Comptia Core 1 A+ P2

Which of the following ports are used by the NetBIOS protocol to share files and printers on a Windows network? (Select ANY that apply) 21 443 139 110

139 OBJ-2.1: The network basic input/output system (NetBIOS)/NetBIOS over TCP/IP (NetBT) is a session management protocol used to provide name registration and resolution services on legacy Microsoft networks and those using WINS. NetBIOS/NetBT operates on TCP/UDP ports 137 and 139. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21.

v(This is a simulated Performance-Based Question. On the real exam, you may be given a chart with numerous ports and protocols and be asked to drag and drop them to match the ports with the protocols.) What ports do FTP and SFTP utilize? 21, 22 21, 23 20, 21 22, 23

21, 22 OBJ-2.1: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses ports 20 and 21. SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) uses port 22. Port 23 is used by Telnet. If this were a question on the real exam, you would see a list of ports on one side and a list of protocols on the other, and you would drag and drop each one to match them up. (It might also have 4-6 different pairs to match up.)

Your company's printer is displaying an error of "Replace cartridge 1. Filament is empty." Based on this error, what kind of printer is your company using? Thermal Inkjet 3-D Laser Impact

3-D OBJ-3.7: 3-D printers use a filament to create the objects being printed. A 3D printing filament is a thermoplastic feedstock for fused deposition modeling by 3D printers. There are many types of filament available with different properties, requiring different temperatures to print the final product or object. On the exam, you should be thinking about a 3D printer anytime you see the word filament. An inkjet cartridge is used with an inkjet printer. Toner is used with a laser printer. Ribbon is used with an impact printer. Ribbon or special thermal paper is used with a thermal printer.

Jason recently purchases a wearable fitness tracker to count the number of steps he is taking each day. Which of the following technologies is used to determine how many steps he takes each day? Digitizer Inverter Accelerometer NFC

Accelerometer OBJ-1.3: Most wearable fitness devices come with a 3-axis accelerometer to track movement in every direction. Some more advanced trackers will also use a gyroscope to measure the orientation and rotation of the device. However, the accelerometer is still the crucial component to measure the activity of the user. The data collected is then converted into steps and activity and from then into calories and sleep quality. Near field communications (NFC) is a standard for peer-to-peer (2-way) radio communications over very short (around 4") distances that facilitate contactless payment and similar technologies. The inverter (also known as inverter board, screen inverter, or LCD inverter) is a part of the laptop's display assembly. The inverter is a small green board attached to the base of the LCD panel. In a laptop computer, the LCD screen relies on a backlight source to uniformly light up the screen, and the inverter acts as the power supply for this lighting source. If the inverter is faulty, the display will be too dim to easily see without an external light source like a flashlight. The digitizer is a touch-sensitive glass panel covering the LCD in a touchscreen assembly. The digitizer is used to convert touch events to digital signals that can be interpreted as different types of input. The digitizer can be touched and inspected without taking apart the device.

Using the image above, which of the following correctly indicates the port labeled as K? RG-6 Audio cluster SPDIF DVI-I

Audio cluster OBJ-3.1: This port is the audio cluster on the rear of this motherboard. This contains the audio inputs and outputs in mini-jack format. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of a motherboard's rear port cluster by sight.

A user has reported that their workstation is running slowly. You perform a reboot of their workstation and receive a S.M.A.R.T. error during the boot-up process. Which of the following actions should you perform FIRST? Run chkdsk Backup the hard drive Run diskpart Reformat the hard drive

Backup the hard drive OBJ-5.3: S.M.A.R.T. is an acronym for Self-Monitoring and Repair Tool. It is a feature in all modern magnetic hard drives (non-SSD drives) that monitors the hard drive to ensure it performs properly. S.M.A.R.T. can detect when the failure of a drive is imminent and can alert the user so that they can back up the drive before a complete failure occurs. If your hard drive produces a S.M.A.R.T. failure, you should immediately back up the drive. Once a backup has been completed, you can instead focus on repairing the drive using chkdsk.

Which of the following types of optical discs can only support storing up to 700 MB on a single piece of media? BD-R CD-RW DVD-R SD

CD-RW OBJ-3.3: A CD can store up to 700 MB. A DVD can store 4.7 GB for a single-layer disc or 8.5 GB for a dual-layer disc. A Blu-ray disc can store up to 25 GB for a single-layer disc or 50 GB for a dual-layer disc. A SD card is a type of memory card and is not considered an optical disc.

Which of the following is true of a dedicated video card in a computer system? Share the use of the system's memory Cannot be upgraded or replaced Can be upgraded or replaced Less expensive than an integrated video card

Can be upgraded or replaced OBJ-3.4: It is more expensive to have a dedicated GPU or video card, but it does provide higher performance than an integrated GPU. A dedicated GPU also can be upgraded with a newer graphics card in the future to increase performance. An integrated video card is built as part of the main system motherboard or CPU. An integrated GPU is cheaper than a dedicated GPU, but it has limited performance and shares the use of the computer system's RAM. An integrated video card cannot be upgraded since it is part of the processor or motherboard. If a system is being designed for gaming, video editing, or 3D rendering, it should use a separate video card with a dedicated GPU.

You are troubleshooting an older wireless network that is running Wireless G (802.11g). This network appears to have a lot of collisions and interference. You look up the configuration on two of the three access points in the areas and see they are using Channel 1 and Channel 6. To prevent interference and ensure non-overlapping of the channels, what channel should the third access point utilize? Channel 10 Channel 12 Channel 11 Channel 9

Channel 11 OBJ-2.3: With wireless access points that run 2.4 GHz frequencies, you can only select channels between 1 and 11 in the United States. This includes 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11ax networks. To prevent overlapping of the channels, you should select channels 1, 6, and 11. By doing so, you can increase the reliability and throughput of your wireless network.

The printer in the Dion Training offices routinely has issues anytime there is a power outage. The printer is a multi-function, network-enabled printer that connects directly to the network switch using a CAT 5e cable. Which of the following should you do to resolve this continuing issue? Update the print drivers on each employee's machine Configure a static IP for the printer Disable the SSID broadcast on the wireless access point Rollback the print drivers on the print server

Configure a static IP for the printer OBJ-5.7: Since the problem always occurs after a power outage, the printer is likely turning on faster than the DHCP server. This could lead to the printer not getting a new IP address properly or the clients not locating the printer on the network. Therefore, you should configure a static IP for the printer (and any servers) on the network. Servers and shared printers should use a static IP instead of a dynamic assignment to prevent issues.

Your company uses a virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) environment for employees to access their desktop applications. To allow employees access to the VDI environment, the company is installing thin clients in each employee's office. Which THREE of the following tasks must you first complete to install a thin client for a new employee? Connect the device to a second monitor Install the necessary applications Connect the thin client to the network Install the operating system Connect the thin client to a printer Install the latest security updates

Connect the thin client to the network, Install the latest security updates, and Connect the thin client to the network. OBJ-4.2: A thin client is a stateless, fanless desktop terminal that has no hard drive. All features typically found on the desktop PC, including applications, sensitive data, memory, etc., are stored back in the data center when using a thin client, most typically in a VDI or other environment. To set up a thin client, you will first connect it to the network, update its security software, and then install/configure any applications needed to access the VDI environment.

Which of the following components would require you to de-solder the old part from the laptop to install and solder in a new one? Cellular card Battery Screen DC Jack

DC Jack OBJ-1.1: It is relatively common for the DC jack to fail over time. The DC jack can become loose over time, or the jack itself can become separated from the motherboard. Replacing a DC jack requires disassembling the laptop, de-soldering and removing the old jack, then soldering the new jack into place. Most laptop DC jacks are specific to the manufacturer and the laptop model. Cellular cards are usually installed in a Mini PCIe expansion card slot and are not soldered to the motherboard. The screen and the battery are not soldered in most laptops and can be replaced by removing and replacing screws. Some manufacturers have begun soldering screens and batteries in some of their models, but this is still not considered common practice. A DC jack is always solder to the motherboard in a laptop, therefore it is the best answer to this question.

A computer technician tries to determine if a computer with an Intel i7 processor has virtualization enabled to run a second operating system within VirtualBox. Which of the following should be checked to determine if the system can run a virtual machine? Verify AMD-V is installed Enable virtualization within the BIOS Verify Hyper-V is installed Enable virtualization within Windows

Enable virtualization within the BIOS OBJ-4.2: By checking the settings in the BIOS, it can be determined if virtualization was enabled. For an Intel processor, this option is usually listed as VT (Virtualization Technology). For an AMD processor, this is usually listed as AMD-V. Virtualization allows the system to run another operating system within a virtualized environment, such as VirtualBox, VM Ware, or Hyper-V.

