CPT 7 Exam
LDL Cholesterol
"bad" blood cholesterol, delivers plaque to the arterial walls. Levels should be < 100 mg/dl
HDL Cholesterol
"good cholesterol." It does not have the tendency to clog arteries like LDL cholesterol does and, in fact, actually helps remove some LDL cholesterol from the body. To help reduce the risk of heart disease, in conjunction with lowering LDL levels below 100 mg/dL, HDL levels should typically be kept around 60 mg/dL
The anterior oblique subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups? Thoracolumbar fascia and contralateral gluteus maximus Hamstrings and erector spinae Adductors (inner thigh) and contralateral quadratus lumborum Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Adductor (inner) thigh muscles, obliques, and hip external rotators
Davis's law describes what type of changes within the cumulative injury cycle?
Adhesions may begin to form structural changes in the soft tissue.
Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Reflections Collecting summaries Transitional summaries Affirmations
Affirmations
How can health best be defined?
A state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being, and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity
Linear Periodization
A traditional method of program design that aims to gradually increase the intensity of the training load while simultaneously decreasing volume over a set period of time.
Which of the following conditions would produce nutritional ketosis in the body?
A very-low carbohydrate diet
Which of the following best defines cholesterol?
A waxy, fatlike substance found in bodily cells.
Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core?
Back extension (Plank does local muscles)
The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? The constructed environment The manufactured environment The built environment The assembled environment
Built environment
Which of the following modalities has the potential to be used effectively in every phase of the OPT model?
Cable machines
Clients with adducted and internally rotated knees and pronated feet
Cardiorespiratory exercise that involves the lower extremities requires proper mobility at the ankle joint. Emphasize self-myofascial techniques and stretching for the calves, adductors, and hip flexors. Additional strengthening exercises for the gluteus medius and maximus are also recommended. • Using the treadmill and steppers that require climbing may initially be too extreme for constant repetition if clients are allowed to hold onto the rails and speed up the pace. If these modalities are used, emphasize the flexibility exercises mentioned previously and keep the pace at a controllable speed until these postures are corrected.
Phase 5: Superset Examples
Chest (Bench and Medicine Ball Pass); Back (Lat Pulldown and Medicine Soccer Throw); Shoulders (Dumbbell Press and Front Medicine Oblique Throw); Legs (Barbell Squat and Squat Jump)
Phase 2: Superset Examples
Chest (Bench and Pushup); Back (Seated Row and Standing Cable Row); Shoulders (Press Machine and Single Leg Dumbbell Overhead Press); Legs (Barbell Squat and Single-Leg Squat)
What is the blood pressure measurement that occurs when the heart is at rest or between beats?
Diastolic
Which of the following is not a component of an integrated approach to exercise?
Diet supplementation. (An integrated approach to exercise includes these forms of training: flexibility and mobility, core strength and stability, cardio, balance, plyometrics, SAQ, and resistance.)
Which of the following is a banned substance in the United States?
DMAA
In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?
Dairy and shellfish
What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome?
Delayed onset muscle soreness
What are the two categories of bone markings?
Depressions and processes
Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Single-leg hops b. Box jumps c. Ice skaters d. Depth jumps
Depth jumps But single-leg stuff is supposed to be more advanced...
What should be the first step in a client's program after the assessment?
Designing flexibility portion
What term is defined as the generic modifiable factors that impact behavior? Behavior change techniques Self-efficacy Determinants Attitudes
Determinants
Which of the following defines the general goal or outcome of training in zone 1?
Develop appropriate aerobic base
Progressive resistance training variables
Easy to hard • Simple to complex • Static to dynamic • Slow to fast • Stabilization → strength → power
Components of the stretch-shortening cycle
Eccentric Stored elastic energy; stimulation of muscle spindles, signal sent to spinal cord | Stretch of agonist muscle Amortization: Nerves meet synapse in spinal cord, signal sent to stretched muscle |Time between the eccentric and concentric phases Concentric: Elastic energy release, enhanced muscle force production | Shortening of agonist muscle
Which type of muscle contraction/action attenuates force through muscle fiber lengthening?
Eccentric action
Which of the following phases does not reflect the traditional components of cardiorespiratory training?
Interval phase Correct phases are Warm up Conditioning phase Cool down
Long-term exercise adherence is associated with which type of motivation? Intrinsic motivation Extrinsic motivation Amotivation Incentive motivation
Intrinsic motivation
Which type of motivation would be characterized by a client who enjoys the process of becoming more fit? Intrinsic motivation Extrinsic motivation Achievement motivation Affiliation motivation
Intrinsic motivation
What type of muscle contraction occurs between landing and jumping during plyometric training?
Isometric (landing is eccentric, jumping is concentric. Isometric is between them.)
During balance training, gluteal muscles should remain in which state to hold the body stable?
Isometrically contracted
What impacts can exercise have on cholesterol levels in the body?
It can reduce LDL cholesterol and increase HDL cholesterol.
Why does a shorter amortization phase lead to more effective plyometric movement?
It causes stored elastic energy to be used more efficiently.
Which statement about chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is accurate? Brisk walking is not recommended, as it can bring on symptoms. It is an acute disease. It is not a curable disease. It is typically a stress-induced condition.
It is not a curable disease
Nonsynovial joints
Joints that do not have a joint cavity, connective tissue, or cartilage.
Which of the following is a necessity for all fitness professionals to remain successful in the industry?
Keeping up with the latest science and changes in the industry
What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?
Knees parallel to ground
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility?
LEFT
Adjusting daily priorities is a strategy to overcome which of the following barriers?
Lack of time
Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?
Lack of time
Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex?
Lateral subsystem
Extension of the shoulder is common in many pulling movements. Which of the following muscles is involved?
Lattisimus dorsi
Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable? Leader's style Leader's qualities The requirements of the leader The personality of the leader
Leader's qualities
For a Certified Personal Trainer, what would provide the most time-efficient option for increasing income potential?
Learning how to lead group programs
What is the primary limiting factor for exercise in the client with PAD?
Leg pain
What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone?
Ligaments
Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt.
Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. Not: Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation.
Core training progression 3
The last progression includes exercises that are designed to improve the rate of force production (power) and movement efficiency of the core musculature and extremities. Example exercises include: Medicine ball rotation chest pass, Ball medicine ball pullover throw, Front medicine ball oblique throw, Side medicine ball oblique throw, Medicine ball soccer throw, Medicine ball woodchop throw, and Medicine ball overhead throw
Human movement is accomplished through the functional integration of three systems within the human body: the nervous system, the skeletal system, and what other system?
Muscular
Plyometric training progression 3
The last progression includes exercises that involve explosive, powerful movements. These exercises are performed as fast and as explosively as possible. Some example exercises include: Ice skaters (also known as skater jumps), Single-leg power step-up, Proprioceptive plyometrics, and Depth jump
Pivot joints
Pivot joints allow rotation arround an axis. The neck and forearms have pivot joints. In the neck the occipital bone spins over the top of the axis. In the forearms the radius and ulna twist arround each other.
Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?
Place a small board under the heels
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?
Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension
Which statement about lowering blood pressure is true?
Planned exercise alone is typically insufficient for acutely lowering and controlling hypertension.
Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?
Planning social gatherings for the group
Which of the following injuries is characterized by a sharp pain in the bottom of the heel that makes it difficult to walk?
Plantar Fasciitis
Reactive training is another common name for which type of exercise?
