Comptia Exam Test Security+SY0-401 (Updated on the 1st of March 2018)

While securing a network it is decided to allow active FTP connections into the network. Which of the following ports MUST be configured to allow active FTP connections? (Select TWO).

A. 20 B. 21

A security administrator has configured FTP in passive mode. Which of the following ports should the security administrator allow on the firewall by default?

B. 21 Explanation: When establishing an FTP session, clients start a connection to an FTP server that listens on TCP port 21 by default.

Which of the following is the MOST secure protocol to transfer files?

B. FTPS Explanation: FTPS refers to FTP Secure, or FTP SSL. It is a secure variation of File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

After entering the following information into a SOHO wireless router, a mobile device's user reports being unable to connect to the network: PERMIT 0A: D1: FA. B1: 03: 37 DENY 01: 33: 7F: AB: 10: AB Which of the following is preventing the device from connecting?

B. Hardware address filtering is blocking the device. Explanation: MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.

A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration. Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?

B. IDS Explanation: An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of "flavors" and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization. IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack's content.

The data backup window has expanded into the morning hours and has begun to affect production users. The main bottleneck in the process is the time it takes to replicate the backups to separate severs at the offsite data center. Which of the following uses of deduplication could be implemented to reduce the backup window?

B. Implement deduplication on the storage array to reduce the amount of drive space needed

The Human Resources department has a parent shared folder setup on the server. There are two groups that have access, one called managers and one called staff. There are many sub folders under the parent shared folder, one is called payroll. The parent folder access control list propagates all subfolders and all subfolders inherit the parent permission. Which of the following is the quickest way to prevent the staff group from gaining access to the payroll folder?

B. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group Explanation Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default.

When considering a vendor-specific vulnerability in critical industrial control systems which of the following techniques supports availability?

B. Incorporating diversity into redundant design Explanation: If you know there is a vulnerability that is specific to one vendor, you can improve availability by implementing multiple systems that include at least one system from a different vendor and so is not affected by the vulnerability.

Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Select TWO).

C. 10.4.4.165 D. 10.4.4.189 Explanation: With the given subnet mask, a maximum number of 30 hosts between IP addresses 10.4.4.161 and 10.4.4.190 are allowed. Therefore, option C and D would be hosts on the same subnet, and the other options would not.

An active directory setting restricts querying to only secure connections. Which of the following ports should be selected to establish a successful connection?

C. 636 Explanation: Port 636 is used for secure LDAP (LDAPS).

Which of the following ports would be blocked if Pete, a security administrator, wants to deny access to websites?

C. 80 Explanation: Port 80 is used by HTTP, which is the foundation of data communication for the World Wide Web.

Which of the following metrics is important for measuring the extent of data required during backup and recovery?

C. ALE

A database administrator contacts a security administrator to request firewall changes for a connection to a new internal application. The security administrator notices that the new application uses a port typically monopolized by a virus. The security administrator denies the request and suggests a new port or service be used to complete the application's task. Which of the following is the security administrator practicing in this example?

C. Access control lists Explanation: Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.

Which of the following is characterized by an attack against a mobile device?

C. Blue jacking Explanation: A bluejacking attack is where unsolicited messages are sent to mobile devices using Bluetooth. Bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers, sending a vCard which typically contains a message in the name field (i.e., for bluedating or bluechat) to another Bluetooth-enabled device via the OBEX protocol. Bluetooth has a very limited range, usually around 10 metres (32.8 ft) on mobile phones, but laptops can reach up to 100 metres (328 ft) with powerful (Class 1) transmitters. Bluejacking is usually harmless, but because bluejacked people generally don't know what has happened, they may think that their phone is malfunctioning. Usually, a bluejacker will only send a text message, but with modern phones it's possible to send images or sounds as well. Bluejacking has been used in guerrilla marketing campaigns to promote advergames.

Which of the following protocols allows for the LARGEST address space?

C. IPv6 Explanation: The main advantage of IPv6 over IPv4 is its larger address space. The length of an IPv6 address is 128 bits, compared with 32 bits in IPv4.

Which of the following would be MOST appropriate to secure an existing SCADA system by preventing connections from unauthorized networks?

C. Implement a firewall to protect the SCADA system Explanation: Firewalls manage traffic using filters, which is just a rule or set of rules. A recommended guideline for firewall rules is, "deny by default; allow by exception". This means that if a network connection is not specifically allowed, it will be denied.

An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?

C. Implement an intrusion prevention system Explanation: The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

Concurrent use of a firewall, content filtering, antivirus software and an IDS system would be considered components of:

C. Layered security. Explanation: Layered security is the practice of combining multiple mitigating security controls to protect resources and data.

A technician is unable to manage a remote server. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall for remote server management? (Select TWO).

A. 22 F. 3389 Explanation: A secure remote administration solution and Remote Desktop protocol is required. Secure Shell (SSH) is a secure remote administration solution and makes use of TCP port 22. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

Which of the following ports should be used by a system administrator to securely manage a remote server?

A. 22 Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a more secure replacement for Telnet, rlogon, rsh, and rcp. SSH can be called a remote access or remote terminal solution. SSH offers a means by which a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device can be established over any distance. SSH makes use of TCP port 22.

A technician must configure a firewall to block external DNS traffic from entering a network. Which of the following ports should they block on the firewall?

A. 53

Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone?

A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks. Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

A security team has identified that the wireless signal is broadcasting into the parking lot. To reduce the risk of an attack against the wireless network from the parking lot, which of the following controls should be used? (Select TWO).

A. Antenna placement F. Power levels Explanation: Placing the antenna in the correct position is crucial. You can then adjust the power levels to exclude the parking lot.

Which of the following describes a type of malware which is difficult to reverse engineer in a virtual lab?

A. Armored virus Explanation: An armored virus is a type of virus that has been designed to thwart attempts by analysts from examining its code by using various methods to make tracing, disassembling and reverse engineering more difficult. An Armored Virus may also protect itself from antivirus programs, making it more difficult to trace. To do this, the Armored Virus attempts to trick the antivirus program into believing its location is somewhere other than where it really is on the system.

Which of the following is a directional antenna that can be used in point-to-point or point-to-multi-point WiFi communication systems? (Select TWO).

A. Backfire E. Dish Explanation: Both the Backfire and the Dish antennae are high gain antenna types that transmit a narrow beam of signal. It can therefore be used as a point-to-point antenna over short distances, but as point-to-multi-point antenna over longer distances.

A network technician is on the phone with the system administration team. Power to the server room was lost and servers need to be restarted. The DNS services must be the first to be restarted. Several machines are powered off. Assuming each server only provides one service, which of the following should be powered on FIRST to establish DNS services?

A. Bind server Explanation: BIND (Berkeley Internet Name Domain) is the most widely used Domain Name System (DNS) software on the Internet. It includes the DNS server component contracted for name daemon. This is the only option that directly involves DNS.

A security administrator wishes to increase the security of the wireless network. Which of the following BEST addresses this concern?

A. Change the encryption from TKIP-based to CCMP-based. Explanation: CCMP makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector. This initialization vector makes cracking a bit more difficult.

A network administrator wants to block both DNS requests and zone transfers coming from outside IP addresses. The company uses a firewall which implements an implicit allow and is currently configured with the following ACL applied to its external interface. PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 80 PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 443 Which of the following rules would accomplish this task? (Select TWO).

A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACL DENY IP ANY ANY 53 Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn't present. DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers. These are zone file exchanges between DNS servers, special manual queries, or used when a response exceeds 512 bytes. UDP port 53 is used for most typical DNS queries.

An organization relies heavily on an application that has a high frequency of security updates. At present, the security team only updates the application on the first Monday of each month, even though the security updates are released as often as twice a week. Which of the following would be the BEST method of updating this application?

A. Configure testing and automate patch management for the application.

Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?

A. Create a VLAN for the SCADA Explanation: VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn't need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn't be able to do so

An administrator connects VoIP phones to the same switch as the network PCs and printers. Which of the following would provide the BEST logical separation of these three device types while still allowing traffic between them via ACL?

A. Create three VLANs on the switch connected to a router Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function

A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the company's front-end servers but protect all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended?

A. DMZ Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

When designing a new network infrastructure, a security administrator requests that the intranet web server be placed in an isolated area of the network for security purposes. Which of the following design elements would be implemented to comply with the security administrator's request?

A. DMZ Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

A security architect wishes to implement a wireless network with connectivity to the company's internal network. Before they inform all employees that this network is being put in place, the architect wants to roll it out to a small test segment. Which of the following allows for greater secrecy about this network during this initial phase of implementation?

A. Disabling SSID broadcasting Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use.

Which of the following can be used to ensure that sensitive records stored on a backend server can only be accessed by a front end server with the appropriate record key?

A. File encryption

An administrator is testing the collision resistance of different hashing algorithms. Which of the following is the strongest collision resistance test?

A. Find two identical messages with different hashes

Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface?

