CompTIA Modules

A network installer is building a long-distance link. The nodes are approximately 10 km apart. What type of fiber link should the installer build for this link? 1000BASE-LX 100BASE-FX 100BASE-SX 10GBASE-SR

1000BASE-LX The 1000BASE-LX is a Gigabit Ethernet standard and supports 1 Gbps and a distance of 10 km using single mode fiber.

A host with a Media Access Control (MAC) of 00:72:8b:31:8b:cb uses a global scope addressing scheme. Compose the MAC-derived address for the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64. 0072:8bff:fe31:8bcb 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb 0272:8bff:ee31:8bcb 0072:8bff:ee31:8bcb

0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb Globally scoped unicast addresses are routable over the Internet and are the equivalent of public Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) addresses. A MAC address is 48 bits and an Extended Unique Identifier (EUI)-64 creates a 64-bit interface. The digits fffe are added in the middle of the address and the Universally Administered (U)/Locally Administered (L) bit is flipped. The proper EUI-64 in this scenario is 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb.

A network technician is installing a new router in a new wing of the corporate building. The technician needs to connect the new router to the core router. The router is about 300 feet away from the core router and requires a 100Mbps connection. What type of connection should the technician build for the router? 100BASE-TX 10BASE-T 10GBASE-T Coaxial/RG-6

100BASE-TX A 100BASE-TX refers to Fast Ethernet working over Cat 5 (or better) twisted pair copper cable for speeds up to 100Mbps, and a maximum supported link length of 100 meters (328 feet).

An engineer is building a backbone network in a new facility. The cabling going from one side of the building to the other is about 500 feet and will support a 5Gbps link between two routers. Which type of cabling should the engineer use? 10GBASE-LR 1000BASE-SX 10GBASE-SR Coaxial/RG-6

10GBASE-SR A 10GBASE-SR is a fiber Ethernet standard best suited to implementing backbone cabling that does not exceed 200 m (656 feet) and can achieve at least 4 Gbps throughput.

A network technician is installing a new ethernet receptacle using a punch tool. Which blade type can the technician utilize to terminate the wires onto the punch block? 66 RJ-45 110 RJ-11

110 Technicians mostly use 110 format punch blocks for LAN technology and RJ-45 connections. They have a set blade on one end of the punch tool.

Select the Internet Protocol (IP) address that is in the Class B private address range. 169.254.140.102 127.050.137.081 10.160.025.001 172.20.105.003

172.20.105.003 Hosts communicating with one another over a Local Area Network (LAN) will typically use private addressing. Private Internet Protocol (IP) addresses can be drawn from one of the pools of addresses. The Class B private address range is 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255. The answer option 172.20.105.003 falls within this range.

A network administrator is setting up a 192.168.1.0/24 network using variable length subnet masking (VLSM) to support the sales and marketing department. The sales department has 120 computers and the marketing department has 50 computers. Which of the following Internet Protocol (IP) address configurations will provide adequate support for the marketing department? (Select all that apply.) 255.255.255.192 192.168.1.0/25 255.255.255.224 192.168.1.128/26

192.168.1.128/26 255.255.255.192 The 192.168.1.128/26 network provides 62 assignable IP addresses in the range of 192.168.1.129 - 192.168.1.190. This is enough addresses to support the 50 computers of the marketing department. The subnet mask of 255.255.255.192 is used for the 192.168.1.128/26 network. The network's broadcast address is 192.168.1.191.

A server administrator has asked a junior network engineer to build a link between the server and the new SAN that the administrator just installed. The speed requirements for the link are more than 20Gbps, and the distance is about 20 feet. What medium should the network engineer use to build the required link? 10GBASE-T 1000BASE-T 10BASE-T 40GBASE-T

40GBASE-T A 40GBASE-T refers to Gigabit Ethernet working over Cat 8 shielded cable with speeds up to 40 Gbps and a distance of 30 meters.

A new system administrator configures a shared repository for access to files through a web-based interface. What port must the administrator enable on the repository? 22 445 21 80

80 The Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) enables clients to request resources from an HTTP server. HTTP uses port 80.

An engineer configures a sender policy framework (SPF) record to list the server names allowed to send email for a company. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure? CNAME record SRV record TXT record "A" record

A TXT record is used to store any free-form text that may be needed to support other network services. An SPF record is a TXT record that is used to list the IP addresses or names of servers that are permitted to send email.

A network installer is installing new phone lines into the network room. The installer has many blades for the punchdown panels in the building and needs a blade that is customizable on one end. Which blade should the installer use that has a customizable blade on one end of the punch tool? Krone 110 Bix 66

Bix BIX panels are rare but still used. The blades for these panels are adjustable on one end of the punch tool. They are similar to a 110 punch tool but are adjustable.

Which of the following topologies is a network of two or more nodes that shares access to the network, but only one node can be active at any one time? Star Bus Ring Mesh

Bus In a bus topology with more than two nodes, they all share access and bandwidth of the media. Only one node can be active at any one time. So, the nodes must contend to put signals on the media.