Plyometric
What area of the body is most targeted during the single-leg squat to row exercise?
Posterior chain (not intrinsic core musculature) Imagine what is worked with many reps of this. It's all posterior things.
Which of the following is not considered a component of fitness? Power Aerobic fitness Flexibility Muscular strength
Power
When using linear periodization with a client, what would you progress them to after 4 weeks of training maximal strength adaptations?
Power Not muscular development or strength endurance
Medicine ball chest press
Power exercise. Core.
Soccer Throw power exercise
Power. Core.
What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months? Action Contemplation Maintenance Precontemplation
Precontemplation
What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
Precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing "not at all ready" and 10 representing "completely ready." If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in? Action Preparation Precontemplation Maintenance
Preparation
Using the healthcare continuum, how would training with a fitness professional be classified?
Preventative care
Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control?
Pro shuttle (not LEFT)
Reverse listing
Replacing negative statements with positive statements.
Balance training progression 3
The last progression includes exercises that are designed to develop proper deceleration ability to move the body from a dynamic state to a controlled stationary position. In other words, these exercises combine hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing (holding the landing position for 3-5 seconds). Example exercises include: Multiplanar hop with stabilization, Multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization, and Multiplanar single-leg box hop-down with stabilization
What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Coping plan Implementation intention Self-monitoring Guided practice
Implementation intention
autogenic inhibition
The process by which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles.
oxidative phosphorylation
The production of ATP using energy derived from the redox reactions of an electron transport chain; the third major stage of cellular respiration.
How are open-ended questions best used during the sales process?
The questions identify the customer's wants, needs, fears, and desires.
How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described?
The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading
Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Why don't you want to change? What might you want to change? If you decided to make a change, what might you do? What might work for you?
Why don't you change?
Type 1 Diabetes
With type 1 diabetes, the pancreas does not make enough insulin (or none at all), which is a hormone that helps transport glucose into cells to be used for energy. Without insulin, glucose in the blood (i.e., blood sugar) can rise to dangerous levels, causing numerous health complications. Type 1 diabetes is typically genetic and is not something a person can actively prevent. However, regular exercise can help people with type 1 diabetes considerably improve their blood glucose management and quality of life
Type 2 Diabetes
With type 2 diabetes, the body still produces insulin; however, it is not used properly by the cells. When excess carbohydrates (specifically sugar) are chronically consumed in the diet, high levels of insulin need to be produced to help regulate blood sugar. When excess insulin continually tries to deliver glucose to cells when they already have more than they can use, cells stop responding to it. This state is called insulin resistance. Once cells have become insulin resistant, a person is said to have developed type 2 diabetes. Regulating blood sugar can become very difficult for these individuals, which may lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and a wide variety of health complications.
Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option?
Working for a premium health club company
Dan, an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, completed what he felt was a very successful interview with the hiring manager at a top fitness studio. What is the best course of action if Dan is interested in moving on to the next phase of the interview process?
Writing a handwritten note to thank the hiring manager for the opportunity to interview for the job
Which of the following tests uses recovery heart rate rather than exercising heart rate to evaluate cardiorespiratory fitness levels?
YMCA 3 min step test
In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases?
Zone 3
Which test provides the most personalized assessment of an individual's true metabolic function?
VT1 Test
Training Zone 2
VT1 to Midpoint • Challenging to hard • Noticeable sweating and using larger volumes of breath • Continual talking is becoming challenging
What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?
Veins (Arteries are from the heart)
Reciprocal inhibition
When an agonist receives a signal to contract, its functional antagonist also receives an inhibitory signal allowing it to lengthen.
What is the definition of energy balance?
When daily food intake is matched to energy needs
Rotator cuff tear
a tear in one or more of the tendons that attach to the upper end of the humerus (those tendons form a 'cuff' around the proximal end of the humerus)
Sagittal Plane
a vertical plane that divides the body into right and left parts. Movements *in* the sagittal plane include flexion and extension and plantar flexion and dorsiflexion of the foot and ankle.
Gluteus maximus and medius
Which muscles are typically underactive with knee valgus during the overhead squat?
Long bone
longer than they are wide
Which type of nerve receptor senses pain?
nociceptor
Lateral pelvic tilt
one iliac crest is lower than the other. Weight shifted from stance to swing phase Controlled by hip Abductors Gluteus Medius and Minimus and lateral trunk benders: Erector spinea and quadratus Lumborum
Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?
osteokinematics
PAD
peripheral artery disease
GAS resistance stage
physiological changes that ultimately lead to training adaptations that promote increases in performance
What are the three types of muscles in the body?
skeletal, cardiac, smooth
Pattern Overload (example)
sports, running, repeitive rountine in the gym, occupational (repeititive lifting or loading) or sitting at a computer day in and day out.
condyloid joint
synovial joint that does everything except rotating
Exercise considerations for clients with intermittent claudication or PAD
• Allow for sufficient rest between exercises. • Workout may start with 5-10 minutes of activity. • Slowly progress client. • A circuit-training format is recommended.
Food is composed of which three compounds?
carbohydrates, fats, proteins
components of fitness
cardiorespiratory endurance, muscular strength, muscular endurance, flexibility, body composition
GAS exhaustion stage
characterized by stress fractures, muscle strains and ligament sprains, joint pain, and emotional fatigue
Exercise considerations for youth
children's thermoregulatory systems are not as mature as adults - they cool their bodies through dry heat dissipation while adults use evaporation—so be careful with hot, humid environments; MHR is much higher (200-205bpm) for kids; SBP changes during exercise are lower than those of young adults; dumb down the RPE scale; gamify exercise sessions and encourage using imagination; supervise appropriately and use light-weight equipment • Progression for the youth population should be based on postural control and not on the amount of weight that can be used • Make exercising fun
What are the basic two types of disease?
chronic and acute
Vestibular system and balance
•Provides information concerning *gravity, rotation, and acceleration* •Reference for *somatosensory and visual* systems •Contributes to integration of *arousal, conscious awareness* of the body Allows for: •*gaze and postural stability* •*sense of orientation* •detection of *linear and angular acceleration*
What equation represents power?
force x velocity
What structure in the heart transfers the electrical signal from the sinoatrial (SA) node to the atrioventricular (AV) node?
Internodal pathway
If your client is working in Phase 1 of the OPT model, what type of flexibility training should they utilize?
SMR/Static stretching
What is the anatomical term that describes something positioned above an identified reference point?
Superior
Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men?
A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple
Scapular retraction
Adduction of scapula; shoulder blades move toward the midline.
First class lever example
seesaw
somatosensory system
sensory network that monitors the surface of the body and its movements
Dislocation of shoulder
-May be forward, downward, or posterior. -Most likely when arm is forcefully abducted and laterally rotated. -May occur by a blow to top of shoulder . -Head of humerus is forced out of the glenoid fossa. -Arm held out from side in a position of slight abduction and lateral rotation. -Loss of normal rounded contour of deltoid muscle
How many CEUs does the mandatory CPR/AED certification provide for renewal of the NASM-CPT credential?
0.1
What is the RDA for protein?
0.8 g/kg RDA Based on current US recommendation, not science which recommends 1.6-2.2 g/kg
Initially, how many sets of SAQ drills are recommended for older adults?
1 or 2 sets
What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching?
1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises
Dynamic stretching
1-3 sets, 5-10 reps, 3-10 exercises.