A. Firewall Explanation The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network?

A. HIPS on each virtual machine Explanation: Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.

After a network outage, a PC technician is unable to ping various network devices. The network administrator verifies that those devices are working properly and can be accessed securely. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the PC technician is unable to ping those devices?

A. ICMP is being blocked Explanation: ICMP is a protocol that is commonly used by tools such as ping, traceroute, and pathping. ICMP offers no information If ICMP request queries go unanswered, or ICMP replies are lost or blocked.

Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of which of the following?

A. IPSec Explanation: IPSec can operate in tunnel mode or transport mode. It uses symmetric cryptography to provide encryption security. Furthermore, it makes use of Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP).

A network engineer is designing a secure tunneled VPN. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?

A. IPsec Explanation: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) came about through a partnership between Cisco and Microsoft with the intention of providing a more secure VPN protocol. L2TP is considered to be a more secure option than PPTP, as the IPSec protocol which holds more secure encryption algorithms, is utilized in conjunction with it. It also requires a pre-shared certificate or key. L2TP's strongest level of encryption makes use of 168 bit keys, 3 DES encryption algorithm and requires two levels of authentication. L2TP has a number of advantages in comparison to PPTP in terms of providing data integrity and authentication of origin verification designed to keep hackers from compromising the system. However, the increased overhead required to manage this elevated security means that it performs at a slower pace than PPTP.

Which of the following allows Pete, a security technician, to provide the MOST secure wireless implementation?

A. Implement WPA Explanation Of the options supplied, WiFi Protected Access (WPA) is the most secure and is the replacement for WEP.

An IT director is looking to reduce the footprint of their company's server environment. They have decided to move several internally developed software applications to an alternate environment, supported by an external company. Which of the following BEST describes this arrangement?

A. Infrastructure as a Service Explanation: Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.

Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Pete's access to this site?

A. Internet content filter Explanation: Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, especially when utilised to restrict material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.

Which of the following means of wireless authentication is easily vulnerable to spoofing?

A. MAC Filtering Explanation: Each network interface on your computer or any other networked device has a unique MAC address. These MAC addresses are assigned in the factory, but you can easily change, or "spoof," MAC addresses in software. Networks can use MAC address filtering, only allowing devices with specific MAC addresses to connect to a network. This isn't a great security tool because people can spoof their MAC addresses.

Which of the following protocols is used by IPv6 for MAC address resolution?

A. NDP Explanation: The Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) is a protocol in the Internet protocol suite used with Internet Protocol Version 6 (IPv6).

Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network?

A. NIPS Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

Jane, an administrator, needs to make sure the wireless network is not accessible from the parking area of their office. Which of the following would BEST help Jane when deploying a new access point?

A. Placement of antenna Explanation: You should try to avoid placing access points near metal (which includes appliances) or near the ground. Placing them in the center of the area to be served and high enough to get around most obstacles is recommended. On the chance that the signal is actually traveling too far, some access points include power level controls, which allow you to reduce the amount of output provided.

Which of the following is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine?

A. RPC Explanation: Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine.

After reviewing the firewall logs of her organization's wireless APs, Ann discovers an unusually high amount of failed authentication attempts in a particular segment of the building. She remembers that a new business moved into the office space across the street. Which of the following would be the BEST option to begin addressing the issue?

A. Reduce the power level of the AP on the network segment Explanation: Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far

A network analyst received a number of reports that impersonation was taking place on the network. Session tokens were deployed to mitigate this issue and defend against which of the following attacks?

A. Replay Explanation: A replay attack (also known as playback attack) is a form of network attack in which a valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed. This is carried out either by the originator or by an adversary who intercepts the data and retransmits it, possibly as part of a masquerade attack by IP packet substitution (such as stream cipher attack).

An administrator needs to secure RADIUS traffic between two servers. Which of the following is the BEST solution?

A. Require IPSec with AH between the servers Explanation: IPsec is used for a secure point-to-point connection traversing an insecure network such as the Internet. Authentication Header (AH) is a primary IPsec protocol that provides authentication of the sender's data.

A technician wants to securely collect network device configurations and statistics through a scheduled and automated process. Which of the following should be implemented if configuration integrity is most important and a credential compromise should not allow interactive logons?

A. SNMPv3 Explanation: SNMPv3 provides the following security features: Message integrity - Ensures that a packet has not been tampered with in transit. Authentication - Determines that the message is from a valid source. Encryption - Scrambles the content of a packet to prevent it from being learned by an unauthorized source.

Which of the following uses port 22 by default? (Select THREE).

A. SSH D. SFTP E. SCP

An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points?

A. SSID broadcast Explanation: Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence.

A penetration testing is preparing for a client engagement in which the tester must provide data that proves and validates the scanning tools' results. Which of the following is the best method for collecting this information?

A. Set up the scanning system's firewall to permit and log all outbound connections

The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed?

A. Signature Based IDS Explanation: A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats.

A company's business model was changed to provide more web presence and now its ERM software is no longer able to support the security needs of the company. The current data center will continue to provide network and security services. Which of the following network elements would be used to support the new business model?

A. Software as a Service Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) allows for on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without having to install it locally. This will allow the data center to continue providing network and security services.

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) has agreed with the CIO's direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the organization's network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CRO's requirements?

A. Software as a Service Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.

A security technician at a small business is worried about the Layer 2 switches in the network suffering from a DoS style attack caused by staff incorrectly cabling network connections between switches. Which of the following will BEST mitigate the risk if implemented on the switches?

A. Spanning tree

Which of the following encrypts data a single bit at a time?

A. Stream cipher

Which of the following wireless security technologies continuously supplies new keys for WEP?

A. TKIP Explanation: TKIP is a suite of algorithms that works as a "wrapper" to WEP, which allows users of legacy WLAN equipment to upgrade to TKIP without replacing hardware. TKIP uses the original WEP programming but "wraps" additional code at the beginning and end to encapsulate and modify it.

Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to a company by allowing employees to physically bring their personal smartphones to work?

A. Taking pictures of proprietary information and equipment in restricted areas.

A company provides secure wireless Internet access for visitors and vendors working onsite. Some of the vendors using older technology report that they are unable to access the wireless network after entering the correct network information. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

A. The SSID broadcast is disabled. Explanation: When the SSID is broadcast, any device with an automatic detect and connect feature is able to see the network and can initiate a connection with it. The fact that they cannot access the network means that they are unable to see it.

Ann, a sales manager, successfully connected her company-issued smartphone to the wireless network in her office without supplying a username/password combination. Upon disconnecting from the wireless network, she attempted to connect her personal tablet computer to the same wireless network and could not connect. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason?

A. The company wireless is using a MAC filter. Explanation: MAC filtering allows you to include or exclude computers and devices based on their MAC address.

Which of the following best describes the initial processing phase used in mobile device forensics?

A. The phone should be powered down and the battery removed to preserve the state of data on any internal or removable storage utilized by the mobile device

The loss prevention department has purchased a new application that allows the employees to monitor the alarm systems at remote locations. However, the application fails to connect to the vendor's server and the users are unable to log in. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of this issue? (Select TWO).

A. URL filtering E. Firewall rules Explanation: A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website.Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule's criteria: Block the connection Allow the connection Allow the connection only if it is secured

An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal?

A. Unified Threat Management Explanation: When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, and —typically—reduced complexity.

Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Select TWO).

A. Virtual switch F. VLAN Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question.

Due to limited resources, a company must reduce their hardware budget while still maintaining availability. Which of the following would MOST likely help them achieve their objectives?

A. Virtualization Explanation: Because Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines, it requires less hardware to maintain the current scenario.

A corporation is looking to expand their data center but has run out of physical space in which to store hardware. Which of the following would offer the ability to expand while keeping their current data center operated by internal staff?

A. Virtualization Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model?

A. WAF Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified. As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.

A network administrator has been tasked with securing the WLAN. Which of the following cryptographic products would be used to provide the MOST secure environment for the WLAN?

A. WPA2 CCMP Explanation: CCMP is the standard encryption protocol for use with the WPA2 standard and is much more secure than the WEP protocol and TKIP protocol of WPA. CCMP provides the following security services: Data confidentiality; ensures only authorized parties can access the information Authentication; provides proof of genuineness of the user Access control in conjunction with layer management Because CCMP is a block cipher mode using a 128-bit key, it is secure against attacks to the 264 steps of operation.

Configuring key/value pairs on a RADIUS server is associated with deploying which of the following?

A. WPA2-Enterprise wireless network Explanation: WPA2-Enterprise is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server.

The common method of breaking larger network address space into smaller networks is known as:

A. subnetting. Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

Which of the following ports is used to securely transfer files between remote UNIX systems?

B. 22 Explanation: SCP copies files securely between hosts on a network. It uses SSH for data transfer, and uses the same authentication and provides the same security as SSH. Unlike RCP, SCP will ask for passwords or passphrases if they are needed for authentication. SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

After a new firewall has been installed, devices cannot obtain a new IP address. Which of the following ports should Matt, the security administrator, open on the firewall?