A college is upgrading their high-speed network infrastructure to support direct-connect Internet in all student buildings and dormitories. The network will connect to high-performing school servers that will provide computer lab environments for classes. What type of network is the school continuing to maintain? WLAN CAN WAN PAN

CAN The term campus area network (CAN) is sometimes used for a LAN that spans multiple nearby buildings. This high-speed network can connect directly with all students in all the buildings and dormitories.

A user requests that a company web host have two different names for the same Internet protocol (IP) address. The user requests jobs.companyname.com and careers.companyname.com. Which domain name system (DNS) record does an IT tech configure to accomplish this? CNAME SRV TXT AAAA

CNAME A Canonical Name (CNAME) record is a Domain Name System (DNS) record used to represent an alias for a host. Aliases are used to give a host multiple names.

A wiring expert runs new Ethernet cabling in an office. The chosen cable type allows for distances of 100 meters (328 feet) with speeds of 10 Gbps, fully screened and shielded. Based on the characteristics of the standard Ethernet cable categories, which should the expert install? Cat 5e Cat 7 Cat 6 Cat 3

Cat 7 Cat 7 cable is fully screened and shielded (S/FTP) and rated for 10GbE applications up to 100 m (328 feet). The cable supports transmission frequencies up to 600 MHz at 10 Gbps.

A network engineer is troubleshooting an ethernet connection between two buildings. The engineer noticed that the network devices got upgraded, but the wiring did not. The engineer needs a connection that can handle 10Gbps at 500 MHz for a distance of 300 feet using RJ-45 connectors. What type of ethernet should the engineer replace the Cat 5 with to meet the connection standard? Cat 6 Cat 6a Cat 7 Cat 8

Cat6a Cat 6A is an improved specification cable that can support 10 Gbps over 100 m. RJ-45 connectors terminate the Cat 6A cable.

A new network administrator is going through the company's network and surveying current network configurations. After examining a few hosts, the general Internet Protocol (IP) scheme starts with the first octet at 10 and all are using a default mask of 255.0.0.0. Which of the following would be true for this network? (Select all that apply.) Class A network Private IP addressing Public IP addressing /24

Class A network Private IP addressing A Class A network can be identified by the first octet being in the range of 1-126. It supports large numbers of hosts over 16 million. Private IP addresses are used for internal networks. They can be drawn from one of the pools of addresses defined in RFC 1918, or better known as Class A, B, and C private address ranges.

The hosts on a company's network all use a public Internet Protocol (IP) address. The first octet in the IP range is 132. Determine which class the network belongs to after comparing the octet ranges of the following classes of addresses. Class A Class C Class B Class D

Class B The company will require the use of a Class B public network. This network can have up to 65,534 hosts and the first octet of the address will range from 128-191. The first octet in the scenario is 132 and falls within this range.

A company has 725 hosts on the network that utilize public Internet Protocol (IP) addresses. The company has three contiguous class C addresses for the hosts. Instead of maintaining three routing tables, the company has one single entry. What feature allows the company to consolidate the routing tables? Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) Reserved Addresses Network Address Translation (NAT)

Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) The company is using Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR). CIDR uses bits normally assigned to the network ID to mask the complexity of the subnet and host addressing scheme within the network. CIDR collapses the three routing entries into one single entry.

New workstations are set up in the office. They currently do not have an Internet Protocol (IP) address set and are connected to the network. These workstations will need to work with applications that are time sensitive. What must the system administrator configure for these applications to function correctly? Enable DHCP on the NIC. Point to the correct DNS server. Create a CNAME record. Configure the correct NTP settings.

Configure the correct NTP settings. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) enables the synchronization of these time-dependent applications. Workstations that connect to these applications must know the correct time by pointing to the correct NTP IP address to synchronize time.

A server contains two ethernet cards. Two departments on separate networks need access to the server and resources on either side. A systems administrator configures a bridge with the interfaces. The administrator utilizes a bridge configuration to achieve which of the following? Connecting different networks for communication purposes but keeping them separate Connecting devices within a single network Protecting differing networks from one another Connecting different networks as if they were one

Connecting different networks as if they were one A bridge is a hardware appliance or software application that connects different networks and treats them as if they were one network.

Which delivery method and protocol may send data out of order and over different paths? (Select all that apply.) Connectionless TCP UDP Connection-oriented

Connectionless UDP Connectionless, a data transmission delivery method using User Datagram Protocol (UDP), does not establish a connection between devices so data delivery may be out of order and over different paths. User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is used in the connectionless delivery method where data delivery may be out of order and over different paths.

A user has received a new computer from the system administrator. The sysadmin told the user to just plug the computer in and everything will work fine. After plugging the computer in at the desk, the user noticed there is no connectivity but sees an IP address of 169.254.1.1. What protocol was the system administrator depending on to configure this computer? DHCP SMTP TLS LDAP HTTPS

DHCP A router runs a dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) server to allocate a unique address to each host that connects to the network on ports 67 and 68.

Which of the following provides an automatic method for allocating an Internet Protocol (IP) address, subnet mask, default gateway, and Domain Name System (DNS) server addresses? DHCP APIPA RARP TFTP

DHCP The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) provides an automatic method for allocating an Internet Protocol (IP) address, subnet mask, default gateway, and optional parameters.