Jason's new iPhone has locked up, and the touchscreen is unresponsive. He tries to tap the screen, press the buttons, and still, nothing happens. What should he do next? Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off Hold down power and volume up buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off Hold down the power button and then the sleep/wake button simultaneously for about 10 seconds Hold down the home button for 10 seconds, then slide to power off

Hold down power and volume down buttons simultaneously for 10 seconds, then slide to power off OBJ-5.5: Smartphones can become frozen, hung up, or locked up to the point they are unresponsive to touch or some button presses. The best solution is to hold down the power and volume down buttons simultaneously on an iPhone and then slide to power off.

You are working at the service desk when a customer calls up and complains that their laptop's monitor looks strange. When pressed for further details, they state that there are black bars on the left and right sides of the screen and that the image appears squashed and distorted. What is MOST likely the cause of this issue? Incorrect display resolution External RF interference Incorrect color depth Bad video card

Incorrect display resolution OBJ-5.4: This is likely a screen resolution problem. Each LCD/LED has a native resolution that fits perfectly on the screen. If a resolution other than the native resolution is used, the screen could become squished, distorted, or have black vertical or horizontal lines filling up the excess space. For example, most laptops operate as a 16:9 or 16:10 aspect ratio. Older VGA monitors relied on a 4:3 aspect ratio using 1024x768 pixels whereas newer monitors use a 16:9 ratio at 1920x1080 pixels.

Which of the following network configurations on a virtual machine are used to prevent the VM from accessing the internet, but still allow it to communicate with other VMs on the host and the host itself? Localhost Internal External Private

Internal OBJ-4.2: Virtual machines can have their network configured as internal to prevent them from communicating with the internet. When configured to internal, the VMs can communicate with each other and the host machine. The private network connection type will create a switch that is usable only by the VMs. The VMs cannot use the switch to communicate with the host. If you select external, the VMs would have internet access. If you select localhost, each VM could only communicate with itself.

The projector in the Dion Training conference room is creating a distorted image when in use. The technician measures the top of the screen at 72" wide and the bottom of the screen at only 66" wide. The technician checks the projector's resolution and the resolution in the operating system's display settings. They notice that they are both set correctly to HDTV (1920 x 1080) mode. Which of the following settings on the project should the technician adjust to fix this distortion? Keystone Contrast Color depth Brightness

Keystone OBJ-5.4: A keystone effect occurs when the top of a projected image is wider or narrower than the bottom of the image. This creates a trapezoid instead of a rectangular image and leads to distortion. To fix the keystone effect in an image, you need to adjust the keystone setting in the projector. The brightness setting will increase or decrease the number of lumens of the projected image to make it lighter or darker. The contrast is the amount of difference between the whiteness and darkness in a projected image. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Brightness, contrast, and color depth do not affect the size or shape of the image being projected.

Which of the following is NOT considered part of the Internet of Things? Smart television SCADA ICS Laptop

Laptop OBJ-2.4: Supervisory control and data acquisition (SCADA) systems, industrial control systems (ICS), internet-connected televisions, thermostats, and many other things examples of devices classified as the Internet of Things (IoT). A laptop would be better classified as a computer or host than part of the Internet of Things. The Internet of things (IoT) is a system of interrelated computing devices, mechanical and digital machines provided with unique identifiers (UIDs), and the ability to transfer data over a network without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.

What is used to distribute traffic across multiple sets of devices or connections to increase the overall efficiency of the network and its data processing? Traffic shaping Fault tolerance High availability Load balancing

Load balancing OBJ-2.4: Load balancing refers to the process of distributing a set of tasks over a set of resources to make their overall processing more efficient. Load balancing can optimize the response time and avoid unevenly overloading some compute nodes while other compute nodes are left idle. Traffic shaping, also known as packet shaping, is the manipulation and prioritization of network traffic to reduce the impact of heavy users or machines from affecting other users. Traffic shaping is used to optimize or guarantee performance, improve latency, or increase usable bandwidth for some kinds of packets by delaying other kinds. High availability (HA) is a component of a technology system that eliminates single points of failure to ensure continuous operations or uptime for an extended period. Fault tolerance refers to the ability of a system (computer, network, cloud cluster, etc.) to continue operating without interruption when one or more of its components fail.

What type of expansion bus technology uses lanes with point-to-point communication paths between two components on the motherboard? AGP PCI PCIe PCI-X

PCIe OBJ-3.4: PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) uses lanes between any two intercommunicating devices. This utilizes a separated pair of wires for both directions of traffic. This increases the bus lanes' speed since there is no possibility of collisions or waiting for other devices to finish communicating. PCIe (peripheral component interconnect express) is an interface standard for connecting high-speed components. Every desktop PC motherboard has some PCIe slots you can use to add GPUs (video cards or graphics cards), RAID cards, network adapters, Wi-Fi cards, or SSD (solid-state drive) add-on cards. The types of PCIe slots available in your PC will depend on your motherboard and are designated as PCIe x1, x4, x8, and x16. Graphics cards almost exclusively rely on PCIe x16 expansion slots for their connectivity. AGP, PCI, and PCI-X are older technologies that rely on shared busses for communication.

Your office has a legacy wide-format printer that must be connected to your network. The connection on the printer is an older DB-9 serial connection. What is the BEST option for connecting this legacy device to your corporate network? Purchase a wireless print server and connect it to the printer via USB Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network Purchase an inexpensive RS-232 to USB adapter to connect it the network Configure a reverse proxy on the printer as a DNS workaround

Purchase an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter so that you can connect it to the network OBJ-3.6: The most convenient and least expensive way to connect the printer would be to buy an RS-232 to RJ-45 adapter, which will allow you to connect the legacy printer to the network directly. Then, the printer will be accessed by all users directly from their computers while printing to it using the appropriate print drivers. Networks do not have USB connections, so you need to select a network connection type like RJ-45 to use instead.

Which of the following protocols operates over port 3389 by default? Telnet RDP POP3 SSH

RDP OBJ-2.1: The remote desktop protocol (RDP) is a protocol used for the remote administration of a host using a graphical user interface. RDP operates over TCP port 3389. Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. Telnet is the protocol used for remote command-line administration of a host using TCP port 23. Telnet is considered insecure since it is unauthenticated and unencrypted. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them.

You have been assigned a trouble ticket for a workstation that is unable to boot. When you arrive at the workstation, you recognize an error message on the screen that reads, "Error loading operating system, BOOTMGR is missing, Press Ctrl+Alt+Del to restart." Which of the following actions should you take first? Reboot the computer and allow it to load back into Windows Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt Reboot the computer into the BIOS to see if the boot order is set to HDD Reboot the computer into recovery mode and initiate the disk restoral process

Reboot the computer into the Windows 10 repair console and enter "Bootrec /fixmbr" at the command prompt OBJ-5.3: To troubleshoot the failed boot, you must reboot the computer and enter into recovery mode. In Windows 10, you will need to boot from the installation disc, select "Repair your computer", and then enter the command-line interface (CLI). From the CLI, enter the command "bootrec /fixmbr" to repair the master boot record. Once completed, reboot the computer and allow it to load into Windows.

A client claims that their computer keeps rebooting itself without warning. Which of the following is the BEST action you should take to investigate and troubleshoot this issue? Replace the cooling fan Test the power supply Replace the power supply Reinstall the operating system

Test the power supply OBJ-5.2: A computer that keeps rebooting itself is a symptom of a faulty power supply or a computer that is overheating. If the power supply is faulty, the computer will reboot itself. If the issue is caused by an overheating issue (such as a cooling fan failure), the computer will usually reboot itself after running for 15-20 minutes (once enough heat is built-up). Therefore, you should test the power supply first to determine if that is the root cause of the issue, and then replace the power supply, if required.

A customer is trying to configure an 802.11b wireless card in an old laptop to connect to an 802.11g wireless router. When the customer scans for the wireless network's SSID (Dion-Corp), it is not displayed within Windows. What is the MOST likely reason that the SSID is not being displayed? The wireless router is configured with WPA2 encryption The wireless router is not configured for DHCP support 802.11g and 802.11b use different frequencies The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router

The broadcast is disabled on the wireless router OBJ-5.7: If the SSID (Secure Set Identifier) is disabled, then the wireless network name will not be broadcast to any available devices within range. Both Wireless B and G use the same frequency band (2.4 GHz) and would not cause this issue. Similarly, encryption that is enabled or disabled would not affect the SSID broadcast since the SSID is sent out in cleartext. DHCP support is used once a device connects to the network. Therefore it would not affect the SSID broadcast.

You are troubleshooting a network connection issue between the wall jack in a user's office and the switch in the communications closet. When you plug a network cable into the wall jack, there is no connection. You check the switch in the communications closet to determine if the wall jack is properly connected to the switch. Unfortunately, none of the cables in the communication closet are labeled. Which of the following tools should you use to determine which cable in the communications closet is connected to the wall jack in the user's office since none of the cables are properly labeled? Tone generator and probe Loopback plug Punchdown tool Multimeter

Tone generator and probe OBJ-2.8: A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. While a multimeter could be used (in resistance mode) to determine if two ends of a cable are attached to the same cable, the distance between the user's office and the communication closet would prevent a multimeter from being used in this case. A tone generator is connected to a wall jack and sends a repeating signal over the cable. The probe can then be used to detect which cable is attached to the wall jack by detecting the signal being sent by the tone generator. The probe needs to be near or touch the cable with the tone generator attached to identify it positively. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.

