COT Quick study cards ACB

If a patient visual acuity measures 20/70 with correction and pinholes to 20/25, which of the following is MOST likely? A. The patient needs distance correction B. The patient is malingering C. The patient should be dilated and examined for retinopathy D. The patient has cataracts

A. the patient needs distance correction.

Light travels in A. waves. B straight lines. C. circles. D. beams.

A. waves

Which dystrophy is noted by wart like deposits on Descemet's membrane, thickening of Descemet's membrane, and defects of size and shape of the endothelial cells? A. Fuch's dystrophy B. Narrow angle glaucoma C. Lattice corneal dystrophy D. Retinal detachment

A. Fuch's dystrophy

The power of a contact lens may be measured on a standard lensometer. A small error in the power may arise if the lens is held in place with fingers, particularly with what type of lens? A. High power B. Low power C. Therapeutic D. Cosmetic

A. High power

A patient calls stating they have not been able to see out of their right eye for the last half hour, but it does not hurt. When should they see an ophthalmologist? A. Immediately B. Today C. Tomorrow D. Sometimes within the week

A. Immediately

If the slit lamp will no longer slide easily on the tabletop, which of the following remedies should be tried FIRST? A. Clean the friction pad(plate) B. Grease the joystick C. Replace the ball bearings D. Replace the locking screw

A. Clean the friction pad(plate)

A Hruby lens is used to examine the A. lens of the eye. B. anterior vitreous. C. fundus of the eye. D. thickness of the cornea.

C. fundus of the eye.

The denominator in the visual acuity recording of a low vision patient is A. equal to the numerator. B. the same for both eyes. C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity. D. smaller than for a patient with normal visual acuity.

C. larger than for a patient with normal visual acuity.

Specular Microscopy images are used to A. identify bacteria. B. identify retinal abnormalities. C. measure corneal endothelial cell density. D. measure corneal thickness.

C. measure corneal endothelial cell density.

The physiologic blind spot correlates with the optic A. chiasm. B. tract. C. nerve. D. zone.

C. nerve

A 55-year old patient has worn glasses since childhood. Without glasses, the uncorrected vision improves when looking through an occluder with perforations. This phenomenon is known as the A. prism effect. B. scatter effect. C. pinhole effect. D. contrast effect.

C. pinhole effect

The difference between the farthest and nearest distance at which a patient is able to see clearly is known as A. convergence amplitude B. Panum's fusional space C. range of accommodation D. the add.

C. range of accommodation

Corneal astigmatism is BEST corrected by A. extended wear spherical soft contact lenses. B. hydrogel spherical soft contact lenses C. spherical RGP and soft lenses D. spherical spin cast soft contact lenses

C. spherical RGP and soft lenses

B-scan biometry is necessary when A. the IOL master cannot measure the eye. B. there is a cataract. C. there is any media opacity. D. there is a Staphyloma in the eye.

C. there is any media opacity.

When preforming A-scan biometry, correct alignment of the probe is BEST determined by A. tissue spikes that gradually increase in height. B. an axial length measurement between 22mm and 25mm. C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp. D. an axial length measurement that is almost equal between

C. tissue spikes that are equally tall and sharp.

The source used to obtain the image in Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT) is A. ultrasonic energy. B. visible white light. C. visible red-green light. D. high resolution imaging.

D. high resolution imaging

Immersion A-scan is generally more accurate than contact A-scan biometry du to A. less eye movement B. the use of a more powerful ultrasound C. better lubrication of the cornea D. less corneal compression

D. less corneal compression.

The purpose of Brightness Acuity Testing (BAT) is to determine if visual acuity varies with different A. refractive errors. B. pinhole sizes. C. dark adaptations. D. lighting conditions.

D. lighting conditions.

A retrobulbar injection places medication into the A. bulbar conjunctiva. B. conjunctiva. C. eyeball. D. muscle cone.