Active stretching
1-3 sets, hold for 1-2 secs and repeat 5-10 secs
What are the recommended training variables for static stretching?
1-3 sets, hold for 30 secs
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
1. Stabilization 2. Strength 3. Power
What is shortest time period per day that balance training should be conducted 3 times per week for 4 weeks in order to improve both static and dynamic balance ability in children?
10 minutes
When performing high-velocity movements with medicine balls, the ball weight should be no more than what percentage of the user's body weight, according to current recommendations?
10%
What weekly progression rate in exercise volume is the maximum recommended for cardiorespiratory training?
10% per week (not < 15%)
What is the minimum weekly goal of energy expenditure from combined physical activity and exercise for obese clients?
1200 calories (seems super low)
What is a normal respiratory rate for an adult during rest?
15
You have a client seeking weight loss. What is the most appropriate amount of rest recommended between each repetition of an SAQ exercise?
15-60 seconds
What is the weekly total of time recommended for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking?
150 mins/week
Identify the correct number of continuing education units (CEUs) that an NASM Certified Personal Trainer needs to complete in a 2-year cycle to renew the certification.
2
Low-intensity activity burns a higher proportion of fat as fuel, but if someone wanted to burn the most total calories from any substrate, which of the following activities would be most effective?
20 mins moderate intensity Not 5 min high intensity
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet?
20-35% total calories
At what age is the adolescent brain considered to be fully developed?
25
You have a client seeking weight loss. What number of repetitions is most appropriate for SAQ drills?
3-5 reps
How many minutes of vigorous exercise in hot, humid environments should children be restricted to (including frequent rest periods)?
30 mins
Which of the following is an example of linear periodization?
4 weeks in phase 1 followed by 4 weeks in phase 2
According to the NASM Code of Professional Conduct, for how long must a fitness professional maintain accurate financial, contract, appointment, and tax records?
4 years
Approximately what percentage of Americans aged 20 years and older are obese?
40%
What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for carbohydrate in the diet?
45-65% of calories (Just memorize this, this doesn't seem to be supported by other numbers they claim...)
What is the most appropriate SAQ program design for a beginner adult who is apparently healthy?
4 to 6 drills with limited inertia and unpredictability, such as cone shuffles and agility ladder drills
What is the approximate percentage of those who will quit a fitness program within the first 6 months after they begin?
50%
According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese?
72% Obese is 40%
What is the recommendation of minutes per week for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)?
75 mins per week (key is "vigorous")
What percentage of adults experience low-back pain at least once in their lifetime?
80%
What step cadence is used during the YMCA 3-minute step test?
96 steps/minute
What statement best describes a premium health club?
A health club that features multiple group-fitness studio options and provides a selection of high-end amenities
What statement best describes a low-cost health club?
A health club that offers a low-price membership, often including very few amenities other than access to exercise equipment
What statement best describes a mid-market health club?
A health club that provides all the features of low-cost clubs and additional amenities like higher-end locker rooms, snack and supplement sales, and group fitness workouts included in the price of membership
What statement best describes a nonprofit health club?
A health club that uses revenue from fitness programs and memberships to cover operational costs, improve facilities, and fund a wide range of community-based initiatives
Drawing in
A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the naval in toward the spine.
Drawing-in Maneuver
A maneuver used to recruit the local core stabilizers by drawing the navel in toward the spine.
What is homeostasis?
A process by which the human body continually strives to maintain a relatively stable equilibrium
How would age and overall health affect testosterone levels among men?
A reduction in testosterone levels occurs with age, and overall health may affect the degree of change.
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and H2O
What are the end products of the electron transport chain?
ATP and water
Scapular protraction
Abduction of scapula; shoulder blades move away from the midline.
For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2?
Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week
How many calories are in 1 pound of body fat?
About 3,500
What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)?
About 5-15%
Training zone 4
Above VT2 Very hard to maximum effort Breathing as hard as possible Speaking is impossible or limited to grunts of single words
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
Absorption of food and passage of waste into the rectum
Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Acetoacetic acid b. Glycogen c. Lactic acid d. Pyruvate
Acetoacetic acid
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Contemplation Maintenance Action Precontemplation
Action
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising but for less than 6 months? Maintenance Action Contemplation Precontemplation
Action
Which of the following describes structural scoliosis?
Altered bone shape through spine
Your client Ethan presents with an overactive/shortened quadriceps group, which is causing the hamstrings to be underactive/lengthened. What is this phenomenon called?
Altered reciprocal relationship
Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Confusion Unequivocal Ambivalence Ambiguity
Ambivalence
What are the building blocks of body proteins?
Amino acids Dietary protein is digested into amino acid building blocks, which are then used to assemble body proteins.
When observing sprint mechanics, which joint action should you see occurring in the rear leg if proper form is used?
Ankle plantar flexion
Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%?
Ankle sprains (not ACL)
Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome?
Anterior and posterior tibialis, gluteus maximus and medius
Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?
Anterior pelvic tilt
How is lower crossed syndrome characterized?
Anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine
Which of the following is a potential benefit of omega-3 fatty acids?
Anti-inflammatory properties
Vitamin K supplements should be avoided by those taking which type of medication?
Anticoagulants
What is a normal physiologic process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable?
Arteriosclerosis
How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise?
As far as can be controlled without compensating (as opposed to parallel with ground for overhead squat assessment)
What is the most appropriate way to conclude a sales presentation with a potential client?
Asking for the sale and scheduling the first session
What is the main role of a personal trainer?
Assess clients and make recommendations for exercise programming and other lifestyle changes
How can fitness professionals earn CEUs?
Attending fitness industry conferences
Which system supplies neural input to organs that run the involuntary processes of the body?
Autonomic nervous system
Exercise considerations for pregnant clients
Avoid exercises in a prone (on stomach) or supine (on back) position after 12 weeks of pregnancy. Avoid self-myofascial techniques on varicose veins and areas of swelling. Plyometric training is not advised in the second and third trimesters. Moderate- to high-intensity resistance exercise may be used in the first trimester if the client is accustomed to exercise; however, in the second and third trimesters, lower-intensity exercise programs are advised.
Exercise considerations for arthritic clients
Avoid heavy lifting and high repetitions. However, high repetitions with low load may be appropriate. Stay in pain-free ranges of motion. Start out with only 5 minutes of exercise, if needed, and progressively increase, depending on the severity of conditions. May use a circuit or peripheral heart action training system.
Exercise considerations for clients with cancer
Avoid heavy lifting in initial stages of training. Allow for adequate rest intervals, and progress client slowly. There may be a need to start with only 5 minutes of exercise and progressively increase, depending on the severity of conditions and fatigue. May use a circuit or peripheral heart action training system.
Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?
B vitamins
What term is used to describe combined muscle contraction (co-contraction) of the global muscles of the core?
Bracing
Which of the following exercises would be most likely to contribute to an acute increase in testosterone levels?
Back squats (Hormonal changes from exercise are generally acute in nature; thus, training responses are limited to these short-term changes. Acute hormone secretions also seem to be influenced to a greater degree when training larger muscles. For example, the back squat exercise (performed for 5 sets of 10 repetitions at 75% intensity) has been shown to increase testosterone levels for up to 45 minutes after training; however, the bench press was shown to not alter testosterone levels to the same extent as a squat when performed at the same training intensity.)
Which joint is the most mobile, able to move in all three directions?