What type of connector can be inserted into the port in either direction without damaging the port? USB Type C USB Type A USB Type B FireWire

USB Type C OBJ-3.1: A USB Type C (USB-C) is a 24-pin USB connector with a rotational symmetrical connector, which means it can be plugged into the port in either direction. USB-C makes it easier and more convenient to plug into a USB-C female port than previous versions like Type A and Type B. FireWire and USB Type B use a d-shaped connector that can only be inserted in one direction. USB Type A uses a rectangular connector with a protrusion on one half of the connector to force insertion in only one direction.

Jason is attending the CompTIA Partner's Summit convention this year. While at the conference, Jason will need to ensure his smartphone has enough battery power to last the entire day without having to recharge it since it is hard to find an available electrical outlet in the conference rooms. Jason needs to ensure his smartphone is always available for use to receive updates from his team back home, as well. Which of the following would you recommend Jason use to ensure he can use the phone all day without his smartphone running out of power? Set the smartphone to airplane mode Use a wireless charging pad Bring a power strip so that more than one person can use an electrical wall outlet Use a smartphone case with a built-in battery

Use a smartphone case with a built-in battery OBJ-1.1: Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.

Which of the following cables supports both charging and data transfer with a non-directional connector inserted into a port on the device? USB-A Mini-USB USB-C Micro-USB

USB-C OBJ-3.1: USB-C can be inserted in any direction since it is designed as a non-directional connector. There are many other variations of USB cables in use today such as Micro-USB, Mini-USB, USB-A, and USB-B that can only be inserted into the port in a single direction due to the physical shape of their connector. Universal serial bus (USB) is the main type of connection interface used on desktops and laptops. A larger Type A connector attaches to a port on the host; Type B and Mini- or Micro-Type B connectors are used for devices. USB 1.1 supports 12 Mbps while USB 2.0 supports 480 Mbps and is backward compatible with 1.1 devices which run at a slower speed. USB devices are considered hot-swappable and each device can draw up to 2.5 W of power over a USB port. USB 3.0 and 3.1 define 5 Gbps (SuperSpeed) and 10 Gbps (SuperSpeed+) rates and can deliver up to 4.5 W of power.

Which of the following is an APIPA or link-local address? 169.254.64.23 33.52.7.83 127.0.0.1 192.168.1.34

169.254.64.23 OBJ-2.5: IP addresses are either public, private, localhost, or APIPA addresses. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows-based operating systems that enables a computer to automatically assign itself an IP address when there is no Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server available to perform that function. When a host uses an APIPA address, it can communicate with other hosts on the same network using APIPA. Still, it cannot reach other networks or communicate with hosts who have managed to obtain a valid DHCP lease. Any address from 169.254.1.0 to 169.254.254.255 is considered an APIPA address. An APIPA address is also referred to as a link-local address. A private IP address is in the range of 10.x.x.x, 172.16-31.x.x, or 192.168.x.x. A localhost IP is 127.0.0.1. All others are considered public IP addresses.

Which of the following ports should you block at the firewall if you want to prevent a remote login to a server from occurring? 22 143 21 80

22 OBJ-2.1: Secure shell (SSH) is the protocol used for remote administration and file copying using TCP port 22. SSH is considered secure since it uses authenticated and encrypted sessions for communication. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time.

Jason is building a new gaming computer for his son. Jason has calculated that the required wattage needed is 420 watts to the video card and all of the other internal devices. Which of the following power supplies should Jason purchase to meet the minimum power requirements for this computer? 525 W 350 W 750 W 250 W

525 W OBJ-3.5: When purchasing a new power supply, it is important to understand the wattage requirements. Since the new computer needs a minimum of 420 watts of power, you must find a power supply that is large enough to meet this demand. In this case, the minimum rating that would meet this requirement is the 525-watt power supply. If a power supply doesn't have a high enough wattage rating to provide the power needed, some or all of the devices will not power on or function properly. If a power supply is chosen that is too large, it will generate excessive heat that can overheat the computer and its components.

Which of the following ports is used for the request and distribution of DHCP configuration information? 162 80 67 53

67 OBJ-2.1: The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) is a protocol used to provide web content to browsers using port 80. The simple network management protocol (SNMP) is a protocol for monitoring and managing network devices over UDP ports 161 and 162. A management system collates data sent by agents running on each device. The agents maintain a Management Information Base of configuration and usage data. An agent can also generate a trap, alerting the management system of some notable event (such as a printer that is out of paper).

Your company has decided to upgrade its legacy phone system to use VoIP devices instead. The new phones will download the configurations from a server each time they boot up. Which of the following ports needs to be opened on the firewall to ensure the phones can communicate with the TFTP server and download their boot-up configurations? 21 161 69 53

69 OBJ-2.1: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple protocol that provides a basic file transfer function with no user authentication. TFTP uses port 69 to communicate. TFTP is intended for applications that do not need the sophisticated interactions that File Transfer Protocol (FTP) provides. The File Transfer Protocol is a standard communication protocol used for the transfer of computer files from a server to a client on a computer network. FTP uses port 21 to communicate. The Domain Name System (DNS) is used to translate requests for names into IP addresses, controlling which server an end-user will reach when they type a domain name into their web browser. DNS uses port 53 to communicate. The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a networking protocol used for the management and monitoring of network-connected devices in Internet Protocol networks. SNMP uses port 161 to communicate.

Which of the following network standards allows a networking device to provide up to 15.4W of power to a connected device? 802.3at 802.11ac 802.3af 802.11s

802.3af OBJ-2.2: Power over Ethernet (POE) switches provide power over ordinary data cabling to devices such as VoIP handsets and wireless access points. PoE can support up to 15.4W and PoE+ can support up to 25W. The 802.3af (PoE) standard can support up to 15.4W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE can support low-powered devices such as VoIP handsets. The 802.3at (PoE+) standard can support up to 25W of power at a distance of up to 100 meters. PoE+ can support higher-powered devices such as PTZ cameras, door controllers, and thin client computers. The 802.11ac standard defines a 5 GHz wireless networking standard. The 802.11s standard defines the usage of wireless mesh technology.

An employee at Dion Training complains that their smartphone is broken. They state that it cannot connect to the internet, nor can it make or receive phone calls and text messages. You ask them to start up the music player on his phone, and it opens without any issues. It appears the common issue has to do with the device's network connectivity. Which of the following is MOST likely the problem with this smartphone? The cellular radio in it is broken The Bluetooth connection is disabled The VPN password was entered incorrectly Airplane mode is enabled on the device

Airplane mode is enabled on the device OBJ-1.4: If the smartphone is functioning properly except for applications that require network connectivity, then the issue is either a misconfiguration (like enabling airplane mode by mistake), a defective cellular radio chip, or a similar issue. The most likely cause is that the employee accidentally enabled the airplane mode on the device that turns off the cellular radio for the smartphone and can cause the network connectivity to be lost. A technician should first verify that airplane mode is disabled and that the cellular radio is enabled. If that doesn't solve the problem, then the technician should investigate whether it is a hardware issue (such as a broken cellular radio chip). The Bluetooth connection being disabled would affect paired devices like a headset or wireless speaker, not the ability of the device to connect to the internet. According to the scenario presented, there is no mention of a VPN, so the VPN password being incorrectly answered is not correct.

On Saturdays, your best friend goes to the local farmer's market to sell his homemade craft root beer. He wants to add the ability to take credit card payments from customers on his mobile phone. Which of the following devices should he purchase and configure? Memory card reader Bluetooth card reader DB-9 reader IR reader

Bluetooth card reader OBJ-1.3: A Bluetooth card reader can be used to capture the purchaser's credit card details. These Bluetooth card readers may support magnetic card reading capabilities (swiping a card), smart chip reading capabilities (chip and pin), or even NFC reading capabilities (Google Pay, Apple Pay, etc.). For example, in the United States, Square's mobile payment terminal is popular for small businesses and entrepreneurs. By capturing the credit card details electronically (instead of just typing them in), the merchant pays a lower payment processing fee and saves on credit card fees charged when a customer makes a purchase. DB-9 is a type of serial port connector used on legacy desktops and laptops. Infrared (IR) was a wireless networking standard supporting speeds up to about 4 Mbps with a direct line of sight for communications. Infrared sensors are used in mobile devices and with IR blasters to control appliances. While infrared (IR) used to be commonly used to connect wireless mice and keyboards to a laptop in the 1990s, it has fallen out of favor in the last 10-15 years since Bluetooth is more reliable and does not require a direct line of sight between the device and the laptop. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A memory card is a flash drive typically used for digital cameras and smartphones

What is the name of the networking protocol used by macOS to find available printers on the network to use? Bonjour Line Printer Daemon Internet Printing Protocol Cloud Print

Bonjour OBJ-3.6: Bonjour, Apple's zero-configuration networking protocol, automates certain aspects of network configuration; the protocol enables devices connected to the local area network to discover and connect automatically. Businesses can use Bonjour to make the sharing of files and devices easier; the technology works with wired and wireless LANs. After enabling Bonjour on a workstation, other computers on the network can detect and install printers or scanners attached to the workstation or access files from shared folders. The Internet Printing Protocol (IPP) is a specialized Internet protocol for communication between client devices and printers (or print servers) using the HTTP protocol for data transport. The Line Printer Daemon (LPD) protocol is a network printing protocol for submitting print jobs to a remote printer. LPD is an older protocol than IPP. Cloud Print is a service that allows users to print from any device in the network cloud to any printer that has Cloud Print support enabled.