B. 68 Explanation: The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a standardized network protocol used on Internet Protocol (IP) networks for distributing IP addresses for interfaces and services. DHCP makes use of port 68.

Which of the following is the default port for TFTP?

B. 69

A security analyst noticed a colleague typing the following command: `Telnet some-host 443' Which of the following was the colleague performing?

B. A quick test to see if there is a service running on some-host TCP/443, which is being routed correctly and not blocked by a firewall. Explanation: B: The Telnet program parameters are: telnet is the name or IP address of the remote server to connect to. is the port number of the service to use for the connection. TCP port 443 provides the HTTPS (used for secure web connections) service; it is the default SSL port. By running the Telnet some-host 443 command, the security analyst is checking that routing is done properly and not blocked by a firewall.

Which the following flags are used to establish a TCP connection? (Select TWO)

B. ACK C. SYN To establish a TCP connection, the three-way (or 3-step) handshake occurs: SYN: The active open is performed by the client sending a SYN to the server. The client sets the segment's sequence number to a random value A. SYN-ACK: In response, the server replies with a SYN-ACK. The acknowledgment number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. A+1, and the sequence number that the server chooses for the packet is another random number, B. ACK: Finally, the client sends an ACK back to the server. The sequence number is set to the received acknowledgement value i.e. A+1, and the acknowledgement number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. B+1

Which of the following is the summary of loss for a given year?

B. ALE

In intrusion detection system vernacular, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization?

B. Administrator Explanation: The administrator is the person responsible for setting the security policy for an organization and is responsible for making decisions about the deployment and configuration of the IDS.

Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario?

B. Anomaly Based IDS Explanation: Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.

A network consists of various remote sites that connect back to two main locations. Pete, the security administrator, needs to block TELNET access into the network. Which of the following, by default, would be the BEST choice to accomplish this goal?

B. Block port 23 on the network firewall Explanation: Telnet is a terminal-emulation network application that supports remote connectivity for executing commands and running applications but doesn't support transfer of fi les. Telnet uses TCP port 23. Because it's a clear text protocol and service, it should be avoided and replaced with SSH.

A firewall technician has been instructed to disable all non-secure ports on a corporate firewall. The technician has blocked traffic on port 21, 69, 80, and 137-139. The technician has allowed traffic on ports 22 and 443. Which of the following correctly lists the protocols blocked and allowed?

B. Blocked: FTP, TFTP, HTTP, NetBIOS; Allowed: SFTP, SSH, SCP, HTTPS

A user commuting to work via public transport received an offensive image on their smart phone from another commuter. Which of the following attacks MOST likely took place?

B. Bluejacking Explanation: The question states that the 'attack' took place on public transport and was received on a smartphone. Therefore, it is most likely that the image was sent using Bluetooth. Bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers, sending a vCard which typically contains a message in the name field (i.e., for bluedating or bluechat) to another Bluetooth-enabled device via the OBEX protocol. Bluetooth has a very limited range, usually around 10 metres (32.8 ft) on mobile phones, but laptops can reach up to 100 metres (328 ft) with powerful (Class 1) transmitters. Bluejacking is usually harmless, but because bluejacked people generally don't know what has happened, they may think that their phone is malfunctioning. Usually, a bluejacker will only send a text message, but with modern phones it's possible to send images or sounds as well. Bluejacking has been used in guerrilla marketing campaigns to promote advergames.

Joe, an employee is taking a taxi through a busy city and starts to receive unsolicited files sent to his Smartphone. Which of the following is this an example of?

B. Bluejacking Explanation: Bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers, sending a vCard which typically contains a message in the name field (i.e., for bluedating or bluechat) to another Bluetooth-enabled device via the OBEX protocol. Bluetooth has a very limited range, usually around 10 metres (32.8 ft) on mobile phones, but laptops can reach up to 100 metres (328 ft) with powerful (Class 1) transmitters. Bluejacking is usually harmless, but because bluejacked people generally don't know what has happened, they may think that their phone is malfunctioning. Usually, a bluejacker will only send a text message, but with modern phones it's possible to send images or sounds as well. Bluejacking has been used in guerrilla marketing campaigns to promote advergames.

Pete, a security analyst, has been tasked with explaining the different types of malware to his colleagues. The two malware types that the group seems to be most interested in are botnets and viruses. Which of the following explains the difference between these two types of malware?

B. Botnets are a subset of malware which are used as part of DDoS attacks. Explanation: A botnet is a collection of Internet-connected programs communicating with other similar programs in order to perform tasks. This can be as mundane as keeping control of an Internet Relay Chat (IRC) channel, or it could be used to send spam email or participate in distributed denial-of-service attacks. The word botnet is a combination of the words robot and network. The term is usually used with a negative or malicious connotation. Computers can be co-opted into a botnet when they execute malicious software. This can be accomplished by luring users into making a drive-by download, exploiting web browser vulnerabilities, or by tricking the user into running a Trojan horse program, which may come from an email attachment. This malware will typically install modules that allow the computer to be commanded and controlled by the botnet's operator. Many computer users are unaware that their computer is infected with bots. Depending on how it is written, a Trojan may then delete itself, or may remain present to update and maintain the modules.

An access point has been configured for AES encryption but a client is unable to connect to it. Which of the following should be configured on the client to fix this issue?

B. CCMP Explanation: CCMP is an encryption protocol designed for Wireless LAN products that implement the standards of the IEEE 802.11i amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard. CCMP is an enhanced data cryptographic encapsulation mechanism designed for data confidentiality and based upon the Counter Mode with CBC-MAC (CCM) of the AES standard

Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, do to limit a wireless signal from penetrating the exterior walls?

B. Consider antenna placement Explanation Cinderblock walls, metal cabinets, and other barriers can reduce signal strength significantly. Therefore, antenna placement is critical.

Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called:

B. Content filters Explanation: A content filter is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorised to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.

A new intern in the purchasing department requires read access to shared documents. Permissions are normally controlled through a group called "Purchasing", however, the purchasing group permissions allow write access. Which of the following would be the BEST course of action?

B. Create a new group that has only read permissions for the files.

Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic?

B. Create a voice VLAN. Explanation: It is a common and recommended practice to separate voice and data traffic by using VLANs. Separating voice and data traffic using VLANs provides a solid security boundary, preventing data applications from reaching the voice traffic. It also gives you a simpler method to deploy QoS, prioritizing the voice traffic over the data.

A server with the IP address of 10.10.2.4 has been having intermittent connection issues. The logs show repeated connection attempts from the following IPs: 10.10.3.16 10.10.3.23 212.178.24.26 217.24.94.83 These attempts are overloading the server to the point that it cannot respond to traffic. Which of the following attacks is occurring?

B. DDoS Explanation: A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is an attack from several different computers targeting a single computer One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload. A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack occurs when multiple systems flood the bandwidth or resources of a targeted system, usually one or more web servers. Such an attack is often the result of multiple compromised systems (for example a botnet) flooding the targeted system with traffic. When a server is overloaded with connections, new connections can no longer be accepted. The major advantages to an attacker of using a distributed denial-of-service attack are that multiple machines can generate more attack traffic than one machine, multiple attack machines are harder to turn off than one attack machine, and that the behavior of each attack machine can be stealthier, making it harder to track and shut down. These attacker advantages cause challenges for defense mechanisms

During the analysis of a PCAP file, a security analyst noticed several communications with a remote server on port 53. Which of the following protocol types is observed in this traffic?

B. DNS

It is MOST important to make sure that the firewall is configured to do which of the following?

B. Deny all traffic and only permit by exception. Explanation: Firewalls manage traffic using filters, which is just a rule or set of rules. A recommended guideline for firewall rules is, "deny by default; allow by exception".

Which of the following will help prevent smurf attacks?

B. Disabling directed broadcast on border routers Explanation: A smurf attack involves sending PING requests to a broadcast address. Therefore, we can prevent smurf attacks by blocking broadcast packets on our external routers.

An administrator needs to secure a wireless network and restrict access based on the hardware address of the device. Which of the following solutions should be implemented?

B. Enable MAC filtering Explanation: MAC addresses are also known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. Enabling MAC filtering would allow for a WAP to restrict or allow access based on the hardware address of the device.

Which of the following devices would be MOST useful to ensure availability when there are a large number of requests to a certain website?

B. Load balancer Explanation: Load balancing refers to shifting a load from one device to another. A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and it is usually associated with a device — a router, a firewall, NAT appliance, and so on. In its most common implementation, a load balancer splits the traffic intended for a website into individual requests that are then rotated to redundant servers as they become available.

Ann, a software developer, has installed some code to reactivate her account one week after her account has been disabled. Which of the following is this an example of? (Select TWO).