What provides additional options, rather than only leases, for host Internet Protocol (IP) addresses? EUI64 DHCPv6 APIPA ESP

DHCPv6 Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) can locate routers and generate a host address with a suitable network prefix. In this context, the role of a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server in IPv6 is different. DHCPv6 is used to provide additional option settings, rather than leases for host IP addresses.

Corporate has requested the installation of a new fiber link that supports 160 channels. What type of multiplexing is required to meet corporate's request? CWDM WDM DWDM QSFP+

DWDM Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing (DWDM) provisions greater numbers of channels (20, 40, 80, or 160). This means that there is much less spacing between each channel and requires more precise and expensive lasers.

A network administrator is looking at an ARP table on a switch for connected devices. Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer are they looking at? Physical Network Data Link Session

Data Link The Data Link layer (layer 2) transfers data between nodes on the same logical segment. This is where ARP tables are located.

A network engineer is adding a bridge into the network design. Where in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model will this bridge operate? (Select all that apply.) Data link layer of the OSI model Layer 5 of the OSI model Layer 2 of the OSI model Transport layer of the OSI model

Data link layer of the OSI model Layer 2 of the OSI model The bridge creates a link between the two physical segments so that hosts in segment A can send and receive messages to hosts in segment B. Bridges perform on Layer 2 (Data Link layer). Connectivity devices found at the Layer 2 include a bridge. A bridge joins two network segments, while minimizing the performance reduction of having more nodes on the same network.

What is the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a router on the same IP network as the host? Default gateway Loopback address Subnet mask Virtual IP

Default gateway The default gateway is the Internet Protocol (IP) address of a router on the same IP network as the host.

A set of workstations have been installed in an office floor. The network administrators are preparing to join these servers to the domain after they receive an Internet Protocol (IP) address from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. What are the minimum DHCP scope options required to simplify these computers joining the domain? (Select all that apply.) Default gateway DNS IP address(es) NTP IP address(es) Lease time

Default gateway DNS IP address(es) NTP IP address(es) The default gateway, or option 003, is required so the workstations can route to the rest of the internal local area network (LAN). The workstations will need to find a domain controller outside of its broadcast domain. The Domain Name System (DNS) IP address(es), or option 006, is required so the domain name can be resolved properly to join the workstations to the domain. The Network Time Protocol (NTP) Server setting is option 042. Providing the IP address(es) for the NTP server will ensure the workstations have the correct time. It will ensure proper joining to the domain.

A user goes to the website www.shopping.com. A bastion host reviews the request to enter the site to verify the safety of the request. What has the company established to enable clients access to data on the private system without compromising the security of the internal network? Network Address Translation (NAT) Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) Port Address Translation (PAT) Port forwarding

Demilitarized Zone (DMZ) The company is using a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ), also referred to as a perimeter network. The idea of a DMZ is that traffic cannot pass through it directly. If communication is required between hosts on either side of a DMZ, a bastion host will take the request and check it.

An engineer has installed a new router but is not connected to the core network yet. What type of connector should the engineer install to get the requested throughput of 30Gbps or more? Enhanced form-factor pluggable (SFP+) Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+) Dense wavelength division multiplexing (DWDM) Coarse wavelength division multiplexing (CWDM)

Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+) Enhanced quad small form-factor pluggable (QSFP+) supports 40 GbE by provisioning 4 x 10 Gbps links.

Client A is sending data to Server A. The packet has left the application layer and traversed the ISO model through to the data link layer. Which header will get encapsulated onto the packet at the data link layer? Ethernet header IP header TCP header UDP header

Ethernet header Ethernet encapsulates the payload from higher layer protocols within a protocol data unit (PDU) called a frame. The ethernet header encapsulates onto a packet at the data link layer.

A host with a Media Access Control (MAC) of 00:72:8b:31:8b:cb uses a global scope addressing scheme. One identifier for this host is 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb. Consider Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addressing schemes to determine what this identifier represents. Global scope Subnet address Network ID Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64

Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64 The identifier 0272:8bff:fe31:8bcb is the Extended Unique Identifier (EUI) 64. This is a Media Access Control (MAC)-derived address that converts a 48 bit MAC address to a 64-bit interface ID. Another method of developing the interface ID is to use privacy extensions.

A server administrator configures a network's internal DNS to set the records for all servers. Users mention that one server, in particular, is not reachable by name. What does the administrator investigate? DNS caching Recursive lookups Time to live settings Forward lookups

Forward lookups Forward lookups use a forward lookup zone to return an IP address associated with a host name. In this case, an entry for the particular host was likely missed or contains a typo.

An engineer needs to update a DNS infrastructure with new host names. Which configuration does an engineer modify with host records that map to IP addresses? DNS caching Recursive lookups Time to live settings Forward lookups

Forward lookups Forward lookups use a forward lookup zone to return an IP address associated with a host name. In this case, an entry for the particular host was likely missed or contains a typo.