You connect a VOIP device on a user's desk and need to connect it to a PoE-enabled switch located in a communications closet about 150 feet (approximately 50 meters) away. Which of the following cables should you select to connect the VOIP device to the switch? CAT 6 Coaxial CAT 3 Fiber

CAT 6 OBJ-2.2: VOIP (Voice over IP) devices that rely on PoE (Power over Ethernet) should use a CAT 5e, CAT 6, or higher cable to make the connection. This allows a single cable (CAT 5e or CAT 6) to carry both the data and the device's power. Fiber, coaxial, and CAT 3 cables cannot carry power to the VOIP device and cannot be used to meet this requirement. Using a CAT 5e or CAT 6 cable, you can connect two devices of approximately 300 feet (100 meters) without any need to repeat the signal.

Which of the following cellular technologies was not widely used outside of the United States? CDMA 3G 4G GSM

CDMA OBJ-1.4: The code division multiple access (CDMA) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a method of multiplexing a communications channel using a code to key the modulation of a particular signal. CDMA was only popular in the United States with a few providers (Verizon and Sprint). Most of the world instead uses GSM. The global system for mobile (GSM) communication standard for cellular radio communications and data transfer uses a SIM card to identify the subscriber and network provider. 3G cellular technology is made up of two different technologies: HSPA+ and EV-DO. HSPA+ (Evolved High-Speed Packet Access) is a 3G standard used for GSM cellular networks and can support up to a theoretical download speed of 168 Mbps and a theoretical upload speed of 34 Mbps. In the real world, though, HSPA+ normally reaches speeds around 20 Mbps. EV-DO (Evolution-Data Optimized) is a 3G standard used for CDMA cellular networks and can support up to 3.1 Mbps downloads. 4G cellular technology is made up of LTE and LTA-A. Long Term Evolution (LTE) is a packet data communications specification providing an upgrade path for both GSM and CDMA2000 cellular networks. LTE has a theoretical speed of 150 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 20 Mbps. LTE Advanced (LTE-A) has a theoretical speed of 300 Mbps and a real-world speed of around 40 Mbps.

An employee's workstation will operate for a short period of time, but then it unexpectedly shuts down. When you check the workstation, you hear the hum of the cooling fans. What is most likely the issue? Defective case fan Defective NIC card CPU overheated GPU overheated

CPU overheated OBJ-5.2: If a computer's CPU becomes overheated, the system will unexpectedly shut down the computer to protect the processor from damage. This usually occurs if the CPU's cooling fan isn't working properly, the heat sink is dislodged, or the thermal paste breaks down. In this case, you would need to remove the heat sink, remove the processor, reseat the processor, reapply thermal paste, reattach the heat sink, and reconnect the processor fan before rebooting the computer to solve this issue.

Jason is printing out a copy of Dion Training's new logo on his color laser printer. When the logo is printed, the blue color does not appear to be the same as the one on the screen. Jason believes the issue is an incorrect chroma display between the monitor and the printer. Which of the following solutions would best fix this issue? Replace the toner cartridge since the printout is faded Update the print drivers to ensure they are operating properly Set the color profile to a sepia tone to eliminate the issue Calibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profile

Calibrate the monitor and printer to use the same color profile OBJ-5.6: Incorrect chroma display occurs when the printer and the monitor are using different color profiles. To fix this issue, it is important to calibrate both the printer and the monitor to the same standard so that the colors will match. Changing the color to a sepia tone would make the printout appear brown which would not solve this issue. Replacing the toner would help if the printout is faded, but that is not occurring in this scenario. The print drivers would not cause the color to be incorrect, only the incorrect chroma settings and calibration would.

You work as a PC Technician for a real estate company. The company has decided to use laptops instead of desktops in the office so that the real estate agents can easily take their laptops with them when they leave to show properties for sale. You want to create an easy solution for the agents to quickly connect an external monitor, keyboard, mouse, a wired network connection, and an additional hard drive for storage to the laptop whenever they come back into the office. Unfortunately, the laptops used by the agents don't have a built-in wired network connection. Which type of device should you choose to provide all the functionality above? Thunderbolt Port replicator Docking station USB 4-port hub

Docking Station OBJ-1.3: A docking station is a sophisticated type of port replicator designed to provide additional ports (such as network or USB) and functionality (such as expansion slots and drives) to a portable computer when used at a desk. A port replicator is a simple device to extend the range of ports (for example, USB, DVI, HDMI, Thunderbolt, network, and so on) available for a laptop computer when it is used at a desk. The difference between a docking station and a port replicator is that a docking station can add additional capabilities beyond what is already integrated into the laptop whereas a port replicator can only reproduce the same ports that already exist on the laptop. Thunderbolt is a connector type that can be used either as a display interface (like DisplayPort) or as a general peripheral interface (like USB 3). Thunderbolt 3 uses USB-C connectors. A USB hub is a device that connects to a USB port to allow additional USB devices to be connected to the PC, essentially increasing the number of USB ports available.

What is the simplest and most cost-efficient way to allow other network users to access a printer if the printer does not have an RJ-45 or WiFi adapter available? Establish a print share on the local host Order a printer port converter to share a non-networked printer Establish a printer share on the network switch Order another printer with network capabilities and share it on the network

Establish a print share on the local host OBJ-5.6: The simplest and most cost-efficient way to share a printer is to share the printer via the local host and allow sharing across everyone to access the printer. While this costs nothing to establish and requires no additional hardware, it does require that the local host remains on 24 hours a day so that others can print to it at any time. If you are willing to spend a little money, though, you can purchase a wireless print server or a new network-capable printer instead.

Users are complaining that they are unable to connect to the wireless network when seated in the breakroom. You are troubleshooting the issue and have questioned the employees in the area about the issue. You have determined that it was working properly yesterday, but this morning it stopped working. You also determined that there was a power outage earlier this morning for about 10 minutes. After gathering this information and identifying the symptoms of the problem, what should you do NEXT according to the network troubleshooting methodology? Document findings and actions Establish a theory of probable cause Implement preventive measures Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

Establish a theory of probable cause OBJ-5.1: The troubleshooting steps are to (1) Identify the problem, (2) Establish a theory of probable cause, (3) Test the theory to determine the cause, (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and identify potential effects, (5) Implement the solution or escalate as necessary, (6) Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures, and (7) Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. Based on the scenario presented, you have already gathered information, questioned users, identified symptoms, and determined if anything changed, so you have completed the first step: identify the problem. Now, you should begin to establish a theory of probable cause by questioning the obvious and using a top-to-bottom, bottom-to-top, or divide and conquer approach to troubleshooting.

Which of the following describes the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default? Subnet mask Dynamic IP Static IP Gateway

Gateway OBJ-2.5: The default gateway parameter is the IP address of a router to which packets destined for a remote network should be sent by default. This setting is not required, but if you do not have one included, your network traffic can never leave the local area network. A static IP address is used when the DHCP server is disabled and clients are configured manually to join the network properly. A dynamic IP address is configured automatically by a DHCP server when a new host joins the network. The subnet mask is used in IPv4 to distinguish these two components within a single IP address. The subnet mask differentiates the two portions of an IP address into the Network ID and the Host ID.

You want to build a new gaming computer but intend to reuse as many of the parts as possible from your old computer. You have determined that the motherboard and the case will be reused, and you will purchase a new graphics card, sound card, network interface card, and a USB 3.0 expansion card to increase your system's overall speed and performance. You are a bit worried that your old computer's power supply may not be able to support all of these new expansion cards. Which of the following cards is MOST likely to consume the most power during operations and require you to purchase a new power supply to support it? Sound card USB 3.0 NIC Graphics card

Graphics card OBJ-3.5: The power consumption of today's graphics cards has increased a lot. The top models demand between 110 and 270 watts from the power supply; in fact, a powerful graphics card under full load requires as much power as the rest of the components of a PC system combined. If your old computer didn't have a dedicated graphics card, it is unlikely that the power supply will be powerful enough to support one without replacing the power supply. Most business computers have a 300-watt power supply. Most low-end gaming computers have a power supply of 450 to 500 watts. If you are building a high-end gaming workstation, you may require a power supply with 750 watts to 850 watts to support all processing power, graphics processing, and other expansion cards installed in the system.