Ball and socket
When it comes to barriers to exercise, which statement is correct? All individuals have "lack of time" as a barrier. Barriers never change; therefore, individuals need to focus on motives. Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active. It is impossible to ever fully overcome all barriers.
Barriers to exercise are often cited by people who are sedentary or infrequently active.
The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area? Eating disorders Behavioral change Social physique anxiety Depression
Behavioral change
Training zone 1
Below VT1 • Light to moderate • Starting to sweat but can still carry on a conversation effortlessly
Which of the following is considered an open-chain exercise?
Bench press
Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement?
Bench press strength assessment
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle?
Beta-oxidation
What is the process called that prepares fatty acid substrates to enter the citric acid cycle? Glycolysis Ketosis Acidosis Beta-oxidation
Beta-oxidation
Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?
Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels.
For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal?
Body fat loss (I feel like I missed this before, but idk why this is the right answer.)
Which of the following is true about body image? Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately. Body image is measured accurately based on an individual evaluating a picture of themselves. Body image is more positive in individuals who regularly exercise in a group setting. Body image is a very stable variable and, once established, rarely changes for an individual.
Body image may not match reality, and people may view their bodies in a negative way and evaluate themselves inaccurately.
What term best describes the amount of mineral content, such as calcium and phosphorous, in a segment of bone?
Bone density
Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Brachioradialis Biceps brachii Triceps brachii Brachialis
Brachioradialis
Which term best describes a class of chronic respiratory dysfunctions that are characterized by increased breathlessness, airflow limitation, and accelerated decline of lung function?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge?
Cleaning
For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated?
Clients in third trimester of pregnancy
Which of these exercises targets the triceps musculature?
Close grip bench (not ball cobra)
A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Reverse listing Stopping Acceptance Cognitive fusion
Cognitive fusion
A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used?
Complex training
Which statement best describes the local mechanical effect that occurs from myofascial rolling?
Compression to the local myofascia "relaxes" the tissues by increasing local blood flow and reducing myofascial restrictions and adhesions.
What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration?
Concentric
Robert is a recently retired military veteran. He has earned his NASM-CPT credential because he wants to help young people prepare for the physical demands of serving in the military. Which employment options provide him with the greatest access to potential clients in all geographic locations?
Conducting online coaching and personal training
Which of the following reasons for group exercise participation is described as having a schedule and being able to anticipate what the exercise experience will be like? Consistency Mindlessness Intensity Accountability
Consistency
Pattern Overload
Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, which may place abnormal stresses on the body
A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome? Lack of social support Lack of time Ambivalence Convenience
Convenience
Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness
Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities
Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Implementation intentions Coping responses Self-monitoring Resisting social pressure
Coping responses
Which of the following hormones, if increased at baseline, may be indicative of overtraining?
Cortisol (The presence of elevated basal levels of cortisol in the bloodstream is indicative of overtraining. Following exercise, cortisol levels may be elevated to aid in recovery and repair; however, this is transient.)
What marketing strategy would be most effective at helping a fitness professional tell a story and create an instantly recognizable level of service?
Creating a brand identity
A community could influence physical activity for its inhabitants by doing which of the following? Allowing more permits for fitness facilities to open Reducing the number of fast-food restaurants Limiting the number of sports leagues that are using a community center Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
Creating more green spaces, playgrounds, and walking trails
Scapular depression
Downward (inferior) motion of the scapula.
Which exercise primarily targets the transverse abdominis?
Drawing-in maneuver
Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?
Duodenum of small intestine
What are two ways to best improve the timely passage of food through the intestinal tracts and prevent constipation?
Ensure adequate water intake, and engage in an exercise program that is inclusive of both aerobic and resistance training
Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?
Environmental temperature
Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system?
Erector Spinae Not Transverse Abdominus
What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity?
Establishes top-of-mind presence
Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements?
Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction
Which of the following is true about cholesterol?
Exercise has been shown to help reduce high cholesterol.
At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?
Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.
In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Exercise leader Fitness manager General manager Certified Personal Trainer
Exercise leader
Companionship support
Exercising with someone Accompanying someone during an exercise session Finding physically active options for social gatherings
Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Family Exercise leader Exercise group The community
Family
How is Fartlek training best described?
Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.
Social physique anxiety is more prevalent in which population?
Females
When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?
Flexibility
When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing?
Forming and implementation intention
How is upper crossed syndrome characterized?
Forward head and protracted shoulders
What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers?
Frank Starling law of the heart
Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Lack of fatty acids Free hydrogen ions Depletion of phosphocreatine Lack of pyruvate
Free hydrogen ions
FITTE-VP
Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type, Enjoyment, Volume and Progression.
front medicine ball oblique throw
From an athletic position, bring the medicine ball to one hip and then explosive toss the ball to a wall or partner in front of you while keeping your hips and feet pointing straight ahead. Repeat on the opposite side.
Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion?
Frontal and sagittal
Scoliosis refers to deviations of the spine in which plane of motion?
Frontal plane
Why are proper frontside mechanics in sprinting important?
Frontside mechanics align the lead leg to optimally apply force into the ground to help propel the body forward.
Which type of scoliosis is influenced by improper muscle balance?
Functional (nonstructural) scoliosis
Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through?
Gluconeogenesis
Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2? Glucose Fat Protein Ketone bodies
Glucose
Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?
Gluteus maximus Not hip flexor complex.
A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue?
Glycogen stores were exhausted (Not fatty acid stores exhausted)
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Glycolysis
If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity?
Glycolysis Not ATPPC Oxydative phosphorylation or electron transport chain. For high-intensity activities lasting up to 2 minutes, glycolysis provides most of the energy for ATP production because, at this time point, the ATP-PC system would be exhausted and the oxidative phosphorylation system would not yet be fully activated.
Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? When process goals are too specific When outcome goals are objective When only one goal is set When goals are not adjusted
Goals not adjusted
An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. The group feels distinct from other people. Groups function only when all members are present. Groups rely only on the leader for support.
Group feels distinct from other people
The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Societal influence Peer pressure Group influence Health influence
Group influence
The deep longitudinal subsystem includes which of the following muscle groups?
Hamstrings and erector spinae
Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?
Having more mitochondria
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? Competition with others Improved physical appearance Being a part of a social group Health and well-being
Health and well-being
When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?
Health and well-being Not: Being part of a social group
Ball-and-socket joint
shoulder and hip
Vitamin K
Helps blood clot
At her annual physical, Claire found out her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg. According to this information, which statement is true?
Her systolic pressure is 110 and her diastolic pressure is 70.
During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Hip flexors Hip abductors Hip extensors Hip internal rotators
Hip abductors
Anterior pelvic tilt
Hip flexors and erector spinae are expected to be tight
The human body is uniquely designed to respond to stress and, if necessary, make changes to maintain optimal health and physiological functioning. What is this process called?
Homeostasis
Self-esteem is defined by which of the following? How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially How someone views their physical self or how they visualize their body When someone is anxious about how others view their body How someone conceptualizes their place in society
How someone evaluates their own self-worth physically, emotionally, and socially
A client wants to improve their deadlift. Which of the following is an outcome goal? I want to lift 3 times per week. I want to deadlift 300 pounds. I want to deadlift after work. I want to deadlift once per week.
I want to deadlift 300 lbs
A client wants to improve their mile time. Which of the following is an outcome goal?