Company A has purchased new computing devices that support IPv6 and not IPv4. What protocol could the company enable on the network to allow the transmission of IPv6 packets and encapsulated frames or packets from different types of network protocols over an IPv4 network? ICMP GRE SQL Server LDAP

GRE Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) Tunneling protocol allows the transmission of encapsulated frames or packets from different types of network protocol over an IP network.

A Windows Active Directory (AD) domain uses companyname.com. An external ftp server uses ftp.companyname.com. Users on the corporate network cannot reach the ftp server when using an ftp prefix. An IT engineer modifies which of the following to remedy the issue? External DNS zone DNS forwarder Third-party DNS Internal DNS zone

Internal DNS zone Internal domain name system (DNS) zones refer to the domains used on a private network. As the site uses the same domain name as AD, an A record for ftp needs to be created internally to point to the public ftp server address.

Which of the following protocols reside at the application layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) model? (Select all that apply.) HTTP SMTP IP TCP

HTTP SMTP Layer 7 (Application layer) works at the user end to interact with user applications. QoS (Quality of Service), file transfer, and email are the major popular services of the Application layer. This layer uses the following protocols: HTTP, SMTP, and FTP.

Which protocol allows for a protected dialog between the client and server by assigning the web server a digital certificate issued by a Certificate Authority? Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS) Network Time Protocol (NTP) Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) is a subset of Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) that allows for a secure dialog between the client and server using Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security (SSL/TLS). To implement HTTPS, the web server is assigned a digital certificate by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA).

A server administrator is adding a new Network Interface Card (NIC) to a virtual machine. What should the administrator modify to add the new NIC to the virtual machine? WAN Demarcation point SD-WAN Hypervisor

Hypervisor In a virtualization host, the hypervisor—or virtual machine monitor (VMM)—manages the virtual environment and facilitates interaction with the computer hardware and network.

A Cybersecurity specialist has been gathering data about the corporate network. The specialist has realized that the e-mail server is using port 143 and getting intercepted at random times. The specialist has briefed the CISO of his findings and has suggested swapping to port 993. Which protocol did the specialist suggest? POP3 over SSL IMAP IMAP over SSL SMTP

IMAP over SSL A client connects to an IMAP server over port 143 and establishes connection security using a TLS. The default port for IMAPS (IMAP over SSL) is TCP/993.

A company has an Active Directory domain called specks.com. The company has an on-demand subscription for cloud services and wants to ensure their internal applications are accessible to their remote employees via their Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in the cloud. The company will control all these services and applications. Which of the following will the company most likely be using throughout their organization? (Select all that apply.) Cloud-hosted DNS server Internal DNS server External DNS server Third-party DNS server

Internal DNS server Cloud-hosted DNS server The company is using an internal DNS server because it controls all its services and applications. The DNS server will provide name resolution using FQDNs. The company wants to extend its internal DNS services to the cloud and a cloud-hosted option is most appropriate option. The company can deploy a virtual DNS server that is accessible by its cloud users.

A Windows Active Directory (AD) domain uses companyname.com. An external web server uses www.companyname.com. Users on the corporate network cannot reach the web server when using a www prefix. An IT engineer modifies which of the following to remedy the issue? Internal DNS zone External DNS zone DNS forwarder Third-party DNS

Internal DNS zone Internal domain name system (DNS) zones refer to the domains used on a private network. As the site uses the same domain name as AD, an A record for www needs to be created internally to point to the public web server address.

A tech configures three computers in an office so users can share files. Which type of network does the tech create? CAN WAN LAN MAN

LAN A local area network (LAN) covers a wide range of different sizes of networks but is mostly confined to a single geographical location. A small network in an office that is set up for simple fire sharing and printing is considered a LAN.

Network equipment in a rack system has limited in-front facing space with the door closed. A technician uses small form-factor connectors to connect a fiber cable. After evaluating the choices, predict the correct fiber connectors for the system. LC SC APC UPC

LC A local connector (LC) is a small form factor version of the SC push-pull fiber optic connector. It is available in simplex and duplex versions.

A technician finishes running fiber optic cable across a large building to expand the internal network. The fiber connects to equipment in a rack with extremely limited space for a connector. Considering the situation and the types of available fiber connectors, which one will accomplish connectivity? SC LC APC UPC

LC A local connector (LC) is a small form factor version of the SC push-pull fiber optic connector. It is available in simplex and duplex versions. SFP+ use the LC form factor but run at speeds of 10Gb.

An organization has asked a network engineer to suggest a type of connection the new office space will require. The chief executive officer (CEO) tells the engineer the organization wants a dedicated T1 line not slowed down by other businesses or Internet Service Provider (ISP) customers. What type of connection has the CEO described to the engineer? Demarcation point Digital subscribe line (DSL) Leased line Satellite

Leased line For leased line data services, the foundation level of the T-carrier is the DS1 or T1 digital signal circuit. This service comprises 24 channels multiplexed into a single 1.544 Mbps full duplex digital connection used for voice and data. The engineer can multiplex the T1 lines themselves to provide even more bandwidth.

A system administrator has installed a new client computer on the network. The computer is getting an IP address of 169.254.0.1 on a DHCP-enabled network. What kind of address did the computer receive? Link local Loopback Tunneling Subinterfaces

Link local A link local IP addressing scheme is used within the scope of a single broadcast domain only. An example of such an address is an automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) that issues when a DHCP server cannot be found.