Jason is teaching a CompTIA course at a large company, but they do not allow non-employees to connect to their network. Since Jason needs the Internet for an in-class demonstration, he connects his laptop to his iPhone over Wi-Fi and essentially connects to the Internet using the smartphone as a modem. Which of the following terms best describes this configuration? Hotspot Baseband update Tunneling USB tethering

Hotspot OBJ-1.3: A portable hotspot is a dedicated mobile device that connects to a cellular network and provides a wireless (Wi-Fi) network for a small number of users. Most smartphones can conduct wireless tethering as a form of creating a hotspot. Tethering uses the cellular data plan of a mobile device to provide Internet access to a laptop or PC. The PC can be tethered to the mobile by USB, Bluetooth, or Wi-Fi (a mobile hotspot). One method of doing this is to connect the laptop to the device using a Wi-Fi connection and routing all of your data from your laptop to the phone over Wi-Fi and then from the phone to the Internet using the phone's built-in cellular modem. A tunneling (or encapsulation) protocol wraps up data from one protocol for transfer over a different type of network. For example, PPP can carry TCP/IP data over a dial-up line, enabling a remote computer to communicate with the LAN. A baseband update is the modification of the firmware of a cellular modem.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow for both onsite systems and cloud services to work together seamlessly. What type of cloud model should you recommend? Public Cloud Private Cloud Community Cloud Hybrid Cloud

Hybrid Cloud OBJ-4.1: A hybrid cloud model allows for the seamless integration of both onsite and cloud services to the end-user simultaneously. Hybrid clouds can be cost-efficient, flexible, easy to migrate to a complete cloud solution in the future, and require less maintenance than completely onsite options. As with all cloud options, the contents must be properly secured due to the elastic storage nature of all cloud solutions and the possibility of data remnants. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A private cloud contains services offered either over the Internet or a private internal network and only to select users instead of the general public. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third party and hosted internally or externally.

You are installing Windows 2019 on a rack-mounted server and hosting multiple virtual machines within the physical server. You just finished the installation and now want to begin creating and provisioning the virtual machines. Which of the following should you utilize to allow you to create and provision virtual machines? Device manager Hypervisor Terminal services Disk management

Hypervisor OBJ-4.2: A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor, is a process that creates and runs virtual machines (VMs). A hypervisor allows one host computer to support multiple guest VMs by virtually sharing its resources, like memory and processing. To create and provision virtual machines within the Windows 2019 operating system, you can use a Type II hypervisor like VM Ware or VirtualBox. Disk Management is a system utility in Windows that enables you to perform advanced storage tasks. Device Manager is a component of the Microsoft Windows operating system that allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the computer. Remote Desktop Services, known as Terminal Services in Windows Server 2008 and earlier, is one of the components of Microsoft Windows that allow a user to take control of a remote computer or virtual machine over a network connection.

What type of cloud service provides instant access to servers and switches, quickly provisioned, and available for management over the internet? DaaS (Desktop) PaaS (Platform) SaaS (Software) IaaS (Infrastructure)

IaaS OBJ-4.1: Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned, and managed over the internet. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a consumer to outsource computing equipment purchases and running their own data center. IaaS quickly scales up and down with demand, letting you pay only for what you use. It helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your physical servers and other data center infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. A cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your software. Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables consumers to rent fully configured systems that are set up for specific purposes. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions. Desktop as a Service (DaaS) provides a full virtualized desktop environment from within a cloud-based service. This is also known as VDI (Virtualized Desktop Infrastructure) and is coming in large enterprise businesses focused on increasing their security and minimizing their operational expenses.

An auto mechanic needs to purchase a new printer for their shop. The printer will be used to create estimates and invoices for their customers. The printer must support the ability to create duplicate invoices using multiple sheets of paper separated by carbon paper using tractor-fed paper. Which of the following types of printers should be used? Thermal Impact Laser Inkjet

Impact OBJ-3.7: An impact or dot-matrix printer is an older type of printer that works by pressing a ribbon of ink onto the top sheet of paper using a series of dots. This is called an impact printer because it pushes the ribbon against the paper to create the image or text using a series of dots to create the image or text. These printers are most commonly used when multiple copies of a document must be created at once (like a 3-part form or contract to be signed). As these older printers are being retired and it is harder to find impact printers to purchase, most organizations are now switching to laser or inkjet printers and requiring customers to sign multiple copies of the same invoice after they are printed using a laser printer. Thermal printers are commonly used for receipts such as those at the grocery store or a restaurant.

Dion Training has recently installed a new VoIP telephone service in their offices. The employees are now complaining that their phone calls are being dropped during the middle of their conversations. The company has a single 48-port gigabit ethernet layer 3 switch that supports their desktops, laptops, and VoIP devices. Which of the following should the company do to prevent VoIP calls from dropping? Enforce MAC filtering Increase the MTU Configure the DHCP server Implement QoS

Implement QoS OBJ-5.7: To prevent the calls from being dropped, quality of service should be implemented on the switch. Quality of Service (QoS) means using a network protocol to prioritize certain traffic types over others. Enterprise networks can use QoS protocols to make sure traffic such as Voice over IP calling or video conferencing is given higher priority than traffic where packets' timing is less important, such as ordinary file downloads. MAC Filtering refers to a security access control method whereby the MAC address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network. The dynamic host control protocol (DHCP) is a protocol used to allocate IP addresses to a host when it joins a network. DHCP utilizes UDP ports 67 and 68. MTU is the largest unit that can be transmitted across a network. If the MTU is set at a value above 1500, the network is configured to support jumbo frames.

While troubleshooting a switch at the Dion Training offices, you believe that one of the ports on a switch is defective. To prove your hypothesis, which of the following tools should you use? Cable tester Loopback plug Punchdown tool Crimper

Loopback plug OBJ-2.8: A loopback plug is used to test a port. It involves connecting pin 1 to pin 3 and pin 2 to pin 6. You can do this either by rewiring the jack or twisting the relevant pairs together on a cable stub. Alternatively, you can purchase a prefabricated loopback plug. When you connect a loopback plug to a port, you should see a solid connection LED. You can also use the loopback plug in conjunction with diagnostic software. A crimper is a tool used to attach an RJ-45 plastic connector to an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) or shielded twisted pair (STP) cable. It pushes a portion of the plastic into the jacket of the cable to hold it in place. A cable tester is used to ensure a cable is properly created as a patch cable (straight through) or a crossover cable. Cable testers provide detailed information on the physical and electrical properties of the cable. For example, they test and report cable conditions, crosstalk, attenuation, noise, resistance, and other cable run characteristics. Punchdown tools are used to connect an ethernet cable to the back of a patch panel, a punchdown block, or the back of a network wall jack.

Using the image of the motherboard above, which of the following correctly indicates the circled area? CPU slot Mini PCIe AGP CMOS battery

Mini PCie OBJ-3.4: The area circled indicates the Mini PCIe slot. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. These slots can also be used to connect motherboard mounted solid-state storage devices. For the exam, it is important that you can identify the different parts of the motherboard by sight.

Which of the following types of power supplies allows the installer to attach or remove cables from the power supply as needed to reduce cable clutter inside the computer's case? 750 watt rated power supply Dual voltage power supply Modular power supply Redundant power supply

Modular power supply OBJ-3.5: A modular power supply will allow the user to attach or detach cables to the power supply as needed. This helps reduce the cable clutter inside of the case and increases airflow for cooling. A redundant power supply is when a single piece of computer equipment operates using two or more physical power supplies. Each of the power supplies will have the capacity to run the device on its own, which will allow it to operate even if one goes down. A 750-watt power supply is commonly used in gaming computers since they have high-powered graphics cards. A dual voltage power supply allows the power supply to use either 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input.

You want to build a virtualization workstation that will be used to run four different server operating systems simultaneously to create a test lab environment. Each guest operating system only requires 20 GB of storage on the host workstation. Which of the following is the MOST important piece of hardware needed for this system to run efficiently? Multi-core processor Dedicated GPU 5400 RPM hard disk drive ATX motherboard

Multi-core processor OBJ-4.2: For a virtualization workstation, it is important to have a fast processor with multiple cores. In addition to a multi-core processor, it is good to have lots of memory and a fast HDD (but not necessarily a large HDD). A dedicated GPU (graphical processing unit) is not important for a virtualization workstation. Many virtualized servers run in text-only mode or with a headless display, making a dedicated GPU a poor choice.