B. Logic Bomb D. Backdoor Explanation: This is an example of both a logic bomb and a backdoor. The logic bomb is configured to 'go off' or activate one week after her account has been disabled. The reactivated account will provide a backdoor into the system. A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs. A backdoor in a computer system (or cryptosystem or algorithm) is a method of bypassing normal authentication, securing unauthorized remote access to a computer, obtaining access to plaintext, and so on, while attempting to remain undetected. The backdoor may take the form of an installed program (e.g., Back Orifice) or may subvert the system through a rootkit. A backdoor in a login system might take the form of a hard coded user and password combination which gives access to the system.

Which of the following malware types is MOST likely to execute its payload after Jane, an employee, has left the company?

B. Logic bomb Explanation: This is an example of a logic bomb. The logic bomb is configured to 'go off' or when Jane has left the company. A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs.

Which of the following wireless security measures can an attacker defeat by spoofing certain properties of their network interface card?

B. MAC filtering Explanation: MAC filtering is typically used in wireless networks. In computer networking, MAC Filtering (or GUI filtering, or layer 2 address filtering) refers to a security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network.

A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with outsourcing the analysis of security logs. These will need to still be reviewed on a regular basis to ensure the security of the company has not been breached. Which of the following cloud service options would support this requirement?

B. MaaS Explanation: Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.

Ann, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) of a company, sees cloud computing as a way to save money while providing valuable services. She is looking for a cost-effective solution to assist in capacity planning as well as visibility into the performance of the network. Which of the following cloud technologies should she look into?

B. MaaS Explanation: Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.

A security administrator is tasked with ensuring that all devices have updated virus definition files before they are allowed to access network resources. Which of the following technologies would be used to accomplish this goal?

B. NAC Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies.

An administrator is looking to implement a security device which will be able to not only detect network intrusions at the organization level, but help defend against them as well. Which of the following is being described here?

B. NIPS Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it

A software development company needs to share information between two remote servers, using encryption to protect it. A programmer suggests developing a new encryption protocol, arguing that using an unknown protocol with secure, existing cryptographic algorithm libraries will provide strong encryption without being susceptible to attacks on other known protocols. Which of the following summarizes the BEST response to the programmer's proposal?

B. New protocols often introduce unexpected vulnerabilities, even when developed with otherwise secure and tested algorithm libraries.

A network operations manager has added a second row of server racks in the datacenter. These racks face the opposite direction of the first row of racks. Which of the following is the reason the manager installed the racks this way?

B. To create environmental hot and cold isles

A Human Resources user is issued a virtual desktop typically assigned to Accounting employees. A system administrator wants to disable certain services and remove the local accounting groups installed by default on this virtual machine. The system administrator is adhering to which of the following security best practices?

B. Operating System hardening Explanation: Operating System hardening is the process of securing the operating system by reducing its surface of vulnerability. Reducing the surface of vulnerability typically includes removing unnecessary functions and features, removing unnecessary usernames or logins and disabling unnecessary services.

Company XYZ recently salvaged company laptops and removed all hard drives, but the Chief Information Officer (CIO) is concerned about disclosure of confidential information. Which of the following is the MOST secure method to dispose of these hard drives?

B. Physical Destruction Explanation: The physical description of hard drives is the only secure means of disposing hard drives. This can include incineration, an acid bath, and crushing.

Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue?

B. Protocol analyzer Explanation: A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.

A network administrator is asked to send a large file containing PII to a business associate. Which of the following protocols is the BEST choice to use?

B. SFTP Explanation: SFTP encrypts authentication and data traffic between the client and server by making use of SSH to provide secure FTP communications. As a result, SFTP offers protection for both the authentication traffic and the data transfer taking place between a client and server.

Which of the following secure file transfer methods uses port 22 by default?

B. SFTP Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

A network administrator needs to provide daily network usage reports on all layer 3 devices without compromising any data while gathering the information. Which of the following would be configured to provide these reports?

B. SNMPv3 Explanation: Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.

A recent vulnerability scan found that Telnet is enabled on all network devices. Which of the following protocols should be used instead of Telnet?

B. SSH Explanation: SSH transmits both authentication traffic and data in a secured encrypted form, whereas Telnet transmits both authentication credentials and data in clear text.

A security analyst needs to logon to the console to perform maintenance on a remote server. Which of the following protocols would provide secure access?

B. SSH Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a tunneling protocol originally used on Unix systems. It's now available for both Unix and Windows environments. SSH is primarily intended for interactive terminal sessions. SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device over any distance.

An achievement in providing worldwide Internet security was the signing of certificates associated with which of the following protocols?

B. SSL Explanation: SSL (Secure Sockets Layer) is used for establishing an encrypted link between two computers, typically a web server and a browser. SSL is used to enable sensitive information such as login credentials and credit card numbers to be transmitted securely.

A software developer wants to ensure that the application is verifying that a key is valid before establishing SSL connections with random remote hosts on the Internet. Which of the following should be used in the code? (Choose two.)

B. SSL symmetric encryption key E. OCSP

Pete, a network administrator, is implementing IPv6 in the DMZ. Which of the following protocols must he allow through the firewall to ensure the web servers can be reached via IPv6 from an IPv6 enabled Internet host?

B. TCP port 80 and TCP port 443 Explanation: HTTP and HTTPS, which uses TCP port 80 and TCP port 443 respectively, is necessary for Communicating with Web servers. It should therefore be allowed through the firewall.

The server administrator has noted that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment?

B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. Explanation: Migrating to a virtual server environment reduces cost by eliminating the need to purchase, manage, maintain and power physical machines. The fewer physical machines you have, the less money it costs.

A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?

B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. Explanation: A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.

Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites?

B. URL filter Explanation: The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites. You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software. A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website.

A network engineer is setting up a network for a company. There is a BYOD policy for the employees so that they can connect their laptops and mobile devices. Which of the following technologies should be employed to separate the administrative network from the network in which all of the employees' devices are connected?

B. VLAN Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

Pete, a security administrator, is informed that people from the HR department should not have access to the accounting department's server, and the accounting department should not have access to the HR department's server. The network is separated by switches. Which of the following is designed to keep the HR department users from accessing the accounting department's server and vice-versa?

B. VLANs Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers?

B. VPN gateway Explanation: VPNs are usually employed to allow remote access users to connect to and access the network, and offer connectivity between two or more private networks or LANs. A VPN gateway (VPN router) is a connection point that connects two LANs via a nonsecure network such as the Internet.

A security guard has informed the Chief Information Security Officer that a person with a tablet has been walking around the building. The guard also noticed strange white markings in different areas of the parking lot. Which of the following types of attacks is the person attempting?

B. War chalking

A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below: POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1 HOST: localhost Accept: */* Referrer: http://localhost/ ******* HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden Connection: close Log: Access denied with 403. Pattern matches form bypass Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log?

B. Web application firewall Explanation: A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. It's intended to be an application-specific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.

An administrator wants to establish a WiFi network using a high gain directional antenna with a narrow radiation pattern to connect two buildings separated by a very long distance. Which of the following antennas would be BEST for this situation?

B. Yagi Explanation: A Yagi-Uda antenna, commonly known simply as a Yagi antenna, is a directional antenna consisting of multiple parallel dipole elements in a line, usually made of metal rods. It consists of a single driven element connected to the transmitter or receiver with a transmission line, and additional parasitic elements: a so-called reflector and one or more directors. The reflector element is slightly longer than the driven dipole, whereas the directors are a little shorter. This design achieves a very substantial increase in the antenna's directionality and gain compared to a simple dipole.

While previously recommended as a security measure, disabling SSID broadcast is not effective against most attackers because network SSIDs are:

B. contained in certain wireless packets in plaintext Explanation: The SSID is still required for directing packets to and from the base station, so it can be discovered using a wireless packet sniffer.

If you don't know the MAC address of a Linux-based machine, what command-line utility can you use to ascertain it?

B. ifconfig Explanation: To find MAC address of a Unix/Linux workstation, use ifconfig or ip a.

An administrator notices an unusual spike in network traffic from many sources. The administrator suspects that:

B. it is the beginning of a DDoS attack.

Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address?

B.PAT Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

A Windows-based computer is infected with malware and is running too slowly to boot and run a malware scanner. Which of the following is the BEST way to run the malware scanner?

C. Boot from CD/USB Explanation: Antivirus companies frequently create boot discs you can use to scan and repair your computer. These tools can be burned to a CD or DVD or installed onto a USB drive. You can then restart your computer and boot from the removable media. A special antivirus environment will load where your computer can be scanned and repaired.

Multi-tenancy is a concept found in which of the following?

C. Cloud computing Explanation: One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

At an organization, unauthorized users have been accessing network resources via unused network wall jacks. Which of the following would be used to stop unauthorized access?

C. Configure port security. Explanation: Port security in IT can mean several things. It can mean the physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. This can be accomplished by locking down the wiring closet and server vaults and then disconnecting the workstation run from the patch panel (or punch-down block) that leads to a room's wall jack. Any unneeded or unused wall jacks can (and should) be physically disabled in this manner. Another option is to use a smart patch panel that can monitor the MAC address of any device connected to each and every wall port across a building and detect not just when a new device is connected to an empty port, but also when a valid device is disconnected or replaced by an invalid device.