I want to run a 6 min mile
What effect would sleep deprivation have on growth hormone and cortisol levels?
Inadequate sleep will decrease growth hormone and increase cortisol levels. (Inadequate sleep (sleep deprivation) will affect numerous hormones, which include growth hormone and cortisol. Specifically, a good night's sleep leads to lower levels of cortisol throughout the day and early evening, increased levels of growth hormone through the night, as well as better control of the thyroid hormones and glucose metabolism.)
Which of the following benefits may occur as a result of exercises that comprise only eccentric muscle actions that are appropriately loaded? Increased anabolic hormone stimulation Increased catabolic hormone stimulation Decreased anabolic hormone stimulation Decreased catabolic hormone stimulation
Increased anabolic hormone stimulation
What change would lead to an increase in cardiac output during exercise?
Increased heart rate
Catecholamines are responsible for which of the following actions?
Increased lipolysis
What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) external rotation exercise primarily target?
Infraspinatus and teres minor (rotator cuff complex)
Clients with an anterior pelvic tilt
Initial use of bicycles or steppers may not be warranted, or should be minimized, because the hips are placed in a constant state of flexion, adding to what may already be an overactive hip flexor complex for many clients. If they are used, emphasize flexibility techniques for the hip flexors before and after use. Additional strengthening exercises for the core and gluteal complex are also recommended.
Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury.
Injury resistance
Which term best describes core training's effect on decreasing the incidence of new injuries?
Injury resistance
A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Establish short- and long-term goals. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. Start establishing an emotional support system.
Inquire further about motives
Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?
Instrumental support
Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?
Instrumental support (wtf? Go back to original definitions)
Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training?
Insulin like growth factor (IGF)
Which of the following is unique to type 2 diabetes? The body has low levels of insulin. The pancreas does not make insulin. Insulin resistance It can develop regardless of a healthy diet.
Insulin resistance
What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna?
Long
Deconditioned
Loss of physical fitness, muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility and lack of core and joint stability.
How is a general warm-up best defined?
Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.
Activity recommendations
Moderate: 5 days/week. 150 mins Vigorous: 3 days per week. 75 mins 3-5 days. Combo of moderate and vigorous
Which of the following is magnesium classified as?
Macromineral
The B vitamins have a primary role in what?
Macronutrient metabolism B vitamins form cofactors and enzymes upon which metabolism is dependent.
At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest? Maintenance Precontemplation Contemplation Preparation
Maintenance
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Action Maintenance Contemplation Precontemplation
Maintenance
What stage of change is a person in if they have been exercising consistently for 6 months or longer? Action Maintenance Contemplation Precontemplation
Maintenance
Exercise considerations for diabetic clients
Make sure client has appropriate footwear, and have client or physician check feet for blisters or abnormal wear patterns. Advise client or class participant to keep a snack (quick source of carbohydrate) available during exercise to avoid sudden hypoglycemia. Avoid excessive plyometric training, and higher-intensity training is not recommended for clients with diabetes. Self-myofascial techniques may be contraindicated; a physician's approval is recommended.
Cable rotation, Cable lift exercises
Make sure to pivot the back leg into triple extension: • Hip extension • Knee extension • Ankle plantarflexion (extension)
Which statement best describes the final stage of the sales process?
Making sale by asking for financial commitment
Maria is interviewing for her first job as a fitness professional at a boutique fitness studio. Which previous experience would she want to make sure to discuss during the interview to demonstrate qualities of a Certified Personal Trainer?
Maria was repeatedly recognized as a top salesperson at the clothing store where she has been working.
Before studying to become an NASM Certified Personal Trainer, Kim worked as a copywriter for a large ad agency. Now that she is working as a personal trainer at a fitness studio, she is looking for additional income opportunities. Which of the following would provide her with the best option for increasing her earning potential?
Marketing her services as a writer to create blogs and social media posts for her studio as well as other fitness professionals in her area
Besides Power Training, which phase of training would be the best option for someone who is attempting to improve their Olympic weightlifting?
Maximal strength training
What part of a SMART goal involves being able to track progress?
Measurable
What are the two physiological responses that can occur from myofascial rolling?
Mechanical and neurophysiological response
Self-myofascial release (SMR)
Mechanism of action; autogenic inhibition. Training variables: 1-3 sets, for 30 secs
Which is a power-focused exercise for the back musculature?
Medicine ball pullover throw
Training zone 3
Midpoint to VT2 • Vigorous to very hard • Profuse sweating • Vigorous breathing and ability to talk is limited to short phrases
The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Ambition Motivation Initiative Aspiration
Motivation
Without a perceived discrepancy between a client's current state and making a change, what is lacking?
Motivation
What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? Affirming Reflective listening Motivational interviewing Collecting summaries
Motivational interviewing
Other than age, training history, and injury history, what screening tool is most beneficial in assessing whether a client is ready for plyometric training?
Movement assessments
closed chain exercise
Movement where the distal segment of the joint is fixed.
Individuals with low-back pain have decreased activation of which local muscle of the core?
Multifidus
Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Multifidus Rectus abdominis Gluteus maximus Erector spinae
Multifidus
Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important?
NEAT can be protective against obesity
Which structures of the body does osteoporosis commonly affect?
Neck of femur and lumbar vertebrae
What principle describes the nervous system's ability to recruit the correct muscles to perform movement?
Neuromuscular efficiency
What is the term for the chemical messengers that cross the synapse between the neuron and muscle and assist with nerve transmission?
Neurotransmitters
Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?
Non-exercise activity thermogenesis
Which type of joint includes the sutures of the skull?
Non-synovial
Blood pressure levels
Normal (healthy): < 120/80 mm Hg Elevated: Systolic between 120-129 and diastolic < 80 mm Hg Stage 1 hypertension: Systolic 130-139 or diastolic between 80-89 mm Hg Stage 2 hypertension: Systolic > 140 or diastolic > 90 mm Hg Hypertensive crisis: Systolic > 180 and/or diastolic > 120 mm Hg
Stages of hypertension
Normal BP: <120 systolic/<80 diastolic Elevated: systolic 120-129/<80 diastolic Stage 1 HTN: systolic 130-139/ 80-89 diastolic Stage 2 HTN: systolic >140/ >90 diastolic
Flexibility is defined as the following:
Normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows for complete range of motion
Altered reciprocal inhibition
Occurs when an overactive agonist muscle decreases the neural drive to its functional antagonist.
What do the letters OPT within the OPT model stand for?
Optimum Performance Training
A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive?
Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals (not hip adductors or glutes)
If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity?
Oxidative phosphorylation
Which system puts the body into a relaxed state, termed rest and digest?
Parasympathetic nervous system
Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Peers Exercise groups Parents The community
Parents
Which type of assessment measures overall strength, stability, muscular endurance, and agility?
Performance assessment
Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients?
Peripheral heart action system
One of the two interdependent divisions of the nervous system is the central nervous system. What is the second division? Select one: a. Autonomic nervous system b. Peripheral nervous system c. Sympathetic nervous system d. Somatic nervous system
Peripheral nervous system
Why is it important for fitness professionals to pay attention to their personal grooming when working in a fitness facility?
Personal trainers are professionals. Having a professional appearance can help ensure that clients treat personal trainers as the professionals they are.
Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club?
Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.
What are three postural distortion patterns to look for in static postural assessments?
Pes planus distortion syndrome, lower crossed syndrome, and upper crossed syndrome
In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes?