Which of the following technologies would allow your laptop to share content with a mobile device wirelessly using touchless transfer? USB-C mPCIe NVMe NFC

NFC OBJ-1.1: Near-field communication (NFC) is a set of communication protocols that enable two electronic devices, one of which is usually a portable device such as a smartphone, to establish communication by bringing them within 4 cm of each other. This is commonly used for contactless payment systems, transferring contacts, or transferring a file from one device to another. Mini PCIe (mPCIe) are smaller form factor versions of standard PCI Express expansions cards used with laptops and other small form factor computing devices. Mini PCIe expansion cards provide the ability to add wireless networking or cellular data cards to a laptop. Non-volatile memory express (NVMe) is an interface for connecting flash memory devices, such as SSDs, directly to a PCI Express bus. NVMe allows much higher transfer rates than SATA/AHCI. USB-C is the default standard used in USB 3.1 with a 24-pin connector. The connector is reversible and can be inserted in either direction.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is installed in a computer or server to connect to an ethernet switch using a CAT 6 cable? Cable modem Optical network terminal Network interface card Digital subscriber line

Network interface card OBJ-2.2: A network interface card is an expansion card that enables a PC to connect to a LAN. Network interface cards are also referred to as network adapters. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

Eleanor, a user, contacts the help desk to report that her workstation will not boot up this morning. The help desk technician verifies that the workstation's memory, power supply, and monitor function properly. The technician believes that the hard drive is not recognized by the system based on an error message displayed on the screen. Which of the following error messages was being displayed? BIOS ROM checksum error NTLDR not found No boot device available Operating system not found

No boot device available OBJ-5.3: "No boot device available" is an error message that indicates the workstation is not recognizing the hard drive. If the error message were "Operating system not found" or "NTLDR not found," this would indicate that the hard drive was recognized but that the Windows OS was not installed properly. The "BIOS ROM checksum error" would indicate an issue with the BIOS, not the hard drive.

Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a backup solution that can backup non-sensitive data in the most cost-efficient way. The company already has an Office 365 subscription for each employee. The employees should be able to backup and access their data from anywhere using their laptops, smartphones, or tablets. Which of the following solutions should you recommend? AWS S3 iCloud OneDrive G Suite

OneDrive OBJ-4.1: OneDrive is a Microsoft product that comes as part of the Office 365 subscription package. The other options can also provide the capabilities requested, but there would be a separate cost to utilize them. Therefore, you should recommend OneDrive in this scenario. OneDrive can utilize the storage that is easy to access from a laptop, smartphone, or tablet while the employees are away from their offices. Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing service that enables a service provider to make applications available over the Internet to end-users. This can be a calendar, scheduling, invoicing, word processor, database, or other programs. For example, Google Docs and Office 365 are both word processing SaaS solutions.

You have been asked to set up the email on a corporate laptop. The employees of Dion Training are only allowed to receive their email on one device. The email should be removed from the server's mailbox whenever the client connects to the server to download the messages. Which of the following mail protocols should you configure to allow an employee to receive their mail on their laptop and meet these requirements? HTTPS POP3 IMAP SMTP

POP3 OBJ-1.4: You should configure POP3 because the mail is downloaded to the device and removes mail from the server's mailbox by default. IMAP does not remove the mail from the server when the client connects but instead maintains a copy on the server indefinitely until the user forces it to be deleted. SMTP is used to send emails, not receive them. HTTPS is used for web browsing, not for receiving emails. The post office protocol (POP3) is a TCP/IP application protocol providing a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server over port 110. The server usually deletes messages once the client has downloaded them. The internet message access protocol (IMAP) is a TCP/IP application protocol that provides a means for a client to access email messages stored in a mailbox on a remote server using TCP port number 143. Unlike POP3, messages persist on the server after the client has downloaded them. IMAP also supports mailbox management functions, such as creating subfolders and access to the same mailbox by more than one client at the same time. The simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) is the protocol used to send mail between hosts on the Internet using TCP port 25. The hypertext transfer protocol secure (HTTPS) is a secure protocol used to provide web content to browsers using SSL/TLS encryption over port 443.

Which of the following is used when a CDMA smartphone attempts to connect to the cellular network while traveling? (Select ANY that apply) Firmware Baseband PRL PRI

PRL, PRI OBJ-1.4: The PRI and PRL must be updated and referenced when traveling. The preferred roaming index (PRI) is an index that works with the PRL to provide the best data/voice quality to a phone while roaming. The preferred roaming list (PRL) is a database built by CDMA service carriers to indicate which radio bands should be used when connecting to a cell tower. The baseband is the embedded operating system in the firmware of a smartphone or other cellular device. The firmware is a set of software instructions stored semi-permanently (embedded) on a hardware device. Modern types of firmware are stored in flash memory and can be updated more easily than legacy programmable Read-Only Memory (ROM) types. The baseband and firmware would not be updated or changed based on your location. The baseband is changed or updated when a security update is needed.

You are troubleshooting a computer that will not boot. You do not hear anything when you attempt to boot the computer, but you smell something that reminds you of burning plastic. Which of the following tools should you use to diagnose the problem with this computer? Power supply tester Toner probe ESD strap Cable tester

Power supply tester OBJ-5.2: The smell of burning plastic and the computer not turning on are symptoms of a power supply issue. Therefore, you should use a power supply (PSU) tester. A burning smell emitting from your laptop indicates that your machine's cooling system is not functioning properly. If your laptop smells like something is burning, this usually means that your computer is overheating. This can be caused by a fan not working properly. For example, if the power supply unit's fan isn't working properly, the unit can overheat, and the wiring in the power supply's transformer can start to burn or melt. This can then cause the power supply unit to fail, too.

A computer technician is configuring a NAS for a company to store their corporate data. The technician has only two hard drives available for use and needs to ensure that the data's fault tolerance and redundancy. Which of the following would be is the best configuration to implement? RAID 0 RAID 10 RAID 1 RAID 5

RAID 1 OBJ-3.3: While either a RAID 0 or RAID 1 can be used with only two drives, only a RAID 1 will provide redundancy and fault tolerance. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. With a RAID 1, one of the hard drives can fail while the other drive can still operate until the bad drive is replaced. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks. A RAID 10 combines disk mirroring and disk striping to protect data stored in the array and required a minimum of four disks. A RAID 5 requires at least three hard drives to operate, and a RAID 10 requires at least four hard drives to operate; therefore, neither is an acceptable solution to this problem.

Which RAID solution will provide the BEST speed and redundancy for a backup and disaster recovery server? RAID 10 RAID 5 RAID 1 RAID 0

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: RAID 10 provides the system with both speed and efficiency. With RAID 10, the system has a mirror of striped disks for full redundancy and double fault tolerance. RAID 10 configuration (also known as RAID 1+0) requires a minimum of four disks and mirrors data across a striped disk pair. This is not only the best option presented in this question but also the most expensive option. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Dion Training has asked you to consult on the installation of their new file server. The current server consists of a RAID 5 array with three 1 TB 7200 RPM hard disk drives. Due to the increased reliance on the new file server, you have been asked to recommend a RAID solution that will help ensure there is no unscheduled downtime, no data loss, and increase speed/performance over the current file server. Based on these requirements, which of the following RAID solutions should you recommend? RAID 5 RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 10

RAID 10 OBJ-3.3: A RAID 10 is the best solution to meet all of these requirements since it provides a fully redundant RAID with both the advantages of mirroring and disk striping. RAID 5 provides redundancy, but it will not improve the speed/performance over the current file server in use since it was also a RAID 5. A RAID 0 provides disk striping (speed/performance) but not mirroring with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 1 provides mirroring (redundancy) but not disk striping with a minimum of two disks. A RAID 5 provides block-level striping with distributed parity to provide redundancy using a minimum of three disks.

Which button on a desktop computer begins a reboot of the computer without power being removed from the computer's components? Suspend Power Hibernate Reset

Reset OBJ-3.4: The reset button is usually located on the front panel of a desktop computer next to the power button. When the reset button is pressed, it allows the user to reboot the computer without releasing power from the system's components. This is often used when software has malfunctioned and caused the computer to halt or lock up. The power button is used to shut down or put the computer to sleep. There is usually not a dedicated suspend or hibernate button, but these are instead provided as software buttons in the operating system.

You have just installed a second monitor for a salesperson's workstation. The user wants to clone the display so that both monitors show the exact same image. This will allow them to see one of the displays while their customer sees the other from across their desk. When you connect the second monitor and clone the display, the second monitor displays text twice as large as the other monitor. Which of the following settings should you configure? Refresh rate Resolution Color depth Extended mode

Resolution OBJ-5.4: Most monitors have a default or native resolution. When you first connect a monitor to a Windows workstation, this native resolution is detected, and Windows attempts to configure itself automatically. If this creates an imbalance between the two monitors, a technician can adjust the screen's resolution by changing it in the Display settings area of Windows 10. Color depth defines how many unique colors can be displayed by the projected image at once. Refresh rate is the measure of how fast an image can be updated on a monitor or display. If a monitor has a lower refresh rate, then blurring and ghosting can occur. The extended mode allows the Windows output to be stretched across two or more monitors as if they were a single monitor. This can be configured under the Display settings in Windows 10.