A company administrator has a firewall with an outside interface connected to the Internet and an inside interface connected to the corporate network. Which of the following should the administrator configure to redirect traffic destined for the default HTTP port on the outside interface to an internal server listening on port 8080?

C. Create a static PAT from port 80 on the outside interface to the internal interface on port 8080 Explanation: Static PAT translations allow a specific UDP or TCP port on a global address to be translated to a specific port on a local address. In this case, the default HTTP port (80) is the global address to be translated, and port 8080 is the specific port on a local address.

Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished?

C. Create a virtual switch. Explanation: A Hyper-V Virtual Switch implements policy enforcement for security, isolation, and service levels.

Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks?

C. DMZ Explanation: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.

Which of the following are examples of network segmentation? (Select TWO).

C. DMZ D. Subnet Explanation: C: A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is a part of the network that is separated of segmented from the rest of the network by means of firewalls and acts as a buffer between the untrusted public Internet and the trusted local area network (LAN). D. IP subnets can be used to separate or segment networks while allowing communication between the network segments via routers.

A technician has just installed a new firewall onto the network. Users are reporting that they cannot reach any website. Upon further investigation, the technician determines that websites can be reached by entering their IP addresses. Which of the following ports may have been closed to cause this issue?

C. DNS Explanation: DNS links IP addresses and human-friendly fully qualified domain names (FQDNs), which are made up of the Top-level domain (TLD), the registered domain name, and the Subdomain or hostname. Therefore, if the DNS ports are blocked websites will not be reachable

A system administrator is configuring a site-to-site VPN tunnel. Which of the following should be configured on the VPN concentrator during the IKE phase?

C. Diffie-Hellman

Which of the following best practices makes a wireless network more difficult to find?

C. Disable SSID broadcast Explanation: Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use.

An administrator configures all wireless access points to make use of a new network certificate authority. Which of the following is being used?

C. EAP-TLS Explanation: The majority of the EAP-TLS implementations require client-side X.509 certificates without giving the option to disable the requirement.

Jane, the security administrator, sets up a new AP but realizes too many outsiders are able to connect to that AP and gain unauthorized access. Which of the following would be the BEST way to mitigate this issue and still provide coverage where needed? (Select TWO).

C. Enable MAC filtering D. Disable SSID broadcast Explanation Network administrators may choose to disable SSID broadcast to hide their network from unauthorized personnel. However, the SSID is still needed to direct packets to and from the base station, so it's a discoverable value using a wireless packet sniffer. Thus, the SSID should be disabled if the network isn't for public use. A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has mandated that all IT systems with credit card data be segregated from the main corporate network to prevent unauthorized access and that access to the IT systems should be logged. Which of the following would BEST meet the CISO's requirements?

C. Firewalls Explanation: The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another.

A security administrator wishes to change their wireless network so that IPSec is built into the protocol and NAT is no longer required for address range extension. Which of the following protocols should be used in this scenario?

C. IPv6 Explanation: IPSec security is built into IPv6.

The Chief Information Officer (CIO) receives an anonymous threatening message that says "beware of the 1st of the year". The CIO suspects the message may be from a former disgruntled employee planning an attack. Which of the following should the CIO be concerned with?

C. Logic bomb Explanation: A logic bomb is a piece of code intentionally inserted into a software system that will set off a malicious function when specified conditions are met. For example, a programmer may hide a piece of code that starts deleting files should they ever be terminated from the company. Software that is inherently malicious, such as viruses and worms, often contain logic bombs that execute a certain payload at a pre-defined time or when some other condition is met. This technique can be used by a virus or worm to gain momentum and spread before being noticed. Some viruses attack their host systems on specific dates, such as Friday the 13th or April Fool's Day. Trojans that activate on certain dates are often called "time bombs". To be considered a logic bomb, the payload should be unwanted and unknown to the user of the software. As an example, trial programs with code that disables certain functionality after a set time are not normally regarded as logic bombs.

Ann, a security administrator, has concerns regarding her company's wireless network. The network is open and available for visiting prospective clients in the conference room, but she notices that many more devices are connecting to the network than should be. Which of the following would BEST alleviate Ann's concerns with minimum disturbance of current functionality for clients?

C. Lower the antenna's broadcasting power. Explanation: Some access points include power level controls that allow you to reduce the amount of output provided if the signal is traveling too far.

A distributed denial of service attack can BEST be described as:

C. Multiple computers attacking a single target in an organized attempt to deplete its resources.

A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of the following BEST describes this system type?

C. NAC Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies. The goals of NAC are to prevent/ reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.

Ann a security analyst is monitoring the IDS console and noticed multiple connections from an internal host to a suspicious call back domain. Which of the following tools would aid her to decipher the network traffic?

C. NETSTAT

Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the company's sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task?

C. NIPS Explanation: Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.

A malicious program modified entries in the LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this?

C. NetBIOS Explanation: The LMHOSTS file provides a NetBIOS name resolution method that can be used for small networks that do not use a WINS server. NetBIOS has been adapted to run on top of TCP/ IP, and is still extensively used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments.

An auditor is given access to a conference room to conduct an analysis. When they connect their laptop's Ethernet cable into the wall jack, they are not able to get a connection to the Internet but have a link light. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue?

C. Network Access Control Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies. The goals of NAC are to prevent/ reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.

A business has recently deployed laptops to all sales employees. The laptops will be used primarily from home offices and while traveling, and a high amount of wireless mobile use is expected. To protect the laptops while connected to untrusted wireless networks, which of the following would be the BEST method for reducing the risk of having the laptops compromised?

C. OS hardening

Which of the following would satisfy wireless network implementation requirements to use mutual authentication and usernames and passwords?

C. PEAP-MSCHAPv2 Explanation: PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards.

A security administrator wants to implement a solution which will allow some applications to run under the user's home directory and only have access to files stored within the same user's folder, while other applications have access to shared folders. Which of the following BEST addresses these requirements if the environment is concurrently shared by multiple users?

C. Process sandboxing Explanation: Sandboxing involves running applications in restricted memory areas. It limits the possibility of an application crash, allowing a user to access another application or the data associated with it.

Which of the following devices would be the MOST efficient way to filter external websites for staff on an internal network?

C. Proxy Explanation: A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other devices. All internal user communications with the Internet could be controlled through a proxy server, which can be configured to automatically filter out or block certain sites and content. It can also cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.

Which of the following should be performed to increase the availability of IP telephony by prioritizing traffic?

C. Quality of service Explanation: Quality of Service (QoS) facilitates the deployment of media-rich applications, such as video conferencing and Internet Protocol (IP) telephony, without adversely affecting network throughput.

A security analyst is reviewing firewall logs while investigating a compromised web server. The following ports appear in the log: 22, 25, 445, 1433, 3128, 3389, 6667 Which of the following protocols was used to access the server remotely?

C. RDP Explanation: RDP uses TCP port 3389.

Which of the following attacks could be used to initiate a subsequent man-in-the-middle attack?

C. Replay Explanation: A replay attack (also known as playback attack) is a form of network attack in which a valid data transmission is maliciously or fraudulently repeated or delayed. This is carried out either by the originator or by an adversary who intercepts the data and retransmits it, possibly as part of a masquerade attack by IP packet substitution (such as stream cipher attack).

Which of the following protocols allows for secure transfer of files? (Select TWO)

C. SFTP D. SCP Explanation: Standard FTP is a protocol often used to move files between one system and another either over the Internet or within private networks. SFTP is a secured alternative to standard FTP. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP).

Which of the following should be implemented to stop an attacker from mapping out addresses and/or devices on a network?

C. Secure zone transfers Explanation: C: A primary DNS server has the "master copy" of a zone, and secondary DNS servers keep copies of the zone for redundancy. When changes are made to zone data on the primary DNS server, these changes must be distributed to the secondary DNS servers for the zone. This is done through zone transfers. If you allow zone transfers to any server, all the resource records in the zone are viewable by any host that can contact your DNS server. Thus you will need to secure the zone transfers to stop an attacker from mapping out your addresses and devices on your network.

When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described?

C. Signature based Explanation: A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of signatures.

A company has implemented PPTP as a VPN solution. Which of the following ports would need to be opened on the firewall in order for this VPN to function properly? (Select TWO).

C. TCP 1723 D. UDP 47 Explanation: A PPTP tunnel is instantiated by communication to the peer on TCP port 1723. This TCP connection is then used to initiate and manage a second GRE tunnel to the same peer. The PPTP GRE packet format is non-standard, including an additional acknowledgement field replacing the typical routing field in the GRE header. However, as in a normal GRE connection, those modified GRE packets are directly encapsulated into IP packets, and seen as IP protocol number 47.