Phase 2
What phase of the OPT model would hypertrophy fall under?
Phase 3
Which phase of the OPT model introduces lifting near or at maximal intensity?
Phase 4
If you have a client who wants to increase speed, what phase of the OPT model would they fall into?
Phase 5
When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called?
Phosphorylation
Speed
The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible
What is the name for projections protruding from the bone to which tendons and ligaments attach?
Processes
Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires the use of appropriate professional communication in all verbal, nonverbal, and written transactions?
Professionalism
Exercise considerations for older adults
Progression should be slow, well monitored, and based on postural control. Exercises should be progressed if possible, toward free sitting (no support) or standing. Make sure the client is breathing in a normal manner and avoids holding their breath, as in a Valsalva maneuver. If the client cannot tolerate self-myofascial techniques or static stretches, they can opt for slow and controlled active and dynamic stretches.
Frontside Mechanics
Proper alignment of the lead leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle dorsiflexion, knee flexion, hip flexion, and neutral pelvis.
Backside Mechanics
Proper alignment of the rear leg and pelvis during sprinting, which includes ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and neutral pelvis.
What is a key mechanism involved in internal feedback?
Proprioception
What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?
Proprioception
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change? Encourage them to make plans to exercise Tell them to exercise with a friend Provide them with education and knowledge Help them identify barriers to exercise
Provide education and knowledge
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use?
Provide information on health benefits
What might a Certified Personal Trainer do for someone in the precontemplation stage of change?
Provide them with education and knowledge
Denise has just earned her NASM Certified Personal Trainer credential and has been hired at a health club. She hopes to attract and retain clientele to grow her business. What qualities would most help Denise be successful in her new career?
Providing accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results (A client could hire a Certified Personal Trainer for many reasons, but the services that a client pays for a expects are as follows: accountability, support, feedback and guidance, and results. If these are not met, it is likely the client will take their business elsewhere or quit altogether.)
Informational support
Providing accurate, current, and informative information.
A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Improving their confidence for their technique Providing information on the health benefits Helping them make a plan Helping make the exercises fun
Providing information on health benefits
Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following? Providing psychological benefits Winning a triathlon Developing intrinsic motivation Reducing burnout
Providing psychological benefits
Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment? Psychologist or psychiatrist Registered dietitian or nutritionist Corrective exercise specialist or certified exercise physiologist Certified Personal Trainer or certified fitness professional
Psychologist or phychiatrist
Prior to ever working with a client, what is the most important priority when starting an independent personal training business?
Purchasing liability insurance and appropriate business licenses
When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?
Pyruvate
Which of the following muscle groups work eccentrically in the sagittal plane during the lowering phase of the squat?
Quadriceps
Blood flow through the heart
R. atrium (deoxygenated), R. ventricle, [pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins (now oxygenated),] L. atrium, L ventricle, aorta, body
What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR)?
RMR is the number of calories that the body uses at rest to function.
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following? Prolonged amortization phase Absent stretch reflex Release of stored energy during concentric phase Rapid amortization phase
Rapid amortization phase
Improved performance during a plyometric jump is dependent upon which of the following?
Rapid amortization phase Not release of stored energy during concentric phase
Self-esteem and body image are said to have which type of relationship? Autonomous Reciprocal Unequal Independent
Reciprocal
What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists?
Reciprocal inhibition
When performing a dumbbell biceps curl, the biceps brachii is considered the agonist (prime mover), and the triceps become the inhibited antagonist. What is this phenomenon called?
Reciprocal inhibition
Posterior pelvic tilt
Rectus abdominis and hamstrings are thought to be tight
Core global muscles
Rectus abdominis, External abdominal obliques, Internal abdominal obliques, Erector spinae, Latissimus dorsi, Iliopsoas (iliacus + psoas)
Which activity best demonstrates evidence-based practice?
Referencing peer-reviewed research
This is a conversational technique that helps the listener express the supposed meaning of what was just heard. Open-ended questions Reflections Closed-ended questions Active listening
Reflections
A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client's goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?
Reflective listening
Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure?
Resting metabolism (But only for people who aren't exercising a lot...)
What is the primary goal of repeating flexibility training during a cool-down?
Restore optimal length-tension relationships
What disease is a condition in which fibrous lung tissue results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs?
Restrictive lung disease
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements? Stopping Reverse listing Cognitive fusion Imagery
Reverse Listening
What is the practice of identifying a negative inner narrative and replacing it with positive statements?
Reverse listing
What is the most effective way to learn more about a large health club company before an interview with a hiring manager?
Reviewing the company website and social media channels to learn about all the programs and services offered
Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?
Right ventricle
Core local muscles
Rotatores, Multifidus, Transverse abdominis, Diaphragm, Pelvic floor musculature, Quadratus lumborum
Susan's quadriceps have been identified as overactive. What type of flexibility training should be used first to help improve this muscle imbalance?
SMR and static stretching of the quads To reduce activity (contraction) stimulate lengthening directly.
What is a professional development technique that helps individuals identify their personal strengths and weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and potential threats to success?
SWOT Analysis
What movement term is used to describe the concept of adducting the shoulder blades so that they become closer together?
Scapular retraction
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client improve their technique by using guided practice to enhance confidence, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Self-efficacy Intention Self-regulation Outcome expectations
Self-efficacy
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Self-efficacy Intention Attitudes Outcome expectations
Self-efficacy
If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?
Self-efficacy (not intention, attitudes, or outcome expectation)
Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? Action planning Self-monitoring Enlisting social support Coping planning
Self-monitoring
What is an important step after conducting an interview with a potential employer?
Sending a handwritten thank you letter or email
Phase 3 resistance training protocols
Sets 3-6 Reps 6-12 Tempo Moderate Rest 0-3 Minutes Intensity N/A 12-20 reps allowed if additional muscular endurance is desired
Phase 2 resistance training protocols
Sets 2-4 Reps 8-12 (strength) 8-12 (stability) Tempo Moderate and Slow Rest 0-60 secs after each superset Intensity 8-12 RM
Phase 5 resistance training protocols
Sets 3-5 Reps 1-5 (strength) and 8-10 (power) Tempo Explosive Rest 1-2 minutes between pairs; 3-5 minutes between circuits Intensity 1-5RM and 8-10 RM, or 30-45% 1RM
Phase 1 resistance training protocols
Sets: 1-3 Reps: 12-20 Tempo: Slow Rest: 0-90 secs Intensity: 12-20 RM
Phase 4 resistance training protocols
Sets: 4-6 Reps: 1-5 Tempo: Explosive Rest: 0-3 minutes Intensity: 1-5 RM
General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)
Seyle's concept that the body responds to stress with alarm, resistance and exhaustion
What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?
Short term contractions
What is the dysfunction that occurs due to narrowing and rubbing of the soft tissue and bony structures of the shoulder?
Shoulder impingement
What anatomical heart structure is referred to as "the pacemaker of the heart"?
Sinoatrial node
Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Follower's qualities Situational factors Leader's qualities Leadership styles
Situational Factors
Which of the following is an optional component of an OPT workout and is based on client goals and fitness levels?
Skill development
Which characteristic is exhibited by type I muscle fibers?
Slow to fatigue
What exercise equipment should clients always use when performing plyometric training, due to its high-impact nature?
Supportive shoes This is dead wrong. But memorize it as though it were correct.