Which of the following is a security concern when dealing with virtual machines? Resource pooling Virtual NIC Rogue VM Symmetric multiprocessing

Rogue VM OBJ-4.2: The process of developing, testing, and deploying images brings about the first major security concern with the virtual platform itself. This is the problem of rogue VMs. A rogue VM is one that has been installed without authorization. The uncontrolled deployment of more and more VMs is referred to as VM sprawl. After all, it is a lot easier to add a guest image to a server than it is to plug a new hardware server into the network. Resource pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. Symmetric multiprocessing (SMP) is the processing of programs by multiple processors that share a common operating system and memory. A virtual network interface card (vNIC) represents the configuration of a VM connected to a network. A VM can be configured to have multiple vNICs.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to connect two dissimilar networks such as connecting a local area network (LAN) to the wide area network (WAN)? Router Managed switch Access point Hub

Router OBJ-2.2: A router is a network device that links dissimilar networks and can support multiple alternate paths between locations based upon the parameters of speed, traffic loads, and cost. Routers are used to logically divide networks into subnets. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. This leads to many collisions occurring on the hub and increases the number of rebroadcasts which slows down the entire network. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An AP supports the connection of multiple wireless devices through their one wired connection. A switch is a network device that receives incoming data into a buffer, then the destination MAC address is compared with an address table so that data is only sent out to the port with the corresponding MAC address. In a switched network, each port is in a separate collision domain. A managed switch is a switch with advanced networking functions and security settings that can be enabled and configured by an administrator.

Dion Training just installed a file server in VLAN 101 and their user workstations in VLAN 102. The users are unable to access the new file server from their workstations. Which of the following devices needs to be installed to allow users in VLAN 102 to access the resources in VLAN 101? Router Hub Unmanaged switch Wireless access point

Router OBJ-5.7: A router or other gateway device must be installed between two VLANs to allow connections to be routed between them. A Virtual LAN (VLAN) is a logically separate network that is created using switching technology. Even though hosts on two VLANs may be physically connected to the same cabling, local traffic is isolated to each VLAN so they must use a router to communicate. A hub provides no intelligence in its interconnection functions so that whatever is received on one port is repeated out every other port. A wireless access point (WAP), or access point, connects directly to a wired local area network and the AP then provides wireless connections using Wi-Fi for other devices to use that wired connection. An unmanaged switch operates out-of-the-box without any setup or configuration by switching network traffic based on MAC addresses and putting each switch port into its own collision domain. A hub, access point, and unmanaged switch are unable to route traffic and therefore would be unable to connect the two VLANs.

Tim's laptop was recently upgraded to Windows 11 but is now running more slowly due to the increased memory requirements. He has decided to install some additional RAM to speed up the laptop. Which of the following should he install? SODIMM GDDR5 DIMM VRAM

SODIMM OBJ-1.1: Laptops and integrated PCs usually use SODIMM memory due to the memory module's smaller footprint. A small outline dual inline memory module (SODIMM) can be purchased in various types and sizes to fit any laptop. A dual in-line memory module (DIMM) comprises a series of dynamic random-access memory integrated circuits. A DIMM is used in workstations and printers due to its larger size and shape. VRAM (video RAM) refers to any type of random access memory (RAM) specifically used to store image data for a computer display. GDDR5 is the DDR5 memory for a graphics card, not a laptop. For the exam, if you are ever asked about installing memory in a small form factor device or a laptop, the answer will usually be SODIMM.

What type of network cable should be used to prevent crosstalk? STP Plenum UTP RJ-11

STP OBJ-3.1: Shielded cables contain a braided foil shield around the inner cabling to protect the data from the effects of electromagnetic interference (EMI). Cables are often clustered together with a high amount of data passing through from one device to another, causing EMI (electromagnetic interference). EMI causes signal interference and errors in the transfer of data that is known as crosstalk. Unshielded cables do not contain this braided foil shield and are more affected by EMI than a shielded cable. Plenum-rated cable has a special insulation that has low smoke and low flame characteristics. Plenum cable is mandated to be installed in any air handling space. An RJ-11 connector is used to terminate cables used for phone lines.

Several users at an adjacent office building report intermittent connectivity issues after a new flag pole was installed between the two offices. The network technician has determined the adjacent office building is connected to the main office building via an 802.11ac bridge. The network technician logs into the AP and confirms the SSID, encryption, and channels are all correct. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of this issue? Incorrect antenna type DHCP exhaustion Signal attenuation Bandwidth Saturation

Signal attenuation OBJ-5.7: The most likely reason is signal attenuation from the new flag being placed between the signal path which may be obstructing the line-of-sight between the antennas. Based on where the flag is precisely located, it is possible to only block the signal when the wind is blowing in a certain direction. This would lead to the intermittent connectivity experienced by the users caused by the signal attenuation when the flag is blocking the communication path between the antennas. DHCP exhaustion occurs when the DHCP server runs out of available IP addresses and stops issuing DHCP bindings. If DHCP exhaustion occurred, the users would not have received an IP address and they would have no connectivity instead of intermittent connectivity. The question does not mention anything about the antennas being moved or replaced recently, so it is unlikely to be an issue with the antennas since they worked previously with the same wireless network and distanced. Bandwidth saturation occurs if too many devices are on one WAN link, but nothing in the question indicates that more users have been added and causing an issue.

You are configuring a workstation to be used as a point of sale (POS) device. Which of the following peripherals should you install with the device? Webcam Flatbed scanner Signature pad Memory card reader

Signature pad OBJ-1.3: A signature pad is a common peripheral used with a point of sale workstation. This allows a customer to sign a contract or sales receipt digitally. A webcam is a video camera that feeds or streams an image or video in real-time to or through a computer to a computer network, such as the Internet. Webcams are typically small cameras that sit on a desk, attach to a user's monitor, or are built into a laptop, desktop, or mobile device. A memory card reader is a device containing one or more slots to accommodate reading (and writing) memory cards. A scanner is a type of photocopier that can convert the image of a physical object into an electronic data file. The two main components of a scanner are the lamp, which illuminates the object, and the recording device, an array of CCDs (Charge Coupled Devices). There are flatbed and sheet-fed versions, with sheet-fed versions typically being incorporated with a printer and fax machine into a multifunction device.

Which of the following types of networking hardware is used to create network infrastructures within the cloud? Software-defined networking Optical network terminal Digital subscriber line Cable modem

Software-defined networking OBJ-2.2: Software-defined networking (SDN) is an approach to network management that enables dynamic, programmatically efficient network configuration to improve network performance and monitoring, making it more like cloud computing than traditional network management. Software-defined networking (SDN) uses Application Programming Interfaces (API) and compatible hardware that allows for the programming of network appliances and systems. A cable modem is a type of network bridge that provides bi-directional data communication via radio frequency channels on a hybrid fiber-coaxial (HFC), radio frequency over glass (RFoG), and coaxial cable infrastructure. Cable modems are primarily used to deliver broadband internet access as cable internet, taking advantage of an HFC and RFoG network's high bandwidth. DSL is a technology used to transmit multimedia traffic at high-bit rates over twisted-pair copper wire (over ordinary telephone lines). This allows the telecommunications company to connect a user's home to the local switching center using normal telephone lines, then connect that local switching center (using a DSLAM to multiplex the connections) to the central office over a single high-speed cable (such as a fiber connection). An optical network terminal (ONT) is a device that connects fiber optics cables to other types of wiring such as Ethernet and phone lines by converting the signal from optical to electrical and vice versa. An ONT is commonly used with fiber to the house (FTTH) installations.

You are traveling to Thailand on a business trip. Your laptop's touchscreen display is visibly flickering between being too bright and too dim when plugged into the power outlet at a local coffee shop. You take your laptop to your hotel room, and you notice it doesn't flicker when plugged in there. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue? The digitizer of the laptop is faulty The coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the display The inverter of the laptop is faulty The battery of the laptop is failing to charge

The coffee shop was experiencing power fluctuations that led to the flickering of the display OBJ-5.4: Since the only change between the flickering and non-flickering was the change in location and the power source, it is likely the cause of the issue. In some areas of the world, power is less stable and reliable than in more industrialized countries like the United States, Canada, England, and Japan. Some locations around the world have less reliable power that is subject to more power fluctuations. Flicker is a visible change in a lamp's brightness due to rapid fluctuations in the power supply voltage. The voltage drop is generated over the grid's source impedance by the changing load current of equipment or facility. These fluctuations can generate the visible flicker noticed by the user of the device.

You just received a phone call from one of your customers regarding an old monitor. The monitor uses a VGA port, and the customer is worried because they only have an old VGA cable that has a few pins broken off. The customer asks you what would happen if they used that cable to connect the monitor over VGA. What would MOST likely happen? The monitor will be black and white The display will show incorrect colors on the screen The monitor will cause distorted images on the screen The monitor will be dim or start to flicker

The display will show incorrect colors on the screen OBJ-5.4: Unfortunately, a missing or broken pin or two can cause an array of issues. Each of the 15 pins is used to create a composite image on the screen. There are three rows of pins, with 5 pins per row. Due to the pinout of a VGA cable, if pins 1, 2, or 3 are missing, the display will be miscolored. If pins 13 or 14 are missing, the screen will not hold horizontal or vertical sync. The other pins are not used or are used as ground wires. Therefore, either the incorrect colors will show up on the screen, or the screen won't display at all. The other options are not possible.