Pete needs to open ports on the firewall to allow for secure transmission of files. Which of the following ports should be opened on the firewall?

C. TCP 22 Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). Secure FTP (SFTP) is a secured alternative to standard File Transfer Protocol (FTP).

An organization recently switched from a cloud-based email solution to an in-house email server. The firewall needs to be modified to allow for sending and receiving email. Which of the following ports should be open on the firewall to allow for email traffic? (Select THREE).

C. TCP 25 E. TCP 110 F. TCP 143 Explanation: Port 25 is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) for routing e-mail between mail servers. Port 110 is used for Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3), which is an application-layer Internet standard protocol used by local e-mail clients to retrieve e-mail from a remote server over a TCP/IP connection. Port 143 is used by Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) for the management of email messages.

A security technician needs to open ports on a firewall to allow for domain name resolution. Which of the following ports should be opened? (Select TWO).

C. TCP 53 E. UDP 53

Which of the following protocols is used to authenticate the client and server's digital certificate?

C. TLS Explanation: Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It uses X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom it is communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key.

Pete, the system administrator, wants to restrict access to advertisements, games, and gambling web sites. Which of the following devices would BEST achieve this goal?

C. URL content filter Explanation: URL filtering, also known as web filtering, is the act of blocking access to a site based on all or part of the URL used to request access. URL filtering can focus on all or part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), specific path names, specific filenames, specific fi le extensions, or entire specific URLs. Many URL-filtering tools can obtain updated master URL block lists from vendors as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

A review of the company's network traffic shows that most of the malware infections are caused by users visiting gambling and gaming websites. The security manager wants to implement a solution that will block these websites, scan all web traffic for signs of malware, and block the malware before it enters the company network. Which of the following is suited for this purpose?

C. UTM Explanation: An all-in-one appliance, also known as Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Next Generation Firewall (NGFW), is one that provides a good foundation for security. A variety is available; those that you should be familiar with for the exam fall under the categories of providing URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection. Malware inspection is the use of a malware scanner to detect unwanted software content in network traffic. If malware is detected, it can be blocked or logged and/or trigger an alert.

An administrator needs to segment internal traffic between layer 2 devices within the LAN. Which of the following types of network design elements would MOST likely be used?

C. VLAN Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?

C. Virtual switches with VLANs Explanation: A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.

Which of the following is required to allow multiple servers to exist on one physical server?

C. Virtualization Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

A malicious user is sniffing a busy encrypted wireless network waiting for an authorized client to connect to it. Only after an authorized client has connected and the hacker was able to capture the client handshake with the AP can the hacker begin a brute force attack to discover the encryption key. Which of the following attacks is taking place?

C. WPA cracking Explanation: There are three steps to penetrating a WPA-protected network. Sniffing Parsing Attacking

Which of the following can be implemented in hardware or software to protect a web server from cross-site scripting attacks?

C. Web Application Firewall Explanation: Cross-site scripting (XSS) is a form of malicious code-injection attack on a web server in which an attacker injects code into the content sent to website visitors. XSS can be mitigated by implementing patch management on the web server, using firewalls, and auditing for suspicious activity.

Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?

C. deny tcp any any port 53 Explanation: DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.

Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following? 1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80 2 DENY IP ANY ANY

Correct Answer: A Firewall Section: Network Security Explanation: Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.

According to company policy an administrator must logically keep the Human Resources department separated from the Accounting department. Which of the following would be the simplest way to accomplish this?

D. VLAN Explanation A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches.

Sara, the security administrator, must configure the corporate firewall to allow all public IP addresses on the internal interface of the firewall to be translated to one public IP address on the external interface of the same firewall. Which of the following should Sara configure?

Correct Answer: A PAT Section: Network Security Explanation: Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.

Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?

Correct Answer: B Stateful Firewall Section: Network Security Explanation: Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.

Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic?

Correct Answer: C Firewall Section: Network Security Explanation: Ip tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores.

The security administrator at ABC company received the following log information from an external party: 10:45:01 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3056, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Directory traversal 10:45:02 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3057, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Account brute force 10:45:03 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3058, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Port scan The external party is reporting attacks coming from abc-company.com. Which of the following is the reason the ABC company's security administrator is unable to determine the origin of the attack?

Correct Answer: D ABC company uses PAT Section: Network Security Explanation: PAT would ensure that computers on ABC's LAN translate to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. The log information shows the IP address, not the port number, making it impossible to pin point the exact source.

Which of the following would the security engineer set as the subnet mask for the servers below to utilize host addresses on separate broadcast domains? Server 1: 192.168.100.6 Server 2: 192.168.100.9 Server 3: 192.169.100.20

D. /29 Explanation: Using this option will result in all three servers using host addresses on different broadcast domains.

Which of the following ports is used for SSH, by default?

D. 22 Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22.

Which of the following ports and protocol types must be opened on a host with a host-based firewall to allow incoming SFTP connections?

D. 22/TCP Explanation: SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH, including SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin, also use TCP port 22.

Ann, a technician, is attempting to establish a remote terminal session to an end user's computer using Kerberos authentication, but she cannot connect to the destination machine. Which of the following default ports should Ann ensure is open?

D. 3389 Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) uses TCP port 3389.

Signed digital certificates used to secure communication with a web server are MOST commonly associated with which of the following ports?

D. 443 Explanation: HTTPS authenticates the website and corresponding web server with which one is communicating. HTTPS makes use of port 443.

While configuring a new access layer switch, the administrator, Joe, was advised that he needed to make sure that only devices authorized to access the network would be permitted to login and utilize resources. Which of the following should the administrator implement to ensure this happens?

D. 802.1x Explanation: 802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It's based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it's often used as a component in more complex authentication and connectionmanagement systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System's Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS +), and Network Access Control (NAC).

A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building. Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection from unauthorized wired network access?

D. 802.1x Explanation: IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to a LAN or WLAN.

A company has several conference rooms with wired network jacks that are used by both employees and guests. Employees need access to internal resources and guests only need access to the Internet. Which of the following combinations is BEST to meet the requirements?

D. 802.1x and VLANs Explanation: 802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. It's based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today it's often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco System's Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC). A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. By default, all ports on a switch are part of VLAN 1. But as the switch administrator changes the VLAN assignment on a port-by-port basis, various ports can be grouped together and be distinct from other VLAN port designations. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.

FTP/S uses which of the following TCP ports by default?

D. 989 and 990

A company has recently implemented a high density wireless system by having a junior technician install two new access points for every access point already deployed. Users are now reporting random wireless disconnections and slow network connectivity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

D. A site survey was not conducted Explanation: To test the wireless AP placement, a site survey should be performed.

A system administrator wants to enable WPA2 CCMP. Which of the following is the only encryption used?

D. AES Explanation: Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol (CCMP) makes use of 128-bit AES encryption with a 48-bit initialization vector.

A Security Officer on a military base needs to encrypt several smart phones that will be going into the field. Which of the following encryption solutions should be deployed in this situation?

D. AES-256

The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented?

D. Access control lists Explanation: In the OSI model, IP addressing and IP routing are performed at layer 3 (the network layer). In this question we need to configure routing. When configuring routing, you specify which IP range (in this case, the IP subnet of the remote site) is allowed to route traffic through the router to the FTP server. Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.

Which of the following should a company implement to BEST mitigate from zero-day malicious code executing on employees' computers?

D. Application white listing Explanation: Application whitelisting is a security stance that prohibits unauthorized software from being able to execute unless it is on the preapproved exception list: the whitelist. This prevents any and all software, including malware, from executing unless it is on the whitelist. This can help block zero-day attacks, which are new attacks that exploit flaws or vulnerabilities in targeted systems and applications that are unknown or undisclosed to the world in general.

Which of the following offers the LEAST amount of protection against data theft by USB drives?

D. Cloud computing Explanation: Cloud computing refers to performing data processing and storage elsewhere, over a network connection, rather than locally. Because users have access to the data, it can easily be copied to a USB device.

Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?

D. Cloud computing Explanation: One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Joe, a security administrator, believes that a network breach has occurred in the data center as a result of a misconfigured router access list, allowing outside access to an SSH server. Which of the following should Joe search for in the log files?

D. Connections to port 22 Explanation: Log analysis is the art and science of reviewing audit trails, log files, or other forms of computer-generated records for evidence of policy violations, malicious events, downtimes, bottlenecks, or other issues of concern. SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH also use TCP port 22, such as SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin.

An overseas branch office within a company has many more technical and non-technical security incidents than other parts of the company. Which of the following management controls should be introduced to the branch office to improve their state of security?

D. Continuous security monitoring processes Explanation: Continuous monitoring may involve regular measurements of network traffic levels, routine evaluations for regulatory compliance, and checks of network security device configurations. It also points toward the never-ending review of what resources a user actually accesses, which is critical for preventing insider threats.

Pete, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users' access to external websites. Which of the following would BEST address this?