A tech configures a network to use an E-lines service. Compare and evaluate the choices to determine which network type the tech configures. PAN MAN CAN WAN

MAN A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers an area equivalent to a municipality. A MAN uses a service category such as an E-line, which establishes a point-to-point link or an E-LAN, which establishes a mesh topology.

A tech deploys a network using an E-LAN mesh approach. Compare and evaluate the choices to determine which network type the tech deploys. MAN PAN CAN WAN

MAN A metropolitan area network (MAN) is a network that covers an area equivalent to a municipality. A MAN uses a service category such as an E-line, which establishes a point-to-point link or an E-LAN, which establishes a mesh topology.

A system uses a private address to send a packet within the internal network. The address is ff02::1. Compare private address types and determine what type of address the system is using. Broadcast Unicast Internet Protocol (IP) Multicast

Multicast A multicast address identifies multiple network interfaces. Unlike Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) must support multicast. The first 8 bits indicate the address is within the multicast scope (1111 1111 or ff). The address ff02::1 has a target of all link-local nodes.

What might cause zone transfers of domain name system (DNS) record updates to fail between multiple DNS servers? Incorrect scope Missing root server Misconfigured stratum Incorrect DNS records

Misconfigured stratum Stratum 1 NTP servers directly connect to an accurate clock source. If an inaccurate Network Time Protocol (NTP) server is specified on a server, it may result in time synchronization and further communication problems.

A network administrator is reviewing some packets flagged by the Intrusion Detection System (IDS). The administrator notices that the packets are ping packets, but the size of the packets is much larger than expected. What is the MOST likely cause of the oversized packets? Modified payload Corrupted MTU TCP flags False positive

Modified payload Payload is the data the packet is carrying. A modified payload will increase the size of the packet, exceeding normal packet size.

A junior-level systems administrator troubleshoots network connectivity. Results of the troubleshooting reveal a device that is new to the administrator. This device connects all hosts and routes network traffic. After evaluating the possibilities, and based on the device's characteristics, what does the network utilize for connectivity and traffic flow? IDS/IPS Firewall Repeater Multilayer switch

Multilayer switch A multilayer switch routes based on the contents of packets at layers 3 and up and more effectively in a VLAN environment. A multilayer switch is an appropriate solution for this scenario.

An engineer upgrades an organization's network. Part of the upgrade focuses on the consolidation of devices. In particular, planning to replace routers and switches is on the agenda. When evaluating how network appliances operate, which device is a suitable replacement that performs the required functions? IDS/IPS Firewall Multilayer switch Repeater

Multilayer switch A multilayer switch routes based on the contents of packets at layers 3 and up and more effectively in a VLAN environment. A multilayer switch is an appropriate solution for this scenario.

An IT engineer considers optical mode OM1 or OM2 cables for a project. The project requires cables that are rated for applications up to 1 Gbps and use LED transmitters. Of the following choices, which type of cable does the engineer select to use? Single-mode Duplex Multimode Bidirectional

Multimode Multimode fiber is inexpensive to deploy compared to single-mode fiber. As such, it does not support long distances as single-mode. Multimode uses uses light emitting diode (LED) technology.

A user has turned in a computer to the help desk with the complaint that "nothing works." When the technician logs into the computer, the time is not correct. The technician knows that all domain computers pull time from the domain controller, but this occurs through which protocol? Server Message Block (SMB) Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) Network Time Protocol (NTP) Post Office Protocol (POP)

Network Time Protocol (NTP) Network Time Protocol (NTP) Application protocol allows machines to synchronize to the same time clock that runs over UDP port 123.

A new physical web server receives power from and connects to the network in the communications closet. To ensure the server is ready to communicate with users in the various offices of the building, a network administrator verifies network service installation and that the server can communicate with a Layer 3 switch in the same closet. How may the network administrator carry out these tests? (Select all that apply.) Ping the Default Gateway Ping the loopback Ping the subnet mask Ping the virtual IP

Ping the loopback Ping the Default Gateway The loopback address is a reserved address, typically an IPv4 address of 127.0.0.1. It is often used to check that TCP/IP is correctly installed on the local host. The default gateway is the router. A layer 3 switch can operate on the network layer to route traffic. Pinging the gateway will verify that a path exists to eventually route to other offices.

A network installer is upgrading the software on a new router. The router has the ability to download software directly from an already upgraded, connected router. What kind of connection is MOST likely between these two routers to share configurations and software? SAN Client-Server Peer-to-peer PAN

Peer-to-peer A peer-to-peer network is one where each end system acts as both client and server. A peer-to-peer connection is a single connection between two devices.

Which network topology describes the placement of nodes and how they connect to each other using network media? Logical Physical Star Ring

Physical A physical network topology describes the placement of nodes and how they are connected by the network media. For example, in one network nodes might be directly connected via a single cable.