Dion Training's video editor wants to install a new dedicated GPU using an expansion card. Which of the following should they verify before installing the new card? The number of SATA connectors available The power supply's wattage rating The power supply's efficiency rating The power supply supports a 12 VDC input

The power supply's wattage rating OBJ-3.5: Dedicated graphics cards use the most power of any component in a computer. If someone is installing or replacing a graphics card, it is important to compare the current system's power usage to the wattage rating of the power supply to ensure it can support the new graphics card. SATA connectors are not used with graphics cards but are instead used for storage devices and optical drives. The power supply should support 115 VAC or 230 VAC as its input and provide 12 VDC, 5 VDC, and 3.3 VDC as its output. The power supply's efficiency rating would tell the user how much of the input power is being converted to output power, but this is not important in deciding if the power supply can support the new graphics card.

Jason presents a "how to pass your certification exams on the first attempt" lesson for his students using an overhead projector. After 24 minutes, the project goes blank. Jason allows the students to take a 15-minute coffee break while he attempts to turn the project back on. The project runs for another 4 minutes and then turns off again. What is MOST likely wrong with the projector and the laptop setup? The laptop's display driver needs to be updated The sleep setting on the laptop is too short The projector is overheating The HDMI cable is unplugged

The projector is overheating OBJ-5.4: The most likely cause is that the projector is overheating. A faulty or clogged cooling fan could cause this. If the projector overheats, it will turn off the projector's bulb to reduce the machine's heat load. The laptop's sleep setting is not the cause since it is randomly turning off at different amounts of time.

Tony, a system administrator, set up a printer on John's workstation. During the setup, Tony was able to print a test page. Later, when John attempted to print a document, an error message was displayed that indicates access was denied to the printer. John tried to restart the printer and workstation, but the same error message is displayed when he attempts to print a document. Which of the following MOST likely caused this issue? The print spooler is hung and must be restarted The printer lacks the memory required to process the document The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer The printer is offline

The user lacks adequate security permissions to the printer OBJ-5.6: A printer needs the user to have the proper permissions to print. Since Tony was a system administrator, he had adequate permissions to print the test page. But, if Tony neglected to add the proper permissions to John's account, then John would be unable to print. This is indicated by the access denied error message received when he attempts to print a document. The printer is not offline since it is powered on and properly connected to the workstation. The print spooler is not hung as evidenced by the system administrator can print to it. Memory limitations can be a factor, but that produces a different error message.

Which of the following components of a color laser printer is used to combine the 4 colors before printing them to the paper in one pass? Transfer roller Duplexing assembly Pickup roller Transfer belt

Transfer belt OBJ-3.7: The transfer belt is the component in a color laser printer that combines the 4 colors before printing it to the paper in one pass. The transfer roller is the component in a laser printer that applies an electric charge to the paper to attract toner from the photoconductor during the imaging process. The pickup roller is the component in a laser printer that turns above a stack of paper to feed a sheet into the feed roller. The duplexing assembly is a component that enables a printer or scanner to use both sides of a page automatically.

Which of the following is the virtualization technology supported by most modern Intel processors? HT Intel-V VT AMD-V

VT OBJ-3.4: To use virtualization and have virtual machines running on a single workstation, you need to have a CPU specifically designed to support virtualization. For Intel processors, they must support VT or Virtualization Technology. If you are using an AMD processor, it should support AMD-V (AMD's virtualization technology). HyperThreading (HT) is an Intel CPU architecture implemented to expose two or more logical processors to the OS to deliver performance benefits. Intel-V is a made-up term used as a distractor on this question.

What is the fifth step of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution Document findings, actions, and outcomes Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures Test the theory to determine the cause

Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures OBJ-5.1: For the exam, it is important that you can list and identify the 6 steps of the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology in order. (1) Identify the problem. (2) Establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). (3) Test the theory to determine the cause. (4) Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and then implement the solution. (5) Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventative measures. (6) Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

Tom, a salesman, is trying to print a 3-page report to the network printer located in the Sales department's office space. He walks over to the printer but doesn't see the pages in the printer's output tray. He checks the on-screen display of the printer, but he doesn't see any errors listed. Tom tries a few more times, but he gets the same results. Frustrated, Tom selects the network printer for the Customer Service department and sends his print job there. He walks over to their offices and finds his 3-page report sitting in that printer's output tray. Tom asks you to help him solve this printing problem. What action should you take FIRST to help solve Tom's problem? Ask one of Tom's coworkers to attempt to print something to the Sales department's printer to verify it is working properly Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer's queue Stop and restart the PC's print spooler service using your administrator account Log in to the network's print server, stop and restart all of the shared printer queues, and then try to reprint the document

Verify that Tom has been sending the document to the correct network printer's queue OBJ-5.6: The first thing you should do is verify that this problem is not caused by user error. To do this, you should verify which network printer queue Tom had been sending the document to the first few times. You may wish to ask a coworker to print to the Sales department's printer, but that would be your second step AFTER verifying the user was printing to that print queue properly first. Since the print job was successful once Tom switched to another printer, the PC's print spooler worked properly, so you don't need to restart it. You should not restart all of the shared printer queues unless it is necessary because this would affect all company employees and is not necessary to solve this issue.

You are setting up a new wireless network at the local branch of your community's public library. Previously, the library only had a small wired network that relied on statically assigned IP addresses. You just finished installing all of the wireless access points. You configured a server to automatically provide an IP address to wireless clients when connecting to one of the wireless access points. To test the new wireless network, you turn on your wireless adapter on your laptop and connect to the network. Your laptop is automatically assigned an IP address of 192.168.1.12 from the DHCP server, and you can ping the default gateway of 192.168.1.1. You open a web browser and attempt to connect to diontraining.com, but you cannot connect and instead receive an error. You attempt to ping the IP address for the Google DNS server (8.8.8.8) and are successful. Which of the following should you attempt to do NEXT to resolve this issue? Enable DHCP inside of your laptop's network adapter settings Disable the Broadcast SSID option for the wireless access point Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server Disable the Windows Firewall to ensure it isn't blocking your access to the website

Verify that the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server OBJ-5.7: Since you are already connected to the wireless network and can ping the gateway using its IP address, you already know the SSID and DHCP are properly configured (therefore, you should not select these options). It is a poor security practice to disable the firewall, so it is not recommended that you choose this option. Since we cannot access a website using its domain name (diontraining.com), we can successfully ping a remote server using its IP address (8.8.8.8). This indicates that your laptop has not been properly assigned a DNS server to use by the DHCP server. Therefore, you need to verify the DHCP server is properly configured to provide the IP address of a DNS server to the clients when it assigned them their IP address configuration information.

When using a Type 1 hypervisor virtualized environment, which of the following hardware types is necessary to connect the VMs to the corporate network? VNC Virtual NIC VPN VDI

Virtual NIC OBJ-4.2: A virtual machine includes a virtual NIC. A virtual NIC is a type of virtual adapter that can be configured on logical partitions to provide a network interface. This virtual NIC can be paired and mapped to a physical NIC to get the VM onto the network. Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) is a software technology that separates the desktop environment and associated application software from the physical client device that is used to access it. A virtual private network (VPN) extends a private network across a public network and enables users to send and receive data across shared or public networks as if their computing devices were directly connected to the private network. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it.

A technician is troubleshooting a newly installed WAP that is sporadically dropping connections to devices on the network. Which of the following should the technician check FIRST during troubleshooting? WAP SSID Bandwidth saturation WAP placement Encryption type

WAP placement OBJ-5.7: For optimal network performance, the placement of the Wireless Access Point (WAP) guidelines should be taken into consideration to ensure that the building's construction doesn't cause interference with the wireless signals. To determine if adequate coverage and signal strength is being received in the building, you can conduct a wireless site survey. The service set identifier (SSID) is a group of wireless network devices which share a common natural language label, such as a network name. The SSID would not affect the devices and cause sporadic connection drops. Bandwidth saturation is a phenomenon that occurs when all of a circuit's available bandwidth in a given direction is being utilized by a large upload or download which can result in high latency and performance issues. Bandwidth saturation would not cause the wireless connection to drop, though. Encryption type refers to the type of security used on a wireless network, such as WEP, WPA, WPA2, or WPA3. The security type used on a network would not cause sporadic drops of the network connection, though.

What command is used to test if your own network card's driver is working properly? ping 127.0.0.1 ping 1.1.1.1 ping 8.8.8.8 ping 192.168.1.1

ping 127.0.0.1 OBJ-5.7: The IP Address 127.0.0.1 is a localhost IP for testing your network interface card (NIC). This IP address is reserved for use with a loopback test. If there is no communication of the return packet, this indicates the network card is faulty, the cable/loopback is loose, or there is bad wiring of the loopback plug. Using ping with public IP addresses or the gateway address, such as 1.1.1.1, 8.8.8.8, and 192.168.1.1, would instead verify the entire path and not just NIC's driver.