components of the Windows 7 operating system and HomeGroups that allow for the logical grouping of files.

Which RAID system requires three or more disks to provide fault tolerance? A. Mirroring B. Striping C. RAID-1 D. Striping with parity

Answer: D. Explanation: Striping with parity, also known as RAID-5, requires three or more disks and provides fault tolerance. Mirroring, also known as RAID-1, requires only two disks. Striping, also known as RAID-0, provides no fault tolerance.

Which element of the boot process holds the information that instructs the operating system to load from a specific partition? A. winload.exe B. Bootmgr C. winresume.exe D. BCD

Answer: D. Explanation: The Boot Configuration Data (BCD) holds the information that instructs the Windows Boot Manager (bootmgr) to load the operating system from a specific partition. Winload.exe loads the operating system kernel. Bootmgr is the initial bootstrap program that reads the BCD. Winresume.exe is used when resuming a previous session that has been suspended.

Which operating system is a cloud-based operating system? A. Linux B. Android C. Windows 10 D. Chrome OS

Answer: D. Explanation: The Google Chrome OS is a true cloud-based operating system because all the data is stored in the cloud. Cloud-based operating systems require an Internet connection to access information. Android and Windows 10 use cloud storage but are not considered cloud-based operating systems. Linux is strictly a workstation operating system.

Which Windows Update branch will allow you to install preview releases of updates for Windows 10? A. Semi-Annual Channel B. Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) C. Long-Term Servicing Channel D. Insider Program

Answer: D. Explanation: The Insider Program allows for the installation of brand new features before they are publicly released. The Semi-Annual Channel is normally delayed by three to four months. The Semi-Annual Channel (Targeted) branch will install updates as they are released to the general public. The Long-Term Servicing Channel never installs new features during the life of the version of Windows.