An engineer troubleshoots a network connectivity issue that the server team reported. The engineer notices that the trunk port is down between two routers. After checking the fiber link on the router, the engineer moves the cable and notices that the link light comes on. The issue is MOST likely a part of what layer of the OSI model? Network Physical Data Link Session

Physical The physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for the transmission and receipt of the signals that represent bits of data from one node to another node.

An organization has asked a network administrator to research and submit a purchase order for new network access points. The network administrator is attempting to choose between using wired and wireless access points. Which layer of the OSI model is the administrator making a decision? Network Data Link Session Physical

Physical The physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for the transmission and receipt of the signals that represent bits of data from one node to another node.

Host A is communicating with Host B. Host A uses the American Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII) and Host B uses Unicode. The clients agree to translate the communication to ASCII. What layer of the Open System Interconnection (OSI) model does the agreement and translation occur? Application Session Presentation Transport

Presentation The Presentation layer (Layer 6) transforms data between the format required for the network and the format required for the application. For example, the Presentation layer is used for character set conversion.

In which of the following would an IT engineer configure a PTR? Forward lookup zone DNS Hierarchy Reverse lookup zone DNS Forwarder

Reverse lookup zone A PTR record is found in reverse lookup zones and is used to resolve an IP address to an associated host name.

A virtual private network exists between two sites. The main site delivers Internet protocol (IP) addresses to the remote site. A configuration change places the remote site on a different subnet. An IT engineer reconfigures which of the following? Relay Reservation Lease Pool

Relay A DHCP relay agent can be configured to provide forwarding of DHCP traffic between different subnets.

Which protocol uses Network Level Authentication (NLA) which requires the client to authenticate before a full remote session starts? Telnet Secure Shell (SSH) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Virtual Network Computing (VNC)

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is Microsoft's protocol for operating remote Graphical User Interface (GUI) connections to a Windows machine. RDP uses Network Level Authentication (NLA) which requires the client to authenticate before a full remote session is started.

A server technician is shopping for new storage for data on the business network. The storage requirement has risen over the last year, and the servers currently have limited space. What is an option for the technician to purchase to increase the available storage on the local network? SDWAN Client-server VLAN SAN

SAN A storage area network (SAN) provisions access to storage devices at the block level. A SAN is isolated from the main network. It is only accessed by servers, not by client PCs and laptops.

An organization has asked a junior network technician to retrieve some swappable ports that host a single LC connection per port. Since there are numerous inserts for network devices, which should the technician retrieve? QSFP F-type connector SFP RJ-45

SFP Also designed for Gigabit Ethernet, the small form-factor pluggable (SFP) uses local connectors (LCs). Gigabit Interface Converter (GBIC) was very bulky and largely replaced by SFP, also known as mini-GBIC.

The DHCP server is offline and the server team is working on re-building corrupted scope information. The team notices that some clients have not had any issues since the DHCP server went down. After investigating the operational client machines, the team notices that they are all running IPV6. How do IPv6 hosts gain addressing without manual configuration? RFC1918 SLAAC Dual stack Router advertisement

SLAAC IPv4 depends heavily on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) for address autoconfiguration. IPv6 uses a more flexible system of address autoconfiguration called stateless address autoconfiguration (SLAAC).

Which DNS record type is responsible for identifying a primary authoritative name server? Root MX NS SOA

SOA The Start of Authority (SOA) record identifies a primary authoritative name server that maintains complete resource records for a zone.

Corporate hired a penetration testing expert to test their internal security. The final report given to the executives shows that the way the expert circumvented their security was by using port 1521 from a remote location. The expert suggested enabling access control lists on that service. What protocol did the expert use to infiltrate the network? SQLnet Syslog Telnet MySQL

SQLnet Oracle's remote data access protocol SQL*Net uses TCP/1521. Access lists should secure these ports to provide security.

A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) application does not work properly with company email address accounts. A tech concludes that a domain name system (DNS) record is incorrect. Which record type does the tech modify to restore services? SRV CNAME TXT AAAA

SRV A Service (SRV) record is a DNS record used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. Properties of this record type include port and protocol.

Users mention that a video conferencing service is not working properly. The service ties to the company domain name for business purposes. Which domain name system (DNS) record does the tech identify as incorrect? SRV CNAME TXT AAAA

SRV A Service (SRV) record is a DNS record used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. Properties of this record type include port and protocol.

A network administrator configures all printers in an organization to be issued specific IP addresses from a DHCP server. What does the administrator configure to accomplish this? (Select all that apply.) Static assignment Dynamic assignment Scope options Scope

Scope options Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP) servers use scope options to issue configuration options, such as DNS server settings and more.

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer assumes responsibility for managing network connections between applications? Network Physical Session Data Link

Session Most application protocols require the exchange of multiple messages between the client and server. This exchange of such a sequence of messages is called a session, thus, the Session layer. Sessions can work in three modes: simplex, half-duplex, or duplex.

An engineer begins the installation of a network for a new business. Ethernet cables run from desktop locations to a centralized patch panel in a data closet where a hub is placed until a new switch arrives. Evaluate the engineer's configuration, and conclude which types of physical and logical topologies the engineer implements. (Select all that apply.) Star Bus Ring LAN

Star Bus A star topology is a physical network design in which each node is connected to a central point. A star network is also referred to as a hub and spoke network. A logical bus topology is one in which nodes receive the data transmitted all at the same time, regardless of the physical wiring layout of the network. A star network operates as a logical bus network when a hub is used rather than a switch.