D. muscle cone.

Lens warpage should be checked with a A. lensometer B. shadowgraph C. slit lamp. D. radiuscope

D. radiuscope

What is the primary purpose of using epinephrine for glaucoma? A. Increase aqueous outflow B. Increase aqueous production C. Decrease aqueous outflow D. Decrease aqueous production

Increase aqueous outflow

Involuntary, rhythmic, to-and fro oscillations of one or both eyes is referred to as A. ptosis B. Proptosis C. emmetropia D. Nystagmus

Nystagmus

What is the correct interpretation of 1gtt tid OU?

One drop to both eyes three times a day

Open-angle glaucoma is primarily caused by abnormalities in which structure? A. Trabecular meshwork B. Posterior chamber C. Ciliary processes D. Iris

Trabecular meshwork

A physician writes the following prescription: Atropine 1% gtts 1 OS q. hs x 5d. The prescription is : A. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution by mouth before bed for 5 days B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for 5 days C. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment on the left eye every night before bed for five days. D. 1 mm Atropine 1% ointment in the left eye every hour for 5 hours.

B. 1 drop Atropine 1% solution in the left eye every night before bed for 5 days.

What is the metric equivalent of 20/40 visual acuity? A. 6/10 B. 6/12 C. 6/15 D. 6/20

B. 6/12

You are assisting the retina surgeon set-up for a pan-retinal photocoagulation. Though several ophthalmic lasers could be useful for this procedure, what type is MOST often used? A. Diode B. Argon C. Krypton D. Nd:YAG

B. Argon

What is the most important action for a patient who has sustained a splash injury to the eye? A. Go to an emergency room as quickly as possible. B. Immediately flush the eye with a substantial amount of water and call the poison control center. C. Put a bland ophthalmic ointment in the eye to protect the corneal epithelium. D. Make sure to keep the bottle that the liquid was in and call emergency.

B. Immediately flush the eye with a substantial amount of water and call the poison control center.

The normal visual field is determined by the size of the test object employed and the distance at which the test was made. With a 3mm white target on the perimeter of a 330-degree radius, the average peripheral limit is about A. 75 degrees outward, 55 degrees downward, 40 degrees inward and 40 degrees upward. B. 85degrees outward, 65 degrees downward, 50 degrees inward and 50 degrees upward. C. 95 degrees outward, 75 degrees downward, 60 degrees inward and 60 degrees upward. D. 105 degrees outward, 85 degrees downward, 70 degrees inward and 40 degrees upward

C. 95 degrees outward, 75 degrees downward, 60 degrees inward and 60 degrees upward

Which one of the following ocular conditions will LEAST likely present t in a patient's family history? A. Keratonconus B. Nystagmus C. Conjunctivitis D. Retinitis pigmentosa

C. Conjunctivitis

The most common error made in contact biometry is A. improper gate placement B. erroneous K readings. C. corneal compression. D. wrong eye type.

C. Corneal compression

What fundamental issue enhances patient trust and partnership while aiding patients to understand their disease? A. Informed consent B. Cultural beliefs C. Honest patient communication D. Proper documentation

C. Honest patient communication

Which of the following statements about the Snellen visual acuity chart is TRUE? A. A special slide is available for testing color vision. B. It can be used only with a patient-to-screen distance of 20 feet (6 meters) C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the symbols on the screen. D. With proper adjustment it can be used to test near vision

C. It contains an adjustment for changing the size of the symbols on the screen

A "scissors reflex" may occur during retinoscopy and is associated with A. cataracts B. Fuch's dystrophy. C. keratoconus D. narrow angle glaucoma

C. Keratoconus

A history of corticosteroid use is of LEAST importance when ascertaining which condition? A. Cataracts B. Glaucoma C. Macular degeneration D. Uveitis

C. Macular degeneration

How is a properly applied eye dressing secured? A. Alternating vertical and horizontal strips of adhesive tape B. Horizontal parallel strips of adhesive tape C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone D. Strips of adhesive tape from the upper lip near the mouth to the forehead