D. Install a proxy server. Explanation: A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other(s). In the interest of security, all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. The proxy server should automatically block known malicious sites. The proxy server should cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.

A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes this new network?

D. DMZ Explanation: A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The name is derived from the term "demilitarized zone", an area between nation states in which military operation is not permitted

A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic. Which of the following would accomplish this task?

D. Deny UDP port 69 Explanation: Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn't require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.

The SSID broadcast for a wireless router has been disabled but a network administrator notices that unauthorized users are accessing the wireless network. The administor has determined that attackers are still able to detect the presence of the wireless network despite the fact the SSID has been disabled. Which of the following would further obscure the presence of the wireless network?

D. Disable responses to a broadcast probe request

Which of the following is a best practice when securing a switch from physical access?

D. Disable unused ports Explanation: Disabling unused switch ports a simple method many network administrators use to help secure their network from unauthorized access. All ports not in use should be disabled. Otherwise, they present an open door for an attacker to enter.

An administrator is assigned to monitor servers in a data center. A web server connected to the Internet suddenly experiences a large spike in CPU activity. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

D. DoS Explanation: A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack is a DoS attack from multiple computers whereas a DoS attack is from a single computer. In terms of the actual method of attack, DDoS and DoS attacks are the same. One common method of attack involves saturating the target machine with external communications requests, so much so that it cannot respond to legitimate traffic, or responds so slowly as to be rendered essentially unavailable. Such attacks usually lead to a server overload.

When reviewing security logs, an administrator sees requests for the AAAA record of www.comptia.com. Which of the following BEST describes this type of record?

D. IPv6 DNS record Explanation The AAAA Address record links a FQDN to an IPv6 address.

A system administrator attempts to ping a hostname and the response is 2001:4860:0:2001::68. Which of the following replies has the administrator received?

D. IPv6 address Explanation: IPv6 addresses are 128-bits in length. An IPv6 address is represented as eight groups of four hexadecimal digits, each group representing 16 bits (two octets). The groups are separated by colons (:). The hexadecimal digits are case-insensitive, but IETF recommendations suggest the use of lower case letters. The full representation of eight 4-digit groups may be simplified by several techniques, eliminating parts of the representation.

An administrator needs to connect a router in one building to a router in another using Ethernet. Each router is connected to a managed switch and the switches are connected to each other via a fiber line. Which of the following should be configured to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network?

D. Implement port security on the switches Explanation: Port security in IT can mean several things: The physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. The management of TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports. If a service is active and assigned to a port, then that port is open. All the other 65,535 ports (of TCP or UDP) are closed if a service isn't actively using them. Port knocking is a security system in which all ports on a system appear closed. However, if the client sends packets to a specific set of ports in a certain order, a bit like a secret knock, then the desired service port becomes open and allows the client software to connect to the service.

Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches?

D. Infrastructure as a service Explanation: Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.

Which of the following is a step in deploying a WPA2-Enterprise wireless network?

D. Install a digital certificate on the authentication server Explanation: When setting up a wireless network, you'll find two very different modes of Wi-Fi Protected Access (WPA) security, which apply to both the WPA and WPA2 versions. The easiest to setup is the Personal mode, technically called the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) mode. It doesn't require anything beyond the wireless router or access points (APs) and uses a single passphrase or password for all users/devices. The other is the Enterprise mode —which should be used by businesses and organizations—and is also known as the RADIUS, 802.1X, 802.11i, or EAP mode. It provides better security and key management, and supports other enterprise-type functionality, such as VLANs and NAP. However, it requires an external authentication server, called a Remote Authentication Dial In User Service (RADIUS) server to handle the 802.1X authentication of users. To help you better understand the process of setting up WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and 802.1X, here's the basic overall steps: Choose, install, and configure a RADIUS server, or use a hosted service. Create a certificate authority (CA), so you can issue and install a digital certificate onto the RADIUS server, which may be done as a part of the RADIUS server installation and configuration. Alternatively, you could purchase a digital certificate from a public CA, such as GoDaddy or Verisign, so you don't have to install the server certificate on all the clients. If using EAP-TLS, you'd also create digital certificates for each end-user. On the server, populate the RADIUS client database with the IP address and shared secret for each AP. On the server, populate user data with usernames and passwords for each end-user. On each AP, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and input the RADIUS server IP address and the shared secret you created for that particular AP. On each Wi-Fi computer and device, configure the security for WPA/WPA2-Enterprise and set the 802.1X authentication settings.

Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL? PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80 PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443

D. It implements an implicit deny. Explanation: Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren't specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you're denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isn't present.

An information bank has been established to store contacts, phone numbers and other records. A UNIX application needs to connect to the index server using port 389. Which of the following authentication services should be used on this port by default?

D. LDAP

Which of the following devices is BEST suited to protect an HTTP-based application that is susceptible to injection attacks?

D. Layer 7 firewall Explanation: An application-level gateway firewall filters traffic based on user access, group membership, the application or service used, or even the type of resources being transmitted. This type of firewall operates at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model.

A security analyst has been tasked with securing a guest wireless network. They recommend the company use an authentication server but are told the funds are not available to set this up. Which of the following BEST allows the analyst to restrict user access to approved devices?

D. MAC filtering Explanation: A MAC filter is a list of authorized wireless client interface MAC addresses that is used by a WAP to block access to all unauthorized devices.

The Chief Technology Officer (CTO) of a company, Ann, is putting together a hardware budget for the next 10 years. She is asking for the average lifespan of each hardware device so that she is able to calculate when she will have to replace each device. Which of the following categories BEST describes what she is looking for?

D. MTTF Explanation: MTTF stands for Mean Time To Failure

An administrator wishes to hide the network addresses of an internal network when connecting to the Internet. The MOST effective way to mask the network address of the users would be by passing the traffic through a:

D. NAT Explanation: NAT serves as a basic firewall by only allowing incoming traffic that is in response to an internal system's request.

Matt, a systems security engineer, is determining which credential-type authentication to use within a planned 802.1x deployment. He is looking for a method that does not require a client certificate, has a server side certificate, and uses TLS tunnels for encryption. Which credential type authentication method BEST fits these requirements?

D. PEAP-MSCHAPv2 Explanation: PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 is easier to deploy than EAP-TLS or PEAP-TLS because user authentication is accomplished via password-base credentials (user name and password) rather than digital certificates or smart cards. Only servers running Network Policy Server (NPS) or PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 are required to have a certificate

A security administrator must implement a firewall rule to allow remote employees to VPN onto the company network. The VPN concentrator implements SSL VPN over the standard HTTPS port. Which of the following is the MOST secure ACL to implement at the company's gateway firewall?

D. PERMIT TCP FROM ANY 1024-65535 TO 199.70.5.23 443 Explanation: The default HTTPS port is port 443. When configuring SSL VPN you can change the default port for HTTPS to a port within the 1024-65535 range. This ACL will allow traffic from VPNs using the 1024-65535 port range to access the company network via company's gateway firewall on port 443.

Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Select THREE)

D. Proxies E. Firewall G. URL filtering A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers. Firewalls manage traffic using a rule or a set of rules. A URL is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource. A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL.

A user, Ann, is reporting to the company IT support group that her workstation screen is blank other than a window with a message requesting payment or else her hard drive will be formatted. Which of the following types of malware is on Ann's workstation?

D. Ransomware Explanation: Ransomware is a type of malware which restricts access to the computer system that it infects, and demands a ransom paid to the creator(s) of the malware in order for the restriction to be removed. Some forms of ransomware encrypt files on the system's hard drive), while some may simply lock the system and display messages intended to coax the user into paying. Ransomware typically propagates as a trojan like a conventional computer worm, entering a system through, for example, a downloaded file or a vulnerability in a network service. The program will then run a payload: such as one that will begin to encrypt personal files on the hard drive. More sophisticated ransomware may hybrid-encrypt the victim's plaintext with a random symmetric key and a fixed public key. The malware author is the only party that knows the needed private decryption key. Some ransomware payloads do not use encryption. In these cases, the payload is simply an application designed to restrict interaction with the system, typically by setting the Windows Shell to itself, or even modifying the master boot record and/or partition table (which prevents the operating system from booting at all until it is repaired) Ransomware payloads utilize elements of scareware to extort money from the system's user. The payload may, for example, display notices purportedly issued by companies or law enforcement agencies which falsely claim that the system had been used for illegal activities, or contains illegal content such as pornography and pirated software or media. Some ransomware payloads imitate Windows' product activation notices, falsely claiming that their computer's Windows installation is counterfeit or requires re-activation. These tactics coax the user into paying the malware's author to remove the ransomware, either by supplying a program which can decrypt the files, or by sending an unlock code that undoes the changes the payload has made.

Timestamps and sequence numbers act as countermeasures against which of the following types of attacks?

D. Replay

A UNIX administrator would like to use native commands to provide a secure way of connecting to other devices remotely and to securely transfer files. Which of the following protocols could be utilized? (Select TWO).