Which barrier to exercise is most likely to be associated with body image issues? Social physique anxiety Lack of social support Unrealistic goals Ambivalence
Social physique anxiety
Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system?
Somatosensory
What does optimal reactive performance of any activity depend on?
Speed of force generation
Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Health psychology Social psychology Sport and exercise psychology Developmental psychology
Sport and exercise psychology
Which of the fundamental movement patterns is a lower-body compound exercise?
Squatting Not hip hinge (full body)
What are the three levels of the OPT model?
Stabilization, Strength, Power
OPT Model Phases
Stabilization: 1. Stabilization Endurance Strength 2. Strength Endurance 3. Hypertrophy 4. Maximal Strength Power 5. Power
Davis's Law
States that soft tissue models along the lines of stress
Which of the following effects may occur if the amortization phase of a plyometric exercise is prolonged?
Stored energy will dissipate, and the unloading phase will be less powerful. (If the amortization phase is prolonged, stored energy will dissipate, the neurological stretch reflex will not be optimally activated, and the concentric "unloading phase" will be less powerful.)
What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction?
Stretch shortening cycle
The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what?
Stroke volume
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called? Change talk An affirmation A collecting summary Sustain talk
Sustain talk
When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?
Sustain talk Not: An affirmation
What is the neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when a synergist muscle takes over for a weak or inhibited muscle?
Synergistic dominance
sustain talk
Talk that represents and predicts movement away from change.
Informational support would be provided by which example?
Teaching a client how many minutes of cardio they should be accumulating each day
What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form? Appearance imagery Technique imagery Energy imagery Cognitive fusion
Technique imagery
Quickness
The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during dynamic activities. Examples of quickness include: • Hitting a baseball • Returning a tennis serve • Swerving to avoid a car accident
Which muscle would you be targeting for SMR if you placed the roller along the front and slightly lateral (outside) part of the upper thigh (just below the pelvis)?
Tensor fascia latae
LEFT
Tests lateral speed and agility
When working in a health club, what piece of equipment would it be essential to know the location of?
The AED, in case the personal trainer will need to perform CPR on a health club member
If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Glycolysis The ATP-PC system Oxidative phosphorylation The citric acid cycle
The ATP-PC system
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.
What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do?
The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. The ETC uses a series of protein complexes in the inner mitochondrial membrane to create a hydrogen ion gradient, which is then harvested to create ATP.
What is the most accurate description of motor control?
The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
What is the most accurate description of motor control? The integration of motor control processes through practice The cumulative changes in motor behavior over time, throughout the life span The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements The motor response to internal and external environmental stimuli
The ability to initiate and correct purposeful controlled movements
Agility
The ability to start (or accelerate), stop (or decelerate and stabilize), and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control. Examples of agility include: • Rapidly changing running direction to avoid a tackler in American football • Performing a crossover in basketball to attack the basket • Rapidly changing running direction in an obstacle course
What is end-systolic volume?
The amount of blood left in the ventricle right after ventricular contraction.
What is a kilocalorie (kcal)?
The amount of energy needed to raise 1 kilogram of water by 1 degree Celsius. It is also the same thing as 1 food calorie.
Which of the following defines the limits of stability of the body?
The area within which an individual can move their center of gravity without changing the base of support
Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? a. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension b. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension c. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation d. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion
The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension
Proprioception is best described as which of the following statements?
The body's ability to sense body position and limb movements Not: The brain's positional awareness of the limbs, head, and trunk both at rest and in movement
In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure?
The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.
Which of the following describes attitude?
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
Which of the following describes attitude? A construct that captures motivational factors that influence behavior The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior A person's confidence in their ability to meet their goal The belief that an important person or persons will support a behavior
The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior
Spotting checklist
The following checklist should be used by the fitness professional during spotting activities: • The spotter should regulate the number of total repetitions performed by the client prior to the beginning of each set. • The spotter should stand and maintain a stable, wide-stance body position to increase maximal safety of the corresponding exercise. • An experienced spotter delivers adequate and ample support for the client to successfully execute the lift, especially when lifting through the sticking point. • The Certified Personal Trainer is encouraged to spot at the client's wrists instead of the elbows when using dumbbells (i.e., in a dumbbell shoulder press). Spotting at the wrist provides better support for the lifter and eliminates the elbows collapsing inward. • During the barbell squat exercise, the spotter should be positioned behind the lifter and place their upper arms underneath the lifter's armpits. This provides maximum spotting security between the spotter and the lifter. • The Certified Personal Trainer is encouraged to use an additional spotter for exercises when the load surpasses what a single spotter can successfully manage on their own. For example, two spotters will stand on opposite sides of the barbell during a heavy barbell back squat exercise. When and if needed, the spotters will assist the client in accomplishing the movements by lifting the ends of the barbell until they are able to complete the exercise. • It is not recommended for fitness professionals to spot machine-based or cable-based exercises by placing their hands underneath the weight stack. This increases risk of injury to the spotter and the lifter.
Third class lever
The fulcrum is at one end of the bar and the effort is between the fulcrum and the resistance
Second class lever
The fulcrum is positioned at one end of the bar and the resistance is between the fulcrum and the effort
Lateral subsystem
The gluteus medius, tensor fascia latae, adductor complex, and quadratus lumborum comprise the
Synergistic Dominance
The neuromuscular phenomenon that occurs when inappropriate muscles take over the function of a weak or inhibited prime mover.
Balance training progression 2
The next progression involves dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion. The speed and neural demands of each exercise are progressed. Sample exercises include: Single-leg squat, Single-leg squat touchdown, Single-leg Romanian deadlift, Multiplanar step-up to balance, and Multiplanar lunge to balance
Plyometric training progression 2
The next progression involves jumps with more amplitude and dynamic motion. The speed of the jumps is also progressed. These exercises are performed in a repetitive fashion, spending a relatively short amount of time on the ground before repeating the drill. In other words, the client will no longer hold the landing position for 3-5 seconds but instead initiate another jump upon landing using a moderate (repeating) tempo. Some example exercises include: Squat jump, Tuck jump, Butt kick, and Power step-up
Core training progression 2
The next progression is to involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine throughout a full range of motion. In other words, these exercises involve flexion, extension, and rotation of the trunk. In this progression, specificity, speed, and neural demands are also increased using moderate to fast repetition tempos. Sample exercises include: Floor crunch, Ball crunch, Back extension, Reverse crunch. Knee-up. Cable rotation, Cable lift, and Cable chop
What is explained by the sliding filament theory?
The shortening of a sarcomere to produce a muscle contraction
What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears
reciprocal inhibition
The simultaneous contraction of one muscle and the relaxation of its antagonist to allow movement to take place
What are triglycerides?
The stored form of fat
Force-couple relationship
The synergistic action of multiple muscles working together to produce movement around a joint.
Instrumental support
The tangible things that assist people with the ability to exercise, such as providing transportation to a fitness facility, assisting with childcare, or packing someone's gym bag.
What is cardiac output?
The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute
Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever?
Third class
Why is the shoulder stand yoga pose considered to be a controversial upper-body stretch?
This stretch provides excessive stress to the neck, shoulders, and spine.
Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where?
Thoracic spine
What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema?
Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles
What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training?
To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness
What measurement is dependent upon the length of the lever arm and the angle between the force application and the lever arm?
Torque Not force
Static stretching
Training variables: 1-3 sets, 30 seconds
In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?