An engineer for a large firm documents the internal computer network. A diagram the engineer creates shows a top-down view of the Ethernet infrastructure in a hub and spoke layout. While considering the physical and logical topologies of the network, determine which choices qualify. (Select all that apply.) Ring LAN Star Bus

Star Bus A star topology is a physical network design in which each node is connected to a central point. A star network is also referred to as a hub and spoke network. A logical bus topology is one in which nodes receive the data transmitted all at the same time, regardless of the physical wiring layout of the network. A star network operates as a logical bus network when a hub is used rather than a switch.

IT engineers evaluate a network for upgrade purposes. IT engineers recommend replacing a hub with a switch. Of the choices given, which represents the current physical topology and the current logical topology? Star, Star Star, Bus Star, Ring Mesh, Star

Star, Bus A physical star network can be used to implement a logical bus topology. When a device, such as a hub, is used at the center of the star, logically, the topology works like a single cable bus.

An IT engineer troubleshoots a small network. Previously, IT wired all nodes to a central closet. In the closet, the engineer discovers a hub. Of the choices given, which represents the current physical topology and the current logical topology? Star, Star Star, Bus Star, Ring Mesh, Star

Star, Bus A physical star network can be used to implement a logical bus topology. When a hub is used at the center of the star, logically, the topology works like a single cable bus.

A small office is utilizing a total of 25 Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to support various workstations and printers. One of the workstations has an IP address of 192.168.10.50. Which of the following are true about this network's subnet? (Select all that apply.) CIDR notation of /27 Broadcast address of 192.168.10.31 Subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 CIDR notation of /28

Subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 IP address 192.169.10.50 is part of the second subnet of the 192.168.10.0 network that is notated as 192.168.10.32/27. Its subnet mask is 255.255.255.224.

Client systems receive IP address configurations via a DHCP server. When negotiating the address information assignment, what relates to available leases? (Select all that apply.) T2 DORA ARP T1

T1 T2 A client can renew its lease from a Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server when at least half the lease's period has elapsed (T1 timer) so that it keeps the same IP addressing information. A client can attempt to rebind the same lease configuration with any available DHCP server. By default, this happens after 87.5% of the lease duration is up (T2 timer).

A client is attempting to connect to a network, but is unable to successfully connect. They decide to open Wireshark to see if they can troubleshoot but want to filter based on the DHCP port. What should they filter on? TCP 139 TCP 80 TCP 67 UDP 123

TCP 67 Information can be viewed from Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) traffic by filtering on TCP 67 and 68. DHCP dynamically assigns IP addresses to network hosts.

An engineer creates several Ethernet cables and chooses to terminate the cable ends with the orange pair using pins one and two. Considering the standard choices, which of the following does the engineer choose to implement? TIA/EIA 568a RJ-45 RJ-11 TIA/EIA 568b

TIA/EIA 568b There are two defined methods for terminating Ethernet connectors: T568A and T568B. While T568A is mandated, T568B is the more widely deployed of the two.

An engineer creates several Ethernet cables and chooses to use the widely deployed pinout standard when terminating the cable ends. Considering the standard choices, which of the following does the engineer choose to implement? TIA/EIA 568a TIA/EIA 568b RJ-45 RJ-11

TIA/EIA 568b There are two defined methods for terminating Ethernet connectors: T568A and T568B. While T568A is mandated, T568B is the more widely deployed of the two.

An engineer configures a DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) record to list the names allowed to receive email from a given source. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure? TXT record CNAME record SRV record "A" record

TXT record A TXT record is used to store any free-form text that may be needed to support other network services. DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) records are TXT records that are used to decide whether email is allowed from a given source to prevent spam and mail spoofing.

Explain how the Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) provides binding in Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS). The directory grants anonymous access. The client and server negotiate the use of a supported security mechanism. The client supplies the Domain Name (DN) and password. The server authenticates to the client and configures a secure channel for communications.

The client and server negotiate the use of a supported security mechanism. Authentication, referred to as binding to the server, can be implemented in several ways for Lightweight Directory Access Protocol Secure (LDAPS). The Simple Authentication and Security Layer (SASL) completes binding by the client and server negotiating the use of a supported security mechanism.

A windows server cannot connect to the public network. After entering a ipconfig /all command, the server has an IP address of 169.254.219.35. Which of the following is most likely the reason the server cannot communicate with the public network? The server has a DHCP address. The server has an APIPA address. The server has a public IP address. The server has an EUI-64 (or interface ID).

The server has an APIPA address. Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) is automatically set by the Windows operating system if a static IP is not set, and DHCP addressing is not working. Hosts with an APIPA IP address will only communicate with others with the same setting on a local network.