C. Parallel strips of surgical tape from the forehead to the cheekbone

What is the principle mode of action of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors when used for the treatment of glaucoma? A. Constriction of the pupil B. Reduction of pressure in the aqueous veins C. Reduction in the amount of aqueous formed by the ciliary body D. Increased rate flow of aqueous through the trabecular meshwork

C. Reduction in the amount od aqueous formed by the ciliary body

Microbiology: A sample of discharge or tissue cells obtained by scraping is a A. smudge B. fragment C. smear D. specimen

C. Smear

Sympathomimetic agents dilate the pupil by which of the following mechanisms? A. Blocking the action of the sphincter muscle of the iris. B. Stimulating the ciliary muscle. C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris. D. Stimulating the sphincter muscle of the iris.

C. Stimulating the radial muscle of the iris.

What protozoan organism can cause corneal infections? A. Acanthamoeba B. Pseudomonas C. Fusarium D. Adenovirus

A. Acanthamoeba

A lens formula of +2.00 -3.00 x 090 degrees has what power at 90 degrees and at 180 degrees? A. +2.00 and -1.00 B. +2.00 and -3.00 C. +5.00 and +3.00 D. -1.00 and +2.00

A. +2.00 and -1.00

A patient with a far point of 7.87'' (20 cm) in front of the eye requires what spectacle lens power to correct their refractive error to emmetropia? A. -5.00D B. -2.00D C. +2.00D D. +5.00D

A. -5.00D

Corneal abrasions are treated by firm patching for how many hours? A. 24 B. 36 C. 48 D. 60

A. 24

How many layers comprise the tear layer? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6

A. 3 1. outer lipid layer 2. Aqueous layer 3. Mucous layer

In ordinary room light, the diameter of the normal adult pupil is A. 3-5 mm. B. 6-9 mm. C. 10-13 mm. D. 14-17 mm.

A. 3-5 mm

If the K value of a patient being fit for RGP contact lenses is recorded as 43.50/44.50, the BC of CL fit "on K" would be which of the following? A. 43.50 B. 44.00 C. 44.50 D. 45.00

A. 43.50

Intracorneal rings are used primarily in the treatment of which condition? A. Keratoconus B. Retinal detachment C. Glaucoma D. Age-related macular degeneration

A. Keratoconus

What is the name of the drugs that are used to dilate the pupils? A. Mydriatics B. Miotics C. Beta-blockers D. Anesthetics

A. Mydriatics

Homonymous congruous visual field defects with macular sparing are located in what part of the visual pathway? A. Occipital cortex B. Optic chiasm C. Optic nerve D. Optic radiation

A. Occipital cortex

What is the term for a noncontact method that allows for detailed cross-sectional imaging of the anterior eye and retina? A. Optical Coherence Tomography(OCT) B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) C. Computed Tomography (CT) D. Positron Emission Tomography

A. Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)

What is the term for a path of a single corpuscle of light traveling through a tiny aperture and through two successive screens? A. Ray of light B. Pencil of light C. Beam of light D. Shaft of light

A. Ray of light

In a patient with dry eyes, the doctor may ask you to conduct a Schirmer test. The test should be performed with A. strips avoiding corneal contact. B. use of a mydriatic. C. use of a cycloplegic. D. the patient sedated.

A. Strips avoiding corneal contact.

Computerized corneal topography analysis is the measurement of the curvature of the A. corneal surface B. anterior chamber C. posterior chamber D. vitreous body

A. corneal surface

Instruments that are slim handled with bowl-shaped ends are A. curettes. B. clamps. C. needle holders. D. scalpels.

A. curettes

Prisms used in ophthalmology are calibrated in A. diopters. B. Inches. C. feet. D. yards.