Transverse Not frontal (even though that's what the study guide says?)
During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?
Transverse plane
Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise?
Transverse plane box jump down
Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement?
Two-arm push press
Which condition is an example of a chronic disease?
Type 2 Diabetes
Local muscles typically consist of which type of muscle fibers?
Type I
Which type of muscle fiber has a large number of capillaries?
Type I
A client is performing a barbell squat exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client?
Underneath the armpits
BMI (body mass index)
Underweight - Less than 18.5 Normal - 18.5 - 24.9 Overweight - 25 - 29.9 Obese - 30 - 34.9 Obese II 35 - 39.9 Obese III > 40
What type of periodization uses changes in volume and intensity on a daily or weekly basis?
Undulating
Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization?
Undulating periodization
Antirotational exercises are often this sort of movement by nature.
Unilateral
What is something that allows a fitness professional to stand out from others in featuring their services?
Unique selling proposition (USP)
Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?
Upper trapezius and levator scapula
Scapular elevation
Upward (superior) motion of the scapula.
Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location?
Vertical skinfold 1 inch lateral to the belly button
Asking a client to turn their head side to side during a balance exercise would challenge which system?
Vestibular (ear and balance)
Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space?
Visual system
Which vitamin has an increased risk of causing toxicity?
Vitamin A
What is defined as the number of foot contacts, throws, or catches occurring during a plyometric exercise session?
Volume Not frequency (number of times per week)
A client with osteoporosis has been medically cleared to perform exercise. Which form of training can have the most impact on increasing the client's bone mineral density?
Walking Moreso than cycling, water aerobics, or swimming.
SAQ (Rest Interval)
Weight loss 15-60 secs Youth Athletes Aging
Which of the following best demonstrates an example of exercise?
Weightlifting
Which of the following is an open-ended question?
What can you tell me about your past exercise experiences?
Altered length-tension relationship
When a muscle's resting length is too short or too long, reducing the amount of force it can produce.
Core training progression 1
When initiating a core training program, exercises should initially focus on stabilization through the spine and pelvis without gross movement of the trunk. These exercises are designed to improve neuromuscular efficiency and intervertebral stability, focusing on drawing-in and then bracing during the exercises. These exercises primarily target the local core muscles. Sample exercises include: Marching, Floor bridge, Ball bridge, Floor cobra, Ball cobra, Fire hydrant, Plank, Side plank, Dead bug, Bird dog, Pallof press, and Farmer's carry
Balance training progression 1
When introducing balance exercises into an exercise program, the exercises should initially involve little joint motion of the balance leg. These entry-level balance exercises are designed to improve reflexive (automatic) muscle contractions to increase joint stability. Sample exercises include: Tandem stance, Single-leg balance, Single-leg balance reach, Single-leg hip internal and external rotation, Single-leg lift and chop, Single-leg arm and leg motion, Single-leg windmill and Single-leg throw and catch
Plyometric training progression 1
When introducing plyometric exercises, especially to new or beginner clients, the movements should initially involve small jumps (lower amplitude) to best learn the movement pattern. When an individual lands during these exercises, they should hold the landing position (or stabilize) for 3-5 seconds. During this time, individuals should make any adjustments necessary to correct faulty postures before performing the next jump. Example exercises include: Squat jump with stabilization, Box jump-up with stabilization, Box jumpdown with stabilization, and Multiplanar jump with stabilization
Cognitive fusion
When people believe the exact content of their own thoughts.
Lordosis (swayback)
abnormal, inward curvature of a portion of the lower portion of the spine
Emotional support
being caring, empathetic, and concerned about someone's experience with exercise
Frontal plane
bisects the body to create front and back halves. Movements *in* the frontal plane include abduction and adduction of the limbs (relative to the trunk), lateral flexion of the spine, and eversion and inversion at the foot and ankle complex.
Irregular bones
bones of the vertebrae and face
Short bone
cube-shaped bone that is approximately equal in length, width, and thickness; provides limited motion
kyphosis
excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back.
open chain exercise
exercise in which a distal segment of the body moves freely in space
Transverse plane
horizontal division of the body into upper and lower portions Movements *in* the transverse plane include internal rotation and external rotation for the limbs, right and left rotation for the head and trunk, horizontal abduction and horizontal adduction of the limbs, and radioulnar pronation and supination
Synergistic Dominance (Example)
if the psoas (agonist) is tight, it leads to (altered reciprocal inhibition) of the gluteus maximus (antagonist muscle), which in turn results in increased compensation from the hip extensuion (hamstring complex, adductor magnus) aka (synergists muscles) to function for the weaken gluteus maximus. The faulty movement patterns above could lead to hamstring sprains.
Hip flexor, adductor, and latisimus dorsi stretches
posteriorly rotate pelvis to increase effectiveness of stretch
What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?
precontemplation, contemplation, preparation, action, maintenance
Frozen shoulder
refers to adhesions forming in the capsule of connective tissue in the shoulder, tightening around the shoulder joint
restrictive lung disease
the condition of fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs
GAS alarm stage
the initial reaction to a stressor, can include fatigue, joint stiffness, or delayed onset muscle soreness
Frank-Starling Law of the Heart
the more the heart fills with blood during diastole, the greater the force of contraction during systole
Undulating periodization
uses changes in volume, intensity, and exercise selection to provide loading differences on a daily or weekly basis
series elastic component (SEC)
when stretched, stores elastic energy that increases the force produced
Exercise considerations for hypertensive clients
• Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers—make sure client breathes normally. • Do not let client overgrip weights or clench fists when training. • Modify tempo to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle actions. • Perform exercises in a standing or seated position. • Allow client to stand up slowly to avoid possible dizziness. • Progress client slowly. • Use circuit or peripheral heart action system (PHA) weight training as an option, with appropriate rest intervals. Tempo should not exceed 1 second for isometric and concentric portions of the lift.
Exercise considerations for clients with coronary heart disease
• Be aware that clients may have other diseases to consider as well, such as diabetes, hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, or obesity. • Modify tempo or pace to avoid extended isometric and concentric muscle actions. • Avoid heavy lifting and Valsalva maneuvers—make sure client breathes normally. • Do not let client overgrip weights or clench fists when training. • Perform exercises in a standing or seated position. • Progress exercise slowly. • Use circuit or peripheral heart action system (PHA) weight training as an option, with appropriate rest intervals. Tempo should not exceed 1 second for isometric and concentric portions of the lift
Exercise considerations for overweight or obese clients
• Make sure client is comfortable—be aware of positions and locations in the facility your client is in. • Exercises should be performed in a standing or seated position. • Clients may have other chronic diseases; in such cases, a medical release should be obtained from the individual's physician. • Resistance exercises performed in a circuit-training manner, with higher repetitions, such as 20, may be used if tolerated by the individual.
Exercise considerations for clients with osteoporosis
• Progression should be slow, well monitored, and based on postural control. • Exercises should be progressed, if possible, toward free sitting (no support) or standing. • Focus exercises on hips, thighs, back, and arms. • Avoid excessive spinal loading on squat and leg press exercises. • Make sure the client is breathing in normal manner and avoids holding their breath, as in a Valsalva maneuver.
Exercise considerations for clients with lung disease
• Upper-body exercises cause increased dyspnea and must be monitored. • Allow for sufficient rest between exercises. • Peripheral heart action training system is recommended.