A technician is building a new network link between a switch and a router. The switch only has ethernet ports, while the router only has fiber ports. What could the technician utilize to connect these two devices? Transceiver/media converter Patch panel/patch bay Fiber distribution panel SFP+

Transceiver/media converter Enterprise switches and routers are available with modular, hot-swappable transceivers/media converters for different types of fiber optic patch cord connections. These allow connections between ethernet and fiber networks.

Which port will a Domain Name Server (DNS) use for record transfers over 512 bytes? Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 53 User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 53 Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 23 User Datagram Protocol (UDP) 69

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 53 A Domain Name Server (DNS) server that needs to allow large record transfers over 512 bytes will be configured to allow connections over Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) port 53.

A Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) agent informs the monitor of a port failure. Analyze the functions of an SNMP agent to determine what command the monitor uses for this notification. Get Set Walk Trap

Trap The Trap command is used when the agent informs the monitor of a notable event, such as a port failure. The threshold for triggering traps can be set for each value.

A router downloads configuration files over User Datagram Protocol (UDP) port 69. The router does not have access to browse the directory or to delete files. Analyze File Transfer Protocols (FTPs) and determine what protocol the router is using. Secure File Transfer Protocol (SFTP) Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) Active File Transfer Protocol (FTP) File Transfer Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) The Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a connectionless protocol that runs over User Datagram Port (UDP) port 69. TFTP supports reading and writing files, not directory browsing or file deletion.

An engineer is installing a new connection between two database stacks. The engineer is using copper cable and needs a connection speed of 40GbE with a distance of about 12 feet. Which medium should the engineer utilize for this link? Coaxial 10GBASE-LR Twinaxial 10BASE-T

Twinaxial Twinax is for data center 10 GbE (unofficially referred to as 10GBASE-CR) and 40 GbE (40GBASE-CR4) interconnections of up to about 5 meters for passive cable types and 10 meters for active cable types.

What allows a network designer to allocate ranges of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to subnets that match the predicted need for the number of subnets and hosts per subnet? Classless Inter-Domain Routing (CIDR) Private addressing Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) Public addressing

Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSMs) allows a network designer to allocate ranges of Internet Protocol (IP) addresses to subnets that match the predicted need for numbers of subnets and hosts per subnet.

A networked host is sending data to a single host in the same Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN). Which protocol will handle the packets for this transmission? Unicast Multicast Anycast Broadcast

Unicast When a host wants to send a packet to a single recipient, it uses a unicast packet addressed to the IP address of the destination host.

A wireless access point is available on the floor for wireless users in the area. User 1 wants to send a file to user 2 using their laptop's wireless adapters. Which of the following is the most secure way of sending files to one another using their current wireless adapters? Using a wireless mesh network Using an infrastructure mesh network Using an ad hoc connection Using a bus network connection

Using an ad hoc network In an ad hoc topology, the wireless adapter allows connections to and from other devices. This makes it possible for two laptops to connect directly with each other wirelessly. This is also referred to as an Independent Basic Service Set (IBSS).

A system sends a message to all link-local nodes via a multicast address. Compare private address types and conclude which address the system will use. ff02:1 ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff 00:5a:3b:08:5c:02 192.152.160.120

ff02:1 A multicast address identifies multiple network interfaces. Unlike Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4), Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) must support multicast. The first 8 bits indicate the address is within the multicast scope (1111 1111 or ff). The address ff02::1 has a target of all link-local nodes.

A network administrator is creating a plan for connecting multiple branch locations to the main database located in the headquarters. Which protocols can the administrator use to accomplish this link? (Select all that apply.) mGRE NFV MPLS vNIC

mGRE MPLS Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (mGRE) is a version of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol that supports point-to-multipoint links, such as the hub and spoke dynamic multipoint VPN. Multiprotocol label switching (MPLS) can operate as an overlay network to configure point-to-point or point-to-multipoint links between nodes regardless of the underlying physical and data link topologies.

The main office is planning for more jobs to become remote in nature. The network team is briefing the chief information security officer (CISO) on the use of VPN software and the protocols used for point-to-muiltipoint connections. Which protocols should the team brief to the CISO? (Select all that apply.) mGRE MPLS vNIC NFV

mGRE MPLS Multipoint Generic Routing Encapsulation (mGRE) is a version of the Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) protocol that supports point-to-multipoint links, such as the hub and spoke dynamic multipoint Virtual Private Network (VPN). Multiprotocol label switching (MPLS) can operate as an overlay network to configure point-to-point or point-to-multipoint links between nodes regardless of the underlying physical and data link topologies.

A system administrator for ABC Company receives a request for a new account. A new employee is onboarding and will receive a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone. The employee's name is Sam Smith and the phone number will be 1234567890. The company's domain is @abccompany.com. Develop a Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) Uniform Resource Indicator (URI). (Select all that apply.) sip:123456789.abccompany.com sip:sam.smith@1234567890 sip:sam.smith.abccompany.com sip:[email protected]

sip:[email protected] sip:sam.smith@1234567890 Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) endpoints are the end-user devices, also known as user agents. In this scenario, the Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) is the SIP endpoint. One example of an SIP for this VoIP is sip:[email protected]. This is a unique URI that includes the user's name and the company domain. The URI sip:sam.smith@1234567890 is a unique URI that includes the user's name and the SIP endpoint phone number.