A. diopters.

The method used to permanently remove lashes from the lid margin is A. electrolysis B. iridotomy C. myectomy D. vitrectomy

A. electrolysis

All of the following are manifestations of hypoxia from contact lens EXCEPT A. giant papillary conjunctivitis B. intraepithelial microcysts C. stromal edema D. warping of the cornea (irregular astigmatism)

A. giant papillary conjunctivitis

Miotics (parasympathomimetic agents) are used as a topical therapy for A. glaucoma B. macular degeneration C. conjunctivitis D. amblyopia

A. glaucoma

Gonioscopy is a technique for imaging the A. junction of the iris and the cornea. B. axons of the optic nerve head. C. chiasmal and post chiasmal field defects. D. nerve fiber pathways above the raphe.

A. junction of the iris and the cornea.

The optic chiasm is the crossing point for the retinal nerve fibers and the A. optic nerves forming the optic tracts. B. nasal retina to each eye. C. temporal retina to each eye. D. retinal nerve fibers that cause pupillary dilation.

A. optic nerves forming the optic tracts.

Schirmer's testing is used to measure A. tear production. B. corneal thickness. C. pupillary reflexes. D. corneal curvature.

A. tear production.

The type of drug that stimulates the effect of acetylocholine is a A. parasympatholytic. B. parasympathomimetic. C. sympatholytic. D. sympathomimetic

B. parasympathomimetic

When evaluating a patient for cataract surgery, which of the following systemic illnesses is LEAST important? A. Cardiac problems B. Diabetes C. Hypertension D. Urinary incontinence

D. Urinary incontinence

What cycloplegic agent produces the longest lasting affect? A. Homeatropine B. Atropine sulfate C. Tropicamide D. Cyclopentolate

B. Atropine sulfate

Biometry: What will distort the sound beam and render the resulting echo pattern almost unrecognizable? A. Use of topical anesthetic drops B. Bubbles in the fluid bath C. A posterior subcapsular cataract D. The patient being reclined

B. Bubbles in the fluid bath

The use of topical steroids' may induce which of the following conditions? A. Retinal detachment B. Cataracts C. Keratoconus D. Hyphema

B. Cataracts

Why is immersion A-scan considered more accurate than contact A-scan? A. Faster to perform B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated C. Abrading the cornea is eliminated D. Uses light instead of sound

B. Compression of the cornea is eliminated.

In order to test the function of the superior oblique muscle, the eye is directed into which field of gaze? A. Down and lateral B. Down and medial C. Straight ahead D. Up and lateral

B. Down and medial

Microbiology: What is the MOST prevalent cell type in a scraping from allergic conjunctivitis? A. Basophils B. Eosinophils C. Lymphocytes D. Neutrophils

B. Eosinophils

Tear duct irrigation may be indicated for which of the following conditions? A. Xanthelasma B. Epiphora C. Entropion D. Hypotony

B. Epiphora

Which test is used to assess stereopsis? A. Pinhole B. Schirmer C. Ishihara D. Wirt

D. Wirt Fly Stereo test

Which of the following is a benefit of a flat-top bifocal lens? A. Better vision in the sunlight B. Lessen or eliminate image jump C. improved distance vision D. Improved peripheral vision.

B. Lessen or eliminate image jump

What is NOT important when documenting the history of an ocular injury? A. How the injury occurred B. Presence of others when the injury occurred C. The time the injury occurred D. Treatment received since the injury occerred

B. Presence of others when the injury occurred

What is the main purpose of aseptic technique? A. Non-sterile touches clean B. Sterile touches sterile C. Sterile touches clean D. Clean touches clean

B. Sterile touches sterile

Management of the partially sighted varies with the patient's A. vocation. B. age. C. sex. D. ethnicity.

B. age.

Pseudophakia refers to an eye with A. a natural human lens. B. an intraocular lens implant. C. no lens. D. a history of LASIK.

B. an intraocular lens implant

Common anesthetic agents such as proparacaine, tetracaine, and lidocaine are administered A. as inhalants. B. as eye drops C. orally. D. intravenously.