D. SCP E. SSH Explanation: SSH is used to establish a command-line, text-only interface connection with a server, router, switch, or similar device over any distance. Secure Copy Protocol (SCP) is a secure file-transfer facility based on SSH and Remote Copy Protocol (RCP). SCP is commonly used on Linux and Unix platforms.

By default, which of the following uses TCP port 22? (Select THREE).

D. SCP G. SSH H. SFTP Explanation: G: Secure Shell (SSH) is a cryptographic network protocol for securing data communication. It establishes a secure channel over an insecure network in a client-server architecture, connecting an SSH client application with an SSH server. Common applications include remote command-line login, remote command execution, but any network service can be secured with SSH. SSH uses port 22. D: SCP stands for Secure Copy. SCP is used to securely copy files over a network. SCP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22. H: SFTP stands for stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol and is used for transferring files using FTP over a secure network connection. SFTP uses SSH to secure the connection and therefore uses port 22.

Ann is an employee in the accounting department and would like to work on files from her home computer. She recently heard about a new personal cloud storage service with an easy web interface. Before uploading her work related files into the cloud for access, which of the following is the MOST important security concern Ann should be aware of?

D. Sensitivity of the files Explanation: Cloud computing has privacy concerns, regulation compliance difficulties, use of open-/closed-source solutions, and adoption of open standards. It is also unsure whether cloud-based data is actually secured (or even securable).

Ann, a security administrator, has been tasked by the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to have the company's application servers tested using black box methodology. Which of the following BEST describes what Ann has been asked to do?

D. Simulate an external attack where the attackers have no information regarding the software or systems in place.

Which of the following is BEST used to break a group of IP addresses into smaller network segments or blocks?

D. Subnetting Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

Which of the following would allow the organization to divide a Class C IP address range into several ranges?

D. Subnetting Explanation: Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.

Which of the following is a difference between TFTP and FTP?

D. TFTP utilizes UDP and FTP uses TCP. Explanation: FTP employs TCP ports 20 and 21 to establish and maintain client-to-server communications, whereas TFTP makes use of UDP port 69.

A security engineer, Joe, has been asked to create a secure connection between his mail server and the mail server of a business partner. Which of the following protocol would be MOST appropriate?

D. TLS Explanation Transport Layer Security (TLS) is a cryptographic protocol designed to provide communications security over a computer network. It uses X.509 certificates and hence asymmetric cryptography to authenticate the counterparty with whom it is communicating, and to exchange a symmetric key. The TLS protocol allows client-server applications to communicate across a network in a way designed to prevent eavesdropping and tampering.

On Monday, all company employees report being unable to connect to the corporate wireless network, which uses 802.1x with PEAP. A technician verifies that no configuration changes were made to the wireless network and its supporting infrastructure, and that there are no outages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this issue?

D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired. Explanation: The question states that the network uses 802.1x with PEAP. The 802.1x authentication server is typically an EAP-compliant Remote Access Dial-In User Service (RADIUS). A RADIUS server will be configured with a digital certificate. When a digital certificate is created, an expiration period is configured by the Certificate Authority (CA). The expiration period is commonly one or two years. The question states that no configuration changes have been made so it's likely that the certificate has expired.

Which of the following BEST describes the weakness in WEP encryption?

D. The WEP key is stored with a very small pool of random numbers to make the cipher text. As the random numbers are often reused it becomes easy to derive the remaining WEP key. Explanation: WEP is based on RC4, but due to errors in design and implementation, WEP is weak in a number of areas, two of which are the use of a static common key and poor implementation of initiation vectors (IVs). When the WEP key is discovered, the attacker can join the network and then listen in on all other wireless client communications.

The administrator receives a call from an employee named Joe. Joe says the Internet is down and he is receiving a blank page when typing to connect to a popular sports website. The administrator asks Joe to try visiting a popular search engine site, which Joe reports as successful. Joe then says that he can get to the sports site on this phone. Which of the following might the administrator need to configure?

D. The default block page on the URL filte Explanation: A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL. There are a number of URL-filtering tools that can acquire updated master URL block lists from vendors, as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.

Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router. Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10. DIAGRAM PC1 PC2 [192.168.1.30]——-[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]———[10.2.2.10] LOGS 10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN 10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK 10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment?

D. The router implements NAT. Explanation: Network address translation (NAT) allows you to share a connection to the public Internet via a single interface with a single public IP address. NAT maps the private addresses to the public address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private" IP address subnets. A router on that network has a private address (192.168.1.1) in that address space, and is also connected to the Internet with a "public" address (10.2.2.1) assigned by an Internet service provider.

Pete, a security engineer, is trying to inventory all servers in a rack. The engineer launches RDP sessions to five different PCs and notices that the hardware properties are similar. Additionally, the MAC addresses of all five servers appear on the same switch port. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

D. The system is virtualized. Explanation: Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.

A security administrator must implement a network authentication solution which will ensure encryption of user credentials when users enter their username and password to authenticate to the network. Which of the following should the administrator implement?

D. WEP over EAP-PEAP D: Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) is designed to provide security equivalent to that of a wired network. WEP has vulnerabilities and isn't considered highly secure. Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) provides a framework for authentication that is often used with wireless networks. Among the five EAP types adopted by the WPA/ WPA2 standard are EAP-TLS, EAP-PSK, EAP-MD5, as well as LEAP and PEAP. PEAP is similar in design to EAP-TTLS, requiring only a server-side PKI certificate to create a secure TLS tunnel to protect user authentication, and uses server-side public key certificates to authenticate the server. It then creates an encrypted TLS tunnel between the client and the authentication server. In most configurations, the keys for this encryption are transported using the server's public key. The ensuing exchange of authentication information inside the tunnel to authenticate the client is then encrypted and user credentials are safe from eavesdropping.

A security administrator must implement a wireless security system, which will require users to enter a 30 character ASCII password on their accounts. Additionally the system must support 3DS wireless encryption. Which of the following should be implemented?

D. WPA2-Enterprise Explanation: D: WPA-Enterprise is also referred to as WPA-802.1X mode, and sometimes just WPA (as opposed to WPA-PSK), this is designed for enterprise networks and requires a RADIUS authentication server. This requires a more complicated setup, but provides additional security (e.g. protection against dictionary attacks on short passwords). Various kinds of the Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) are used for authentication. RADIUS can be managed centrally, and the servers that allow access to a network can verify with a RADIUS server whether an incoming caller is authorized. Thus the RADIUS server can perform all authentications. This will require users to use their passwords on their user accounts.

Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?

D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site. Explanation: Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.

Joe, the security administrator, sees this in a vulnerability scan report: "The server 10.1.2.232 is running Apache 2.2.20 which may be vulnerable to a mod_cgi exploit." Joe verifies that the mod_cgi module is not enabled on 10.1.2.232. This message is an example of:

D. a false positive.

A small company can only afford to buy an all-in-one wireless router/switch. The company has 3 wireless BYOD users and 2 web servers without wireless access. Which of the following should the company configure to protect the servers from the user devices? (Select TWO).

E. Create a server VLAN F. Create an ACL to access the server Explanation: We can protect the servers from the user devices by separating them into separate VLANs (virtual local area networks).The network device in the question is a router/switch. We can use the router to allow access from devices in one VLAN to the servers in the other VLAN. We can configure an ACL (Access Control List) on the router to determine who is able to access the server.In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.This is usually achieved on switch or router devices. Simpler devices only support partitioning on a port level (if at all), so sharing VLANs across devices requires running dedicated cabling for each VLAN. More sophisticated devices can mark packets through tagging, so that a single interconnect (trunk) may be used to transport data for multiple VLANs.Grouping hosts with a common set of requirements regardless of their physical location by VLAN can greatly simplify network design. A VLAN has the same attributes as a physical local area network (LAN), but it allows for end stations to be grouped together more easily even if they are not on the same network switch. The network described in this question is a DMZ, not a VLAN.

Matt, a security administrator, wants to configure all the switches and routers in the network in order to securely monitor their status. Which of the following protocols would he need to configure on each device?

Explanation Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.

Ann, the network administrator, is receiving reports regarding a particular wireless network in the building. The network was implemented for specific machines issued to the developer department, but the developers are stating that they are having connection issues as well as slow bandwidth. Reviewing the wireless router's logs, she sees that devices not belonging to the developers are connecting to the access point. Which of the following would BEST alleviate the developer's reports?

Explanation: MAC addresses are also known as an Ethernet hardware address (EHA), hardware address or physical address. Enabling MAC filtering would allow for a WAP to restrict or allow access based on the hardware address of the device.

A company's legacy server requires administration using Telnet. Which of the following protocols could be used to secure communication by offering encryption at a lower OSI layer? (Select TWO).

Explanation: Telnet supports IPv6 connections. IPv6 is the communications protocol that provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet. IPsec is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec is a compulsory component for IPv6. IPsec operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model, whereas Telnet operates at Layer 7.