B. as eye drops.

Measuring visual acuity with a potential acuity meter is useful for patients with A. glaucoma. B. cataracts. C. optic neuritis. D. age-related macular degeneration.

B. cataracts

Cytology is the study of A. microbial organisms B. cell types C. gram and Giemsa smears D. adenoviruses

B. cell types.

An obstruction of the meibomian gland generally causes. A. pterygiums. B. chalazions. C. ptosis. D. entropion.

B. chalazions.

When a bundle of light rays is brought together the rays are said to A. be symbolized by a minus sign. B. converge to a point of focus. C. create a virtual image. D. diverge from a point source.

B. converge to a point of focus.

OCT testing can accurately measure the thickness of the A. iris B. cornea C. retina D. lens capsule

B. cornea

Vertex distance refers to the A. distance between the two optical centers of the spectacle lenses B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens. C. difference between the distance versus near PD. D. the pantoscopic angle of the frame.

B. distance from the cornea to the back surface of the spectacle lens.

The term for the education of the patient, asking for their participation in the decision-making process is A. client confidentiality B. informed consent C. patient privacy D. patient responsibility

B. informed consent

A patient who is unable to abduct the left eye may have a weakness of the A. right medial rectus muscle. B. left lateral rectus muscle C. left medial rectus muscle D. right lateral rectus muscle

B. left lateral rectus muscle

Scotomas located immediately nasal or temporal to fixation are known as A. central B. paracentral C. arcuate D. nasal step

B. paracentral

The lines of optotypes are what size in comparison to the entire optotype? A. 1/2 B. 1/4 C. 1/5 D. 1/6

C. 1/5

How many nerves innervate the six extraocular muscles? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

C. 3

A visual acuity of 20/200 obtained at a distance of 4 feet should be recorded as A. J10 B. 6/60 C. 4/200 D. <20/200

C. 4/200

A parallel beam of light passes through a sphero-cylindrical lens +2.00 +1.00 x 090. Where is the circle of least confusion? A. 20cm behind the lens B. 30cm behind the lens C. 40cm behind the lens D. 20cm in front of the lens

C. 40cm behind the lens

A 79-year-old female is taking medication for open angle glaucoma. She has a syncopal episode and is found to have a pulse rate of 36 beats per minute. Which of the following glaucoma medications is most likely the cause? A. Acetazolamide B. Mannitol C. Pilocarpine D. Timolol

D. Timolol

OCT imaging is NOT useful in determining which of the following conditions? A. Glaucoma B. Macular edema C. macular holes D. Dextroversion

D. Dextroversion

Which is NOT a designation of a version? A. Levoversion B. Sursumversion C. Dextroversion D. Intraversion

D. Intraversion

What plates are used to access color vision? A. Allen cards B. Snellen chart C. Worth four-dot D. Ishihara

D. Ishihara

Which test uses prisms to center the corneal reflex? A. Hess B. Worth four-dot C. Hirschberg D. Krimsky

D. Krimsky

Which of the following was designed to measure visual acuity bypassing optical media defects? A. ETDRS acuity charts B. Snellen chart C. HOTV D. Laser interferometry

D. Laser interferometry

What fluorescein angiography phase is present when there are no white areas of leakage seen and diminution of fluorescence in all retinal blood vessels is indicated? A. Arterial B. Normal C. Early venous D. Late

D. Late

Which symptoms might suggest angle-closure glaucoma? A. Flashes and floaters B. Slowly progressive visual loss C. Bleeding into the anterior chamber D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

D. Rainbow colored halos around lights

Oral medications are considered to be what kind of drug? A. Local B. Subconjunctival C. Retrobulbar D. Systemic

D. Systemic

In the case of a one-year old child with an infantile left esotropia and deep left amblyopia, which notation would denote the visual acuity? A. CSM B. CSUM C. CUSM D. UCSUM

D. UCSUM